TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE OF THE PHILIPPINES

MANILA

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

Pre- Board Examination
Chemical Engineering Principles

1. Refuse that has essentially unburnt fixed carbon is

a. wetted refuse
b. coked refuse
c. uncoked refuse
d. mixture of coke and uncoked

2. A certain manufacturing plant utilizes plenty of air in its operation. Ambient air passes through an adiabatic humidifier before being
charge to the plant. The operation of an adiabatic humidifier is similar to
a. cooling tower
b. spray chamber
c. coke packed dehumidifier
d. gas absorber

3. In a PFFP the rate of washing is equal to ________ of the final filtration rate.
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1
d. 2

4. In filtration operation involving incompressible cakes, the flow rate is directly proportional to
a. viscosity of the filtrate
b. thickness of the filter cake
c. the pressure applied
d. the size of the cake particles

5. In PFFP the rate of filtration is directly proportional to the

a. resistance of the filter cake
b. the cross section of the filter surface
c. resistance of the filter medium
d. viscosity of the filtrate

6. Equilibrium in crystallization process is reached when the solution is

a. unsaturated
b. saturated
c. supersaturated
d. none of the above

7. The latent heat evolved when solid forms from solution and varies with both temperature and concentration is called
a. heat of dilution
b. heat of vaporization
c. heat of crystallization
d. heat of fusion

8. Copra producers labeled their product as “dry” copra which means

a. their product does not contain any moisture
b. their product contains very small amount of moisture
c. their product contains equilibrium moisture
d. the weight of their product is the same as the bone dry weight
8. The temperature of a vapor-gas mixture as ordinarily determined by immersion of a thermometer in the mixture.
a. wet bulb temp.
b. dew point temp.
c. saturation temp.
d. dry bulb temp.

9. Air conditioning involves

a. stripping
b. humidification
c. dehumidification
d. evaporative cooling

10. The portion of water in the wet solid that cannot be removed by the air in its contact is called
a. free moisture
 b. final moisture
c. equilibrium moisture content
d. critical free moisture

11. This type of drier is used for drying pasty materials such as wet filter cakes and lumpy solids.
a. rotary drier
b. flash drier
c. tray drier
d. continuos drier

12. At the falling rate drying the rate at which moisture is removed from the solid material
a. increase with time
b. decrease with time
c. remains constant
d. no more drying takes place
13. A SWC is to be used to produce 1 ton/ h of copperas crystals by cooling of a sat’d solution which enters the crystallize at 120ºF.
the slurry leaving the crystallize will be at 80ºF. cooling water enters the crystallize jacket at 60ºF and leaves at 70ºF. it may be
assumed that U for the crystallization is 35. There are 3.5 ft2 of cooling surface per foot of crystallize length.
DATA:
Heat of solution = 4400 cal/ gmole
Cp copperas = 0.7 BTU/ lb-ºF
Solubility:
@ 120ºF = 140 parts copperas / 100 parts water
80ºF = 74 parts copperas / 100 parts water

Calculate the cooling water required.

a. 52 gpm
b. 50 gpm
c. 60 gpm
d. 45 gpm

14. A batch of 1000 kg of KCl is dissolved in sufficient water to make a sat’d solution @ 363 ºK, where the solubility is 35 w % KCl in
water.the solution is cooled to 293 K which temp. The solubility is 25.4 w %. The weight of the crystal obtained if 5% of the original
water evaporates on cooling is
a. 400 kg
b. 238 kg
c. 200 kg
d. 480 kg

15. A plate and frame filter press is used to filter certain sludge for 2 h at constant pressure. Washing is done by using 10% of the
filtrate collected. The time of washing is
a. 100 min
b. 96 min
c. 16 min
d. 100 h

16. In the filtration of Al(OH)3 the following date were obtained

1. pump is operated at 50 psia
2. filtration was completed at constant pressure
3. the constant rate time is 15 min and 1/3 of the total volume is obtained during this period.

