PPL Q. Bank (Al)

Question Bank PPL
Subject: Air Law

Questions on – Legislation
1. ICAO publishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced worldwide without
exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of
the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law
2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?
a) 6 b) 14 c) 9 d) 11
3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?
a) 14 b) 11 c) 6 d) 18
4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?
a) Annex 11 b) Annex 10 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 15
5. How many ICAO Annexes are there?
a) 17 b) 18 c) 19 d) 16
6. What is cabotage?
a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier
b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country
7. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be
considered
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
b) Binding for all member states.
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of
passengers and luggage?
9. What does cabotage permit?
a) Internal air services by aircraft in its own state b) Internal air services by a national
carrier
c) Internal air services by a non-national d) Internal air services without passengers on
board
10. What is the objective of ICAO?
a) To assist states to purchase aircraft b) To help airlines set up
c) To assist with improving international aviation d) To train pilots for international
aviation
11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance
of international crew licences?
a) Annex 9 – Facilitation b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft d) Annex - 17 Security
12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?
a) Annex 9 – Facilitation b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous
Goods
c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
13. When and where were the objectives of ICAO ratified?
a) Chicago 1944 b) Paris 1919 c) Rome 1953 d) Geneva 1946
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
15 Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?
16. Cabotage indicates:
a) Crop spraying b) A national airline c) A flight over territorial water
d) Right to restrict internal services to operators of that State only
17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for
adoption by the Council?
a) The Assembly b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The council itself d) The air navigation commission
18. The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended
Practices (SARPS) for personnel licensing is:
19. High Seas are defined as?
a) Sea areas more than 200 nm form the closest shore
b) Sea areas outside territorial waters of any state
c) Sea areas more than 12 nm form the closest shore
d) Sea areas more than15 nm form the closest shore
20. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
a) Paris b) London c) New York d) Montreal
21. A captain is authorized in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is
suspected to be about to commit an offence, to:
a) Disable him b) Require passengers to assist in restraining
c) Request cabin crew to assist d) Deliver the person to the appropriate
authority
22. What/who is responsible for the adoption of international standards?
a) The Assembly b) The Council c) The Secretariat d) The Regional Planning Group
23. What does the acronym PANOPS mean?
a) Procedure for operations b) Procedure for RNAV Operations
c) Standard operating Procedure d) Procedures for Air Navigation, Operations of
aircraft
24. What is the status of IATA?
a) it is an associate body of ICAO b) It represents the air transport
operators at ICAO
c) It is an international legislative arm of ICAO
d) It is a trade association of operators and others involved with international
aviation
25. ICAO convention shall be applicable only to:
a) State aircraft b) Civil aircraft
c) State aircraft and civil aircraft d) Civil aircraft and military aircraft
26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would
jeopardize the safety of the aircraft; the PIC may:
a) request the crew to detain the passenger b) ask the passenger to disembark
c) order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) hand him/her over to the authorities
27. From which convention was ICAO formed?
a) Warsaw b) Montreal c) Chicago d) Rome
28. For how long are members of the ICAO Council appointed to sit on the council?
a) 3 Years b) 1 Year c) 2 Years d) 4 Years
29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?
a) First freedom b) Fourth freedom c) Third freedom d) Second
freedom
30. The first freedom of the air allows:
a) Over-flight only b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons d) Carriage of mail cargo
31. What does ICAO call the process of handling of passengers and their baggage?
a) Cabotage b) Application c) Expedition d) Facilitation
32. Which shall be deemed to be state aircraft?
a) Military b) Customs c) Police d) all of above
33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3 rd
d) 4th
34. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board
b) Land for technical reasons c) Cabotage d) Over-fly a State without
landing
35. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with Rules of the air?
36. ICAO has how many geographic regions?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
37. What is the meaning of FOD?
a) Foreign object detection b) Foreign object detachment
c) Foreign object destruction d) Foreign object damage
38. ICAO has how many main divisions?
a)5 b)7 c)9 d)6
39. What is the abbreviation of aircraft?
a) ac b) Ac c) a/c d) acft
40. What is the meaning of RVSM?
a) Reduced vertical separation measurement b) Reduced visual separation minima
c) Reduced vertical separation minima d) Reported vertical separation minima
41. Level when used as generic term means:
a) height b) altitude c )flight level d) all of above
42. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft,
excluding apron is known as:
a) manoeuvring area b) movement area c)operating area d) apron
43. Which one of the followings is special use airspace?
a) prohibited area b)danger areac)restricted area d) all of above
44. Night means:
a)Hours between sunrise to sunset b) Hours between sunset to sunrise c) Hours
between end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight d) Hours
between 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise
45. Bangladesh falls into which geographic region of ICAO?
a) Middle East b) Asia c)Mid Asia d) South Asia
46. Bangladesh is a member of:
a) FAA b) JAA c) ICAO d) ECAC
47. What defines a danger area?
a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air
b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
d. Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist
48. What is the name of the part of a land aerodrome used for the purposes of loading and
unloading passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking or maintainace?
a. Apron b. Ramp c. Stands d. Parking Bays
49. RNAV stands for:
a. Area navigation b Radio navigation c .Route navigation d. Radar navigation
50. The abbreviated form of runway is:
a. R/W b.RWY c.RW d. R/Way
Answer s to Quest ions on Air Legislation (International Agreements and
Organizations)
1C 2C 3A 4A 5B 6A 7C 8B 9C 10 C
11 B 12 A 13 A 14 D 15 D 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 D 27 C 28 A 29 D 30 A
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 B 35D 36C 37D 38A 39D 40C
41D 42A 43D 44C 45B 46C 47D 48A 49A 50B
Questions on- Personnel Licensing
1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a PPL licence?
a) 17 b) 21 c) 16 d) 18
2. Which cannot be used in registration?
a. TTT b. LLL c. RCC d. FFF
a. NNN b.RCC c. XXX d. DPD
a. RCC b.SOS c. LLL d. FFF
5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Private Pilot's Licence is to:
a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations
b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
c) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air
transportation
d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in non-revenue flights
6. Which letters are prohibited for registration marks?
a) 4 letters international codes b) 5 letters combination used in international codes
of signal
c) 4 letters preceded by Q d) Any letter referring to an ICAO
document
7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) after the 21st day of illness has elapsed b) on the 21stday of the illness
c) after a month d) after medical has expired
8. To obtain a PPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 10 hrs b) 05 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 20 hrs
9. What medical is required for the issue of a PPL?
a) Class 1 b) As required by ICAO c) Class 2 d) None of the above
10. What is the validity of Class 2 medical?
a) 1 Year b) 2Years c) 5 Years d) 3 Year
11. For a PPL how many night hours are required?
a) 10 b) 15 c) nil d) 5
12. For a PPL, how many solo cross-country hours are required?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25
13. For a PPL, at least one flight of not less than ----- nm is required:
a.100 b.125 c.150 d.200
14. For a PPL, at least one flight of not less than 150 nm is required which to include full stop
landing at -- - different airfield(s):
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
15. Which of the following registration marks cannot be used in registration?
a) G-PRAT b) SY-PAN c) 3T-SSS d) YT-LLL
16. For a PPL minimum how many hours are required?

