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RELIABLE APTITUDE TEST


FOR STUDENTS MOVING TO CLASS VI
TIME : 1 Hr. 30 Min. M.M. : 180

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. Each question carr y 3 marks.


2. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any
other electronic gadgets in any form is not allowed.
3. Before answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space
provided in the OMR sheet.
4. Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank
space provided in t he OMR sheet.
5. There is a negative marking of –1 for each wrong answer. So attempt
each question carefully.
6. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the
institute shall be final.
7. Post exam Answer Key will be declared.

RELIABLE INSTITUTE
Corporate Office : Reliable Institute “Bansal Tower”
A-10, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) India -324005
Contact No. : +91-7427056522, 7568756522
MATHEMATICS
1. 30 is not a multiple of-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

2. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 2 ?


(1) 345608 (2) 9757821 (3) 935659 (4) None of these

3. Three city tour buses leave the bus stop at 9.00 AM. Bus A returns every 30 minutes, but B returns
every 20 minutes and Bus C returns every 45 minutes. What is the next time, the buses will all return at
the same time to the bus stop.
(1) 1:00 PM (2) 12 noon (3) 7 PM (4) 11 : 30 PM

4. The sum of all prime numbers between 10 to 25 is :


(1) 83 (2) 84 (3) 85 (4) 86

5. Mathematics textbook for Class VI has 320 pages. The chapter 'symmetry' runs from page 261 to page
272. The ratio of the number of pages of this chapter to the total number of pages of the book is :
(1) 11 : 320 (2) 3 : 40 (3) 3 : 80 (4) 272 : 320

6. Estimate the perimeter by first rounding each length to the nearest hundred.

7309 feet
5699 feet

3544 feet
(1) 10,098,600 ft (2) 16,600 ft (3) 8300 ft (4) 16,500 ft

7. If a worker earns Rs 18,000 in 15 months, then he earn Rs 30,000 in


(1) 16 months. (2) 19 months.
(3) 22 months. (4) 25 months.

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8. Following figures are formed by joining six unit squares. Which figure has the smallest perimeter in
Fig.?

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) (iv) (4) (i)


9. 1km is equal to
(1) 10 m (2) 100 m (3) 500 m (4) 1000m

10. The total cost of flooring a room at Rs 8.50 per square metre is Rs 510. If the length of the room is 8
metre, then its breadth is :
50 60 70 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 5 4

11. Find the surface area of a cubic room with side equal to 7 m.
(1) 288 m2 (2) 278 m2 (3) 298 m2 (4) 294 m2

12. How many cubes of side 15 cm can be fitted into a box which measure 1.5 m x 90 cm x 75 cm ?
(1) 120 (2) 300 (3) 140 (4) 100

13. In the International place value system, we write one million for
(1) 1 lakh (2) 10 lakh (3) 100 lakh (4) 1 crore

14. Difference of the greatest 7 digit number and the smallest 5 digit number is
(1) 998999 (2) 9989999 (3) 1009998 (4) 109998

15. Simon and Julie need 72 paper flowers to complete a bulletin board. They have 19 paper flowers so far. Which
operation should be used in the box below to find how many more paper flowers they need? 72 ? 19 =
(1) Addition (2) Division (3) Multiplication (4) Subtraction

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16. My elder sister divided a watermelon into 18 parts. I ate 7 out of them. My friend ate 4. What fraction of
watermelon remained ?
7 11 03 04
(1) (2) (3) (4)
18 18 18 18

1
17. An ornament is made of gold and copper. Its total weight is 96 gm. If th part of the ornament is
12
copper, then the weight of gold is:
(1) 8 gm (2) 88 gm (3) 12 gm (4) 90 gm

a a
18. In + = 6, the value of a is
8 4
(1) 122 (2) –16 (3) 16 (4) 0
19. Subtract : 89L 678ML from 103L 250ML
(1) 12 L 520 ML (2) 13 L 527 ML (3) 14 L 500 ML (4) 10 L 540 ML

20. A man carried with him 3 soap bars weighing 125g each and 4 detergent cakes weighing 275g each.
The total weight carried by him was
(1) 1kg 200g (2) 1kg 325g (3) 1kg 475g (4) 1kg 600g

PHYSICS
21. Which among the following is a simple machine?
(1) Pulley (2) Car (3) Computer (4) Washing machine

22. The first artificial satellite launched by India in 1975 was :


(1) Sputnik-I (2) Aryabhata (3) Charaka (4) Insat

23. The closest neighbour of the earth in space is :


(1) Sun (2) Jupiter (3) Moon (4) Mars

24. Which of the following is an imaginary line that runs from north to south pole ?
(1) Equator (2) Axis (3) Orbit (4) None of these

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25. Which is the largest and the fastest spinning planet ?
(1) Saturn (2) Jupiter
(3) Venus (4) Mars

26. An instrument used for measuring Earthquake is ___________


(1) Telescope (2) Electroscope (3) Tunning (4) Seismograph

27. Which of the following should be avoided during an event of earthquake ?


(1) Stay away from tall trees (2) Stay away from tall buildings
(3) If you are on a beach, get into sea (4) All of these