If only ½ of the original filtrate volume were collected with the area remaining the same, the filtration time is
a. 20.5 min c. 48.6 min
b. 24.4 min d. 38.3 min

17. The rate of reaction is not influenced by :

a. concentration of the reactants c. molecularity of the reaction
b. nature of reactants d. temperature

18. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactants, the reaction is said to be :
a. second order c. first order
b. zero order d. third order

20. The rate of formation of B in terms of rA (where rA = kCACB2 ) is

a. 2rA c. ½ rA
b. -½rA d. rA

21. The law governing the kinetics of a reaction is the law of

 a. mass action c. chemical equilibrium
b. constant temperature d. constant composition

22. The unit of k for a / second order elementary reaction is

a. 1 / time c. 1 / concentration
b. concentration / time d. (concentration ) –1 (time) –1

23. A reaction is known to be first order in A. A straight line will be obtained by plotting
a. 1 / CA versus time c. log CA versus reciprocal time
b. CA versus time d. log CA versus time

24. The activation energy of a reaction can be obtained from the slope of a plot of
a. k vs. log 1/T c. log k vs. 1/T
b. log k vs. T d. k vs. log T

25. The half life of a material undergoing second order decay is

a. inversely proportional to initial concentration
b. proportional to the square of initial concentration
c. independent of initial concentration
d. proportional to initial concentration

26. A certain reaction is first order in A. The special rate constant is 3 x 10 –3 /S. The half is
a. 231S c. 100S
b. 768 S d. 2.1 x 10 –3 S

27. A certain reaction has an activation energy is 125 kJ/mole. The rate constant is 0.033/ S at 55 0 C. The value of the special rate
constant at 1000 C is
a. 0.088 / S c. 1.3 x 10-4 / S
b. 8.3 / S d. 0.037 / S

28. A certain reaction has a special rate constant of 4.27 x 10-3 / S at 250C and 7.35 x 10-2 / S at 800C. The energy of activation is kJ
per mole is
a. 45.2 c. 104
b. 5.44 d. 860

29. The isothermal irreversible aqueous phase reaction A + B E at 1000F obeys dCE / dt = rE = kCACB ; k = 15 ft3 / 1 lbmole-h.
Using a 1000 ft3 stirred tank reactor with an aqueous feed of 2000 ft3 / / h1 the outlet concentrate of E if the inlet concentrate of A +
B are both 0.25 lbmole / ft3 is
a. 0.4233 lbmole / ft3 c. 0.1332 lbmole / ft3
b. 0.1223 lbmole / ft 3 d. 0.3122 lbmole / ft3

30. The composition of the reaction component vary from position to position along the path of a / an
a. CFSTR c. batch reactor
b. adiabatic reactor d. plug flow reactor

31. The reacting substance follow one or more path to give different products
a. consecutive reaction c. parallel reaction
b. reversible reaction d. back mix reaction

32. The reactants are charged at the same time and concentration of solution varies with time
a. CFSTR c. batch reactor
b. plug flow reaction d. flow reactor

33. For saturated steam at 1 atm. condensing outside tube at 60 C, surface temperature I in degree Celcius is
a. 60
b. 70
c. 80
d. 90

34. A property of solid which is indicated by the conventional scratch criteria and can be measured by indention
a. friability
b. toughness
c. hardness
d. brittleness

35. It is the fraction of the radiation leaving from a surface that strikes to the other surface directly
a. reflectivity
b. transmissivity
c. absorptivity
 d. view factor
36. At 100 C the gaseous reaction A  B + C is observed to be first order. On starting with pure A, it is found that at the end of 10
minutes, the total pressure of the system is 176 mmHg and after a long time, the total pressure of the system is 270 mmHg. The
half life of the reaction is
a. 10.65 min
b. 0.65 min
c. 11 min
d. 10 min
e. 10.5 min

37. What is the initial pressure of A in problem 36

a. 100 mmHg
b. 176 mmHg
c. 0 mmHg
d. 90 mmHg

38. Given a single horizontal oxidized steel pipe with an outer diameter of 1 in. and surface temperature of 180F. Determine the
combined convective and
And radiation film coefficient ( BTU/h-ft-F) if the enclosed ambient temperature is 80 F
a. 2.5
b. 2.25
c. 2.15
d. 2.07
A single effect evaporator is operating under the following conditions:
Feed----------------------- 40,000 lb/hr
Xf--------------------------- 5% solid
Tf--------------------------- 200F
Xp-------------------------- 45% solid
Separation temperature of the vapor going into condenser is 125 F. Specific
heat of all solutions is 1 cal/gC. Overall heat transfer coefficient is
500 BTU/hr-ft.ft F. Assume no boiling point rise.