a) 50 b) 40 c) 55 d) 45
17. When time in a synthetic trainer is permitted for PPL, it is limited to--- hr?
a) 10 b) 5 c) 7 d) nil
18. What is the minimum age of an applicant for a student’s pilot license?
a) 17 b) 16 c) 18 d) 21
19. In Bangladesh, a student pilot shall not undertake a cross-country flight unless he has a
minimum of -- - - hours of solo flight time:
a) 5 hr b) 15hr c) 10hr d) 20hr
20. In Bangladesh ,a cross-country fligh,t applicable to a student pilot, means a flight to a
point beyond a redius of--------- from the aerodrome of departure:
a) 25 nm b) 15 nm c) 20 nm d) 30 nm
21. According to CAR’84, what classes of medical exist?
a) Class 1 only b) Classes 1, 2 & 3 c) Classes 1 & 2 d) Classes 1, 2, 3
&4
22. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) The date of the assessment b) The date the certificate delivered to the
pilot
c) The date of licence issue d) The date of the revalidation of the licence
23. The minimum age for a PPL holder is:
a) 18 years b) 17 years c) 16 years d) 15 years
24. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum
specification for a crew member's licence to be recognized by Contracting States?
25. A PPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
a) 40 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time b) 35 hours flight
time
c) 30 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time d) 50 hours flight
time
26. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered aircraft?
a) S2-ACO b) S -ACO c) BD-ACO d) BD-ACX
27. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered military aircraft?
a) S2-ACO b) MI-ACO c) DF-ACO d) S3-ACX
28. Completed journey logbook shall be retained to provide a continuous record of:
a) The last three months operation b. The last six months operation
b) The last two months operation c. The last thirty minutes operation
Answers to Questions on 5 Personnel Licensing
1A 2A 3C 4B 5D 6B 7A 8B 9C 10 C
I1 C 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 B 17 B 18 B 19C 20B
21B 22A 23B 24C 25B 26A 27D 28B
Quest ions on Rules of the air
1. In Bangladesh, A VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilot shall not be cleared for
any airfield or X-Ctry flight, when ETA is----- at the destination
a) Before SS b) within 30 minutes before SS
c) within 24 minute before SS d) 5 minutes before SS
2. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?
a) The State b) The Operator c) The Commander d) The owner
3. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:
a) on the Captain's initiative b) whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled
airspace
c) if told by ATC d) at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather
situation
4. Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red b) Steady green c) Flashing green d) White
5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
d) The same as class D
7. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to
take off from an aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000m b) 1500m c) 30000m d. 1500ft
8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a) cleared to land
b) return for landing and await clearance to land
c) give way to other landing aircraft
d) land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron
9. Before an aircraft is taxied on the maneuvering area of and aerodrome for the purpose of take-off, the P-I-C
shall:
a) Enter the runway and take off immediately
b) Check that the radio apparatus fitted to the aircraft and to be used in flight is functioning corrections
c) Ask ATC what to do d. None is correct
10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing
green light. What does it mean?
a) Return to start point b) Clear to taxi c) Clear to take off d)
Stop
11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a) Rocking wings b) Flashing lights c) Cut across track d) Breaking turn up and
left
12. Which has priority to land?
a) A hospital flight b) An emergency c) A military flight d) A VIP flight
13. In Bangladesh, a local VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilots shall land back:
a. Before SS b. 30 minutes before SS c. 24 minute before SS d. 5 minutes before SS
14. Which of these is not a distress frequency?
1. 121.5 MHz 2. 2182 KHz 3. 243.0 KHz 4. 2430 KHz
a) 4 only b) 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4
15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C
16. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the tower.
What does it mean?
a) Stop b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft d) You are not clear to take off
17. Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering
the CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
c) A has right of way if B is on the right d) B has right of way if A is on the left
18. As per ICAO what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to
take off from an aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000 m b) 1500 m c) 3000 m d. 1500 ft
19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC
and
include the phrase:
a) "Cancelling my flight plan" b) "Cancelling my flight"
c) "Cancelling my IFR flight" d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"
20. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?
a) Waving the arms across the face b) Drawing the palm across the throat
c) Clenching raised fists d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward
21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you
must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C b) A 0020 Mode C c) A 5300 Mode C d) A 7620 Mode C
22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 50 minutes before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure
c) 10 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time
23. Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an
aircraft in distress?
a) Code 7500 b) Code 7700 c) Code 7000 d) Code 7600
24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the
intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz d) 243.0 MHz - 125.5 MHz
25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not
comply with ATC instructions. You should:
a) select code 7500 A on your transponder
b) ask ATC for different instructions
c) comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
d) comply with ATC instructions
26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the
arms outwards. What does this signal indicate?
a) clear to move forward
b) brakes off
c) remove chocks
d) clear to close all engines
27. When is a flight plan required?
a. For all flights b. For all IFR flights c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace
d. For all flights which require an air traffic service
28. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at
cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight
Plan by at least plus or minus
a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%
29. In which of the following cases, ATC is to be notified if the ETA is found to be an error of:
a. 3minutes b. 4 minutes c. 2 minutes d All of above
30. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted above:
a. FL 150 b. FL 200 c .FL 60 d. TL
31. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted:
a. Above FL 150 b. Between SS and SR c .At transonic and supersonic speed d. All above
32. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less
than-------- above the highest obstacle within a radius of 6000m from the aircraft:
a. 2000ft b. 1000ft c . 500ft d. 3000ft
33. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over an open air assembly of persons at a height less
than ------ -- above the highest obstacle within a radius of 6000m from the aircraft:
a. 1000ft b. 2000ft c . 500ft d. 3000ft
34. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less
than-1000ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of --------- from the aircraft:
a. 5km b. 6000m c . 600m d. 3000m
35. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over the high terrain at a height -------- above the
highest obstacle within a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a. 1000ft b. 2000ft c . 500ft d. 3000ft
36. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over mountainous areas at a height less than --------
above the highest obstacle within a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a. 1000ft b. 2000ft c . 500ft d. 3000ft
37. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over high terrain or mountainous areas at a height
less than 2000ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of --------- of the estimated
position of the aircraft:
a. 5km b. 6000m c . 8km d. 3km
38. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a

