PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERS

REGION IV
AE BOARD REVIEW CLASS 2011

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION
JULY 27, 2011 (Wednesday) 1:00 pm – 5:00 pm

RURAL ELECTRIFICATION, FARM PROCESSING, FARM STRUCTURES, and FARM SHOP

INSTRUCTIONS: Write your name, school, and alias/nickname on the answer sheet. Select the correct
answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by SHADING the circle
corresponding to your answer. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following statements is true?

a. the higher the resistivity of the material, the better conductor it is
b. most conductors decrease in resistance with decrease in temperature
c. the longer the material having uniform cross-sectional area, the lower its resistance
d. the larger the cross-sectional area of the material, the lower its resistance
e. none of the above

2. Current and voltage are “in-phase”, except when

a. the current and the voltages go through zero and through their peak values at the same time
b. the circuit is composed of purely resistive elements
c. the resistance is equal to the impedance
d. the true power is greater than the apparent power

3. Which of the following electrical installation is not covered by Philippine Electrical Code?
a. watercraft b. aircraft c. airfield
d. trailers

WP
4.

a. water pump convenience c. single convenience

b. duplex convenience d. weatherproof convenience

5. S2
a. single pole switch c. duplex switch
b. double pole switch d. two-way switch

6. It represents the portion of light which reaches the work area

a. light loss factor. b. coefficient of utilization
c. cavity ratio d. luminaire depreciation factor

7. The most widely used conductor in electrical distribution and wiring because of its relatively low
resistivity.
a. copper b. gold c. aluminum d. silver
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8. A certain farm operation that requires rotary power can be successfully performed by hand. What
size of motor is recommended?
a. ¼ hp b. ½ hp c. 1 hp d. 2 hp

9. For dwelling units, Philippine Electrical Code 2010 states that the convenience and lighting load can
be estimated as ______.
a. 15 VA/m2 b. 20 VA/m2 c. 24 VA/m2 d. 32 VA/m2

10. When you want to control a light from three locations, you need ___ three-way switches and _____
four-way switches.
a. 3 , 0 b. 2 , 1 c. 1 , 2 d. 0 , 3

11. The standard frequency of AC electricity in the Philippines

a. 60Hz c. 50Hz
b. variable d. dependent on the locality

For numbers 12 to 14
A prony-break test of a motor gave the following data:
Force = 2 lb N = 1720 rpm
Length of arm = 1 ft
Electrical meter readings:
Current = 11.4 A Voltage=110 V Power = 960 W

12. What is the actual power delivered by the motor as measured by the prony break test?

a. 0.66 hp b. 1.3 hp c. 3 hp d. 5hp

13. What is the efficiency of the motor in converting electric energy to mechanical energy?
a. 51 % b. 63% c. 75% d. 84%

14. What is the power factor?

a. 0.69 b. 0.76 c. 0.83 d. 0.92

15. According to PEC, for a dwelling unit having a floor area not more than 50m 2, it shall be permitted to
have a single 20-ampere 2-wire branch circuit provided that the total load does not exceed _______
VA.
a. 1500 b. 3680 c. 3000 d. 2500

16. According to Philippine Electrical Code, a receptacle is rated _______VA.

a. 80 b. 110 c. 180 d. 220

For numbers 17 to 18

( 3 + j ) kVA P = 20kW
240 V
60 Hz Load 1 C=?

p. f. =
0.7
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17. What is the existing power factor?

a. 0.58 b. 0.70 c. 0.73 d. 0.75

18. What is the required value of capacitor to correct the power factor to 0.90?
a. 118µF b. 324µF c. 512 µF d. 986 µF

For numbers 19 to 20:

19. Using the 12Ω - resistor as the load resistor, what is the Thevenin’s voltage?
a. 15. 6V b. 21.7 V c. 28.5 V d. 44 V

20. Using the 12Ω - resistor as the load resistor, what is the Thevenin’s resistance?
a. 7.5Ω b. 8Ω c. 8.5Ω d. 9Ω

21. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?

a. p-V
b. p-T
c. h-s
d. T-s
e. P-h

22. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a. zero
b. positive
c. negative
d. may be positive, negative, or zero
e. cannot be determined
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23. The maximum thermal efficiency possible for a power cycle operating between 1200°F and 225°F is:
a. 57.00%
b. 57.50%
c. 57.54%
d. 58.00%
e. 58.73%

24. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing:
a. isobaric process
b. quasi-steady process
c. isometric process
d. isentropic process
e. cyclic process

25. At an average temperature of 100°C, hot air flows through a 2.5m long tube with an inside diameter
of 50mm. The temperature of the tube is 20°C along its length. Convective heat transfer coefficient is
20.1 W/m2∙K. Determine the heat transfer from air to tube.
a. 624 W
b. 632 W
c. 900 W
d. 909 W
e. 1,025 W

26. A 50-cm long, 0.2-cm diameter electric resistance wire submerged in water is used to determine the
boiling heat transfer coefficient in water at 1 atm experimentally. The surface temperature of the wire is
measured to be 130degC when a wattmeter indicates the electric power consumption to be 4.1kW. Then
the heat transfer coefficient is
a. 43,500 W/m2-C
b. 137 W/m2-C
c. 68,330 W/m2-C
d. 10,038 W/m2-C
e. 37,540 W/m2-C

27. Water at a mean temperature of 120°F flows through a 6.0 inch diameter pipe at a rate of 80
lbm/sec. If the mean temperature of the wall of the pipe is 180°F and if the length of the pipe is 20ft,
find the Reynolds number. At 120°F, ρ = 61.73 lbm/ft3, µ = 1.36 lbm/ft∙hr,
k = 0.372 Btu/hr∙ft∙°F, cp = 0.997 Btu/lbm∙°F
a. 23.76
b. 1,486.32
c. 21,570.6
d. 539,229.7
e. 2.08 x 106

28. In a vapor compression refrigeration system, the temperature is at its highest between the
a. condenser and the receiver
b. compressor and condenser
c. condenser and expansion valve
d. receiver and the evaporator
e. evaporator and compressor

29. What condition exists in an adiabatic throttling process?

a. enthalpy is constant
b. entropy is constant
 Page 5 of 14

c. pressure is constant
d. specific volume is constant
e. temperature is constant

30. On the psychrometric chart, a cooling and dehumidification process appears as a line that is
a. horizontal to the left
b. vertical downward
c. diagonal upwards to the right (NE direction)
d. diagonal upwards to the left (NW direction)
e. diagonal downwards to the left (SW direction)

31. Shrimp harvested in a pond situated in Bohol are packed in insulated sheet metal containers and
mixed with crushed ice while in transit to the shrimp processing plant in Manila. Initial temperature of
the product is about 25°C and it is desired to cool the shrimp at approximately 0°C during shipment.
Estimate the product load, in kJ/kg. For shrimp highest freezing temperature is –2.2°C, cp above freezing
is 3.38 kJ/kg∙K, cp below freezing is 1.79 kJ/kg∙K, and latent heat of fusion is 254 kJ/kg.

a. 44.8
b. 84.5
c. 88.4
d. 91.9
e. 342.4

32. The process of mixing two or more different products together, such as grains and supplements, to
obtain desired food ratios, or the process of mixing different quantities of the same product with different
size of kernels to obtain the desired quality grade is called
a. blending
b. grading
c. mixing
d. tempering
e. turning

33. The angle measured from the horizontal at which product will start to move downwards over a
smooth surface with gravity discharging the product is called
a. angle of discharge
b. angle of friction
c. angle of repose
d. hopper angle
e. tangent

34. A rice miller buys 100kg of dried and clean palay at P13/kg. Assuming that his cost of operation is
P4/kg milled rice, how much should he sell (P/kg) to break even. Neglect by-products and assume
milling recovery of 64%.
a. 16.3
b. 18.3
c. 20.3
d. 22.3
e. 24.3
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35. A Carnot refrigeration cycle absorbs heat at –12°C and rejects it at 35°C. What is the COP of this
refrigeration cycle?
a. 5.56
b. –0.26
c. 7.46
d. 21.76

36. What is a physical factor related to the evaporative potential of air and which causes a product to
shrivel called?
a. infiltration rate
b. water holding capacity
c. moisture content
d. water loss

37. Thermophiles can become a problem in blanchers and other equipment that maintain food at
elevated temperatures for extended periods. These organisms die or do not grow at refrigeration
temperatures. By definition, thermophiles are
a. parasites that live in ruminants’ stomachs
b. microorganisms that die at really high temperatures
c. microorganisms that are capable of growth even at freezing temperatures
d. microorganisms that are capable of growth above 45degC, with optimum growth at 55 and
65degC

38. A rubber roll huller operates with two rollers to remove the hull of the rice grains. The main principle
at which this huller works is
a. the rollers turn to opposite directions with velocities that are equivalent to each other
b. the rollers turn to the same direction with the velocity of one roller greater than the other
c. the rollers turn to opposite directions with the velocity of one roller greater than the other
d. the rollers turn to the same direction with velocities that are equivalent to each other

39. The moisture content on a dry basis of a product is equivalent to

a. the weight of the product over the weight of the moisture
b. the weight of the moisture removed from the product over the weight of the product after
moisture has been removed
c. the weight of the moisture removed from the product over the weight of the product before
drying
d. the final weight of the product over its initial weight

40. It is a plot of the aiflow against the pressure drop per unit depth of grains and seeds, which shows
the resistance to airflow of such products. This plot is also called
a. Hooke’s curve
b. Shedd’s curve
c. Freud’s curve
d. Newton’s curve

For numbers 41 – 42: The bars of the truss each have a cross sectional dimensions of 0.75-inch x 2.0-
inch. All pin diameter is 0.4-inch. If P= 6 kips, B
P A
41. Determine the shearing stress at pin C.
a. 636.6198 psi
b. 25.46479 psi
c. 63.66198 psi 4
2- ft
d. 63,661.98 psi in B
C

D C

3
ft 0.4
in
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42. Determine the bearing stress between pin C and the support.
a. 50 psi
b. 500 psi
c. 50,000 psi
d. 15,915 psi

For numbers 43 – 44: The compounded A-36 steel shaft (GA-36 steel = 75 GPa) is fixed to the wall at A and
is subjected to the torques shown. If segment AEB is 2m
while segment BDC is 1m; with torques D and E applied
midway their segment’s length:

43. Determine the maximum shear stress in the shaft.

a. 17.68 MPa
b. 18.86 MPa
c. 47.2 MPa
d. 56.59 MPa

44. Determine the relative angle of twist from end to end.

a. 1.38 °
b. 2.16 °
c. 4.21 °
d. 6.58 °

45. A test which a specimen, support at one end as a cantilever beam, is broken by the impact of falling
pendulum. The energy absorbed in breaking the specimen is a measure of the impact strength.
a. charpy test
b. tension test
c. IZOD test
d. impact test

46. The board is subjected to a tensile force of 85 lb. Determine the average shear stress developed in
the wood fibers that are oriented along section a-a at 15° with the axis of the board.
a. 1.9 psi
b. 7.08 psi
c. 11.59 psi
d. 22 psi

47. The bar is supported by the pin. If the allowable tensile stress for the bar is (s t)allow = 21 ksi, and the
allowable shear stress for the pin is τallow = 12 ksi, determine the diameter of the pin for which the load P
will be a maximum. What is this maximum load? Assume the hole in the bar has the same diameter d as
the pin. Take t = ¼ in. and w = 2 in.
a. d = 0.620 in ; Pmax = 7.25 kip
b. d = 0.725 in ; Pmax = 6.20 kip
c. d = 0.620 in ; Pmax = 6.20 kip
d. d = 0.725 in ; Pmax = 7.25 kip
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48. The rigid beam is supported by a pin at A and wires BD and CE. If the maximum allowable
normal strain in each wire is Єmax = 0.003 mm/mm, determine the maximum vertical
displacement of the load P.
a. 10.08 mm
b. 16.8 mm
c. 21.0 mm
d. 35.0 mm

For numbers 49 – 50: A rectangular beam, 150 mm wide by 225 mm high, carries a distributed load
of 4 kN/m and P = 20 kN as shown.

49. Determine the maximum flexural stress in the beam

a. 66.4 MPa P 2P
b. 49.8 MPa
c. 74.7 MPa
d. 33.2 MPa
A D
C 1m
1m B 2m

50. Determine the maximum shear stress in the beam

a. 1 MPa
b. 2 MPa
c. 3 MPa
d. 4 MPa

51. According to PAES, building sidewalls for swine housing shall have a minimum height of
a. 0.5 m
b. 0.75 m
c. 1.0 m
d. 1.5 m

For numbers 52 – 54: Refer to the figures below

52. If dimension a is 100 mm, determine the beam deflection located at the applied 20-kN
concentrated force of the beam if E = 300 GPa.
 Page 9 of 14

a. 19.52 mm
b. 23.42 mm
c. 100 mm
d. 165 mm

53. If the beam in problem no. 52 will have square column as support, determine its classification if
support B of the beam has 3.5 m column with sc // = 100 MPa.
a. short
b. intermediate
c. long
d. jumbo

54. Determine the maximum permissible reaction at support B for the column in no. 13.
a. 1000 kN
b. 800 kN
c. 550 kN
d. 725 kN

For numbers 55 – 57: A farmer would like to cement the flooring of his warehouse with a total
volume of 200m3. Determine the material required using 20 liters of water for every bag of
cement and a Class C mixture.

55. Determine the required number of bags of cement.

a. 500
b. 1000
c. 1,650
d. 1,210

56. Determine the required cubic meters of sand.

a. 40
b. 50
c. 75
d. 102

57. Determine the required cubic meter of gravel

a. 80
b. 204
c. 100
d. 150

58. A wooden rectangular frame (1.5 m x 3 m) is to be fabricated using 2” x 2” coco lumber.

Compute for the total bdft required for this frame.
a. 10
b. 8
c. 6
d. 4

59. Determine the quantity of CHB needed for a 16m x 5m (ground line included) wall.
a. 500
b. 750
c. 1000
d. 1250
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60. What would be the temperature of the air leaving the evaporative cooler if outside temperature
in the greenhouse is 37°C and the cooler has an efficiency of 90%. Assume wetbulb temperature
of 35°C.

a. 35.2°C
b. 35.3°C
c. 35.4°C
d. 35.5°C

61. This process involves heating up of manure at high temperature in the complete absence of
oxygen producing combustible gas, oil, and charcoal.
a. Direct combustion c. Composting
b. Anaerobic digestion d. Pyrolysis

62. The amount of volatile solids fed daily per unit working volume of digester.
a. Percent volatile solids c. Solids retention time
b. Organic loading rate d. Hydraulic retention time

63. Working volume of biogas digester if hydraulic retention time is 25 days and manure inflow is
5 m3/day.
a. 5 m3 c. 100 m3
3
b. 10 m d. 125 m3

64. Amount of water needed to increase moisture content of 50 kg (fresh weight) manure from 40%
(wet basis) to 60% (wet basis).
a. 25 kg c. 75 kg
b. 45 kg d. 50 kg

65. This commercial anaerobic digester uses a high density polyethylene (HDPE) material as lagoon
liner and cover to completely seal and contain the wastewater and biogas generated.
a. Covered in ground anaerobic reactor (CIGAR) c. Tubular polyethylene digester (TPED)
b. Uplow anaerobic sludge blanket reactor (UASB) d. Concrete anaerobic digester

66. Which of the following is not true about anaerobic digestion of animal manure?
a. Source of alternative energy
b. Low power requirement
c. Effluent is rich in nutrients
d. Requires aeration

67. Optimum moisture content (w.b.) for manure composting.

a. 60% c. 80%
b. 30% d. 40%

68. Stage of aerobic composting which involves rapid increase in material temperature and uptake of
soluble sugars and starches
a. Themophilic stage c. 2nd mesophilic stage
b. 1st mesophilic stage d. Psychrophilic stage

69. Which of the following compost material is high in nitrogen content?

a. Wood chips c. Rice straw
b. Chicken manure d. Newspaper
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70. This parameter indicates the organic strength or load of a waste.

a. Biochemical Oxygen Demand c. moisture content
b. pH d. drymatter

71. Using IPCC Tier 2 method, what is the estimated annual methane (CH 4) emission of a 100-head pig
farm equipped with anaerobic lagoon.
a. 700 kg CH4/year c. 1700 kg CH4/year
b. 1000 kg/ CH4/year d. 2700 kg CH4/year

72. A republic act providing for the development and promotion of organic agriculture in the Philippines.
a. RA 9367 c. RA 8749
b. RA 9275 d. RA10068

73. Which of the following gases is principally produced during aerobic degradation of manure?
a. CO2 c. CH4
b. H2S d. NH3

74. It refers to feces and urine prior to any changes due to addition of water, drying, volatilization and
other processes.
a. Fresh manure c. as excreted manure
b. Raw manure d. Litter

75. A non-degradable portion of the manure is sometimes called:

a. Fixed solids c. Total solids
b. Volatile solids d. Dry matter

76. Ash content of 100g dried sample of cattle manure if volatile solids is 92 g. Moisture content of fresh
sample is 80%.
a. 92% db c. 9.2% db
b. 8% db d. 50% db

77. It is the soluble form of nitrogen and is easily leached beyond the root zone of plants. The principal
sources of this form of nitrogen from agricultural activities are animal waste and commercial fertilizer.
a. Ammoniacal nitrogen c. Nitrite
b. Nitrate d. Kjeldahl nitrogen

78. Aeration requirement to supply oxygen during composting of substrate with molecular formula
C3H7O4N. Assume air density as 1.13 kg/m3.
a. 4.0 m3/kg c. 2.0 m3/kg
3
b. 3.0 m /kg d. 1.0 m3/kg

79. If the heat generated during composting is 5.0 MJ/kg , what is the equivalent compost temperature
at airflow of 90 m3/kg. The air leaving the compost reactor is saturated and its temperature equal to
that of compost material. Air enters the reactor at 30°C and 50% RH. Assume ρ a of 1.13 kg/m3 and
Cp=1.01 kJ/kg-K.
a. 79°C c. 65°C
b. 75°C d. 69 °C

80. What is the reaction rate coefficient at 30°C if BOD of waste water sample incubated for 5 days and
20°C is 180 mg/L. Assume ultimate BOD is 305 mg/L and temperature correction factor is 1.047.
a. 0.18 d-1 c. 0.38 d-1
-1
b. 0.81 d d. 0.28 d-1
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81. Among the following names of wood/lumbers, which is not a hardwood?

a. ipil-ipil
b. cocolumber
c. bamboo
d. b and c

82. A list of all the different pieces of materials needed for a job. It is also called a “finish-stock list”.
a. bill of materials
b. working drawing
c. project plan
d. clean slate

83. Metal sheets that are freshly galvanized and are kept hot for a few minutes to allow zinc to alloy with
the steel.
a. BI sheets
b. Galvanealed sheets
c. Copper sheets
d. Aluminum sheets

84. Clamps, pliers are all examples of _______.

a. layout tools
b. cutting tools
c. holding tools
d. boring tools

85. Power tool with saw teeth on a continuous blade or band.

a. power hacksaw
b. planers
c. bandsaw
d. cutoff saw

86. An arc cutting process which severs metal by using a constricted arc to melt a small area of the work.
This process can cut all metals that conduct electricity.
a. Oxyacetylene arc cutting
b. Lazer cutting
c. Torch cutting
d. Plasma arc cutting

87. Refers to tools that are driven by electric motor, hydraulics, air, gas engine, or forces other than, or
in addition to human power. They are generally stationary and are usually fixed in the shop.
a. portable power tools
b. power machines
c. hand tools
d. power tools

88. They are machines with rotating knives that are used to straighten and smoothen edges of boards.
a. Planers
 Page 13 of 14

b. grinders
c. Jointers
d. band saw

89. Cut nails, duplex nails, cement nails and all kinds of nails and staples are all classified as _________.
a. permanent fasteners
b. adjustable
c. temporary fasteners
d. semi-permanent fasteners

90. Which operation could not be accomplished with a welding machine?

a. Cut
b. hard surface
c. join metals
d. thread

91. Flaw in lumber which characterized by separation along the lengthwise grain. These are present even
before the tree is cut.
a. Wane
b. Warp
c. Shake
d. Knot

92. Tools that operate in principle similar with hand tools but power is derived from an electric motor are
called.
a. power machine tools
b. reciprocating tools
c. hand tools
d. portable power tools

93. It refers to a ferrous metal that is malleable, corrosion resistant, and is relatively tough. Often used
for decorative material.
a. Tool steel
b. cast iron
c. Stainless steel
d. wrought iron

94. Artificial method of seasoning wood include;

a. Forced air drying, kiln drying, sundrying
b. Radio frequency dielectric drying, forced air drying, kiln drying
c. Kiln drying, Air drying, frequency dielectric drying
d. Sun drying , Air drying, Forced air drying

95. In construction sites, shops and other work places, which should come first?
a. Profit
b. cost cutting
c. Safety
d. Breaks
 Page 14 of 14

96. A power circular saw which rolls on a horizontal arm and has a blade that could be raised or lowered
and the arm could be rotated up to 45 deg in both direction.
a. radial arm saw
b. table saw
c. power hacksaw
d. tilting carbon table saw

97. Materials that are usually very corrosion resistant and are used mostly for food handling equipments.
a. Copper
b. mild steel
c. tin
d. stainless steel

98. Materials that are quite brittle but are used for machine parts like engine blocks.
a. cast iron
b. aluminum alloy
c. platinum
d. pig iron

99. A process in which two pieces of metal are joined by passing current between electrodes positioned
on opposite sides of the pieces to be welded. There is no arc with this process.
a. Resistance spot welding
b. Resistance rivet joining
c. Electrolytic joint
d. Electric soldering

100. Lumber defects as separation from the lengthwise grain. It occurs due to too rapid and uneven
drying.
a. decay
b. knot
c. check
d. wane