PPL Q. Bank (Nav)

GENERAL NAVIGATION
1. Air Navigation is defined as the art and science of traveling from one place to another:
a) in the shortest, safest and cost effective means.
b) in the safest and fuel efficient path.
c) in the correct direction, speed, time and minimum fuel.
d) in great circle / rhumb line tracks efficiently.
2. How much is the polar diameter of the Earth different from the equatorial diameter?
a) less by 40 Km / 21.62 Nm b) greater by 27 St. m / 43.47 Km
c) less by 27 St. m / 23.50 Nm d) greater by 21. 62 Nm / 43.47 Km
3. The compression ratio of the Earth:

a) is very small and ignored since the earth is a perfect sphere.
b) is the distance between polar diameter and equatorial diameter and is about 23 1/2 Nm.
c) is the ratio between the polar diameter and the equatorial diameter and is approx 1/297.
d) is the ratio between the equatorial diameter and the polar diameter and is approx 1/300.
4. The direction of the Earth’s rotation on its axis is such that:

a) an observer on the surface of the Earth always will face west when observing sunrise.
b) any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.
c) any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.
d) observed from the point above the north pole, the rotation is counter-clockwise.
5. The Prime Meridian is:

a) the mid meridian on a chart.
b) the meridian having the highest value of longitude.
c) the meridian running through Greenwich, England.
d) the meridian through 1800 E/W.
6. Equator can be defined as:

a) a semi great circle lying at the centre point of the chart running east-west.
b) a great circle that runs east-west dividing the Earth into two equal hemisphere; the northern and
southern hemisphere.
c) a semi great circle that runs north-south diving the Earth into two equal halves.
d) a great circle that has the two poles as its extremities.
7. A correct definition of longitude is:

a) the east-west distance between Greenwich and the place.
b) the angle between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place.
c) the difference between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place, measured at the
centre of the Earth.
d) the arc at the equator between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place, measured
in degrees, minutes and seconds, named East or West.
8. While referring to a position on Earth:

a) coordinates can be listed either ways.
b) the longitudes are given first in degrees and minutes followed by latitudes.
c) the latitude is referred first followed by longitude in Lat & Long System.
d) In Lat &Long System it is referred as Bearing and Distance.
9. A meridian is a semi great circle that joins the poles. Each meridian:
a) runs in a north-south direction and has an ante-meridian.
b) runs in a east-west direction and has an ante-meridian.
c) cuts all the longitudes at right angles running north-south.
d) is a great circle and equator is also a meridian.
10. Lines of latitude on a chart are always:

a) great circles b) small circles except for the equator
c) vertices d) meridian
11. While measuring distances we refer to:
a) a Km as 3280 ft, a Nmas6080 ft and a St. m as 5280 ft.
b) a Nm as 6070 ft, a Km as 5280 ft.
c) a Km as 1/10,000th part of the average distance from Equator to either pole and a Nm as well as
St. m as one minute of longitude.
d) None of the above statements is correct.
12. The methods of defining position on Earth:

a) Lat & Long Syst, GEOREF, Pin Point and Direction & Bearing.
b) National Grid System, Pin Point and Range & Bearing.
c) National Grid System, Universal Transverse Mercator Grid and GEOREF.
d) Universal Transverse Mercator Grid, Pin Point and Direction & Bearing.
13. Given that the compression of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth,
measured at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 km, what is the semi-major axis of the Earth
measured at the axis of the Poles'?
a) 6399.9 Km
b) 6356.9 Km
c) 6378.4 Km
d) 6367.0 Km
14. Any Meridian Line is a:

a) Rhumb Line
b) Semi Great Circle
c) Rhumb Line and a semi Great Circle
15. A Rhumb Line cuts all meridians at the same angle. This gives:
a) The shortest distance between two points.
b) A line which could never be a great circle track
c) A line of constant direction
16. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

a) Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
b) Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
c) Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.
d) Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field.
17. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

a) The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North.
b) The angle between True North and Compass North.
c) The angle between Magnetic North and True North.
d) The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North.
18. At the magnetic equator:

a) Dip is zero
b) Variation is zero
c) Deviation is zero
d) The isogonal is an agonic line
19. Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth's magnetic field?
a) It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada
b) The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c) It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d) It has no effect on aircraft deviation.
20. Where is a compass most effective?

a) About midway between the earth's magnetic poles
b) In the region of the magnetic South pole
c) In the region of the magnetic North pole
d) On the geographic equator
21. The value of variation:

a) is zero at the magnetic equator
b) has a maximum value of 180°
c) has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d) cannot exceed 90°
22. Isogonals drawn on a map:

a) are broken lines that are fixed for a location.
b) changes with time due to rotation of magnetic pole around true pole
c) are of equal magnitude that affects compass.
d) represents the meridians.
23. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

a) isogonal b) isogonic
c) isobar d) agonic line
24. The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a) deviation
b) variation
c) alignment error
d) dip
25. Isogonal lines converge as follows:

a) At the North Magnetic Pole
b) At the North and South Magnetic and Geographical Poles
c) At the North and South Magnetic Poles
d) At the Magnetic equator.
26. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?

a) 66°
b) 180°
c) 90°
d) 45°
27. The agonic line:

a) is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b) follows the geographic equator
c) is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d) Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe
and the other through the USA
28. Compass swing should be carried out:

a) on the apron b) on the compass swing base or site
c) on the active runway d) at the holding point
29. How many Nm is equal to 100 of arc of latitude?

a) 1 Nm b) 10 Nm c) 60 Nm d) None
30. Given: TAS 200 kts, Trk 1100(T), W/V 015/40. Calculate Hdg (T) and G/S.
a) 0780 & 201 kts b) 0990 & 200 kts
0
c) 121 & 207 kts d) 1210& 199 kts
31. Given: TAS 140 kts, Hdg 0050(T), W/V 265/25. Calculate Dr and G/S.
a) 11R & 140 kts b) 10R & 146 kts
c) 9R & 140 kts d) 11R & 142 kts
32. The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180 at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are
true). What is its track and groundspeed?
a) 180 & 223 b) 179 & 220
c) 180 & 220 d) 179 & 223
33. Track = 090(T), TAS = 460 kts, W/V = 360(T)/100, Variation = 10E, Deviation = -2. What is
compass heading and ground speed?
a) 0790 & 470 kts b) 0690 & 450 kts
0
c) 068 & 460 kts d) 0700 & 455 kts
34. You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best course of
action?
a) set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway
b) turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c) fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d) Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
35. Scale is defined as:

a) the ratio of amount of distance on a map to that of actual surface
b) the length on a chart as compared to those on land
c) the ratio of the length on a chart to the length it represents on the Earth’s surface
d) the ratio of the length on a chart measured against a datum kept in British Museum.
36. Relief on a map can be represented by:

a) contours, spot heights, layer tinting, hachuring and hill shading
b) roads by red, railways by black lines and hills by dark shades
c) when looking from above the ground features resemble those on map
d) contours, layer tinting, painting and heights
37. A normal Mercator chart is a _______ projection?

(i) Cylindrical
(ii) Perspective
(iii) Non-Perspective
(iv) Conformal
(v) Conical
(vi) Azimuthal
38. A direct Mercator graticule is:

a) Rectangular
b) Square
c) Circular
d) Convergent
39. On a normal Mercator chart, rhumb lines are represented as:

a) Curves concave to the Equator
b) Curves convex to the Equator
c) Complex curves
d) Straight lines
40. On a direct Mercator, Great Circles can be represented as:

a) Straight lines
b) Curves
c) Straight lines and curves
41. On a direct Mercator, with the exception of the meridians and the Equator, Great Circles are
represented as:
a) Curves concave to the Nearer Pole
b) Curves convex to the Equator
c) Curves concave to the Equator
d) Straight lines
42. Convergence on a Transverse Mercator chart is correct at:

a) the datum meridian only
b) the datum meridian and the Equator
c) the Equator and the Poles
d) the Parallel of Origin
43. Where is scale correct on a Transverse Mercator chart?

a) along the great Circle of Tangency
b) at the Poles and the Equator
c) along the Datum Meridian and at meridians at 90° to it
d) at the Greenwich meridian
44. What is the main use of a Transverse Mercator chart?
a) flying a specified Great Circle route
b) flying an equatorial route
c) mapping countries with a large N/S extent but a lesser E/W extent
d) mapping countries with a large E/W extent but a lesser N/S extent
45. What is the main use of an Oblique Mercator chart?

a) flying a specified Great Circle route
b) flying an equatorial route
c) mapping countries with a large N/S extent but a lesser E/W extent
d) mapping countries with a large E/W extent but a lesser N/S extent
46. When does perihelion occur?

a) early January
b) mid March
c) early July
d) September 21
47. When does aphelion occur?

a) early January
b) mid March
c) early July
d) September 21
48. Viewed from the North Celestial Pole (above the North Pole), the Earth orbits the Sun
a) clockwise in a circular orbit
b) anti-clockwise in a circular orbit
c) clockwise in an elliptical orbit
d) anti-clockwise in an elliptical orbit
49. When do `equinoxes' occur?

a) December and June
b) February and November
c) March and September
d) January and July
50. When it is the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, the Declination of the Sun is
a) 0°N/S
b) 23 %2°N
c) 66%2°N
d) 23%2°S
51. What is the angle between the Equinoctial and the Ecliptic?
a) 66'/20
b) 23'/20
c) varies between 23'/20N and 23'/20S
d) varies between 66'/20N and 66'/20S
52. `The length of daylight/night depends upon the declination of the Sun and the latitude of the
observer'. When is the rate of change of the length of daylight greatest?
a) February/November
b) January/July
c) at the Equinoxes
d) at the Solstices
53. A sidereal day is:

a) longer than an apparent solar day
b) longer than a real solar day
c) shorter than an apparent solar day
d) equal to a real solar day
54. The maximum difference between mean noon ( 1200LMT ) and real/apparent noon occurs in
a) January/July
b) March/September
c) November/February
d) December/June
55. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a) 21 minutes
b) 16 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) there is no difference
56. What is the length of a Sidereal Year?