common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to you may proceed?
a. Continue b. Proceed c. May proceed d. You proceed
39. In the signals area an aerodrome, a red square with diagonal yellow diagonals (cross)
means:
a. landing prohibited b. gliders are operating c. helicopters are operating d. special
landing
40. VFR Flight cruising on magnetic track 220 degrees shall select level:
a. FL130 b. FL135 c. FL140 d. FL145
41. Weather minima for the VFR flight within control zone:
a) Visibility 5 km ; ceiling 1000 ft b) Visibility 3 km ;ceiling 1000 ft
c Visibility 3 km ; ceiling 1500 ft d) Visibility 5 km ;ceiling 1500 ft
42. What is the VMC limits for class B airspace at 10,000ft?
a. 8km b. 5km c. 3km d. 6km
43. What is the VMC limits for class D airspace at 4,000ft?
a. 8km b. 5km c. 3km d. 5nm
44. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his
flight in
accordance with VFR until destination:
1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling
my IFR
flight"
2) He/she must request and obtain clearance
3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled
4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight which of the following combinations
is
correct?
a) 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 1 and 4
45. What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed?
a) 30 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 60 minutes d) 60 minutes
46. After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an
uncontrolled flight?
a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) 60 mins
47. You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some
reason. What do you do?
a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact
b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation
c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours
48. In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or
cancelled and a new flight plan must be filed, when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
b) 60 minutes more than the estimated off-blocks time
c) 30 minutes more than the estimated departure time
d) 60 minutes more than the estimated departure time
49. When two or heavier than air aircraft are approaching to land, which one has the right of way:
a) The faster aircraft has he right of way b)The bigger aircraft has the right of way
c) The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way d) None of the above.
50. Weather minima for VFR flight within control zone is:
a) Ceiling 1000 ft, visibility 8 KM b) Ceiling 1500 ft, visibility 8 KM
c) Ceiling 1000 ft, visibility 5 KM d) Ceiling 1500 ft, visibility 5 KM
Answers to Rules of the Air
1C 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7C 8B 9B 10B
11D 12B 13B 14D 15D 16B 17D 18B 19C 20C
21A 22B 23B 24A 25C 26C 27D 28C 29B 30A
31D 32B 33A 34C 35B 36B 37C 38B 39A 40D
41D 42A 43B 44C 45A 46D 47C 48A 49C 50D
Specimen Quest ions for practice on Legislation and Rules of the air
1. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a. World War I b. The Korean War
c. World War II d. The American War of Independence
2. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?
a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median
line forming a boundary with another state
d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters
3. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?
a. International law
b. The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c. The ICAO law d. The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area
4. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the
commander have to obey the law of France?
a. Yes at all times
b. No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
c. Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
d. Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority
what he
should do
5. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:
a. A regular series of flights from one place to another
b. Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a
bilateral
agreement between the two states
c. Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
d. Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air
6. Do any rules of the air exist over international waters (high seas areas)?
a. Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
b. No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c. Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d. Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane
7. With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to:
a. Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour
b. Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the
Chicago
Convention c. Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordination centre (RCC)
d. Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR
8. The governing body of ICAO is:
a. The Assembly b. The Councilc. The Secretariat c. The Montreal HQ
9. ICAO has 7 regions, but how many regional offices:
a.9 b.8 c.7 d.10
10. ICAO has 7 regional offices, but how many regions:
a.7 b.8 c.9 d.10
11. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered
to prosecute such an offence?
a. Interpol b. The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c. The Authority of the State of the Operator
d. ICAO through the International Court at The Hague
12. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?
a. 2000 b. 7777 c. 7600 d. 7500
13. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to
act as commander?
a. The passengers b. The Operator
c. The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d. The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
14. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?
a. No b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over
15. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges
of the licence. What else must you carry?
a. Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself
b. Your valid medical certificate c. Your valid medical certificate or your
passport
d. Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that
confirms you
identity as stated on your licence
16. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you
are unwell. Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a. Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b. Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c. Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure d. The need to wear dark glasses
17. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain
medical concerns. One such situation is:
a. A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient b. Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
c. Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
d. Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading
18. It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is
the aeroplane required to be lit?
a. Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated
b. Only if the engines are running
c. No d. Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome
19. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe
(capacitive discharge) lights. You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights
are creating a stroboscopic effect that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the
strobe lights off?
a. No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b. Yes but only because it is daylight c. No because you are flying IFR d. Yes
20. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a
safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
a. No, he only needs to be a qualified observer
b. No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make c. Yes
d. No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that
renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying
21. Ìf you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or
avoid the formed traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
a. Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome b. If you are aware that the aerodrome
is there
c. If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
d. Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ
22. When is a flight plan is required?
a. For all flights b. For all IFR flights
c. For all VFR flights in controlled airspace d. For all flights which require an air traffic
service
23. When is a flight plan not required?
a. For VFR flights crossing international boundaries
b. For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross
the
boundary
c. For VFR flights in advisory airspace d. For flights over distances less than 50Km at
night
24. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight
plan is
submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other
information is
required regarding the type of aeroplane?
a. Wake turbulence category b. Optimum cruising Mach number
c. Maximum un-pressurized cabin altitude d. Minimum equipment list
25. When is a flight plan `closed'?
a. When it is complete and ready for filing
b. When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
c. When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
d. On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome
26. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?
a. Prior to operating any controlled flight b. Prior to entry into controlled
airspace
c. Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing
at several aerodromes en route
27. If you suffer RCF during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an
Estimated Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what
do you do?
a. Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible
b. Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c. Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then
squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
d. Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach
in VMC
28. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead,
slightly to the left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this
mean?
a. Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of
them!)
b. You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c. You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d. The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must
be
reported by AIRPROX procedures
29. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b. If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c. If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d. If the cloud ceiling is more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less
30. Unless authorized, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a. FL150 b. FL245 c. FL200 d. FL 180
31. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle
within 600m radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or
water?
a. En route outside of an ATZ b. Over the sea within gliding distance of the
shore
c. In class G airspace in daylight d. Only where necessary for take -off and
landing
32. You are flying in class G airspace when you see a series of red and green projectiles /star
shells fired at 10 seconds intervals in your vicinity. What does it probably mean?
a. You are about to enter a Danger area unauthorizedly
b. You are about to enter a Restricted area unauthorizedly
c. It . You are about to enter a Prohibited area unauthorizedly
d. all of above
33. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain
VMC
much longer. What should you do'?
a. File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance
b. If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest
suitable
aerodrome
c. Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
d. Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic
Controllers
sort it out.
34. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that
there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to
taking
avoiding action. What should you do?
a. Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is
exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b. Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c. Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d. Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared
35. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider
before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a. What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b. How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC c. How much day light is
left
d. Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach
at the
destination
36. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR
in class A
airspace?
a. In good VMC b. Above 24 500 ft
c. Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d. When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique
37. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to
maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a. No b. Yes, always
c. Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d. Yes if you are flying in IMC
38. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what
proword do you prefix the message with?
a. Help b. Mayday c. Pan Pan d. Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
39. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt
to
communicate with the military pilot?
a. The frequency in use b. 121.500 MHz c. 119.100 MHz
d. 123.450 MHz
40. You are flying in class G airspace when you see a series of red and green projectiles /star
shells fired at 10 seconds intervals in your vicinity. What does it probably mean?
a. You are about to enter or flying in a danger area
b. Somebody is in distress and needs your help
c. It is a Christmas day d. You are intercepted
41. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you
from the tower, what does it mean?
a. Give way to an approaching aeroplane b. Return to the starting point
c. Stop d. Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway
42. You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red
pyrotechnic flare fired from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what
does the flare mean?
a. The Tower controller is scaring the birds away
b. An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately c. You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
d. Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being
43. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published
hours of the ATC watch. You see a yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and
what must you do?
a. It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that
you are
clear to continue taxiing
c. It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.
44. A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean?
a. Glider flying is in progress
b. Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction
c. Right hand circuit in force
d. Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome
45. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for
parking. You see a man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically
above his head. What does this mean?
a. I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane.
b. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into
this
parking bay
c. This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately
46. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do
you indicate to the marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first?
a. Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst
pointing
to no 2 engine
b. Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c. Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a
clenched fist
d. Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine
is starting
47. Where does the missed approach procedure start?
a. At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase
b. At the missed approach point (MAPt)
c. At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued
d. At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach
48. When does night exist?
a. During the hours of darkness b. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes
after sunrise
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
d. During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
49. Who is the PIC?
a. The Commander b. The pilot appointed as captain of the crew
c. The pilot who for the time being is in charge of the controls of the aeroplane
d. A pilot who is responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time
50. When may you fly over a town at a height from which it would not be possible to land
safely in the event of an emergency arising?
a. Never b. Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with ground
c Only when the operator has given permission d. During take-off and landing
51. When are navigation lights required to be shown?
a. From sunset to sunrise when specified by the authority
b. When moving on the movement area of an aerodrome or flying at night
c. when the PIC thinks sensible d. At night or when specified by the authority
52. In broad day light you are about to start engines. Do you need to switch any light on?
a. Yes, nav lights to indicate the aircraft is manned
b. No, a clear call of ‘clear prop’ is enough
c. If the aeroplane has an anti-collision light that should be switched on
d. On apron yes, elsewhere on the movement area no
53. If you are flying under simulated IMC, what is the safety pilot required to be able to see?
a. ahead and either side of the aircraft b. The instruments
c. All around the aircraft d. Either side of the aircraft
54. You have just taken off from an aerodrome for which there is not an ATZ operating. Which direction is required
to turn after departure?
a. Left b. Right c. There is no set rule d. At pilot discretion that will put him on track
55. An IFR flight cruising on magnetic track 070 degree shall select level:
a. FL130 b. FL135 c. FL140 d. FL145
56. The air traffic service is responsible for:
a. Air traffic control b. Air space allocation
c. The integration of different civil and military air operation
d. All of the above
57. When two aircrafts are approaching head on or approximately so, when there is a chance of collision each shall
alter its heading:
a. To the left b. To the right
c. Any direction he feels safe d. Dive to pass under
58. To indicate that a pilot is compelled to land, a pilot should:
a. switch landing light and /or navigation lights ON and OFF
b. Take no special action c. fire a red flare d. Fire a green flare
59. To indicate that a pilot is compelled to land, a pilot should:
a. switch landing light and /or navigation lights ON and OFF
b. Take no special action c. fire a red flare d. Fire a green flare
60. If two aircraft in flight are well separated but on a collision course, the aircraft with the other on its right should:
a. give way by turning right b. give way by turning left
c. maintain its course and speed d. climb
61. At 1000 hr Bangladesh time, what is the Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC)?
a. 0900 b. 0400 c. 0500 d. 0600
62. The abbreviated form of Alerting service is:

a. ALTS b.ALGS c.ALRS d. ASVC
63. UTC stands for:
a. Universal time coordinated b. Universal coordinated time
c. Coordinated universal time d. Coordinated time universally
64. In a signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a yellow diagonal yellow cross means:
a) Do not land b) gliders are operating c) helicopters are operating
d) take special care on landing because of the poor state of manoeuvring area
Answer to Specimen Quest ions for practice on Legislation and Rules of the air
1C 2D 3B 4A 5B 6A 7D 8B 9C 10C
11 B 12D 13B 14C 15D 16C 17D 18A 19D 20C
21D 22D 23C 44A 25D 26A 27A 28B 29C 30A
31D 32D 33B 34A 35B 36D 37C 38C 39B 40A
41B 42D 43A 44C 45C 46B 47B 48D 49D 50D
51A 52C 53A 54A 55A 56D 57B 58A 59C 60A
61D 62C 63C 64D
Questions on – Air Traffic Services
1. What is the definition of Distress?
a) An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires
immediate assistance
b) Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be
continued
c) The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome
d) The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or
within sight
2. What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)?
a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and
imminent danger
b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted
c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety
d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency
3. Emergency phases means:

a. Uncertainty phase b. alert phase . c. Distress phase d All of above
4. Mayday repeated 3 times means:
a. Urgency b. Distress c. Warning d. No significance
5. Pan-pan repeated 3 times means:

a. Urgency b. Distress c. Warning d. No significance
6. 121.5 MHz used only for:

a. Urgency b. Distress c Request assistance d. All of above
7. A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the
direction of
approaching aircraft for at least
a) 7nms b) 5 nms c) 15 nms d) 20 nms
8. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace?
a) 250 kts TAS b) 250 kts IAS c) Not applicable d) 200 kts IAS
9. Voice ATIS is transmitted on a:
a) Discrete VHF frequency only b) Discrete VHF frequency or on voice
on VOR
c) VHF frequency or on ILS frequency d) ILS only
10. Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase?
a) FIC or the relevant ATCU b) The State and ATC
c) The Area Control and the RCC d) RCC and the FIR
11. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?
a) The Distress Phase b) The Alarm Phase c) The Alert Phase d) A generic term
meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress Phase
12. FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace:
a) C, D, E, F, G b) F and G only c) F d) A, B, C, D ,E, F,
G
13. What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service?
a) Radar, SAR and FIS b) Area, Approach and Aerodrome
c) Radar, Procedural and FIS d) Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service
14. For VFR flight in class E airspace:
a) ATC clearance and two way radio are required b) Two way radio not required
c) ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required d) ATC clearance is
required
15. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by:
a) country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b) country identifier followed by P/D/R
c) P/D/R followed by the identifier d) country identifier followed by numbers
16. In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is
permitted?
a) D b) E c) A d) B
17. Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway?
a) the State b) the State + ICAO c) ICAO d) RAN
18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR
traffic about other VFR traffic?
a) B b) BCDE c) BC d) BCD
19. What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA?
a) The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome
b) The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace
c) The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace d) The controlling of IFR traffic
20. Which one is control area?
a. TMA b. CTR c. CTZ d. None
21. What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit?
a) control area b) Air Traffic Zone c) control zone d)
TMA
22. What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR
traffic?
a) C b) D c) C d) F
23. The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is:
a) 300m b) 150m c) 200m d) 500m
24. How often is an ATIS updated?
a) Every 30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR
b) When there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity
c) When the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum
d) When there is a significant change in information.
25. RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a
particular route would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that
percentage?
a) 98% b) 93% c) 95% d) 90%
26. In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?
a) A b) B c) D d) C; D and E
27. The lower boundary of an UIR must be:
a) An IFR flight level b) A VFR flight level
c) Is not specified d) At any flight level
28. List the services provided in a FIR:
a) FIS only b) FIS, advisory ATC, ATC
c) FIS, aerodrome control d) FIS, alerting service
29. Control Zone in Bangladesh is classified as:
a. Class C Airspace b. Class A Airspace c. Class B Airspace d. Class D Airspace
30. Who organizes the RNP specification for airspace?
a) The State in which the airspace is located b) ICAO
c) The State + ICAO d) States who agree what the RNP should be
31. What is the upper limit of a CTA?
a) 2,000 ft b) 3,000 ft c) 5,000 ft d) A VFR Flight Level
32. TMA in Bangladesh is classified as:
33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an
advisory service for separation?
a) F b) E c) G d) D
34. Controlled Aerodrome outside CTR in Bangladesh is classified as:
35. You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will:
a) separate you from all traffic b) separate you from all IFR traffic
c) separate you from all arriving traffic d) separate you from all VFR traffic
36. In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio?
a) E & G b) D c) E, D d) C, D, E
37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR
separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?
a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D
38. In class C airspace, what flights are separated?
a) All flights b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR
c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR
d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR
39. Which classes of airspace are not available in Bangladesh?
a.A,B,E,F b. A,E,F c. A and E d. E and F
40. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of
landing
and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the
Alerting Service will be declared by the ATSU ?
a) DETRESFA b) INCERFA c) ALERFA d) EMERGFA
41. A Control Zone has to extend to at least:
a) 5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where
approaches can be made
b) 20 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from
where
c) 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from
where
d) 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from
where
42. When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the
responsibility of:
a) Air Traffic Coordination Centres b) Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres
c) Search and Rescue Coordination Centres d) Air Traffic Control Centres only
43. Which classes of airspace are available in Bangladesh?
a.A,B,C,D,E,F,G b. B,C,D,F,G c. A,B,C,D,F,G d. B,C,D,E,F,G
44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information
concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather
phenomena which may effect the safety of low level aircraft operations and which was not
already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area
thereof."
a) NOTAM b) SIGMET Information c) AIRMET Information d) En-route Weather
Report
45. In which airspace both IFR and VFR flights are permitted; all flights are subject on a traffic control
service and are separated from each other:
a. Class C Airspace b. Class A Airspace c. Class B Airspace d. None
46. The need for the provision of Air Traffic Service is determined by:
a. The density of air traffic involved b. The Meteorological condition
c. The type of air traffic involved d. All of the above
47. There are ---- classes of air space:
a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 9
48. There are --- objectives of ATS:
a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 5
48 There lower limit of a control area should coincide with a VFR cruising level when tits lower limit is
above:
a) 2,000 ft b) 3,000 ft c) 4,000 ft d) 3,500
49. The number of characters for an ATS route designator shall not exceed----- characters:
a. 8 b. 7 c. 6 d. 5
50. In airways only services provided are:
a. ATCS, FIS, ALRS b. FIS, ALRS c. ATCS d. ATCS, FIS
51. In G class of airspace only services provided are:
a. ATCS, FIS, ALRS b. FIS, ALRS c. ATCS d. ATCS, FIS
52. Dhaka control zone is a circle ---- --- centred on DAC VOR:
a. 15nm b. 25nm c. 25km d. 5nm
53. Chittagong control zone is a circle ---- --- centred on CTG VOR:
a. 15nm b. 25nm c. 25km d. 5nm
54. Transition altitude in Bangladesh is-----ft:
a.5000 b. 4000 c. 6000 d. 3000
55. Transition level in Bangladesh is-----ft:
a.5000 b. 4000 c. FL60 d. 3000
56. Dhaka TMA is a circle ---- --- centred on DAC VOR:
a. 15nm b. 50nm c. 25nm d. 20nm
57. The upper limit of Dhaka TMA is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 255 c. FL460 d.FL145
58. The upper limit of Dhaka Control zone is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 55 c. FL40 d.FL145
59. The upper limit of Chittagong Conrol zone is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 55 c. FL40 d.FL145
60. The upper limit of all controlled aerodrome in Bangladesh is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 55 c. 4000ft d.FL145
61. The upper limit of Dhaka Approach Control Area is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 155 c. 4000ft d.FL145
62. The upper limit of all uncontrolled aerodrome in Bangladesh is:
a. FL 60 b. FL 55 c. 4000ft d.3000ft
63. Air traffic advisory service is provided in ATS routes in Bangladesh to:
a) All flights at or above FL 150 b) IFR flight at or above FL 150
c) IFR flights at or below FL 150 d) IFR flights above FL 150
64. Tower transmits to you as “be advised weather is getting bad”. Which service is this?
a. ATAS b. FIS c. ATCSd. ALRS
65. When VVIP flights are taking off from any aerodrome in Bangladesh, no aircraft shall be allowed to
land or take off:
a) “Door close time” till 05 minutes before landing
b) 5 minutes before ETA of VVIP flight till door open time
c) “Door close time” till 5 minutes after take-off
d) “Door open time” till 5 minutes after take-off
66. When VVIP flights are landing at any aerodrome in Bangladesh, no aircraft shall be allowed to land or
take off:“Door close time” till 05 minutes before landing
a) 5 minutes before ETA of VVIP flight till door open time
b) “Door close time” till 5 minutes after take-off
c) “Door open time” till 5 minutes after take-off
67. When a VVIP flt is expected to operate in controlled airspace:
a) Only IFR allowed b. VFR also allowed c. There is no restriction d.
Depends on Controller’s discretion
68. When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state?
a. From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace
b. On a 24 hour basis c. When a state of emergency has been declared
d. When the authority of the state deems necessary
Answers to Air Traffic Services
1A 2C 3D 4B 5A 6D 7B 8B 9B 10 A 11 D 12 A
13 B 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 A 21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D
25 C 26 27 B 28 D 29 A 30 A 31 D 32 A 33 A 34 D 35 A 36 A
D
37 C 38 39 C 40 C 41 A 42 B 43 B 44 C 45C 46D 47A 48B
D
49C 50A 51B 52B 53B 54B 55C 56B 57C 58B 59D 60C
61B 62D 63B 64B 65C 66B 67A 68B
Questions on Doc 4444 and Air Traffic Services
1. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to
VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
2. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on VFR then changing to
IFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
3. What is the standard ICAO position report?
a) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point
b) Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time
c) Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time
d) Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time
4. How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan?
a) Ground speed b) True airspeed c) Ground speed plus 10% d) Indicated
airspeed
5. You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)?
a) Time from brakes off to overhead the destination
b) Time from brakes released to landing time
c) Time from take off to overhead the destination d) Time from take off to landing
6. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP?
a) present position and ETA b) estimated time over the FIR boundary and
endurance
c) estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance d) ETA and endurance
7. Routine AIREP has how many section(s)?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
8. Routine AIREP includes following information?
a. Position information and operational information b. Position information
c. Position information and Meteorological information
d. Position information, operational information and Meteorological information