39. Calculate the rate of evaporation in pounds/hr

a. 40,000
b. 41,000
c. 35,000
d. 33,500

40. Heating area required in feet square

a. 535
b. 353
c. 355
d. 550

41. Steam economy

a. 1
b. 0.8
c. 0.9
d. 0.75

42. It is normally the first step in the treatment of waste water

a. clarification
b. screening
c. flotation
d. comminution

43. A device used to move incompressible fluid

a. blower
b. compressor
c. pump
d. fan

44. A porous material dries in the open air at a rate approximately proportional to its moisture content. If a sheet hangs in the wind
loses half of it free moisture in the first hour, when will it have lost 99% with the weather conditions remaining the same?
a. 7.5 h
b. 8.67h
c. 6.67h
d. 450 min.
45. A separation process wherein a liquid solvent is used to dissolve a soluble solid from an insoluble solid
a. solvent extraction
b. absorption
c. leaching
d. adsorption

46. A distilling column is composed of 7 theoretical plates in the enriching section and 8 theoretical plates in the stripping section. The
overall plate efficiency is 50%, then the actual number of plates is
a. 15
b. 30
c. 16
d. 32

47. The ease or difficulty of separating components by distillation is determined by the

a. relative volatility
b. viscosity
c. ]vapor pressure
d. relative solubility

48. It is the Chemical Engineering Law

a. R. A. 381 c. R. A. 831
b. R. A. 318 d. R. A. 813

49. Who is the current PRC Commissioner

a. Alfonso Abad c. Antonietta Fortuna -Ibe
b. Hermogenes Pobre d. Avelina dela Rea-Tan

50. It is a juridical necessity to give, to do or not to do.

a. contract c. ethics
b. obligation d. responsibility

51. It is the meeting of mind between 2 parties.

a. contract c. ethics
b. obligation d. responsibility

52. It is the grant issued by the Philippine Government giving an inventor, maker or designer the right to exclude others from making,
using or selling his invention, utility or design.
a. trademark c. patent
b. copyright d. trade names

53. The life of patent is

a. 17 c. lifetime
b. 20 d. 25

54. The life of trademark is

a. 17 c. lifetime
b. 20 d. 25

55. The Chairman of Board of Chemical Engineering is

a. Lauro Guevarra c. Rizalino Nocon
b. Francisco Avellano d. Lydia Tansinsin

56. It is a type of physical operation by which a desired step in an industrial process is controlled or conducted.
a. unit process c. chemical process
b. unit operation d. heating

57. The life of a copyright

a. 17 c. 20
b. 5 d. 50 years after death of the author

58. Creation of PRC

a. R.A. 223 c. R.A. 332
b. PD 223 d. PD 332

59. The chemical engineer shall uphold at all times the _________ of the chemical engineering profession and shall protect it from
misinterpretation.
a. standards c. impartiality
b. integrity d. best
60. A set of using, selling and making of the invention without the consent of the inventor.
a. infringement c. illegal use
b. pirating d. licensing

61. US Patents are protective in the Philippines.

a. false c. sometimes
b. true d. very true

62. Simplicity is a bar to n invention.

a. true c. sometimes
b. false d. maybe true

63. PRC means

a. Professional Regulatory Commission
b. Professional Regulation Commission
c. Professional Regulatory Command
d. Professional Regulation Command

64. Necessity is the mother of __________.

a. utility model c. invention
b. industrial design d. trademark

65. The right over protest, trademark and copyright is

a. intellectual property right c. human right
b. industrial property right d. industry right

66. It is also known as remedial law.

a. private law c. substantive law
b. public law d. procedural law

67. Which of the following is not a source of obligation.

a. Law c. Technical Specification
b. contract d. quasi-delites

68. It means birth of contract.

a. perfection of contract c. consummation of the contract
b. compliance with the contract d. start of the contract