a) 365 days
b) 366 days
c) 365 days 6 hrs
d) 365 days 5 hrs 48.75 minutes
57. `The Calendar Year and the Tropical Year are of different lengths. The difference is adjusted partly by
using leap years every fourth calendar year. However, some years are not designated as leap years'.
Which of the following years will be a leap year?
a) 2001
b) 2100
c) 2300
d) 2400
58. Without using the Air Almanac, convert 153°30' of arc of longitude into time.
a) 10 hrs 24 mins
b) 10 hrs 22 mins
c) 10 hrs 14 mins
d) 10 hrs. 8 mins
59. The definition of Local Mean Time (LMT) is:

a) time based upon the average movement of the Earth around the Sun.
b) when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your meridian, it is 1200 hrs LMT.
c) when the Mean Sun is transitting (crossing) your anti-meridian, it is 0000 hrs LMT (2400 hrs LMT,
previous day).
d) all of the above.
60. Local Mean Time (LMT) always changes by a day when crossing ?
a) the Greenwich Meridian
b) 180°E/W
c) the International Date Line
d) the Equator
61. Zone Time (ZT) is used?

a) by aircraft on trans-oceanic routes
b) as legal time in all countries
c) by ships at sea
d) in polar regions
62. What is the Zone Number for longitude 127°30'W?

a) +8
b) +9
c) -8
d) -9
63. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a Zone Time of 0500 ZT on Zone Date 15"' May. What is
the UTC?
a) 2300 UTC 14"' May
b) 1100 UTC 15 `h May
c) 2328 UTC 14 `h May
d) 1032 UTC 15 `h May
64. On Mid-summer Day in the Southern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:
a) 66 %2 S
b) 23'/2 N
c) 23'/2 S
d) the Equator
65. On Mid-winter Day in the Northern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:
a) 66'/2 S
b) 23'/2 N
c) 23'/2 S
d) the Equator
66. The Declination of a celestial body (the Sun) measured on the Celestial Sphere is analogous
(equivalent) to on the Earth?
a) latitude
b) longitude
c) altitude of the body measured from the sensible horizon
d) co-latitude
67. The Hour Angle (Greenwich Hour Angle) of a celestial body is analogous/equivalent on the Earth to:
a) latitude
b) longitude
c) co-latitude
d) UTC
68. Without using the Air Almanac, convert 153°30' of arc of longitude into time.
a) 10 hrs 24 mins
b) 10 hrs 22 mins
c) 10 hrs 14 mins
d) 10 hrs. 8 mins
69. Local Mean Time (LMT) always changes by a day when crossing ?
a) the Greenwich Meridian
b) 180°E/W
c) the International Date Line
d) the Equator
70 Civil Twilight is?

a) the period between sunset and the end of Evening Civil Twilight (ECT)
b) the period between the start of Morning Civil Twilight (MCT) and sunrise
c) related to the position of the centre of the sun being 6° below the sensible horizon
d) a period when it is possible to carry out daylight tasks without artificial lighting
e) used in the JAR definition of day flying/night flying all of the above
f) all of the abov
71. Nautical Twilight and Astronomic Twilight are the twilight periods that follow Civil Twilight. Nautical
Twilight occurs when the sun is between and below the Sensible Horizon?
a) 0°/6°
b) 6°/12°
c) 12°/18°
d) 18°/24°
72. Between 60N and 60S, the minimum duration of Civil Twilight is?
a) 21 minutes
b) 16 minutes
c) 14 minutes
d) 30 minutes
73. In a standby direct reading compass there is:

a) a non-pendulously mounted magnet system.
b) a single pendulously mounted bar magnet.
c) a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted.
d) a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration.
74. The main requirements of a direct reading magnetic compass are that it should be:
a) horizontal, sensitive, periodic.
b) easily read, floating in a transparent liquid, quick to react to change in aircraft heading.
c) positioned directly in front of the pilot, easily corrected for magnetic deviation, aperiodic.
d) aperiodic, horizontal, sensitive.
75. For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on headings:
a) 180°(C) and 360°(C)
b) 045°(C) and 225°(C)
c) 135°(C) and 315°(C)
d) 090°(C) and 270°(C)
76. An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is turning from a heading of 045 °(C) to 315 °(C) using a DGI.
At theend of the turn the compass will read ....... than 315 ° and liquid swirl will ....... this effect.
a) more ; increase
b) less ; increase
c) more; decrease
d) less; decrease
77. In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this
liquid is to:
a) increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity.
b) increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity.
c) increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings.
d) increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl.
78. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point:
a) on the centre line of the magnet.
b) below the centre of gravity.
c) above the centre of gravity.
d) varying with magnetic latitude.
79. When carrying out a turn at the magnetic equator there will be:
a) no turning error.
b) a tendency to underread turns through south and overread turns through north.
c) a tendency to underread turns due to liquid swirl.
d) no turning error when turning through east or west only.
80. JARS state that the residual deviation of a remote indicating compass shall not exceed;
a) 1 degree
b) 3 degrees
c) 2 degrees
d) 5 degrees
81. Compass swings should be carried out:

a) on the apron.
b) only on the compass swinging base or site.
c) at the holding point.
d) on the active runway.
82. Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft Iron:

a) varies with magnetic heading but not with magnetic latitude.
b) varies with magnetic latitude but not with heading.
c) it is not affected magnetic latitude or heading.
d) varies as the cosine of the compass heading.
83. Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard Iron:

a) is not usually influenced by the earth's magnetic field.
b) varies directly with magnetic latitude.
c) varies indirectly with magnetic latitude.
d) is maximum on east and west.
84. The aim of a compass swing is:

1. to find deviation on the cardinal headings and to calculate coefficients A, B and C.
2. to eliminate or reduce the coefficients found.
3. to record any residual deviation and to prepare a compass correction card.
a) only answer 1 is correct.
b) answers 1 and 3 are correct.
c) answers 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.
d) none of the above answers are correct.
85. What is the shortest distance in kilometers between San Francisco (38 N 123 W) & Dubai (25 N 057
E)?
a) 7020
b) 8073
c) 13001
d) 11250
86. A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?
a) 40S 100 W
b) 40S 080 E
c) 50S 100 W
d) 50S 080 E
87. An ICAO nautical mile is defined as?

a) 6080 feet
b) 1852 metres
c) 1863 feet
d) 6062 feet
88. How much is the polar diameter of the Earth different from the equatorial diameter?
a) less by 40 km
b) greater by 27 statute miles
c) less by 27 statute miles
d) greater by 27 nautical miles
89. The maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occurs at about?
a) 45° North and South
b) 90° North and South
c) 60° North and South
d) 0° (Equator)
90. Required course 045°(T), W/V = 190°(T)/30, FL=55@ISA, Variation = 15°E. CAS = 120 knots. What
is
magnetic heading and G/S?
a) 052°(M) 154
b) 067°(M) 154
c) 037°(M) 154
d) 037°(M) 113
91. What is the shortest distance in kilometers between Cairo (30°17' N 030°10 E) and Durban (29°48' S
030010' E) ?
a) 3605
b) 4146
c) 4209
d) 6676
92. An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. What is its latitude at the end of the flight' ?
a) 03°50' S
b) 02°50' S
c) 02010' S
d) 08°55' S
93. An aircraft is at latitude ION and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is ?
a) los
b) 02 N
c) 02 S
d) O N / S
94. The circumference of the Earth is approximately?

a) 43200 nm
b) 10800 nm
c) 21600 nm
d) 5400 nm
95 . SAT = +35°C. Pressure alt (corrected for barometric error) = 5000 feet. What is true alt?
a) 4550 feet
b) 5550 feet
c) 4920 feet
d) 5320 feet
96. Given that the value of ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth,
measured at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 Kin, what is the semi-major axis of the earth measured at
the axis of the Poles?
a) 6399.9 Km
b) 6356.9 Km
c) 6378.4 Km
d) 6367.0 Km
97. You plan to fly a track (course) of 348°(T), Drift is 17°port, Variation = 32°W. Deviation is 4°E. What
compass heading should you fly?
a) 0410
b) 033°
c) 016°
d) 359°
98. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation

a) depends on the value of magnetic heading
b) depends on the value of true heading
c) varies slowly over time
d) depends on the type of compass installed
99. At the magnetic equator