9. Routine AIREP includes following information?
a. Position information b. Operational information c. Meteorological
information d. All of the above
10. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component
information, what change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a) 10 kts b) 8 kts c) 3 kts d) 5 kts
11. At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component
information, what change in head wind component change would be passed to the pilot?
a) 10 kts b) 8 kts c) 3 kts d) 5 kts
12. Approach control is provided for:
a) All arriving and departing controlled flights b) All arriving IFR traffic
c) Traffic within the CTA d) All VFR traffic
13. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees
magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction:
a) before landing and taxi for take-off
b) in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c) when an aircraft is requested by the metl office or on specified points to give an AIREP
d) when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West
14. What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled?
a) It must be located within a CTR b) It must have a control tower giving an ATC service
c) It must have a control tower and be in a CTR d) It must be in controlled
airspace
15. To whom is the alerting service provided?
a) All IFR traffic b) All flight-planned aircraft
c) All hijacked aircraft d) All traffic known to ATC
16. Which separation is required between a medium aircraft taking off behind a heavy
aircraft?
a) 2 minutes b) 1 minute c) 3 minutes d) 4 minutes
17. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C
18. Aerodrome traffic is considered to be:
a) Aircraft on the movement area and flying in the vicinity
b) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
c) Aircraft on the movement area only d) Aircraft on the manoeuvring area only
19. The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is
assumed to be in distress are:
a) uncertainty phase, urgency phase and distress phase
b) uncertainty phase, alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase
c) uncertainty phase, alert phase and distress phase
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase and urgency phase
20. A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the
same runway. What wake turbulence separation will be applied?
a) 3 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 5 minutes d) 1 minute
21. Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft
departs behind a heavy aircraft and both use the same runway?
a) 2 minutes b) 1 minute c) 3 minutes d) 4 minutes
22. The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the
maximum certified take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to:
a) 5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters
b) 14,000 kg c) 20,000 kg d) 7,000 kg
23. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or
"medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is:
a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes
b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes
c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes
d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes
Answers to Doc 4444 and Air Traffic Services
1B 2A 3A 4B 5C 6D 7C 8D 9D 10D
11A 12A 13A 14B 15D 16A 17D 18B 19C 20A
21A 22D 23D
Quest ions on Annex –14

1. Where pavements are used by aircraft with maximum take off mass greater than------,
the strength of pavement is reported by the A CN-PCN system:
a) 7000 kg b) 5700 kg c. 7000 lb d. 5700 lb
2. A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision
approach runway for distance of at least:
a) 100 metres b) 200 metres c) 300 metres d) 500 metres
3. a signal square shall be of at least ----- square:
a) 10 m b) 9 m c. 9 ft d. 40 m
4. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are two parallel runways?
a) 01.02 b) The QDM for the second runway will be increased by 10°
c) L' `R' d) `L' `C' `R'
5. How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways?
a) 02.03.04 b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10°
c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's d) `L' `C' `R'
6. What is a stopway for?
a) Stopping after landing distance b) Extending the Landing Distance Available
c) Stopping after an aborted take off d) A runway extension for big aircraft
7. A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a:
a) closed runway b) runway which is 2400 meters or longer
c) displaced runway d) runway available for circling to land approaches
8. The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run
available which is prepared as a suitable area:
a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off
b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency
c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft
d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway
9. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters
10. A PAPI system consists of
a) 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformly spaced b) 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformly spaced
c) 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformly spaced d) 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformly spaced
11. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow
b) Taxiway markings are yellow and runway markings are white
c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA
d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters
12. Lead in lights are:
a) Green at threshold across the runway
b) White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway
c) Yellow d) Steady white across the runway
13. What colour are runway end lights?
a) Unidirectional red b) Unidirectional white
c) Omni directional red d) Omni directional white
14 For a precision approach runway, runway edge lights shall be placed at intervals not
more than?
a) 100 m b. 50 m c. 60 m d. 90 m
15. What is the colour of threshold lighting?
a) Omni directional green b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the
approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach d) Red uni-
directional
16. On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and triple
lights on the
extended centre-line of a runway?
a) 150 metres b) 200 metres c) 250 metres d) 300 metres
17. What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-
displaced thresholds`?
a) Red or yellow b) White c) Yellow d) Blue
18. An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is:
a) blue b) white c) green d) red
19. What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light?
a) Flashing Green b) Flashing Green and White
c) Steady Green d) Flashing White
20. What is the colour of threshold lights? c) Steady green d) Flashing
green
21. What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system?
a) 300 m b) 600 m c) 900 m d) 1200 m
22. What is the colour of wing bar lighting?
a) Omni directional green b) Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the
approach
c) Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach d) Red uni-
directional
23. Aerodrome information signs are:
a) Black on red, or red on black b) Yellow on red, or black on yellow
c) Yellow on black, or black on yellow d) Orange on black, or black on orange
24. Taxiway edge lights are:

a) Fixed showing blue b) Fixed showing green
c) Fixed showing yellow d) Flashing showing blue
25. Runway lead-in lights must consist of.
a) Only flashing lights
b) A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the
runway
c) Arbitrary number of green lights
d) Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway
26. On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from
the runway and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft?
a) Under the approach glide path b) Above the approach glide path
c) Precisely on the glide path d) On or close to the approach glide
path
27. The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for:
a) Precision Approach Path Index b) Precision Approach Power Indicator
c) Precision Approach Path Indicator d) Precision Approach Power Index
28. What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon?
a) Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only b) White flashes
only
c) Green flashes only d) Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon
29. What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light?
a) Blue b) Steady red c) Yellow d) Flashing red
30. Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are:
a) Flashing green b) Flashing yellow c) Steady red d) Steady blue
31. What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show?
a) Flashing yellow b) Flashing red c) Flashing blue d) Steady
red
32. What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of
an aerodrome?
a) Green b) Day-Glo orange
c) A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish greend) White and red
chequered
33. An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by:
a) low intensity steady red lights b) low intensity flashing red lights
c) medium intensity steady red lights d) medium intensity flashing red lights
34. Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome?
a) No, providing the response time can be met b) Yes
c) No d) No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome
35. The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the
aerodrome. What factors determine this category?
a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the
largest
aircraft using that aerodrome
b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered
c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome
d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access
roads)
36. It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it.
How would ATC describe the state of the runway in this situation?
a) Wet b) Damp c. Not dry d. Braking action poor
37. Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been
subject to
unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other
bays?
a. 50m b. 100 m c. 150 m d. 200 m
38. What colour is taxiway centre line markings?
a. White b. Green c. Yellow d. Green/yellow
39. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

a. The threshold b. A temporary displaced threshold
c. A displace threshold d. 1000 ft from the end zone
40. What marks a runway holding position?
a. One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway
b. Occulting yellow `guard' lights c. A red marker board either side of the
taxiway
d. A red light stop bar
41. What colour are apron safety lines?

a. White b. Red c. Green d. A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand
markings
42. Do all runways require centreline markings?
a. No, only paved runways b. No, only runways over 50 m wide
c. No, only instrument runways
d. Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long
43. On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are
required?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 4 d. 3
44. Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway?
a. A stopbar b. A pattern A runway holding position
c. Cat 1 holding pointd. A taxiway/runway intersection sign
45. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway
vacated' sign
positioned?
a. 30 m b. at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
c. 60 m d. A distance equal to twice the width of the runway
46. Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorized according to physical
characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10.
Upon what are the categories based?
a. Length and max take-off mass b. Max number of passengers and crew
c. Overall length and fuselage width d. Max landing mass and max number of
passengers
47. An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night
operations are carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit?
a. High intensity white flashing lights b. Red flashing lights
c. Steady (non flashing) red lights
d. A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and
180 m.
48. How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked?
a. By white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold
b. By yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold
c. By a yellow X d. By white crosses evenly spaced
49. 25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe
the state of the runway?
a. Water patches b. Flooded c. Damp d. Wet
50. What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation?
a. Wing span of 35m or more b. Four turbojet engines
c. Take off mass of 136000 kg or more d. 245 passenger seats
51. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting
system within 60 m of the centre line?
a. An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna
b. A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c. The ILS glidepath antenna d. The aerodrome boundary security fence
52. What colour are runway edge lights?
a. Blue b. Yellow c. Red d. White
53. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the
end of the runway and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a. Blue b. White c. Red d. Green
54. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?
a. No, only in the direction of the approach
b. Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
c. No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
d. Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)
55. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
a. Fixed; uni-directional; red b. Fixed, omni-directional; red
c. Fixed; uni-directional; green d. Fixed; omni-directional; green
56. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'?
a. They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground
visibility
b. They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
c. They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d. At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than
550m
57. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to
allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on
to a normal taxiway?
a. Rapid turn off lane b. High speed exit lane c. Rapid exit taxiway d. Acute angle
exit
Answers to Questions on Annex –14
1B 2C 3B 4C 5D 6C 7C 8A 9B 10B
11B 12B 13A 14C 15B 16D 17B 18C 19A 20C
21C 22B 23C 24A 25B 26D 27B 28A 29B 30C
31A 32C 33A 34A 35C 36A 37B 38C 39C 40C
41D 42A 43A 44B 45B 46C 47A 48A 49A 50C
51A 52D 53D 54B 55A 56C 57C
Specimen Quest ions

1. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone
when the cloud ceiling is lower than
a. 1000 feet and less than 8 kms visibility b. 2000 feet and less than 5 kms visibility
c. 1500 feet or less than 5 kms visibility d. 1000 feet and less than 5 kms
visibility
2. When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal
a. Arms repeatedly crossed over the head
b. Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body. Then
clench fist.
d. Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning
downwards.
3. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall
a. Only use the word "wilco" b. Only read back the code
c Only use the word "roger" d Read back mode and code
4. What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ?
a. Return to the aerodrome from which you departed
b. Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
c Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are
VMC
conditions
d Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

a. The State b. The Operator c. The Commander d. The owner
6. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least
a. 50 minutes before off-block time b. 60 minutes before departure
c. 10 minutes before departure d. 30 minutes before off-block time
7. Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order
to be able to give the time within plus or minus
a. 15 seconds of UTC b. 10 seconds of UTC c. 30 seconds of UTC d. 1 minute of
UTC
8. How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows
a normal PAPI defined glide-path ?
a2 b none c3 d1
9. A Clearway is a squared area that is established to
a. protect aircraft during take-off and landing
b. to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off
c. to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude
d. to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway
10. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at
cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight
Plan by at least plus or minus
a. 10% b. 3% c. 2% d. 5%
11. Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be
mistaken for
a. codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents
b. letter combinations beginning with Q
c. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
d. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals
12. What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR
outside
controlled airspace unless otherwise directed `?
a. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the heading
b. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 kms of the estimated position of the
aircraft
c. 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
d. 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 8 rims of the planned track
13. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the
a. pilot in command b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. owner of the aircraft
14. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a. they operate outside controlled airspaceb. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace d. they operate a transponder with
mode C
15. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall
be expressed as:
a. altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude
b. flight level on or under the transition altitude
c. flight level on or under the transition level
d. altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude
16. The transition of altitude to flight level and vice versa is made
a. On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent
b. At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c. At the transition level only d. At the transition altitude only
17. Air Traffic Service unit consists of
a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers
b. Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Reporting
offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units
18. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance
a. the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that
clearance.
c. he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that
clearance
d. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC
19. The transition from IFR to VFR is done

a. on the Captain's initiative b. whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c. if told by ATC d. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
20. According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees
magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction
a. before landing and taxi for take-off
b. in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S
c. when an aircraft is requested by the MET office or on specified points to give a
PIREP
d. when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West
21. What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ?
a. 900m b. 600m c. 300m d. 150m
22. A PAPI must consist of
a. A row of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other
c. A row of 2 multiple at equal distance from each other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple at equal distance from each other
23. Lights at the end of the runway shall be
a. Steady unidirectional lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway
b. Steady white lights with controllable intensity
c. Steady omnidirectional red lights with controllable intensity
d. Steady unidirectional lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway
24. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are
a. 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
b. 5 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
c. 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
d. 8 kms visibility at or below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of
cloud
25. The response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the end of
each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is
a. 3 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes b. 2 minutes and not exceeding 3 minutes
c. 2 minutes and not exceeding 4 minutes d. 3 minutes and not exceeding 5 minutes
26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the
arms
outwards. What does this signal indicate?
a. clear to move forward b. brakes off c. remove chocks d. clear to close all
engines
27. What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace?
a. No flight plan required
b. Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory
service or not. c. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes
d. A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required
28. What are the objectives of ATC Services?
a. To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the
maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly
flow
of air traffic.
b. To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an
orderly flow
of air traffic.
c. To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air
traffic.
d. To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly
flow of
air traffic.
29. A TODA consists of
a. The take-off run available excluding the clearway
b. The take-off run available including the clearway
c. The take-off run available excluding the stopway d. The take-off run available
only
30. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of