70. It includes word, name, symbol, sign or device or any combination thereof.
a. service mark c. goods
b. trademark d. IPO mark

71. Who has the right to a patent?

a. actual inventor c. assignees
b. inventors’ heirs d. all of the above

72. Patent and Trademark Laws were approved in the Philippines.

a. 1927 c. 1947
b. 1937 d. 1957

73. The chemical engineer shall ______________ to give credit to those to whom credit is properly due.
a. see to it c. endeavor at all times
b. make sure d. act accordingly
NAME___________________________________________________________

Student Number_____________________SCORE________________________

A B C D A B C D

1. O O O O 41. O O O O
2. O O O O 42. O O O O
3. O O O O 43. O O O O
4. O O O O 44. O O O O
5. O O O O 45. O O O O
6. O O O O 46. O O O O
7. O O O O 47. O O O O
8. O O O O 48 . O O O O
9. O O O O 49. O O O O
10. O O O O 50. O O O O
11. O O O O 51. O O O O
12. O O O O 52. O O O O
13. O O O O 53. O O O O
14. O O O O 54. O O O O
15. O O O O 55. O O O O
16. O O O O 56. O O O O
17. O O O O 57. O O O O
18. O O O O 58. O O O O
19. O O O O 59. O O O O
20. O O O O 60. O O O O
21. O O O O 61. O O O O
22. O O O O 62. O O O O
23. O O O O 63. O O O O
24. O O O O 64. O O O O
25. O O O O 65. O O O O
26. O O O O 66. O O O O
27. O O O O 67. O O O O
28. O O O O 68. O O O O
29. O O O O 69. O O O O
30. O O O O 70. O O O O
31. O O O O 71. O O O O
32. O O O O 72. O O O O
33. O O O O 73. O O O O
34. O O O O 74. O O O O
35. O O O O 75. O O O O
36. O O O O 76. O O O O
37. O O O O 77. O O O O
38. O O O O 78. O O O O
39. O O O O 79. O O O O
40. O O O O 80. O O O O
 TECHNOLOGICAL INSTITUTE OF THE PHILIPPINES
Manila

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION

GENERAL ENGINEERING

NAME:________________________________________________DATE:_______________

______ 1. The negative ratio of lateral strain to the axial strain is called
a. Lateral Ratio c. Poisson’s Ratio
b. Spring Constant d. Spring Index

______ 2. Compressive stresses on external surfaces in contact under pressure.

a. Bearing Stress c. Tangential Stress
b. Axial Stress d. Hoop Stress

______ 3. It corresponds to the point of zero bending moment

a. Point of Inflection c. Midpoint
b. Point of rotation d. Deflection

______ 4. The stress in the transverse section that resists the bursting force in the cylinder is
called
a. Hoop Stress c. Longitudinal Stress
b. Circumferential Stress d. Cylindrical Stress

______ 5. Members that are slender and support loadings that are applied perpendicular to
their longitudinal axis are called
a. Columns c. Beams
b. Axis d. Spring

______ 6. Their force occurs when one body exerts a force on another body without direct
physical contact between the bodies.
a. Elastic Force c. Axial Force
b. Reaction d. Body Force

______ 7. It is a quantity that when applied to a member, tends to deform the member by
causing a rotation of one part of the member relative to another.
a. Couple c. Axial Force
b. Torque d. Reaction

______ 8. The angular change between two perpendicular faces of a differential element.
a. Shearing Deformation c. Shearing Strain
b. Stress Strain d. Modulus of Rigidity

______ 9. The fictitious shearing stress that is used to compare the ultimate strength of
specimens of various materials and diameters.
a. Modulus of Rigidity c. Torsional Stress
b. Torsional Stress d. Torsional Modulus of Rapture

______10. It is used to connect two shafts together.

a. Flanged Bolt Coupling c. Key
b. Bolt d. Rivets

______11. The edge view of the neutral surface of a deflected beam in called
a. Elastic Curve c. Neutral Axis
b. Neutral Curve d. Deflection

______12. The rate of change of stress with respect to strain.

a. Tangent Modulus c. Modulus of Elasticity
b. Modulus of Rigidity d. Stress Change