28. Choose the correct comparison :


Inner Planets Outer Planets
(1) Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter and Neptune Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars
(2) Made of gases Made of rocks
(3) Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter and Neptune
(4) Have no solid surface Have solid surface

29. During a tug of war, which type of force is applied by the players ?
(1) Pulling on rope and pushing on ground
(2) Pushing on rope and pulling on ground
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these
30. The correct sequence of seven colours of a rainbow is :
(1) Blue, Orange, Red, White, Purple, Yellow, Green.
(2) Violet, Blue, Indigo, Green, Red, Yellow, Orange.
(3) Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red.
(4) Violet, Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Indigo, Blue

CHEMISTRY
31. The clothes are made up of thinner and thinner strands called -
(1) Yarn (2) Thread (3) Fibre (4) Fabric

32. Which soil is excellent for the cultivation of cotton ?


(1) Green soil (2) Red soil (3) Black soil (4) All of the above

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33. An oily thin paper sheet will be-
(1) transparent (2) translucent (3) opaque (4) none of these

34. Which one of the following is insoluble in water?


(1) Alcohol (2) Sodium Chloride (3) Coconut oil (4) Sugar

35. After preparing tea the tea leaves are separated from tea by –
(1) winnowing (2) threshing (3) strainer (4) evaporation

36. What is the pressure at sea level ?


(1) 760 mm of Hg (2) 76 cm of Hg (3) (1) &(2) both (4) None of these

37. The given experiment shows a method to remove insoluble impurities from water. Identify the
method.

(1) Filtration (2) Decantation (3) Sedimentation (4) Chlorination

38. Salt can be obtained from sea water by which process?


(1) Crystallization (2) filtratration (3) Sublimation (4) Centrifugation
39. Water is known as universal solvent because -
(1) it is present in large amount (2) it is transparent
(3) it dissolves most substances (4) it is tasteless

40. A process of changing gas into solid is -


(1) evaporation (2) Sublimation (3) boiling (4) none of these

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BIOLOGY

41. Match the items given in column A with those in column B


Column-(A) Column-(B)
I. Radish and gourd a. omnivores
II. Man and dog b. autotrophs
III. Chillies and cloves c. vegetables
IV. Plants d. spices
(1) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b
(2) I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
(3) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(4) I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c

42. Which of the following soils is best suited for cultivation of paddy (X) and watermelon (Y)?
X Y
(1) Sandy Loamy
(2) Clayey Sandy
(3) Sandy Clayey
(4) Loamy Clayey

43. Why is wind valuable to plants


(1) It helps in photosynthesis
(2) It helps disperse seeds
(3) It brings rain
(4) It provides more sunlight

44. Materials that are no longer needed, called


(1) Sewage
(2) Decomposer
(3) Waste
(4) None

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45. Study the classification chart shown below.

The animals are classified according to


(1) their habitats (2) their methods of breathing
(3) their body coverings (4) what they eat
46. Which is a prey and a predator in the given food chain?
Corn  Chicken  Snake  Eagle
(1) Corn (2) Chicken (3) Eagle (4) Snake
47. Figure shows a cockroach with its head held underwater for three minutes.

The cockroach will not die because


(1) it breathes with gills. (2) it can breathe underwater.
(3) it can breathe with its skin. (4) it breathes through the pores on its abdomen.
48. Which of the following have an exoskeleton?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

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49. Match column I with column II
Column I Column II
(P) Cerebrum (I) Breathing and blood circulation
(Q) Cerebellum (II) Control movements
(R) Medulla (III) Control speech, memory and intelligence
P Q R
(1) I II III
(2) II I III
(3) I III II
(4) III II I

50. What are the names of the three body parts found in insects from the front to the back?
(1) Antenna, head, abdomen (2) Head, thorax, abdomen
(3) Antenna, head, legs (4) Head, abdomen, thorax

MAT
Directions (51 to 54) : Find the missing term

51. 3, 4, 8, 17, 33, 58 , ?


(1) 69 (2) 94 (3) 74 (4) 89

52. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?


(1) 240 (2) 290 (3) 336 (4) 504

53.

(1) 33 (2) 145 (3) 135 (4) 18

?
2
54. 108
3
18
6

(1) 1 (2) 36 (3) 216 (4) 1944

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55. Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the nineteenth letter from the right end of the following
alphabets?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(1) N (2) M (3) Y (4) F
56. If FOX is coded as 45, what will be the code number for BOX ?
(1) 41 (2) 49 (3) 55 (4) 60
57. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14


58. How many 5's are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 3
or 4 but not immediately followed by 8 or 9?
35954553584567357554523510
(1) None (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
59. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)


Direction : Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into
each other would form figure (X).

60.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)


(1) 145 (2) 245 (3) 123 (4) 234

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ANSWER KEY

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 2 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 1 2 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 3 2 2 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 4 4 4 1

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