a. The State of Registration b. The State of Registration and the State of the Operator
c. The State of the Operator d. The State of Registry and the State of Design
31. ATIS will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is
a. 3 000 ft b. 5 000 ft c. When CB's are present d. When the cloud base is below
MSA
32. Voice ATIS
1. cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS
2. cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR
3. is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency
4. is broadcasted on either a discreet VHF, VOR or an ILS frequency
a. 1 only is correct b. 2 only is correct c. 4 only is correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
33. An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of
the strip, primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or
overrunning the runway is defined as a
a. Clearway b. Runway Strip Extension
c. Runway end safety area d. Altimeter Operating Area Extension
34. For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway
vacated" sign
positioned?
a. To a distance of the nearest Pattern À' holding position
b. At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area
c. It depends on the Aerodrome Category d. 85 metres
35. What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be
used with RVR of less than 550m
a. Both a Pattern À' and `B' holding position b. High intensity taxiway centerline
lights only
c. Runway guard lights
d. Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights
36. ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when
a. they are below 2,500m b. they are below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
c. they are below 1,000m d. they are below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.
37. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes:
a. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states,
signatory to the
Chicago convention.
38. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a
common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting
aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
a. Let down b. Descend c. Descend for landing d. You land
39. An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the
control tower.
This signifies that the aircraft must:
a. do not land because the airport is not available for landing
b. give way to another aircraft
c. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
40. Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance?
a. Switching on and off three times the landing lights
b. The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
c. Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
d. Switching on and off four times the landing lights
41. The Transition Level:
a. shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.
b. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established.
c. is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR
d. is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.
42. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a. Achieving separation between IFR flights
b. Achieving separation between controlled flights
c. Providing advisory service d. Providing flight Information Service
43. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within
controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
a. 500 feet (150 m) b. 2500 feet (750 m) c. 1000 feet (300 m) d. 2000 feet (600 m)
44. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the
same runway?
a. 3 minutes b. 2 minutes c. 1 minute d. 4 minutes
45. In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:
a. 250 m b. 200 m c. 150 m d. 300 m
46. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert
phases is the responsibility of the
a. operational air traffic control centres b. flight information or control
organizations
c. air traffic co-ordination services d. search and rescue co-ordination centres
47. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz
b. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz
c. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz
d. 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz
48. When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall:
a. Only use the word "wilco" b. Only read back the code
c. Only use the word "roger" d. Read back mode and code
a. The State b. The Operator c. The Commander d. The
owner
50. The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the:
a. pilot in command b. operator
c. ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace d. owner of the aircraft
51. Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless
a. they operate outside controlled airspace b. if asked by ATC
c. with are within controlled airspace d. they operate a transponder with
mode C
52. Air Traffic Service unit consists of
a. Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres
b. Flight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices
c. Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Traffic Air Services Reporting
offices
d. Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units
53. A PAPI must consist of
a. A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance
from each
other
b. Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance
from
each other
c. A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from
each
other
d. Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance
from
each other
54. What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace?
a. Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR
b. Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others
c. Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is
available
d. Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other
55. What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air
traffic
advisory service?
a. Keep clear of all notified advisory routes b. Fly at VFR flight levels
c. File a flight plan d. Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the
service
56. An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service wishes to cross an advisory route. What
procedure shall be used to cross the route'?
a. Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc..
b. Cross at 90° to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level
c. Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level
d. Such crossings ire only to be made at the base of the airway
57. What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting
system within 60 m of the centre line?
a. An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna
b. A fixed object not more than 45 ft high
c. The ILS glide path antenna d. The aerodrome boundary security fence
58. What colour are runway edge lights?
a. Blue b. Yellow c. Red d. White
59. Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the
end of the runway and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach?
a. Blue b. White c. Red d. Green
60. Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)?
a. No, only in the direction of the approach
b. Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling
c. No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions
d. Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)
61. Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights?
a. Fixed; uni-directional; red b. Fixed, omni-directional; red
c. Fixed; uni-directional; green d. Fixed; omni-directional; green
62. Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'?
a. They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground
visibility
b. They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions
c. They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than
350m
d. At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than
550m
63. What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the
embarkation/disembarkation of passengers?
a. Apron b. Ramp c. Stands d. Parking Bays
64. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the
purpose of public transport of passengers or cargo?
a. A scheduled air service b. A commercial air operation
c. An air transport operation d. An airline
65. After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition
level (FL 40 ) which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to
report you vertical position. How would you do this?
a. As a height above the transition altitude b. As an altitude AMSL
c. As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb
d. Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to
get there
anyway!)
66. Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude?
a. It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state
b. The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft
c. The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft
d. The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome
traffic zone
67. What is a controlled flight?
a. A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate
b. A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance
c. A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR d. A flight by a manned
aeroplane
68. What defines a danger area?
a. A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air
b. Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist
c. NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded
d. Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist
69. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

a. The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and
lit objects
by night
b. Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
c. The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to
atmospheric
conditions d. The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane
70. When does night exist? a. During the hours of darkness
b. From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
d. During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
71. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a. Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
b. A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
c. A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the
requirements of IFR
d. A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC
without
compliance with IFR
72. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to
allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on
to a normal taxiway?
a. Rapid turn off lane b. High speed exit lane c. Rapid exit taxiway d. Acute angle
exit
73. Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic?
a. All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
b. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the
aerodrome
c. Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit.
d. Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
74. What is defined as: À control area or portion thereof established in the form of a
corridor equipped with radio navigation aids'?
a. A terminal manoeuvring area b. An upper air route
c. An airway d. A SVFR entry/exit corridor
75. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered
a. Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
b. Binding for all member states
c. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
d. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
76. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would
jeopardize the safety of the aircraft; the PIC may
a. request the crew to detain the passenger b. ask the passenger to
disembark
c. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d. hand him her over to the authorities
77. In Bangladesh what minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take
off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a. 1000m b. 1500m c. 2000m d. 3000m
78. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways

a. RVR not less than 350m DH not below 100ft b. RVR 200 DH not below 100ft
c. RVR 200 DH not below 200ft d. RVR 300 DH not below 200ft
79. What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace?
a. 250 kts TAS b. 250 kts IAS c. Not applicable d. 200 kts IAS
80. What is the definition of the Emergency Phase?
a. The Distress Phaseb. The Alarm Phase c. The Alert Phase d. A generic term
meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress Phase
81. Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by
a. country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier
b. country identifier followed by P/D/R
c. P/D/R followed by the identifier d. country identifier followed by numbers
82. What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP ?
a. present position and ETA b estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance
c estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance d ETA and endurance
83. A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to
normal take- off. What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off?
a. 2 minutes b. 3 minutes c. 1 minute c. 5 minutes
84. The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or
"medium" aircraft
complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is
a. light aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 4 minutes
b. medium aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 2 minutes
c. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 3 minutes
d. medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 2 minutes
85. An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by
a. low intensity steady red lights b. low intensity flashing red lights
c. medium intensity steady red lights d. medium intensity flashing red lights
86. Who is responsible for the efficient organization of an efficient SAR service?
a. FIC and RCC b. RCC and rescue sub-centres
c. FIC, RCC and ACC d. ICAO through regional navigation plans
87. SVFR clearance only will be issued for flight into certain:
a) CTZs b) CTRS c) TMAS d) CTAs
Answers to Specimen Quest ions
1C 2C 3D 4B 5C 6B 7C 8A 9C 10D
11D 12B 13A 14B 15D 16B 17C 18B 19A 20A
21A 22A 23D 24C 25B 26C 27B 28A 29B 30A
31B 32A 33C 34B 35D 36B 37A 38B 39A 40B
41A 42B 43C 44B 45D 46A 47A 48D 49C 50A
51B 52C 53A 54B 55C 56B 57A 58D 59D 60B
61A 62C 63C 64C 65C 66A 67B 68D 69D 70D
71B 72C 73B 74C 75C 76D 77D 78A 79B 80D
81A 82D 83A 84D 85A 86B 87B

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Question Bank PPL

Subject: Air Law

7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

16. For a PPL minimum how many hours are required?

Answers to Questions on 5 Personnel Licensing

6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?

a. 1000ft b. 2000ft c . 500ft d. 3000ft

38. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a

Answers to Rules of the Air

62. The abbreviated form of Alerting service is:

3. Emergency phases means:

5. Pan-pan repeated 3 times means:

6. 121.5 MHz used only for:

Questions on Doc 4444 and Air Traffic Services

d. Position information, operational information and Meteorological information

Quest ions on Annex –14

24. Taxiway edge lights are:

39. What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate?

41. What colour are apron safety lines?

Specimen Quest ions

5. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?

19. The transition from IFR to VFR is done

30. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of

69. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

71. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

78. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways

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