a) Dip is zero
b) Variation is zero
c) Deviation is zero
d) The isogonal is an agonic line
100. The value of magnetic variation on a chart changes with time. This is due to:
a) movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b) increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c) reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d) movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease
101. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a) using long magnets
b) keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the pivot point and using damping wires
c) pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d) using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
102. Given: True Track = 352°(T), Variation = 11° W, Deviation = - 5°, Drift = 10°R
What is Heading °(C)?
a) 078°(C)
b) 346°(C)
c) 358°(C)
d) 025°(C)
103. You plan to take off from Khamis Mushayt, Saudi Arabia, elevation 6500 ft. The ambient temperature
is +25°C. What is your Density Altitude?
a) 3500 ft
b) 6500 ft
c) 9500 ft
d) 12500 ft
104. Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
a) 132 kt
b) 141 kt
c) 102 kt
d) 120 kt
105. Given: TAS 200 kt, Track 110°(T), WN 015/40, calculate heading (°T) and groundspeed.
a) 0970 - 201 kt
b) 0990 - 200 kt
c) 1210 - 207 kt
d) 1210 - 199 kt
106. Given: True Hdg 145°, TAS 240 kt, True Track 150°, G/S 210 kt, calculate the W/V.
a) 360/35
b) 295/35
c) 180/35
d) 115/35
107. Given: TAS 140 kt, Heading 005°(T), WN 265/25, calculate the drift and groundspeed
a) 11 R - 140 kt
b) 10 R - 146 kt
c) 9 R - 140 kt
d) 11 R - 142 kt
108. G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go?
a) 20 minutes
b) 29 minutes
c) 2h 05 m
d) 2h 12 m
109. Heading is 156°(T), TAS is 320 knots, WN 130/45. What is your true track?
a) 160
b) 152
c) 104
d) 222
110. Track = 090°(T), TAS = 460 knots, WN = 360°(T) / 100, Variation = 10°E, Deviation = -2. What is
compass heading and groundspeed?
a) 0790 – 470 kt
b) 0690 – 450 kt
c) 0680 – 460 kt
d) 0700 – 455 kt
111. You leave A to fly to B, 475 nm away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are 190 nm
from A. What groundspeed is required to arrive on time at B?
a) 317 knots
b) 330 knots
c) 342 knots
d) 360 knots
112. The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180° (T) at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are
True). What is its track and groundspeed?
a) 1800 – 223 kt
b) 1790 – 220 kt
c) 1800 – 220 kt
d) 1790 – 223 kt
113. You are flying from A to B, planned track 245°(M), distance 225 nm. Your groundspeed is 180 knots.
After 15 minutes flying, you fix your position as 3 nm left of planned track. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a) drift is 2P
b) drift is 4P
c) turn 5 right to go direct to B
d) turn 8 right to go direct to B
114. A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station.
Radial = 180° +/- 1°, distance = 200 nm What is the approximate maximum error ?
a) +/- 2 nm
b) +/- 3.5 nm
c) +/- 7 nm
d) +/- 1 nm
action?
a) set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river or motorway
b) turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognised before
c) fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d) turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
116. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimeters. What is the scale?
a) 1 /700,000
b) 1 / 2,015,396
c) 1 / 1,296,400
d) 1 / 1,156,600
117. A non-perspective chart:

a) is produced directly from a light projection of a Reduced Earth
b) cannot be used for navigation
c) is produced by mathematically adjusting a light projection of the Reduced Earth
d) is used for a Polar Stereographic projection
118. On a Mercator chart, a Rhumb Line appears as a:

a) small circle concave to the nearer pole
b) curve convex to the nearer pole
c) complex curve
d) straight line
119. Mercator charts use _____ Projections ?

a) cylindrical
b) conical
c) plane/azimuthal
d) complex
120. G/S = 240 knots, Distance to go = 500 nm. What is time to go?
a. 20 minutes
b. 29 minutes
c. 2 h 05 m
d. 2h 12m
121. OAT = +35°C, Pressure alt = 5000 feet. What is true alt?
a. 4550 feet
b. 5550 feet
c. 4290 feet
d. 5320 feet
122. ___ Means:
a) NDB
b) VOR
c) Town
123. An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56°N 070°W to 62°N 110°E. The total distance travelled is?
a. 3720 NM
b. 5420 NM
c. 1788 NM
d. 2040 NM
124. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

a. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
b. Proportional to the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
c. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.
d. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field.
125. An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the
longitude will be:
a. 002° 10' W
b. 000° 15' E
c. 000° 40' E
d. 005° 15' E
126. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

a. The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North.
b. The angle between True North and Compass North.
c. The angle between Magnetic North and True North.
d. The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North.

a. Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero
d. The isogonal is an agonic line
128. Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth's magnetic field:
a. It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada
b. The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c. It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d. It has no effect on aircraft deviation.
129. Where is a compass most effective?

a. About midway between the earth's magnetic poles
b. In the region of the magnetic South pole
c. In the region of the magnetic North pole
d. On the geographic equator
130. The value of variation:

a. is zero at the magnetic equator
b. has a maximum value of 180°
c. has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d. cannot exceed 90°
131. You are in the northern hemisphere, heading West, and the aircraft is accelerating. Will a direct
reading magnetic compass over-read or under-read? Is the compass indicating a turn to the north or to
the south?
Compass Indicating turn to
a over-reads north
b over-reads south
c under-read north
d under-reads south
132. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct
reading magnetic compass?
a. It is lighter
b. It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate
c. It senses the earth's magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive
d. It is not affected by aircraft deviation
133. An aircraft leaves at 0900 UTC on a 250 nm journey with a planned groundspeed of 115 knots. After
74 nm the aircraft is 1.5 minutes behind the planned schedule. What is the revised ETA at the
destination?
a 1100
b 1110
c 1115
d 1054
134. Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have

a. the same grivation
b. the same variation
c. 0° magnetic dip
d. the same horizontal magnetic field strength
135. An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies 165 km due East. What is the new position?
a. 6000N 00820 E
b. 6000N 00224 W
c. 6000N 00108 E
d. 6000N 00108 W
136. An aircraft at latitude 0220N tracks 180°T for 685 kilometres. What is its latitude at the end of the
flight?
a 0350 S
b 0250 S
c 0210 S
d 0855 S
action?
a. set heading towards a line feature - coastline, river, or motorway
b. turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you recognized before
c. fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next check point
d. Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
138. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours. If the wind component on the
outbound leg is 50 knots head, what is the distance to the point of safe endurance?
a. 1500 nm
b. 1458 nm
c. 1544 nm
d. 1622 nm
139. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. If
the wind component is 60 knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical point?
a. 250 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 300 nm
d. 280 nm
140. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. November and February
b. January and July
c. March and September
d. June and December
141. 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds hours time difference is equivalent to which change of longitude
?
a 81°30'
b 78° 15'
c 79° 10'
d 80° 05'
142. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to the:
a. earth's rotation
b. relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
c. inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
d. gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth
143. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?
a. 1 /700,000
b. 1 / 2,015,396
c. 1 / 1,296,400
d. 1 / 1,156,600
144. On a Direct Mercator chart, great circles are shown as:

a. Curves convex to the nearer pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer pole
145. The scale on a Lambert's conformal conic chart

a. is constant along a meridian of longitude
b. is constant along a parallel of latitude
c. varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
d. is constant across the whole map
146. Heading is 156°T, TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130/45. What is your true track ?
a 160
b 152
c 104
d 222
147. You are heading 345°M, the variation is 20°E, and you take a radar bearing of 30° left of the nose
from an island. What bearing do you plot?
a 160°T
b 155°T
c 140°T
d 180°T
148. The agonic line:

a. is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b. follows the geographic equator
c. is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d. Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions, one currently running through Western Europe
and the other through the USA
149. In which month does aphelion occur?

a. January
b. March
c. July
d. November
150. The distance from A to B is 2368 nautical miles. If outbound groundspeed in 365 knots and
homebound groundspeed is 480 knots and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes, what is the time to the
PNR?
a. 290 minutes
b. 209 minutes
c. 219 minutes
d. 190 minutes
151. Groundspeed is 540 knots. 72 nm to go. What is time to go?
a. 8 mins
b. 9 mins
c. 18 mins
d. 12 mins
152. A Rhumb line is:
a. the vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b. a straight line on a Lambert's conformal chart
c. a line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d. the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's surface
153. You fly from 49N to 58N along the 180 E/W meridian. What is the distance in kilometres?
a. 540 km
b. 804 km
c. 1222 km
d. 1000 km
154. What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?
a 23½0
b 66½0
c 450
d 900
155. Track = 090 (T), TAS = 460 knots, W/V = 360 (T) / 100, Variation= 10 E, Deviation = -2.
What is compass heading and groundspeed ?
a. 0790 470 knots
b. 0690 450 knots
c. 0680 460 knots
d. 0700 455 knots
156. The angle between True North and Magnetic north is known as:
a. deviation
b. variation
c. alignment error
d. dip
157. An aircraft is at 10° N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:
a. 100 S
b. 02° N
c. 020 S
d. 00° N/S
158. The circumference of the Earth is approximately:

a. 43200 nm
b. 10800 nm
c. 21600 nm
d. 5400 nm
a. Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b. Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c. Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d. Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease
160. Which of the following equipments does not use information from external sources in flight?
a. INS / IRS
b. pressure altimeter
c. slaved gyro compass
d. VOR
a. 317 knots
b. 330 knots
c. 342 knots
d. 360 knots
162. The wind velocity is 359/25. An aircraft is heading 180 at a TAS of 198 knots. (All directions are
True). What is its track and groundspeed?
a 180 223
b 179 220
c 180 220
d 179 223
163. An aircraft's compass must be swung:

a. If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times.
b. If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering.
c. Every maintenance inspection
d. After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude.
164. Civil Twilight occurs between:

a. Sunset and 6° below the horizon
b. 6° and 12° below the horizon
c. 12° and 18° below the horizon
d. Sunrise and sunset
165. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a 0°
b 90°
c 180°
d 64°

a. An isocline
b. An isogonal
c. An isogriv
d. An isovar
167. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

a. Because the Earth's spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun
b. Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
c. Because the Earth's orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
d. Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year
168. The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a. using long magnets
b. keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and using damping wires
c. pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
d. using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
169. An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120° (M), variation 17° (W). The
bearing (° T) from the aircraft to the island is:
a 268
b 302
c 088
d 122
170. At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude occur?
a 0°
b 45°
c 60°
d 90°
171. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a. Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
b. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
c. Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
d. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
172. Your position is 5833N 17400W. You fly exactly 6 nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a. 5833N 17411.5W
b. 5833N 17355W
c. 5833N 17340W
d. 5833N 17348.5W
173. Given: True Track = 352, Variation = 11 W, Deviation = - 5, Drift = 10 R.What is Heading (C)?
a. 078 C
b. 346 C
c. 358 C
d. 025 C
174. What is the definition of EAT?