______13. The maximum stress or strength of material.

a. Maximum Stress c. Sheer
b. Ultimate Stress d. Maxima
______14. The ratio of the Young’s Modulus to specific weight is called
a. Modulus of Rigidity c. Specific Modulus
b. Young Modulus d. Young Rate

______15. The region of the stress-strain diagram extending from the proportionality limit to the
point of rupture.
a. Elastic Range c. Yield Point
b. Ultimate Rupture Stress d. Plastic Range

______16. An engineering structure member resisting forces applied laterally or transversely to

its axis.
a. Truss c. Spring
b. Wire d. Beam

______17. Analysis of forces on rigid is called

a. Strength of Materials c. Statics
b. Dynamics d. Mechanics

______18. The ratio of the mean diameter of the spring to the diameter of the spring wire is
called
a. Spring Index c. Spring Ratio
b. Spring Constant d. Mean Ratio

______19. A beam supported at only one end and in such a manner that the axis of the can not
rotate
a. Axial Beam c. Fixed Beam
b. Overhanging Beam d. Cantilever Beam

G
T =   dA,   dA
2 2
______20. In the equations is equivalent to
L

a. Section modulus c. Polar moment of inertia

b. Centroid d. Linear deformation

______21.It is a collection of all objects having common characteristics.

a. venn diagram c. set
b. tree diagram d. null set

______22.The set of all elements in A or in B or both.

a. intersection c. joint
b. union d. disjoint

_____23. The set of all elements that are found in both A and B.
a. intersection c. joint
b. union d. disjoint

_____24. The set of all possible outcomes in an experiment.

a. sample space c. sample point
b. event d. population

_____25It is an arrangement of all part of a set of objects in a definite order.

a. permutation c. probability
b. combination d. probability distribution

_____26. It is a measure of the likelihood of occurrence of an event.

a. permutation c. probability
b. combination d. probability distribution

_____27. The middle of a given data set.

a. mean c. mode
b. median d. range

_____28.The measure of spread or variation in a given data set.

a. measure of central tendency c. measure of occurrence
b. measure of relative standing d. measure of variability
_____29.Facts and figures collected on some characteristics of a population or sample.
a. estimate c. data
b. parameters d. sample

_____30.The formula for cyclic permutation is

a. n! c. n1! n2! …. nK!
b. (n-1)! d. n!/(n – r)!

_____31 Evaluate 5 P 3
a. 48 c. 10
b. 60 d. 12

_____32. If 2 cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a deck of 52 cards. Find
the probability that both cards are aces?
a. 5/221 c. 3/221
b. 1/221 d. 4/221

_____33. 0 ! is less than 1 !

a. false c. sometimes
b. true d. maybe true

_____34. Evaluate 5 Co.3P3

a. 0 c. 6
b. 1 d. 3
_____35.A hollow steel shaft (G=83 Gpa) must transmit a torque of 10 KJ. The total angle of
twist must not exceed 3 degrees per 10 meters. The maximum shearing stress
must not exceed 70 Mpa. Find the inside diameter if the outside diameter is 0.3 m.
a. 297.96 mm c. 320 mm
b. 265.34 mm d. 345.67 mm

______36. Calculate the deformation in a 4 m long steel when a tensile force P = 150 KN is
applied. The steel has a diameter of 20 mm and E = 200Gpa.
a. 9.55 mm c. 11.32 mm
b. 10.75 mm d. 8.43 mm

______37. A rectangularbox with a square base is to have a capacity of 27 cu. in.

Determine the least amount of materials used.
a. 16
b. 54
c. 32
d. 72
____38. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices lie at the points ( 4,1), (6,2) and (2,5)
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 7
_____39.The major and minor axis of an ellipse measures 10 and 8 units respectively.
The distance between the foci is
a. 3
b. 6
c. 5
d. 7
_____40. The sum of the interior angles of polygon is 2700 degrees. How many
are there?
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 18
_____41. An open box is to be made of cardboard 10 cm X 16 cm cutting equal shares
out of the corners and turning up the edges to form sides. Determine the
maximum capacity of the box.
 a. 186 cu. cm
b. 200 cu. cm.
c. 100 cu. cm.
d. 144 cu. cm.

_____42. The curve represented by the equation r = 6 is

a. circle
b. parabola
c. ellipse
d. line
_____43. How many diagonals does a 10 sided convex polygon has?
a. 45
b. 40
c. 35
d. 30

______44. The actual rate of interest on the principal for one year.
a. nominal rate c. effective rate of interest
b. interest d. annual interest

______45. It specifies the rate of interest and the number of interest periods per year
a. nominal rate c. effective rate of interest
b. interest rate d. annual rate

______46. From the formula, F = P (1t1) n , P is

a. future value c. present value
b. principal d. both b and c

______47. Interest on top of the interest

a. simple interest c. ordinary interest
b. compound interest d. exact interest

______48. Future value less the present value

a. discount c. discount rate
b. rate discount d. profit

______49. A series of equal payment made at equal interval of time

a. annuity c. capitalized cost
b. gradient d. replacement cost

______50. Periodic payments continue indefinitely

a. deferred annuity c. perpetuity
b. ordinary d. annuity due

______51. Decrease in value of property with the passage of time.

a. depletion c. depreciation
b. accumulation d. regression

______52. Type/s of depreciation that give/s uniform annual charge.

a. straight line method c. declining balance method
b. sinking fund method d. both a and b

______48. Future value less the present value

a. discount c. discount rate
b. rate discount d. profit

______53. It is the worth of the property as recorded in the books of account of the company.
a. book value c. market value
b. fair value d. goodwill value

______54. When income equals expenses, the level of production is at

a. break-even point c. saturation point
b. pay back period d. point of profit
______55. The product of production capacity and selling price is
a. expenses c. fixed cost
b. revenue d. variable cost

_____56. Revenue minus expenses

a. profit c. fixed cost
b. selling price d. variable cost

______57. Intangible factors are also called

a. reducible factors c. present worth factor
b. irreducible factors d. recovery factors
______58. It is the quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at the certain place at a given
place and time.
a. supply c. production capacity
b. demand d. all of the above

______59. At a certain interest rate compounded quarterly, P 1,000 will amount to P 4,500 in 15
years. What is the amount at the end of 10 years?
a. P 2, 725.17 c. P 2, 425.63
b. P 2, 303.33 d.P 2, 375.93

______60. If the sum of P12,000 is deposited in an account earning interest at the rate of 9%
compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P30,245.63 c. P48,026.11
b. P24,457.24 d. P18,963.41

______61. An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
What is the depreciation charge by straight-line method?
a. P1000 c. P950
b. P850 d. P1,200

_____62. If you borrow money from your friend at 12% simple interest, determine the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of 9 months?
a. P18,348.62 c. P20,065.38
b. P16,363.28 d. P21,078.45

_____63. Annual net profit over capital investment

a. pay-out period c. rate of return
b. break-even point d. economic efficiency

_____64. Capital Investment over net annual cost flow

a. pay-out period c. rate of return
b. break-even point d. economic efficiency

_____65. If P25,000 is invested at 8% interest compounded quarterly, how many years will it
take for this amount to accumulate to P45,000?
a. 7.5 years c. 15.5 years
b. 30 years d. 31.5 years

____66. The sum of three consecutive integers is 81. The largest integer is
a. 27 c. 31
b. 29 d. 33

_____67. A rectangular field twice as long as it is completely enclosed by x feet of fencing.

Express the area of the field in terms of x.
2 2 2 2
a. x / 36 b. x / 2 c. 2x / 9 d. x / 18

_____68. The function to be integrated.

a. Definite integral b. indefinite integral c. integrand
d. integers

_____69. The resultant of force A (8) and force B (13) is 5. What is the angle between A and B
in degrees.
a. 0 b. 90 c. 180 d. 45
_____70. The integer part of the logarithm
a. mantissa b. abscissa c. characteristic d. logarithmic

_____71. If the product of the slopes of two straight line is –1, then these lines are said to be
a. parallel b. perpendicular c. non-intersecting d. intersecting

_____72. The sum of all prime numbers between 1 and 15 is _______

a. 39 b. 41 c. 46 d. 120

_____73. How many minutes after 2:00 will the hands of the clock extend in the opposite
directions for the first time?
a. 40. 636 b. 41.636 c. 42.636 d. 43.636

_____74. The area of a regular pentagon is 560 sq. units. Find the radius of the inscribed circle.
a. 12.42 units b . 13.35 units c. 14.35 units d. 15.35 units

_____75. It is a point on the axis midway between the focus and the directrix of a parabola
a. vertex b. origin c. latus rectum d. eccentricity
 Engineering Economics

1. The actual rate of interest on the principal for one year.

a. nominal rate c. effective rate of interest
b. interest d. annual interest

2. It specifies the rate of interest and the number of interest periods per year
a. nominal rate c. effective rate of interest
b. interest rate d. annual rate

3. From the formula, F = P (1t1)n , P is

a. future value c. present value
b. principal d. both b and c

4. Interest on top of the interest

a. simple interest c. ordinary interest
b. compound interest d. exact interest

5. Future value less the present value

a. discount c. discount rate
b. rate discount d. profit

6. A series of equal payment made at equal interval of time

a. annuity c. capitalized cost
b. gradient d. replacement cost

7. Periodic payments continue indefinitely

a. deferred annuity c. perpetuity
b. ordinary d. annuity due

8. Decrease in value of property with the passage of time.

a. depletion c. depreciation
b. accumulation d. regression

9. Type/s of depreciation that give/s uniform annual charge.

a. straight line method c. declining balance method
b. sinking fund method d. both a and b

10. It is the worth of the property as recorded in the books of account of the company.
a. book value c. market value
b. fair value d. goodwill value

11. When income equals expenses, the level of production is at

a. break-even point c. saturation point
b. pay back period d. point of profit

12. The product of production capacity and selling price is

a. expenses c. fixed cost
b. revenue d. variable cost

13. Revenue munus expenses

a. profit c. fixed cost
b. selling price d. variable cost

14. Intangible factors are also called

 a. reducible factors c. present worth factor
b. irreducible factors d. recovery factors

15. It is the quantity of a certain commodity that is bought at the certain place at a given
place and time.
a. supply c. production capacity
b. demand d. all of the above

16.Determine the ordinary simple interest on P5,000 for 156 days if thee rate of simple
interest is
a. P299.18 c. P425.63
b. P303.33 d.P375.93

17. If the sum of P12,000 is deposited in an account earning interest at the rate of 9%
compounded quarterly, what will it become at the end of 8 years?
a. P30,245.63 c. P48,026.11
b. P24,457.24 d. P18,963.41

18. If P25,000 is invested at 8% interest compounded quarterly, how many years will it
take for this amount to accumulate to P45,000?
a. 7.5 years c. 15.5 years
b. 30 years d. 31.5 years

19. How much money would you have to deposit for 5 consecutive years starting one
year from now if your want to be able to withdraw P50,000 ten years from now? I =
14%
a. P3,928.60 c. P2,675.00
b. P5,640.34 d. P4,811.33

20. An equipment costs P10,000 with a salvage value of P500 at the end of 10 years.
What is the depreciation charge by straight-line method?
a. P1000 c. P950
b. P850 d. P1,200

21. A firm has the capacity to produce 1,000,000 units of a product per year. At present,
it is able to produce and sell only P600,000 units yearly at a total income of
P720,000. Annual fixed cost are P250,000 and the variable costs per unit are P0.70.
How many units should be sold annually to break-even?
a. 200,000 c. 400,000
b. 300,000 d. 500,00

22. If you borrow money from your friend at 12% simple interest, determine the present
worth of P20,000 which is due at the end of 9 months?
a. P18,348.62 c. P20,065.38
b. P16,363.28 d. P21,078.45

23. Annual net profit over capital investment

a. pay-out period c. rat of return
b. break-even point d. economic efficiency

24. Capital Investment over net annual cost flow

a. pay-out period c. rate of return
b. break-even point d. economic efficiency

25. The present worth of this annuity is equal to A/I

a. deferred c. perpetuity
b. ordinary d. annual due