a. Estimated on-blocks arrival time
b. Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c. Estimated initial approach fix time
d. Estimated final approach fix time
175. How do Rhumb lines (with the exception of meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a. concave to the nearer pole
b. convex to the nearer pole
c. an ellipse round the pole
d. straight lines
176. What is the diameter of the Earth?

a. 40000 km
b. 12732 km
c. 21600 km
d. 6366 km
177. An aircraft on the Equator accelerates whilst traveling westwards. What will be the effect on a direct
reading compass?
a. Indicates an increase in heading
b. No change
c. Indicates a decrease in heading
d. Indicates an apparent turn to the North
178. An aircraft flies 100 st mile in 20 minutes. How long does it take to fly 215 nm?
a. 50 mins
b. 37 mins
c. 57 mins
d. 42 mins
179. What is the duration of civil twilight?

a. From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the sensible horizon until the centre reaches a
depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
b. From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the sensible horizon until the centre
reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
c. From the moment when the centre of the sun is on the visual horizon until the centre reaches a
depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
d. From the moment when the tip of the sun disappears below the visual horizon until the centre reaches
a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
180. Scale on a Lambert conformal chart is:

a. constant along a line of latitude
b. constant along a line of longitude
c. constant everywhere
d. correct at the parallel of origin
181. Lines of latitude on a chart are always:

a. Great Circles
b. Small Circles except for the Equator
c. Vertices
d. Meridians
182. What is the formula for Conversion Angle?

a. Change of longitude x Sine latitude
b. Change of longitude x ''/z Sine mean longitude
c. Change of longitude x '/2 Sine mean latitude
d. Change of longitude x Cosine latitude
183. On the Polar Stereographic projection, a Great Circle appears as:

a. a straight line
b. a curve which becomes more near to a straight line as the latitude increases
c. a curve convex to the nearer pole
d. a curve which can be concave or convex to the nearer pole, depending on the latitude
184. A compass swing is performed in order to correct for:

a acceleration
b deviation
c variation
d aperiodicity
185. Isogonals are lines of equal:

a. compass deviation
b. magnetic variation
c. wind velocity
d. pressure
186. On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:

a. small circle concave to the nearer pole
b. straight line
c. curve convex to the nearer pole
d. spiral curve
187. Given: IAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
a. 141 kt
b. 102 kt
c. 120 kt
d. 132 kt
188. Given: True Course 300°, Drift 8°R, Variation 10°W, Deviation -4°. Calculate the compass heading.
a 322°
b 306°
c 278°
d 294°
189. Given: True track 180°, Drift 8°R, Compass Heading 195°, Deviation -2°. Calculate the variation.
a 21°W
b 25°W
c 5°W
d 9°W
190. What is the meaning of the term `standard time'?

a) It is another term for UTC
b) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
c) It is an expression for local mean time.
d) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.
191. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a) magnetic track
b) magnetic course
c) true heading
d) compass heading
192. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:

a) depends on the magnetic heading
b) depends on the value of true heading
c) varies slowly over time
d) depends on the type of compass installed
193. The value of magnetic variation:

a) has a maximum of 180°
b) varies between a maximum of 45°E and 45W
c) must be 0° at the magnetic equator
d) cannot exceed 90°
194. In the northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in a easterly direction, the magnetic compass will
indicate:
a) a heading of East
b) an increase in heading
c) an apparent turn to the South
d) a decrease in heading
195. In a remote indicating magnetic compass system, the amount of deviation caused by aircraft
magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by:
a) the use of repeater cards
b) positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
c) mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
d) using a vertically mounted gyroscope
196. An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?
a) 183 kt
b) 13 kt
c) 209 kt
d) 160 kt
197. Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C, what is the TAS?
a) 132 kt
b) 141 kt
c) 102 kt
d) 120 kt
198. Given: TAS 200 kt, Track 110°(T), WN 015/40 kt, calculate heading°(T) and groundspeed:
a) 0970 - 201 kt
b) 0990 - 199 kt
c) 1210 - 207 kt
d) 1210 - 199 kt
199. Given: True HDG 145°, TAS 240 kt, True Track 150°, G/S 210 kt, calculate the W/V.
a) 360/35
b) 295/35
c) 180/35
d) 115/35
200. What is the approximate compression of the Earth?

a) 3%
b) 0.03%
c) 0.3%
d) 1/3000
201. A Graticule is the name given to:

a) A series of lines drawn on a chart
b) A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c) A selection of small circles as you get nearer to either pole
202. A great circle has its North vertex at 70N 130E. What is the position of its South vertex?
203. Given that the compression of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth,
measured at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 km, what is the semi-major axis of the Earth measured at
the axis of the Poles'?
a) 6399.9 Km
b) 6356.9 Km
c) 6378.4 Km
d) 6367.0 Km
a) Movement of the magnetic poles, causing an increase
b) Increase in the magnetic field, causing an increase
c) Reduction in the magnetic field, causing a decrease
d) Movement of the magnetic poles, which can cause either an increase or a decrease

a) An isocline
b) An isogonal
c) An isogriv
d) An isovar
206. If variation is West; then:

a) True North is West of Magnetic North
b) Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c) True North is East of Magnetic North
d) Magnetic North is West of Compass North
207. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

a) 0°
b) 90°
c) 180°
d) 64°
208. Given: Track = 3520 (T), Var = 110W, Dev = -50, Dr = 100R. What is Heading (C)?
a) 0780(C) b) 3460(C) c) 3580(C) d) 0250(C)
209. Given: Magnetic heading 0600, Magnetic variation 80W, Drift angle 40 right. What is the true
course?
a) 0640 b) 0560 c) 0720 d) 0480
210. We normally get True Air Speed (TAS) from:
a) Aircraft speedometer
b) Aircraft’s altimeter
c) On applying corrections to IAS obtained from Air Speed Indicator (ASI)
d) Aircraft’s Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
211. Where the vertex is 730N 0300W the longitude that the great circle will cut the equator are:
a) 1100W & 0700E b) 1200W & 0600E
0 0
c) 100 W & 080 E d) None is correct.
212. What is the approximate compression of the Earth?

a) 3%
b) 0.03%
c) 0.3%
d) 1/3000
213. The circumference of the Earth is approximately?

a) 43200 nm
b) 10800 nm
c) 21600 nm
d) 5400 nm
214. A Graticule is the name given to:

a) A series of lines drawn on a chart
b) A series of Latitude and Longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c) A selection of small circles as you get nearer to either pole
215. A Great Circle has a Northern Vertex of 50N 100W. The Southern Vertex is?
a) 40S 100 W
b) 40S 080 E
c) 50S 100 W
d) 50S 080 E
216. 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds time difference is equivalent to which change of longitude?
a 81°30'
b 78° 15'
c 79° 10'
d 80° 05'
217. An aircraft at position 6000N 00522W flies 165 km due East. What is the new position?
a. 6000N 00820 E
b. 6000N 00224 W
c. 6000N 00108 E
d. 6000N 00108 W
262. A flight is to be made along the parallel of latitude from A at 48°00'N 04°00'W to B at 48°00'N 02° 27'
E. Calculate the distance:
a) 251 b) 252 c) 257 d) 259
218. An aircraft's compass must be swung:

a. If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times.
b. If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering.
c. Every maintenance inspection
d. After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude.
219. The main requirements of a direct reading magnetic compass are that it should be:
a) horizontal, sensitive, periodic.
b) easily read, floating in a transparent liquid, quick to react to change in aircraft heading.
c) positioned directly in front of the pilot, easily corrected for magnetic deviation, aperiodic.
d) aperiodic, horizontal, sensitive.
220. Joint Airworthiness Requirements ( JARs ) state that the maximum permissible deviation after
compensation of coefficients A, B and C are:
a) one degree for a remote indicating compass and ten degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass.
b) eleven degrees for a direct reading magnetic compass and one degree for a remote indicating
compass.
c) ten degrees for a remote indicating compass and one degree for a direct reading magnetic compass.
d) one degree for a direct reading magnetic compass and eleven degrees for a slaved compass.
221. You are in the northern hemisphere, heading West, and the aircraft is accelerating. (i) Will a direct
reading magnetic compass over-read or under-read? (ii) Is the compass indicating a turn to the north or
to the south?
Compass Indicating turn to
a (i) over-reads (ii) north
b (i) over-reads (ii) south
c (i) under-read (ii) north
d (i) under-reads (ii) south
222. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over the direct
reading magnetic compass?
a. It is lighter
b. It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate
c. It senses the earth's magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive
d. It is not affected by aircraft deviation
223. Given: True track 180° Drift 8°R Compass Heading 195° Deviation -2° Calculate the variation.
a 21°W
b 25°W
c 5°W
d 9°W
224. Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:

a) magnetic track
b) magnetic course
c) true heading
d) compass heading
a) 317 knots
b) 330 knots
c) 342 knots
d) 360 knots
226. You plan to take off from Khamis Mushayt, Saudi Arabia, elevation 6500 ft. The ambient temperature
is +25°c. What is your Density Altitude?
a) 3500 ft
b) 6500 ft
c) 9500 ft
d) 12500 ft
227. When it is the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:
a) the Arctic Circle
b) the Tropic of Capricorn
c) the Equator
d) the Tropic of Cancer
228. What is the angle between the Equinoctial and the Ecliptic?
a) 66'/20
b) 23'/20
c) varies between 23'/20N and 23'/20S
d) varies between 66'/20N and 66'/20S
229. The maximum difference between mean noon (1200LMT) and real/apparent noon occurs in
a) January/July
b) March/September
c) November/February
d) December/June
230. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a) 21 minutes
b) 16 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) there is no difference
231. `The Calendar Year and the Tropical Year are of different lengths. The difference is adjusted partly
by using leap years every fourth calendar year. However, some years are not designated as leap years'.
Which of the following years will be a leap year?
a) 2001
b) 2100
c) 2300
d) 2400
232. The Earth can be divided into:

a) 24 zones of 150 each representing 1 hr of day time.
b) 24 zones of 1 hr named A-Z omitting I & O.
c) 24 time zones named alphabetically.
d) 15 zones out of 3600 and an alphabet is assigned to each.
233. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a Zone Time of 0500 ZT on Zone Date 15 th May. What
is the UTC?
a) 2300 UTC 14th May
b) 1100 UTC 15th May
c) 2328 UTC 14th May
d) 1032 UTC 15th May
234. On Mid-winter Day in the Northern Hemisphere, the sun will be overhead:
a) 66'/20 S
b) 23'/20 N
c) 23'/20 S
d) the Equator
235. On June 21, what is the lowest northerly latitude (listed in the Air Almanac) at which the sun will be
above the horizon for 24 hrs (all day)?
a) 64N
b) 66N
c) 68N
d) 70N
236. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and a safe endurance of 10 hours. If the wind component on the
outbound leg is 50 knots head, what is the distance to the point of safe endurance?
a. 1500 nm
b. 1458 nm
c. 1544 nm
d. 1622 nm
237. An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. If
the wind component is 60 knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical point?
a. 250 nm
b. 200 nm
c. 300 nm
d. 280 nm
238. The distance from A to B is 2368 nautical miles. If outbound groundspeed in 365 knots and
homebound groundspeed is 480 knots and safe endurance is 8 hours 30 minutes, what is the time to the
PNR?
a. 290 minutes
b. 209 minutes
c. 219 minutes
d. 190 minutes
239. An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120° (M), variation 17°(W). The
bearing (° T) from the aircraft to the island is:
a 268
b 302
c 088
d 122
240. At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly?
a. Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox
b. Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice
c. Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice
d. Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice
241. The Ch. Lat between 65°27'S and 25°47'N is:

a. 39040'S
b. 39040'N
c. 91014'S
d. 91014'N
242. The Ch. Long between 090°20' E and 040°32' E is:
a. 49048'E
b. 49048'W
c. 130052'E
d. 130052'W
243. The Ch. Lat between 65°27'S and 25°47'N is:

a. 39040'S
b. 39040'N
c. 91014'S
d. 91014'N
244. The Ch. Long between 090°20' E and 040°32' E is:

a. 49048'E
b. 49048'W
c. 130052'E
d. 130052'W
245. A flight is to be made along the parallel of latitude from A at 48°00'N 04°00'W to B at 48°00'N 02° 27'
E. Calculate the distance:
a. 251
b. 252
c. 257
d. 259

a. dip is zero
b. variation is zero
c. deviation is zero
d. the isogonal is an agonic line
247. Given: Groundspeed = 240 kts and Distance = 72 nm, what is the time required?
a. 18 minutes
b. 28 minutes
c. 18.25 minutes
248. Given: Time = 3 h 25 min, Fuel Used =400 liters, Fuel Flow =?
a. 11.7 Ltr/Hr
b. 117 Ltr/Hr
c. 1170 Ltr/Hr
249. Given: Nm = 80, St. M =? and Km = ?

a. 92 and 148
b. 43.2 and 69.6
c. 98 and 154
250. Given: US Gall = 800, Liters =? and Imp Gall =?

a. 3031 and 667
b. 3130 and 667
c. 667 and 3031
d. 667 and 3130
251. CAS = 175 kts, Pressure Altitude = 8000 ft, Temp = +5°c, TAS =?
a. 180 kts
b. 200 kts
c. 220 kts
252. Given: IAS 120 knots, FL 80, OAT +20°C, what is the TAS ?
a. 132 kt
b. 141 kt
c. 102 kt
d. 120 kt
253. You plan to take off from position A where the elevation is 6500 ft. The ambient temperature is
+25°c. What is your Density Altitude?
a. 3500 ft
b. 6500 ft
c. 9500 ft
d. 12500 ft
254. You are at FL210; your rate of descent is 1200 feet per minute. How much time will you take to
reach at 3000 feet from your level?
a. 20 minutes
b. 17.5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
255. An aircraft leaves A to fly to B, 90 nm distance. Having flown 30 nm, the aircraft position is found
from a `pinpoint' (a geographical point over which the aircraft has flown); the pinpoint is 6 nm right of
track. What alteration of heading is required to fly direct to B?
a. 60 to the left
b. 120 to the right
c. 180 to the left
256. When it is 0622 LMT at 54030’W, what is the GMT at London?

a. 0338 Z
b. 0244 Z
c. 1000 Z
257. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a Zone Time of 0500 ZT on Zone Date 15 th May. What
is the UTC?
a. 2300 UTC 14th May
b. 1100 UTC 15th May
c. 2328 UTC 14th May
d. 1032 UTC 15th May
258. An aircraft leaves position A (35034’E) at 2100 GMT on 11 September on a flight to position B
(50045’E). If the flight time is 3 hours 21 minutes, what is the ETA at position B in LMT?
a. 0021 LMT on 11 September
b. 0021 LMT on 12 September
c. 0344 LMT on 11 September
d. 0344 LMT on 12 September
259. An aircraft is ti fly from position A (23040N 092050E) to position B (25020N 126010E) with TAS 400
kts and wind component 60 kts. If the departure of position A is 0500 UTC, what will be the ETA at
position B in LMT?
a. 1821 LMT
b. 0857 LMT
c. 1721 LMT
d. 0821 LMT
260. Which of the following indicates a VOR?

a. b.
c. d.
261 This symbol indicates:

a. Dead end ahead
b. Lighted obstacle
c. Tree
d. Forest area
262. An aircraft’s relative bearing 100° and heading 30° T. Aircraft’s true heading is:
a) 115° b) 130° c) 070° d) 100°
263. Parallels of latitude are called:

a) Rhumb line b) Great circle c) Meridian d) none
264. If compass heading 141°, Dev. 2°E & Ver.8°W, then true heading is:
a) 147° b) 151° c) 135° d) 143°
265. 1° of longitude difference time difference is equals to:

a) ¼ sec b) ¼ min. c) 4 sec d) 4 min
311. 1’ of latitude is equals to:
a) 5280 ft b) 6080 ft c) 3280 ft d) 4280 ft
266. If the scale is 1:2500 000, then 2 inch represents on earth surface is:
a) 68.16nm b) 35.26nm c) 34.26nm d) 68.52nm
267. Change of Longitude from 89° 26’E to 35° 47’ E is:

a) 125° 13’W b) 125° 13’E c) 53° 39’W d) 53° 39’E
268. Lines joining places of equal ground elevation is called:

a) Contours b) Isogonals c) Form lines d) Hachuring
269. QTE means aircraft’s bearing:

a) relative b) compass c) true d) magnetic
270. At 23° 12’N12°E if UTC 0400 then LMT will be:

a) 0600 b) 0400 c) 1200 d) 1000
271. Aircraft’s heading E and speed decrease, effect apparent turn to:
a) W b) S c) N d) E
272. Polar Diameter of the earth (in Statute Miles) is

a) 7,800 b) 7827 c) 7900 d) 7927
273. Map projection might have distortion like

a) Area b) Distance c) Shape d) All of the above are correct
274. Position on earth can be expressed by –

a) By Latitude and Longitude b) By Place name
c) By Bearing and distance d) All of the above are correct.
275. 45° latitude change means

a) Time deferent will be 03 hours
b) Time deferent will be 02 hours
c) Time deferent will be 01 hours 15 minute
d) None of the above is correct.
276. Cardinal points are –

a) North
b) South
c) North, South, East, West
d) None is correct.
277. Magnetic North is

a) South of True North b) West of True North
c) East of true North d) None of the above is correct.
278. 1:1000000 is a example of

a) Graduated scale b) A representative Fraction
c) A statement in words. d) all of the above is correct.
279. Which Statement is true about MERCATOR’s Projection

a) Pole cannot be projected. b) Rhumb lines are straight line
c) Meridians are straight and parallel line d) all of the above are correct.
280. Track Error is the angle between
a) HDG & TRK b) TR & TMG
c) HDG & W/V d) TR & W/V
281. Equatorial diameter of the earth (in Statute Miles) is

a) 7,800 b) 7827 c) 7900 d) 7927
282. Parallel of latitudes is

a) Parallel with the axis of earth b) Great circle but center is not same as earth
c) Parallel with equator d) None of the above is correct.
283. If we fly in Easterly direction and cross the International Date Line then -
a) add 12 hours
b) add 24 hours
c) subtract 12 hours
d) subtract 24 hours
284. The datum for longitude is that meridian which passes through the position of
a) Greenwich, London
b) Geneva
c) New York Times
285. 1 minute of time equals to

a) 15 min of longitude
b) 15 sec of longitude
c) none is correct
286. Wind velocity is the wind effect,

a) per hour
b) per minute
c) 24 hourly
287. Any circle on the surface of the earth which is not a great circle is called :
a) Rhumb line b) Great circle c) Small circle d) Prime meridian
288. The imaginary line passing round the centre of the earth whose plane is at right angle to the axis
of the rotation is called:
a) Longitude b) Latitude c) Equator d) Rhumb Line
289. What is the change of latitude in the case from 83037'S to 42050'S;
a) 12 045'S b) 40 0 47' N c) 53 0 59' S d) 40 0 47' S
290. What is the change of latitude in this case from 025 0 42'W to 056 0 29’W:
a) 30 0 47'wW b) 30 0 47' E c) 32 0 48' E d) 53 039'W
291. When GMT at London is 1000Z, what is the L.M.T at 60 030' W:

a) 0558 hours b) 0658 hours c) 0530 hours d) 1402 hours
292. 1 Nautical mile is equal to:

a) 5280 feet b) 3280 feet c) 6080 feet d) 1760 feet
293. The earth rotates about its fixed axis and the extremities of the axis are named arbitrarily:
a) East and West b) North and South c) Up and down
294. A freely suspended magnetic needle does not point in the direction of the:
a) Compass North b) Magnetic North c) True North
295. The method in which height of ground is shown on maps is known as:
a) Relief b) Marketer c) Variation d) Dead Reckoning
296. By compass swing the correction is done on the:

a) Variation card b) Deviation card c) Gyro compass
297. The angle of inclination between selected meridians at particular latitude is known as:
a) Critical angle b) Convergency c) Conversion angle
298. The angular difference between the Great circle and rhumb line is called:
a) Convergence b) Rhumb line c) Conversion angle
299. A systematic laying down of meridians and parallels on to a flat sheet is known as:
a) Map projection b) Plotting c) Mercators s Projection
300. If great circle on the earth’s surface are reproduced as straight line on the map is termed as:
a) Equal area projections
b) Azimuthal projection
c) Orthodromic projections
301. The Speed of an aircraft as read directly form the Airspeed indicator is know as:
a) Calibrated Airspeed b) Indicted Airspeed c) True Air Speed
302. The Indicated Airspeed after correction for positions and instrument error is known as:
a) True Airspeed b) Calibrated Airspeed c) True Air Speed
303. Calibrated Airspeed corrected for height and temperature difference from MSL Standard
Atmosphere is known as:
a) True Airspeed b) Rectified Airspeed c) Indicated Airspeed
304. The direction in which the aircraft is pointing while is flight is known as:
a) Track b) Heading c) Track made Good
305. The Speed at which the aircraft tracks over the surface of the earth is known as:
a) Varity b) Ground Speed c) Air Speed.
306. The horizontal flow of the air mass over the earth surface is known as:
a) Wind Speed b) Wind c) Wind Velocity
307. The positions on the surface of the earth directly beneath the aircraft at a particular time is known
as:
a) Air Position b) Pinpoint c) Ground Position
308. Graphical representations of a velocity is known as:

a) Speed b) Vector c) Fix
309. A line drawn on the map at some point upon which the aircraft is known as:
a) Bearing b) Positions line c) Real-time Bearing
310. ___ Means:

a) Civil Land Aerodrome
b) Military Land Aerodrome
c) Joint Civil & Military Land Aerodrome
311. If variation is West; then:

a. True North is West of Magnetic North
b. Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c. True North is East of Magnetic North
d. Magnetic North is West of Compass North
RADIO NAVIGATION
1. Which statement of the following is correct?
a) Cycle is a complete sequence of positive and negative values
b) Cycle is a complete process of electron movement
c) Both a & b correct
d) only a is correct
2. Class 'C' VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:

a) ± 10
b) ± 50
c) ± 20
d) ± 100
3. The accuracy of ADF by day is:

a) +/-1o
b) +/-2°
c) +/-5°
d) +/-10°
4. The frequency band containing a wavelength of 75 cm is:

a) VHF
b) UHF
c) SHF
5. The correct SSR code to indicate emergency is:

a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500
6. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller is:
a) +/- 25 ft
b) +/- 50 ft
c) +/- 75 ft
d) +/- 100 ft
7. Surface wave is the component of:

a) Sky wave
b) Ground Wave
c) Space Wave
d) Direct Wave
8. As the angle of transmission increases bending of radio wave:

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) All of above correct depending on circumstances
9. A loud speaker converts:

a) Electronic wave to sound wave
b) Sound wave to electronic wave
c) Audio freq to radio freq
d) Radio freq to audio freq
10. During thunderstorm ADF function switch is kept at:

a) Antenna position
b) Loop position
c) ADF position
d) any of the above is true
11. Night effect occurs due to:

a) Horizontally polarized sky wave
b) Reception of Ground wave and sky wave simultaneously
c) Both of above
d) Any of above
12. The ident tone of ILS is:

a) 400 Hz
b) 1020 Hz
c) 1300 Hz
d) None
13. The distance of outer marker is ideally 3.9 nm from the:

a) Approach threshold
b) ILS touch down point
c) Runway approach end
d) ILS reference point
14. The ILS channel selector selects the freq of operation of:
a) ILS
b) VOR
c) Both of above
d) None of above
15. The same receiver is used in the aircraft to receive signals of:
a) localizer and VOR
b) VOR and glide path
c) glide path and localizer
d) any of above
16. In ILS cockpit display, a flag alarm indicates the failure of equipment in:
a) ground
b) aircraft
c) both of above
d) any of above
17. The identity interval of VOR / DME is divided in the ratio of VOR : DME as
a) 1:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:3
d) 3:1
18. A radar system in which the target takes active part is called:
a) primary radar
b) secondary radar
c) phasing radar
d) all of above
19. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?
a) magnetic bearing
b) DME
c) Nothing
d) DME and magnetic bearing
20. If the interrogating freq on channel 20X is 1044, the interrogating freq on channel 64Y will be:
a) 1088 MHz
b) 1025 MHz
c) 1150 MHz
d) 1105 MHz
21. What are the DME frequencies?

a) 1030 & 1090 MHz
b) 1030 - 1090 MHz
c) 960 & 1215 MHz
d) 960 - 1215 MHz
22. An aircraft is flying at 30000 ft overhead a VOR. What is the diameter of the cone of confusion?
a) 4.93 nm
b) 5.9 nm
c) 11.8 nm
23. An accuracy of 5° in VOR bearings received at an aircraft is achieved:

a) within the cone of confusion by day only.
b) at all ranges within the DOC limits day and night.
c) within the DOC limits by day only.
d) beyond the cone of confusion as far as the DOC limits by day and night.
24. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF R/T
station at 300 ft is:
a) 200 nm
b) 219 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 198 nm
25. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a) is most marked at night.
b) can be minimized by using beacons situated well inland.
c) can be minimized by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles.
d) is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.
26. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

a) static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire.
b) the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB
transmissions.
c) station interference and/or night effect.
d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.
27. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:
a) ± 3°
b) ± 5°
c) ± 6°
d) ± 10°
28. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected by
coastal refraction may be reduced by:
a) selecting beacons situated well inland.
b) only using beacons within the designated operational coverage.
c) choosing NON A2A beacons.
d) choosing beacons on or near the coast.
29. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a) sky wave
b) surface wave
c) direct wave
d) ducted wave
30. A Conventional VOR:

a) has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal.
b) has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c) has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
d) has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal.
31. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ...... and receives responses on ......
a) 1030 MHz, 1030 MHz
b) 1030 MHz, 1090 MHz
c) 1090 MHz, 1030 MHz
d) 1090 MHz, 1090 MHz
32. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
a) pulse repetition rate
b) pulse width
c) power
d) beam width
33. The special SSR codes unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight:
a) 7700
b) 7500
c) 7600
34. Secondary radars require:

a) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
b) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based.
c) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a
ground based transponder.
d) a quiescent target.
35. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses
intended for other aircraft because:
a) aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
b) aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses.
c) aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate.
d) each aircraft has its own frequency allocation.
36. The accuracy associated with DME is:

a) + or - 3% of range, or 0.5nm, whichever is greater
b) + or - 1.25% of range
c) + or - 3% of range
d) +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range
37. The GPS operational constellation comprises _____ satellites:

a) 12
b) 21
c) 24
d) 30
38. SELCAL functional check must be made:

a) only on the ground before departure of a flight into an area where SELCAL is available
b) on initial contact and when entering an area where SELCAL is available.
c) with the local ATCC before take-off.
d) when crossing the coast inbound.
39. With reference to airborne weather radar the principle of operation and the frequency band in
which it operates are:
PRINCIPLE BAND
a) secondary radar UHF
b) primary radar EHF
c) secondary radar VHF
d) primary radar SHF
40. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an ADF?

a) BFO on
b) Select the loop position
c) Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the signal
d) Select the LOOP position
41. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?
a) it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) after 100 seconds
b) it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse pairs
c) it stays in the search mode at 150 ppps
d) it alternates between search and memory modes every 10 seconds
42. Critical frequency is the:

a) highest frequency for a particular layer which when sent vertically upwards returns back to the
surface of the earth
b) lowest frequency to achieve communication between two points
c) maximum frequency which still retains the communication between two points
d) 85% of the maximum usable frequency
43. A super heterodyne receiver is one which has:

a) a mixer stage, a detector stage and an I.F. amplifier stage
b) an I.F. amplifier stage, a local oscillator stage and a mixer stage
c) an audio amplifier stage, a detector stage and an I.F. amplifier stage
44. Concerning sky wave propagation, which of the following is correct?

a) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by night.
b) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by day.
c) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by night.
d) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by day.
45. When would VDF be used for a position fix?
a) When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
b) When first talking to a FIR on crossing an international boundary.
c) When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.
d) When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz.
46. The allocated frequency ILS Localizer is:

a) 108 to 112 MHz using the odd first decimals and the odd first decimals plus 50 KHz
b) 108 - 117.95 MHz using the odd first decimals and the odd first decimals plus 50 KHz
c) 108 - 117.95 MHz using the even first decimals and the odd first decimals plus 50 KHz
d) 190 - 1750 KHz
47. The accuracy of VOR is:

a) +/-1o
b) +/-2°
c) +/-5°
d) +/-10°
48. When tuning, identifying and monitoring an NDB which has the emission characteristic NON A1A, it is
necessary:
a) for the BFO to be on for all three.
b) for the BFO to be off for tuning only.
c) for the ADF function to be selected.
d) for the ANT function to be selected.
49. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a) during long winter nights.
b) when the aircraft is at low altitude.
c) when the aircraft is at high altitude.
d) at dusk and dawn.
50. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an ADF receiver, the
resultant polar diagram is:
a) a limacon
b) a cardioid
c) figure of eight shaped
d) circular
51. Modulation is:

a) combination of speech and songs on electromagnetic waves
b) superimposing of intelligence, such as speech or Morse identification, on to a carrier wave
c) superimposing of intelligence speech on to a carrier wave
d) None of above
52. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 225 can receive signals from a VOR station
situated 1,600 ft AMSL is:
a) 194nm
b) The DOC range limit.
c) 237.5nm
d) 68.75nm
53. The ILS outer marker transmits on ...... and is identified by an aural signal of ...... .
a) 75Mhz 2 dashes per second
b) 75khz alternate dots and dashes
c) 75Mhz alternate dots and dashes
d) 75khz 2 dashes per second
54. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ...... aircraft are interrogating the
transponder.
a) 10
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
57. Which following statement is true?

a) Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object whereas secondary radar uses responses
from a transponder.
b) Primary radar can only find the range of a reflecting object.
c) Secondary radar always measures the bearing of a reflecting object more accurately than a
primary.
d) Only secondary, not primary, radar can be carried in an aircraft.
56. The correct SSR code to indicate radio failure is:

a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500
57. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF R/T
station at 300 ft is:
a) 200 nm
b) 219 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 198 nm
58. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 5,045 MHz is:

a) 59.5 cm
b) 5.95 cm
c) 19.8 cm
d) 1.98 cm
59. The phase of a variable wave is at 240° as the phase of a reference wave is 090°. The phase
difference is:
a) 210°
b) 150°
c) 330°
d) 030°
79. The greatest range for a surface wave will be at a frequency of:
a) 198 KHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 2,182 KHz
d) 4,300 MHz
60. At a fixed frequency if the level of ionisation increases, then:

a) The dead space will increase because of the increase in critical angle.
b) The dead space will decrease because of a decrease in critical angle
c) The dead space will increase because of a decrease in the critical angle.
d) The dead space will decrease because of an increase in the critical angle.
61. The reduction in the power available in a radio wave as the distance from a transmitter increases is
known as:
a) Dissipation
b) Diffraction
c) Attenuation
d) Refraction
62. An advantage of FM when compared with AM is:

a) Less susceptible to static interference
b) Smaller bandwidth
c) Easier to demodulate (ie extract information)
d) More suitable for use at lower frequencies
63. Concerning skywave propagation, which of the following is correct?

a) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by night.
b) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by day.
c) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by night.
d) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by day.
64. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station at a range of 300 nm, if the ground station is
situated 2500' amsl which of the following is the lowest altitude at which contact is likely to be
made?
a) 190'
b) 1,378'
c) 36,100'
d) 84,100'
65. Class'B' VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:
a) ± 10
b) ± 50
c) ± 20
d) ± 100
66. A VDF QDM given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate to within:
a) 2 degrees
b) 5 degrees
c) 7.5 degrees
d) 10 degrees
67. An aircraft at altitude 9000 feet wishes to communicate with a VHF/DF station that is situated at 400
feet amsl. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be made ?
a) 115nm
b) 400nm
c) 143nm
d) 63.5nm
68. An aircraft at 19,000ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1,400ft amsl. What is the
maximum range at which contact is likely ?
a) 175nm
b) 400.0nm
c) 62.5nm
d) 219nm
69. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a) is most marked at night.
b) can be minimised by using beacons situated well inland.
c) can be minimised by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles.
d) is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.
70. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:
a) static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire.
b) the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming NDB
transmissions.
c) station interference and/or night effect.
d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.
71. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NON A 1 A NDB emissions the BFO should be used as
follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a) On On Off
b) On On On
c) On Off Off
d) Off Off Off
72. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected by
coastal refraction may b reduced by:
a) selecting beacons situated well inland.
b) only using beacons within the designated operational coverage.
c) choosing NON A2A beacons.
d) choosing beacons on or near the coast.
73. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having NON AIA
type emission is to be used:
a) BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.
b) BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c) BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is not
modulated.
d) BFO should be switched on for tuning, ident and monitoring.
74. The Protection Ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the Promulgated range/Designated Operational
Coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at night because of:
a) Long range skywave interference from other transmitters.
b) Skywave signals from the NDB to which you are tuned.
c) The increased skip distance that occurs at night.
d) The possibility of sporadic E returns occurring at night.
75. Each NDB has a range promulgated in the COMM section of the Air Pilot. Within this range
interference from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess of:
a) day ± 5 °
b) night ± 10°
c) day ± 6 °
d) night ± 5 °
76. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the signal
when it reaches the coastline and bending the normal to the coast:
a) accelerating towards
b) decelerating towards
c) accelerating away from
d) decelerating away from
77. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a) during long winter nights.
b) when the aircraft is at low altitude.
e) when the aircraft is at high altitude.
d) at dusk and dawn.
78. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an ADF receiver, the
resultant polar diagram is:
a) a limacon
b) a cardioid
c) figure of eight shaped
d) circular
79. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of position lines, the
plotted position in relation to the aircraft's actual position will be:
a) further from the coast.
b) closer to the coast.
c) co-incident.
d) inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating.
80. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a) skywave
b) surface wave
c) direct wave
d) ducted wave
81. The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM section of the Air Pilot:
a) Is only applicable by day.
b) Guarantees a Protection Ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night.
c) Defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from interference from
other VORs on the same channel.
d) Is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel.
82. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR
beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 274 nms
b) 255 nms
c) 112 nms
d) 224 nms
83. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain from a VOR
beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 225 nm
b) 256 nm
c) 281 nm
d) 257 nm
84. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900 feet
above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18 000 feet ?
a) 168nm
b) 188nm
c) 205nm
d) 250nm
85. The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained within the
DOC is:
a) plus or minus V
b) plus or minus 2°
c) plus or minus 5°
d) plus or minus 10°
86. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
a) pulse repetition rate
b) pulse width
c) power
d) beamwidth
87. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

a) No maximum range limitation
b) Better range resolution
c) No minimum range limitation
d) Better range resolution
88. If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be:
a) 324 nm
b) 300 nm
c) 162 nm
d) 600 nm
89. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a target is 1720
microseconds. What is the range of the target?
a) 139 km
b) 258 km
c) 278 km
d) 516 km
90. If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
a) 170 nm
b) 315 nm
c) 340 nm
d) 630 nm
91. A radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that would permit this is:
a) 25000 pps
b) 6700 pps
c) 12500 pps
d) 13400 pps
92. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency , radio failure , entering UK airspace , unlawful
interference with the conduct of the flight
a) 7700; 7600; 2000; 7500.
b) 7700; 7600; 7500; 2000.
c) 7600; 7500; 2000; 7700.
d) 7500; 7600; 2000; 7700.
93. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of radar with type emissions operating in the band.
a) primary pulse SHF
b) primary pulse UHF
c) secondary FM SHF
d) secondary pulse UHF
94. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed

a) it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller's screen.
b) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p sec
before the last framing pulse.
c) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35p sec
after the last framing pulse.
d) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p sec
after the last framing pulse.
95. The SSR code which is appropriate for a UK FIR (inbound) crossing, where no other "squawk"
has been allocated is:
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 2000
96. Secondary radars require:

a) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
b) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based.
c) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or a
ground based transponder.
d) a quiescent target.
97. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and pulses
intended for other aircraft because:
a) aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
b) aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses.
c) aircraft reject pulses not synchronised with its own random pulse recurrence rate.
d) each aircraft has its own frequency allocation.
98. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of
a) 1030 Mhz
b) 902 Mhz
c) 1025 Mhz
d) 962 Mhz
99. A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last identifying
letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
a) they are co-located.
b) they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location.
c) they are widely separated and do not serve the same location.
d) they are a maximum distance of 30m apart.
100. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
a) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
b) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
c) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
d) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
101. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

a) 3% of range
b) 1.25 % of range
c) 0.5 nm
d) +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range
102. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and replies to
other aircraft because:
a) DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b) DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment ejects
all other pulses.
c) Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronised replies.
d) When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range.
103. When a DME transponder becomes saturated:

a) it reverts to standby.
b) it increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the demand.
c) it increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals.
d) it goes into a selective response mode of operation.
104. An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400' above mean
sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved ?
a) 210 nm
b) 198 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 222 nm
105. The accuracy associated with DME is:
a) + or - 3% of range, or 0.5nm, whichever is greater
b) + or - 1.25% of range
c) + or - 3% of range
d) +/-0.25 nm +/-1.25% of range
106. The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
107. Which of the following statements concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct?
a) satellite time is the same as UTC
b) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is independent of UTC
c) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is correlated with UTC
d) satellite time is based on sidereal time
108. The modulation technique used in ILS and a typical localiser frequency are: MODULATION
FREQUENCY
a) A9W 329.30Mhz
b) A8W 110.30Mhz
c) A9W 110.70Mhz
d) A8W 118.30Mhz
109. The middle marker of an ILS system has an audible code which is:
a) alternating dots and dashes at 400Hz.
b) alternating dots and dashes at 1300Hz.
c) alternating dots and dashes at 3000Hz.
d) high pitch dots.
110. When tuning, identifying and monitoring an NDB which has the emission characteristic NONA 1 A, it
is necessary:
a) for the BFO to be on for all three.
b) for the BFO to be off for tuning only.
c) for the ADF function to be selected.
d) for the ANT function to be selected.
111. When using an Airborne Weather Radar in the weather mode the strongest returns on the screen
indicate:
a) areas where high concentrations of large water droplets exist.
b) areas of moderate or severe turbulence.
c) areas of probable windshear.
d) areas of thunderstorm activity.
112. When using an NDB with the emission designation of NONA2A the BFO position is:
TUNING IDENTIFYING MONITORING
a) ON ON ON
b) OFF OFF OFF
c) OFF ON ON
d) ON OFF OFF
113. A typical ILS localiser frequency, in Mhz, is:
a) 329.30
b) 110.30
c) 110.45
d) 75.00
114. A class B true bearing from a ground VDF station is a ...... with an accuracy of ...... .
a) QTE +/-5°
b) QDM +/-5°
c) QUJ +/-5°
d) QDR +/-5°
115. Two examples of secondary radar are:

a) VOR and DME
b) AWR and SSR
c) SSR and DME
d) VOR and DECCA
116. When would VDF be used for a position fix?

a. When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
b. When first talking to a FIR on crossing an international boundary.
c. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.
d. When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz.
117. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let down?

a. no equipment required in the aircraft
b. no special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground
c. only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft
d. it is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required
118. Which of the following statements regarding VHF direction finding (VDF) is most accurate.
a. it is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground
b. it is simple and requires a VHF radio and DF equipment in the aircraft
c. it is simple requiring only VHF radios on the ground and in the aircraft
d. it uses line of sight propagation
119. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification?
a. 2000 m
b. 60 m
c. 600 m
d. 6 m
120. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30
seconds:
a. 4 identifications in the same tone
b. 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
c. 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
d. no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated
then this shows that both are serviceable
121. The frequency band of VOR is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. LF & MF
122. Which of the following provides distance information?

a. DME
b. VOR
c. ADF
d. VDF
123. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
124. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix ?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
125. Which of the following is independent of external inputs ?

a. INS
b. Direct reading magnetic compass
c. VOR/DME
d. ADF
ANSWER SHEET
SUBJECT : NAVIGATION
GENERAL NAVIGATION
Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 a 76 c 151 a 226 c
2 c 77 a 152 c 227 b
3 c 78 c 153 d 228 b
4 d 79 c 154 a 229 c
5 c 80 a 155 b 230 b
6 b 81 b 156 b 231 d
7 d 82 b 157 c 232 a
8 c 83 a 158 c 233 a
9 a 84 a 159 d 234 c
10 b 85 c 160 a 235 b
11 a 86 b 161 c 236 b
12 a 87 b 162 a 237 c
13 c 88 c 163 b 238 a
14 c 89 a 164 a 239 c
15 c 90 c 165 b 240 a
16 b 91 d 166 b 241 d
17 c 92 a 167 a 242 b
18 a 93 c 168 b 243 d
19 a 94 c 169 c 244 b
20 a 95 b 170 b 245 d
21 b 96 b 171 a 246 a
22 b 97 b 172 d 247 a
23 a 98 c 173 c 248 b
24 b 99 a 174 c 249 a
25 b 100 d 175 a 250 a
26 c 101 b 176 b 251 b
27 d 102 c 177 b 252 b
28 b 103 c 178 a 253 c
29 - 104 b 179 d 254 c
30 b 105 b 180 a 255 c
31 b 106 d 181 b 256 c
32 a 107 b 182 c 257 a
33 b 108 c 183 b 258 d
34 a 109 a 184 b 259 c
35 c 110 b 185 b 260 c
36 a 111 c 186 b 261 b
37 i, iii, iv 112 a 187 a 262 c
38 a 113 c 188 b 263 a
39 d 114 b 189 a 264 c
40 c 115 a 190 d 265 d
41 c 116 c 191 d 266
42 c 117 c 192 c 267 c
43 a 118 d 193 a 268 a
44 c 119 a 194 d 269 d
45 a 120 c 195 c 270
46 a 121 b 196 d 271
47 c 122 a 197 b 272
48 d 123 a 198 b 273 d
49 c 124 b 199 d 274 d
50 b 125 c 200 c 275 a
51 b 126 c 201 b 276 c
52 c 127 a 202 277 b
53 c 128 a 203 b 278 b
54 c 129 a 204 d 279 d
55 b 130 b 205 b 280 a
56 c 131 a 206 b 281
57 d 132 c 207 b 282 c
58 c 133 c 208 c 283 b
59 d 134 a 209 d 284 a
60 b 135 b 210 c 285 a
61 c 136 a 211 286 a
62 b 137 a 212 c 287 c
63 a 138 b 213 c 288 c
64 c 139 c 214 b 289
65 c 140 a 215 d 290
66 a 141 d 216 d 291
67 b 142 c 217 b 292 c
68 c 143 c 218 b 293 b
69 b 144 a 219 d 294 c
70 f 145 b 220 a 295 a
71 b 146 a 221 a 296 b
72 a 147 b 222 c 297 b
73 c 148 d 223 a 298 c
74 d 149 c 224 d 299 a
75 d 150 a 225 c 300 b
301 b 302 b 303 a 304 b
305 b 306 c 307 c 308 b
309 310 c 311 c
RADIO NAVIGATION
Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 C 32 A 63 b 94 d
2 D 33 B 64 b 95 d
3 C 34 C 65 B 96
4 B 35 C 66 D 97 C
5 A 36 C 67 A 98 C
6 B 37 D 68 B 99 B
7 B 38 C 69 C 100 C
8 B 39 B 70 B 101 D
9 A 40 D 71 B 102 C
10 B 41 C 72 D 103 C
11 C 42 B 73 D 104 D
12 B 43 B 74 A 105 D
13 A 44 B 75 A 106 B
14 C 45 D 76 C 107 C
15 C 46 A 77 D 108 B
16 D 47 C 78 B 109 B
17 D 48 A 79 B 110 A
18 B 49 D 80 B 111 A
19 B 50 B 81 C 112 D
20 A 51 B 82 A 113 B
21 D 52 C 83 C 114 A
22 C 53 A 84 C 115 C
23 C 54 C 85 C 116 D
24 B 55 A 86 A 117 C
25 C 56 B 87 C 118 D
26 B 57 B 88 C 119 C
27 B 58 B 89 B 120 B
28 D 59 B 90 A 121 A
29 B 60 D 91 C 122 A
30 A 61 D 92 A 123 B
31 B 62 D 93 D 124 C
125 a

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GENERAL NAVIGATION

3. The compression ratio of the Earth:

4. The direction of the Earth’s rotation on its axis is such that:

5. The Prime Meridian is:

6. Equator can be defined as:

7. A correct definition of longitude is:

8. While referring to a position on Earth:

10. Lines of latitude on a chart are always:

12. The methods of defining position on Earth:

14. Any Meridian Line is a:

16. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

17. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

18. At the magnetic equator:

20. Where is a compass most effective?

21. The value of variation:

22. Isogonals drawn on a map:

23. What is a line of equal magnetic variation?

25. Isogonal lines converge as follows:

26. What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?

27. The agonic line:

28. Compass swing should be carried out:

29. How many Nm is equal to 100 of arc of latitude?

35. Scale is defined as:

36. Relief on a map can be represented by:

37. A normal Mercator chart is a _______ projection?

38. A direct Mercator graticule is:

39. On a normal Mercator chart, rhumb lines are represented as:

40. On a direct Mercator, Great Circles can be represented as:

42. Convergence on a Transverse Mercator chart is correct at:

43. Where is scale correct on a Transverse Mercator chart?

45. What is the main use of an Oblique Mercator chart?

46. When does perihelion occur?

47. When does aphelion occur?

49. When do `equinoxes' occur?

53. A sidereal day is:

56. What is the length of a Sidereal Year?

59. The definition of Local Mean Time (LMT) is:

61. Zone Time (ZT) is used?

62. What is the Zone Number for longitude 127°30'W?

70 Civil Twilight is?

73. In a standby direct reading compass there is:

81. Compass swings should be carried out:

82. Aircraft magnetism caused by Vertical Soft Iron:

83. Aircraft magnetism caused by Hard Iron:

84. The aim of a compass swing is:

87. An ICAO nautical mile is defined as?

94. The circumference of the Earth is approximately?

98. At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation

99. At the magnetic equator

117. A non-perspective chart:

118. On a Mercator chart, a Rhumb Line appears as a:

119. Mercator charts use _____ Projections ?

124. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

126. What is the definition of magnetic variation?

127. At the magnetic equator:

129. Where is a compass most effective?

130. The value of variation:

134. Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have

144. On a Direct Mercator chart, great circles are shown as:

145. The scale on a Lambert's conformal conic chart

148. The agonic line:

149. In which month does aphelion occur?

158. The circumference of the Earth is approximately: