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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO START.

2. Use only a HB pencil to fill in the Test Booklet and the Answer sheet.

3. This booklet contains 25 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after the signal to start is given, verify that all

pages are printed properly.

4. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide

rules, drawing instruments, Calculators, (including watch calculators), cellular phones, pagers, Digital or any other

devices or loose paper. These should be left outside the room.

5. Ensure that your personal data has been correctly entered in the Answer sheet on both the sides.

AT THE START OF THE TEST

6. As soon as the signal to start is given, open the Booklet.

7. This Test Booklet contains 25 pages, including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the Test Booklet, verify

that all the pages are printed properly and are in order.

HOW TO ANSWER

8. This test has FOUR sections which examine various abilities. In all there are 150 questions. All the Questions carry

1 Mark each. You will be given TWO hours to complete the test. In distributing the time over the four sections,

please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all three sections.

9. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and

answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to

each question.

10. All the Questions carry one mark each. Wrong answer carries negative marks.

11. Do your rough work only on the Test Booklet and NOT on the Answer Sheet.

12. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.

13. At the end of the test remain seated till the invigilator collects your Application Form-cum-Answer sheet from your

seats. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may leave now.” The invigilator will make the

announcement only after collecting the Application Form-cum-Answer sheets from every candidate in the room.

14. You may retain the test booklet with you.

Bulls Eye, SCO – 58-61, Sec – 8C, Madhya Marg, Chandigarh Ph: 6611111, 5089389

Ph: Patiala – 0175-5062699, Bathinda – 0164-5003374, Shimla – 0177-2622329, Ludhiana 0161-3096685

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

SECTION – I

VERBAL COMMUNICATION No. of Questions: 40

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 6: Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Fill in these blanks with the most

appropriate word/ phrase from the four options that are given following each sentence.

1. _______________, their small size and the thin soil make them easy prey to a hiker’s heel.

2. While alpine flowers can resist wind, cold, and snow

3. Alpine flowers resisting wind, cold, and snow

4. When alpine flowers which can resist wind, cold, and snow

3. When instead of slowing down at 4. Instead of slowing down when

3. ______________, the passengers found that their flight had been cancelled because of the severe snowstorm.

3. As soon as arriving at airport 4. At the airport.

4. With ______________ grin, Ramesh quickly _______________ his way through the crowd towards us.

3. an irrepressible, manoeuvred 4. a surely, crawled

5. He is very ____________ about everything. Ensure that you do not use any indecent language in his

presence.

1. prim and proper 2. safe and sound 3. odds and ends 4. length and breadth

6. The government’s _______________ clinical study requirements for approval of new drugs do not

______________ pharmaceutical firms when it comes to research and development, chiefly because of their

profit potential.

DIRECTIONS for questions 7 to 12: Replace the italicised portion by choosing the phrase from the given

alternatives that best keeps the meaning of the original sentence.

7. The researcher had to mull over his idea for several days.

2. to remember his ideas for several days

3. to scrutinize his ideas for many days

4. to ponder over his idea for several days

8. The function would have been more enjoyable, if all the extraneous activities had been dropped from the

programme.

1. if all the irrelevant activities had been dropped from the programme

2. if all the excessive activity had been dropped from the programme

3. if all overextended activities had been dropped from the programme

4. if the exceptional activities had been dropped from the programme

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

9. The professor wants him to improve the coherence of his term paper.

2. to improve the consistency of his term paper

3. to improve the rationality of his term paper

4. to enhance the quality of his term paper

10. Researchers warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals.

2. irrefutable extinction of several species of plants and animals

3. absolute extinction of species of plants and animals

4. formidable extinctions of many species of plants and animals.

11. In addition to those specified for various professions, the corporations maintained endowments for

supporting purely academic fields, especially in the physical sciences.

1. the corporations had maintained purely academic endowments like those of the physical sciences

2. in purely academic fields, endowments especially in the physical sciences were maintained by the

corporations

3. endowments were maintained in purely academic fields, especially in the physical sciences by the

corporations

4. purely academic endowments, especially for those fields like the physical sciences were maintained by the

corporations

12. A career in business management, which requires an excessive investment of time and money, does not

guarantee success, as there is so much competition.

1. which requires an enormous investment of time and money, does not guarantee success since there is so

much competition.

2. requiring an enormous investment of time and money without guarantee because there is so much

competition.

3. requires an enormous investment of time and money and it cannot guarantee success because there is so

much competition.

4. requires that an enormous investment of time and money be made and success cannot be guaranteed.

DIRECTIONS for questions 13 to 18: Each of the following questions consists of capitalized pair of words followed

by four pairs of words. The capitalized words have some meaningful relationship with each other. Choose from the

given alternatives the pair of words whose relationship is more similar to that expressed by the capitalized pair.

3. magnanimous : misanthrope 4. optimistic : pessimist

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

17. LAMENTATION: KILLJOY::?

3. sophistication : scarecrow 4. caution : daredevil

3. explore : cave 4. relax : vacation

DIRECTIONS for questions 19 to 21: Each question below consists of one word printed in capital letters followed

by four options. Choose the option that is nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters.

19. VACILLATION

20. DERELICTION

21. SANCTIMONIOUS

DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 24: Each question below consists of one word printed in capital letters followed

by four options. Choose the option that is nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

22. SALUBRIOUS

23. PUTATIVE

24. STARE

DIRECTIONS for questions 25 to 32: Answer based on following passage. Choose the most appropriate option from

the alternatives given each question.

Since times immemorial people have been communicating with each other verbally or nonverbally. No one can live in

society without communicating. It may be in the form of silence. There are some expressions of emotions, like

happiness, sadness, fear, and anger which are considered to be universal.

In today’s competitive world, it has become essential that one must have skills in more than one area. A

person might possess a number of good qualities necessary for dealing with various problems of daily lives, but lack

of effective communication might make the task difficult. Whether it is a corporate world, academic world or social

world, the ability to communicate effectively has become a need today. Communication can make or break a

relationship, begin or end a war. Perhaps, this is the most important thing, we do in our lives. It is said that motivation

is very important, if a person wants to achieve something in life. How can people be motivated? It’s again through

communication only. A person might achieve in life many things, if he/she knows the art and science of

communication.

In this context, it is said that culture has a great impact on communication. In fact, culture is communication

and communication is culture. When we talk about Indian culture, it is observed that people are very context sensitive.

One has to be very cautious about the time and the context of communication, in order to make communication more

effective.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

Gender and communication is another important area, which has drawn the attention of scholars. Whereas

many scholars are of the opinion that men and women differ in their communication styles, some scholars have found

no significant difference. Are women better communicators than men? It is a question of debate. Perhaps, it may be

due to the biology or socialization process or both. The researchers will strive to find out a suitable answer to this.

Who does not like a smiling face and friendly and warm communication? Whether it is boss or subordinate,

teacher or student, husband or wife, father or son, everyone needs to develop skills in communication. This will not

only help in getting accomplishment of difficult tasks done, but also will give a peace of mind which ultimately may

lead to a successful and meaningful life.

3. communication skills 4. All the above

3. both are equally good communicators 4. communication skills need to be developed

1. In Indian culture people are not context sensitive. 2. Indian people are very context sensitive.

3. Women are very context sensitive. 4. None of the above.

2. No one can live in society without communicating.

3. Silence is not a form of communication

4. Body language is an important part of communication.

3. way of communicating 4. None of the above

2. Silence is a type of verbal communication.

3. Silence is a powerful tool of communication.

4. Silence is a written form of communication.

2. to have knowledge of communication

3. to know the art of communication

4. to interact effectively

1. motivation is necessary

2. one gets motivated through communication

3. motivation is necessary for good communication

4. all of the above

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

33. The components of the intellectual capital that the author refers to are

2. human capital, customer capital and infrastructure capital

3. customer capital and infrastructure capital only

4. none of the above

34. According to author the key issue for customer capital creation is

3. Customer Retention Management 4. All of the above

2. human values are degraded and extrinsic motivation is upgraded.

3. human values have no relationship with extrinsic motivational factors.

4. all of the above

2. Organisational culture has no relationship with organisational climate.

3. Organisational climate is a part of organizational culture.

4. None of the above

2. values and ethics play no role in developing human capital.

3. the human capital does not depend on values and ethics.

4. none of the above.

3. to study the cash-cow concept 4. all of the above

40. The immense challenge before the organizations for creating the customer capital is

2. to attract the customer demand and customer services

3. to face the competition with the client company

4. none of the above

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

SECTION – II

LOGICAL REASONING No. of Questions: 40

DIRECTIONS for questions 41 to 47: The sentences given in questions, when properly sequenced, form a coherent

paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Select the most logical order of the sentences in each case.

41. (i) Introducing mass transit systems may decrease the number of vehicles on the road and mitigate the

problems of pollution.

(ii) The development of urban transport infrastructure, e.g. roads, has not kept pace with the growth in the

number of vehicles.

(iii) Gridlock and pollution result when transportation infrastructure is unable to cope with the growth in

number of vehicles.

(iv) The number of cars operating in urban areas has increased tremendously.

42. (i) If profit margins are eroded, an Internet store may go out of business.

(ii) Internet stores must deliver their products to their customers’ homes.

(iii) Home delivery implies that logistics costs erode the available profit margins for an Internet store.

(iv) High logistical costs could account for the failure of many online grocers.

(ii) The call center BPO industry in India might therefore experience a boom during a US recession.

(iii) Customer service call centers represent a non-core function for many US companies.

(iv) During a recession, US companies must cut costs to increase profitability.

44. (i) Airline passengers might ultimately experience a price increase during a war in the Middle East.

(ii) A war in the Middle East may endanger oil supplies.

(iii) When oil supplies diminish, oil prices go up.

(iv) Industries that rely heavily on fuel, e.g. aviation, may see associated cost increases.

45. (i) In many countries that they colonized, the British left behind the legacy of the English language.

(ii) Even after the end of colonization and British rule, English remained as the language of commerce and

international trade.

(iii) Business people the world over must be comfortable communicating in English.

(iv) During its heyday, colonization had spread so far and wide that the sun never set on the British Empire.

46. (i) Admen also recruit charismatic cricketers like Sachin Tendulkar to gain wider acceptance for their

products.

(ii) India’s national pastime is cricket.

(iii) Millions of viewers watch a major cricketing event like the World Cup.

(iv) Advertisers promote their products during cricket matches to take advantage of the number of viewers.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

47. (i) When required monthly payments are lower, more individuals purchase houses.

(ii) During a recession, the government lowers the interest rate to lower the cost of capital and stimulate

borrowing.

(iii) When interest rates fall, monthly payments on debt, e.g. mortgages, also fall.

(iv) The real estate market may experience a boom during a recession if interest rates are reduced.

DIRECTIONS for questions 48 to 50: Each of the problems in this section contains a question and two statements

which are labeled as (1) and (2) and the corresponding question to decide whether the statements are sufficient to

answer the question. For each problem, determine which of the following is the correct alternative:

2. (II) alone is sufficient, but (I) alone is not sufficient.

3. (I) and (II) together are sufficient but neither (I) alone, nor (II) alone is sufficient.

4. (I) and (II) together are not sufficient.

48. Did the Hill Corporation have higher sales in the year 2000 or year 2001?

I. In year 2002, the sales were thrice the sales in year 2001.

II. In year 2000, the sales were twice the average (arithmetic mean) of the sales in years 2000, 2001 and

2002.

49. A red pipe and a blue pipe are connected to a reservoir and if they both are used, the reservoir can be filled

with oil in one hour. How long will it take for the red pipe to fill the reservoir without the use of the blue

pipe?

I. The red pipe can flow twice as much oil as the blue pipe.

II. The blue pipe would take double the time to fill the reservoir when the red pipe is partially blocked.

50. Sumant bought 20 pens of two different types for Rs. 500 in total. He sold the costlier pens at no profit or

loss, but made a profit with the less expensive pens. What is the total percentage profit made by him?

I. Half the pens cost Rs. 20 each and half the pens cost Rs. 30 each.

II. The profit on the cheaper pens is 10 per cent.

DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 54: Each of the problems in this section contains a question and two statements

which are labeled as (I) and (II). Use the information provided in statements (I) and (II) and the corresponding

question to decide whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. For each problem, select one of the

options (1), (2), (3) or (4) based upon the following criteria:

• statement (I) is sufficient to answer the question and statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the

question OR

• statement (II) is sufficient to answer the question and statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the

question

2. Choose option 2 if the following condition is met:

• statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question AND statement (II) alone is also sufficient to answer

the question

3. Choose option 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements (I) and (II) together, but cannot be

answered by using either statement alone

4. Choose option 4 if the question cannot be answered even using both statements (I) and (II) together

51. Mr. Rao deposited Rs. 50,000 on 3rd January 2000 at a large bank, in a multi-option deposit scheme. He

withdrew Rs. 5,000 on 15th February 2000, another Rs. 10,000 on 20th September 2000 and Rs. 10,000 on

10th August 2001. How much will be the interest earned by him until 31st December 2003?

I. The interest rate in his savings account is 3.5 per cent and the interest rate on term deposits of more than

three months duration is 4.5 per cent.

II. The interest rate is compounded quarterly.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

52. The age of a father is three times the age of his son five years back. What is the age of the father?

II. Eight years ago, the father was more than 40 years old.

53. Arun is at least 12 inches taller than Ram. Ram is at least six inches shorter than Jyoti. What is the exact

difference in height between Arun and Ram?

II. Jyoti and Ram are siblings, born two years apart.

54. In year 2001, Jennifer worked very hard at her job, but could not produce positive results. Will Jennifer get

promoted before the year 2003?

II. Her company policy mandates at least a five year gap between promotions.

DIRECTIONS for questions 55 to 59: Answer of questions based upon following passage. Information is provided in

this passage is common. Any additional information provided with a question pertains to that individual question

only.

A company plans to sell a new product through five distinct marketing channels: Retail Stores (RS), the Internet (I),

Mail Catalogs (C), a Sales Force (SF) and Resellers (RES). The company plans to use all the five channels, but makes

them available sequentially. The exact sequence in which all the channels will be made available needs to be decided,

subject to the following constraints:

• The product must be made available in Retail Stores (RS) before being sold through Catalogs (C).

• The Internet (I) cannot be the first marketing channel used by the company.

• Selling through a Sales Force (SF) must immediately follow the roll-out of Catalogs (C).

• Resellers (RES) cannot be the last channel option used.

55. Which of the following channel sequences represents an acceptable ordering for the roll-out of the new

product?

1. (C), (SF), (RES), (RS), (I) 2. (I), (C), (SF), (RS), (RES)

3. (RS), (RES), (C), (SF), (I) 4. (RES), (RS), (SF), (I), (C)

56. If the Internet (I) is the second channel to be opened up, which of the following statements must be true?

1. Catalogs must be the third channel. 2. Retail Stores (RS) must be the third channel.

3. Sales Force (SF) must be the fifth channel. 4. Retail Stores (RS) must be the first channel.

57. If the company exercises the Resellers (RES) channel second, then Retail Stores (RS) must be

58. If the Internet (I) is the third channel used and the Sales Force (SF) is the fifth channel used, then Resellers

(RES) can be

59. If the Resellers (RES) channel is the third to be opened and the Internet (I) channel is exercised last, then

2. Catalogs (C) and the Sales Force (SF) must be first and second.

3. Retail Stores (RS) must be fourth.

4. There is no feasible ordering of the channels that satisfies the required constraints.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

DIRECTIONS for questions 60 to 64: Answer of questions based upon following passage. Information is provided in

this passage is common. Any additional information provided with a question pertains to that individual question

only.

A manager has seven employees A, B, C, D, E, F and G reporting to him in his group. A and B have strong

quantitative skills, but poor communication skills. E and F excel in both quantitative ability and communication. C, D

and G have strong communication skills, but poor quantitative skills. The Manager must assign his seven employees

to three projects in the following manner:

• Project 1 must be staffed with at least two people. At least one team member must possess quantitative skills.

At least one team member must possess communication skills.

• No more than two people must be assigned to Project 2. This project requires at least one person with

quantitative ability.

• Project 3 must be staffed with exactly three people. At least one of them must possess good communication

skills.

60. Which of the following combinations is a feasible assignment of team members to projects?

2. A & C on Project 2, E & F on Project 3

3. A & G on Project 1, C & E on Project 2

4. A & B on Project 1, e, F & C on Project 3

61. In addition, if C, D and G are women and if each project team cannot contain more than 2 men, which of the

following are feasible assignments?

2. D & G on Project 1, A, B and C on Project 2

3. A & G on Project 1, C, D and E on Project 2

4. A, E & F on Project 3

62. In addition, assume that A and B do not get along and cannot be part of the same project team. D and B are

married and do not want to be part of the same project team. Which of the following assignments are

feasible?

2. A, B & G on Project 3

3. A & G on Project 1, B & D on Project 3

4. D, E & F on Project 3, A & B on Project 1

63. Employees D crosses a road rashly and is unfortunately run over by a bus. The Manager scrambles to

reassign his employees to project teams in a manner that satisfies the skill set requirements. A feasible

assignment is provided by

2. A & B on Project 1, C, E & G on Project 3

3. A & B on Project 1, C, F & G on Project 3

4. All of the above

64. Assume that A and E have been assigned to Project 1, and D, F and G have been assigned to Project 3. A

sudden change in the business climate requires that Project 2 be staffed with three people and Project 3 be

staffed with only two people. Further, at least two members of the Project 2 team must have both quantitative

and communication skills. In the new business climate, Project 1 requires only quantitative skills and Project

3 requires only communication ability. A feasible assignment is

2. Move A to Project 3.

3. Move B to Project 1, D to Project 2.

4. Move E & F to Project 2, and B to Project 1.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

65. Arun is taller than Vivek. Harish is taller than Vivek, but shorter than Arun. Divya is taller than Harish, while

Ramya is shorter than Arun. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

2. Divya is taller than Vivek.

3. Divya is taller than Arun.

4. Ramya is shorter than Harish, but taller than Vivek.

66. On the basis of the following two statements, determine which of the stated conclusions can be logically

inferred :

I. All artists are eccentric

II. Most skaters are artists.

Conclusion:

1. Some skaters are not eccentric 2. Most skaters are eccentric.

3. All skaters are eccentric. 4. Most artists are skaters.

67. On the basis of the following three statements, determine which of the ensuing conclusions can be logically

inferred:

I. People with high cholesterol levels always get heart attacks.

II. Some people who eat fatty food have high cholesterol levels.

III. All people who eat fatty food and exercise regularly do not have high cholesterol levels.

Conclusion:

1. Some people with high cholesterol levels exercise regularly.

2. All people who eat fatty food exercise regularly.

3. All people who get heart attacks have high cholesterol levels.

4. Some people who eat fatty food get heart attacks.

68. Mr. Ogre gets up every morning and immediately gets into a good mood or a bad mood for the entire day.

Careful historical analysis shows that Mr. Ogre gets into a good mood for about 30 out of 100 days. He gives

his dog an affectionate pat during one out of every two days that he is in a good mood. If he is in a bad mood,

he pats his dog affectionately for only one out of every ten days. On a certain morning, we are told that he

patted his dog affectionately. What is now the probability that he woke up in a good mood?

69. A box contains 13 red balls (numbered 1 through 13) and 7 green balls (numbered 1 through 7). A little Elf

selects a ball at random from the box, writes down the number and throws the ball away (i.e., does not put it

back in the box). Then he selects another ball from the same box, and writes down the number again before

throwing it out of the box. The probability that both balls selected by the Elf are numbered 7 would be

70. In a coding language, if CAB is coded as 3-1-8, then ACE should be coded as

71. On the basis of the following three statements, determine which of the ensuing conclusions can be logically

inferred:

II. All Marathon runners are athletes.

III. Some marathon runners are CEOs.

Conclusion:

1. Most CEOs are marathon runners.

2. Not all marathon runners are CEOs.

3. All athletes are CEOs.

4. You cannot become a CEO if you are not athletic.

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72. Jeanne loves to work with either Raymond or Debra. Debra gets along with Elaine and Jeanne. Raymond

loves to work with either Jeanne or Richard, but doesn’t particularly like Debra. Debra and Richard cannot

stand each other and cannot work together at all. Elaine adores Debra, but cannot stand Raymond. However,

Elaine likes Richard. Jeanne like Richard as well. We are required to form two harmonious teams, in a

manner such that each team member likes any other member of the same team. One possible solution is

2. Jeanne, Raymond & Richard in team 1, Debra & Elaine in team 2

3. Elaine, Raymond & Jeanne in team 1, Debra & Richard in team 2

4. Elaine & Jeanne in team 1, Richard, Debra & Raymond in team 2

73. Several years ago, the Coca-Cola Corporation introduced a new Coke formula called “New Coke”, after

extensive market research. Within a few months however customers clamoured for the older “Classic Coke”

formula and the company was forced to bring it back to the market place. This incident shows that companies

must

2. carefully evaluate brand loyalty before phasing out an older product.

3. never introduce new products.

4. use market research only for products that are not beverages.

74. The most widely argued reasons for globalization are saturation of domestic markets, economies of scale and

competitive factors. The process of globalization tends to cover a wide range of industries and is not selective

by the country of ownership. The above statement assumes that

1. globalization will not occur in countries where markets are emerging and not saturated.

2. globalization of business is so widespread as to cause concern.

3. globalization is endemic to business due to pressing factors, but is not limited to any particular country.

4. globalization is the major approach to cost reduction.

75. Chaos, Inc., a company in the Fast Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG) sector had sales output rising by

nearly 12% per year. A new partner, Kim, joined the company and introduced many innovations such as

Kaizen groups to solve manufacturing problems, and e-business applications involving vendors and

distributors. But after Kim’s advent, sales output increased by only 6% per year. It appears that the

innovations implemented by Kim caused the reduction in the annual sales growth rate. Which of the

following, if true, would most seriously weaken the above conclusion?

1. Kim’s innovations were focused on long-term improvement and ignore short-term profitability and

growth.

2. Chaos, Inc. does not price its products based upon the actual cost of production.

3. General demand for the company’s product has declined over time.

4. Managers of the company were busy in creating innovations, rather than focusing on sales promotions.

76. In the context of international trade, the trade between any two countries need not be balanced. A specific

country may have trade deficits with some countries and surpluses with other countries, due to varying

demands and production capabilities among the trading countries. Which of the following conclusions best

summarizes the above passage?

1. For any given country, trade deficits and surpluses always balance out.

2. Global trade balance of a country is a sign of strength or weakness.

3. Relative demand and production capabilities determine the global trade balance of a country.

4. In case of trade deficits, countries should not be concerned because they will balance out in the long run.

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77. During national elections, political rallies are organized by various political parties. At one such rally, a

candidate exclaimed, “With such grand support, where almost all the people at this rally are behind me, I will

surely get elected!” Which of the following statements, if true, best supports the above conclusion of the

candidate?

2. People always vote emotionally.

3. The candidate’s opponents also appeared at the rally.

4. The rally was attended by almost all of the residents of the constituency.

78. The Minister of Trade and Commerce is lobbying to pass a new trade bill that advocates the liberalization of

trade with the developed world, including the USA and the European Union. Which of the following

statements, if true, would not justify the lobbying done by the Minister?

1. A petition is submitted by the labour unions to the government, asking to create more local jobs.

2. Elections are around the corner and the current government is required to show results.

3. As per reports from independent economists, the country’s trade deficit would increase with the passage of

the bill.

4. The pending trade negotiations will be sorted out with the new trade agreement.

79. A leading company in the Home Appliance industry adopts an inorganic growth route by way of Mergers and

Acquisitions, to expand its operations in various countries, in emerging markets. The company acquires

many domestic companies in these countries to create the initial base. Which of the following statements is

the most relevant basis for the company’s strategy.

2. The companies acquired are the leading companies in the respective countries, having the latest

technology.

3. The markets in these countries are not consolidated and there are too many players in the market.

4. In order to enter the market, support of a local brand is necessary.

80. Many energy boosters and food supplements, e.g. Complan, Boost and Bournvita, are supposed to make up

for the deficiency in natural foods. But many nutritionists believe that natural foods give more holistic

nourishment compared to these energy boosters. But the promoters of these food boosters oppose the views

of nutritionists based upon the results of surveys of school children, which show that these children have less

nutritional deficiency than in their parents’ time (i.e., when their own parents were children). Which of the

following, if true, would strengthen the promoter’s view?

2. Food supplements can be easily digested and absorbed.

3. School children are reported to be not eating proper food.

4. Food supplements are liked by adults as well as children.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

SECTION – III

QUANTITATIVE ABILITY No. of Questions: 40

81. Chemicals A, B & C are mixed in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6 by volume. The weights of equal volumes of these

chemicals are proportional to the numbers 2, 3 & 4 respectively. If the weight of the mixture is 94 kgs., the

weight of the heaviest chemical in the mixture (in kgs.) is

1. 32 2. 40 3. 48 4. 45

82. ABC Ltd. Plans to introduce a new product. To market this product, it would cost the company Rs. 1,00,000

in annual advertising expenses in addition to the distribution of 10,000 free samples. Additional distribution

costs, which would also be incurred on free samples, are expected to be Rs. 5 per unit. Manufacturing cost,

for an output of x units are expected to follow the equation M (x) = 25x + 5,00,000. Projected sales are

1,00,000 units (exclusive of free samples). The selling price (in Rs.) per unit so that the company makes

neither any profit nor any loss is

83. A dishonest milkman A buys 100 litres of milk from another dishonest milkman B for onward distribution.

He retains 10 litres of milk for personal use, adds water to make up the shortfall, and sells the mixture at Rs.

15 per litre, thereby making a profit of Rs. 2.75 per litre on the quantity sold. If B had already diluted the

milk with water in the ratio of milk: water:: 9 : 1 and he makes a profit of Rs. 1 per litre, the price per litre (in

Rs.) of pure milk purchased by B is closest to

84. A finishes a piece of work in 4 days, B takes double the time of A, C takes double the time of B and D takes

2

double the time of C. The four of then grouped into 2 pairs. One pair takes rd the time needed by the

3

second pair. Who are the members of the first pair.

1. AB 2. AC 3. BC 4. AD

1

85. A carpet whose length is 1 times the breadth, is proposed to be laid on the floor of a rectangular room,

6

keeping a margin of 1 foot all around. The area of floor is 4 times the area of the margin. The cost of

carpeting (in Rs.), at the rate of Rs. 20 per sq. ft. would be

1+ x 2x

86. If f (x) = log , the value of f 2

would be

1− x 1+ x

2 1

1. 2f (x) 2. 3f (x) 3. f (x) 4. f (x)

3 2

87. The least value of 3x + 4y, if x2y3 = 6 and x, y ∈ R, x, y > 0 is

1. 11 2. 12 3. 8 4. 10

1 1 1

88. If p is a prime number, then the value of the expression log PP 2 – log PP 3 + log PP 4 – …… is

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89. A man receives an annual pension, at the end of each year, such that the amount received each year is 90% of

that received in the preceding year. If the initial payment was Rs. 1,000, the total amount that he will receive

in the first 4 pension payments and the maximum amount that he can possibly receive (in Rs.) are

respectively closest to

1. 4,500 & 10,500 2. 4,700 & 10,000 3. 5,500 & 15,000 4. 3,450 & 10,000

90. Subsets of the set of the natural numbers are constructed as follows

{1}, {4, 5, 6}, {11, 12, 13, 14, 15}, ………. The last number in the twenty-first set of this series will be

91. If z1 – z2 = z1 + z2, for complex numbers z1, z2, then the difference of their arguments is

π π

1. π 2. 3. 4. 0

2 3

92. Let zk, k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 be the roots of the equation (zk + 1)5 + zk5 = 0 over the field of complex numbers.

4

Then ∑ Re z

k =0

k could be

1. 3 – 2i 2. 0 3. –5/2 4. 3 + 2i

93. Set A contains (2n + 1) elements. The number of subsets of A that contain at most n elements is 256, then the

number of elements in A is

1. 4 2. 9 3. 11 4. 7

94. Suppose A1, A2, A3… A30 are thirty sets, each with 5 elements and B1, B2, … Bn are n sets each with three

30 n

elements. Let U

i =1

Ai = UB

j=1

j . Assume that each element of S belongs to exactly 10 of Ais and exactly 9of

95. The number of ways in which 6 gentlemen and 4 ladies can sit for dinner at a round table so that no two

ladies sit together is

0 −b −c

96. If a, b & c are complex numbers, then z = b 0 − a is

c a 0

1 r 2r n

97. If ∆r = 2 n n 2 , then the value of ∑∆

r =1

r is

1

n n(n + 1) 2 n +1

2

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98. The area of the triangle formed by the tangents from the points (4, 3) to the circle x2 + y2 = 9 and the line

joining their point of contact is

25 192 384

1. sq units 2. sq units 3. sq units 4. None of these

192 25 25

99. In an examination, the question paper consisted of three parts, A, B & C, which contained 4, 3 & 2 questions

respectively. A student had the freedom to attempt any number of questions taking at least one question from

each part. The probability that an answer sheet selected at random shall have exactly one question from each

part is

1.

25 2.

24 3.

24 4. None of the above

350 512 315

100. Romesh and Ravi make an appointment to meet on 20th Nov. 2005 at the CAT examination centre, but

without fixing than that it is between 10 a.m. to 11 a.m. They decide to wait not longer than 10 minutes for

each other. Assuming that each is independently likely to arrive at any time during the hour, the probability

that they will meet

5 25 11

1. 2. 3. 4. None of these

6 36 36

1 cos(β − α) cos( γ − α)

∆ = cos(α − β) 1 cos( γ − β) is equal to

cos(α − γ ) cos(β − γ ) 1

1 1

1. 0 ≤ k ≤ 4 2. 0 ≤ k ≤ 3. k > 4. None of these

4 4

103. The angle of elevation of the top of an incomplete vertical pillar at a horizontal distance of 100mt from its

base is 45°. If the angle of elevation of the top of the complete pillar at the same point is to be 60°, then the

height of the incomplete pillar is to be increased by

104. The î + xĵ + 3 k̂ is rotated through an angle θ and doubled in magnitude, then it becomes 4 î + (4x – 2) ĵ+ 2 k̂ .

The value of x is

2 2 2 1 2 1

1. − , 2 2. ,− 2 3. , 4. − , −

3 3 3 3 3 3

4 12

105. The value of x that satisfies sin−1 + sin −1 = tan −1 x is

5 13

56 56 56 56

1. 2. − 3. − 4.

43 33 43 33

106. Each side of a square subtends an angle of 60º at the top of a tower ‘h’ meters high standing in the centre of

the square. If ‘a’ is the length of the each side of square the

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107. An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 = a2 with the vertex located at (a, 0). The equation of

the side opposite to this vertex is

1. 1 2. 2 3. 8 4. None of these

109. If θ1, θ2 are the angles that the lines x2 (tan2θ + cos2θ ) – 2xy tan θ + y2 sin2θ = 0 make with the axis of x,

then tan θ1 – tan θ2 is equal to

1. 0 2. ∞ 3. 1 4. 2

110. A regular hexagon is circumscribed around a circle of radius 10 cms. The length of each side of the hexagon

(in cms.) is

1 2

1. 3 2. 3. 4. None of the above

3 3

111. Three normals to the parabola y2 = x are drawn through a point (c, 0) then

1 1 1

1. C = 2. C = 3. C > 4. None

4 2 2

112. The slope of the tangent at the point (h, h) of the circle x2 + y2 = a2 is

1. 0 2. 1 3. -1 4. Depends of h

113. From a square of side 10 units another square is extracted by joining the midpoints of adjacent sides. Then a

third square is extracted from the second in the same way. This process is continued infinitely. The sum of

areas of all the residual figures (in sq. units) is

114. A tin funnel consists of two parts; one part is conical, the slant side is 12 cm, the circumference of the one

end is 40 cm and of the other end is 2.5 cm; the other part is cylindrical, the circumference being 2.5 cm and

length 16 cm. The area of tin used in making 20 such funnels (in sq. cms.) is

115. Water flows at the rate of 20 metres/minute from a cylindrical pipe of 50 mm. Diameter. How long (in

minutes) would it take to fill a conical vessel whose diameter at the surface is 60 cm. And depth is 100 cm.

116. A triangular carpet is proposed to be spread in a circular room of radius 3m. The cost of carpeting is Rs. 100

per sq.m. The total cost of carpeting (in Rs.), such that the carpeted area is maximum, is

n

π πr

117. Lim n→∞ ∑ sin is equal to

r =1 n n

1. –1 2. 1 3. –2 4. 2

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118. If g(x) is a polynomial satisfying g(x)g(y) = g(x) + g(y) + g(xy) – 2 ∀ x, y ∈ R and g(2) = 5 then

Lim x→3 g ( x ) is

1. 4 2. 10 3. 3 4. 7

1. ef′ (e) + f′ (e) 2. [ef″ (e) + f′ (e)]e2 3. [ef″ (e) + f′ (e)]e 4. e2 f″ (e)

120. The mean deviation from the mean of the AP a, a + d, a + 2d, ………. A + 2nd is

1. n(n + 1)d 2. 3. 4.

2n + 1 2n 2n + 1

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

SECTION – IV

DATA INTERPRETATION No. of Questions: 30

DIRECTIONS for questions 121 to 124: Questions based on the information and the graph provided below:

The graph denotes the selling price (SP) and the cost price (CP) per unit (in Rs.) for three different products, X, Y and

Z against the number of units produced/sold by a certain company named ABC Corporation. Assume that all the units

produced for any product are sold such that there is no inventory left.

12

10

Per unit SP and CP in Rs

0

0 1750 2625 3905

Quantities of the product in units (Not to scale)

SP (Z) CP (Z) SP (Y) CP (Y) SP (X) CP (X)

121. If the company can produce and sell any quantity (in the range of 1750-2625 units) for all the three products

individually, then what is the range of profit/loss for the company in Rs.?

122. The company produces and then sells 1500 units of X, 2500 units of Y and 3500 units of Z. The ratio of their

cost prices is

123. If the company produces and sells 3905 units of each product, then the profit per unit for the three products,

if arranged in the descending order, is

124. The company is planning to produce and sell 4000 units of all the three products taken together. Due to

warehouse capacity limitations, it is decided that products Y and Z taken together should be 3500 units in

number. What is the profit/loss (in Rs.) due to the production and then selling of product X?

1. Profit of Rs. 300 2. Loss of Rs. 300 3. No profit no loss 4. None of the above

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

DIRECTIONS for questions 125 to 128: Questions based on the information, tables and graph provided below:

The following two tables along with the graph show the function-wise percentage breakup of the number of

employees, function-wise average salary per year (in Rs.) and the total number of employees for the organization

XYZ, for the years 1995 to 1999, respectively.

FUNCTIONS OPR FIN MKT HR OTH

YEAR

1995 15% 5% 45% 5% 30%

1996 20% 6% 50% 14% 10%

1997 24% 8% 40% 18% 10%

1998 30% 10% 35% 10% 15%

1999 25% 15% 30% 15% 15%

Function-wise average salary (in Rs.) per year for the years 1995 to 1999

FUNCTIONS OPR FIN MKT HR OTH

YEAR

1995 250000 320000 270000 280000 220000

1996 270000 390000 280000 290000 250000

1997 280000 420000 290000 300000 260000

1998 290000 450000 300000 310000 280000

1999 280000 470000 310000 320000 270000

9000

8400

7920

8000 8280

Total number of employees

7000

7200

6000 6720

5000

4000

3000

2000

1000

0

1995 1996 1997 1998 1999

Year

125. The highest percentage increase in the number of employees for any particular functional area, between any

two consecutive years is approximately

126. Consider that in the year 2000, the total number of employees decreases by 25% over that of the value of

1999, but the percentage of employees in OPR function remains the same as it was in 1999. Then the change

in the number of employees for OPR between 1999 and 2000 is

127. Two finite sets have ‘m’ and ‘n’ elements. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total

number of subsets of the second set. The value of ‘m’ and ‘n’ are

1. m = 7, n = 6 2. m = 6, n = 3 3. m = 5, n = 1 4. m = 8, n = 7

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128. The number of employees under the different functional areas has changed from 1995 to 1997. For these

changes in the number of employees, the functional areas can be arranged from the maximum change to the

minimum change as follows:

1. FIN, OPR, HR, MKT and OTH 2. OPR, MKT, HR, FIN and OTH

3. OTH, HR, MKT, OPR and FIN 4. None of the above

DIRECTIONS for questions 129 to 132: Questions based on the information and the graph provided below:

The following graph shows the practice schedule for an athlete for five consecutive days as he/she practices for five

different sports events (S). The athlete’s daily schedule is for eight hours and he/she prepares for all the five sports

events each day.

6

5

Hours spent

4

3

2 S5

S4

1 S3

0 S2

DAY 1 S1

DAY 2

DAY 3

DAY 4

Day DAY 5

129. The ratios of the number of hours during the first three days, which the athlete spends in the sports event

SPT3 with respect to sports event S4 are

1. 2 : 6 : 5 :: 4 : 4 : 2 2. 4 : 4 : 2 :: 2 : 3 : 5 3. 2 : 5 : 6 :: 2 : 4 : 3 4. 4 : 4 : 2 :: 2 : 6 : 5

130. The cumulative hours during the first five days, which the athlete has spent in each sports event has been

calculated and then ranked in the descending order. Then the highest ranked sport event is

1. S5 2. S4 3. S3 4. S1

131. The steepest increase in the number of hours spent for any sports event between any two consecutive days is

132. The average number of hours per day the athlete spends for S3 is

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DIRECTIONS for questions 133 to 136: Questions based on the information, histogram and graph provided below:

The following histogram gives us a zone-wise pattern for the number of male and female candidates, who have

registered in four zones (NR, ER, WR, SR); appeared in these four zones (NA, EA, WA, SA); and qualified from

these zones (NQ, EQ, WQ, SQ) for an all India competitive examination. The graph (following this histogram)

denotes the zone-wise average marks obtained by both male and female candidates, who have appeared for this

competitive examination.

10000

9000

8000

Number of candidates

3141 3188

3012

6000 2737 2624 2890

5000

4000

3000 5510 5262 5584 5094

4467 4262 4812 4336

2000

1000 383 474 402 546

532 665 539 713

0

NR NA NQ ER EA EQ WR WA WQ SR SA SQ

Zone

Number of male candidates Number of female candidates

examination

68

67.1

66 64.9 66.4

Average marks

63

62

60

59.3

58

56

54

N E W S

Zone

Females Males

133. The ratio of the total marks obtained by all the male candidates who have appeared for the examination from

the North zone to that of all the female candidates who had qualified from the North zone is

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134. The average marks of all the students, who have appeared in the examination in the country, do not lie in the

following ranges:

(1) 63 to 64 (2) 64 to 65 (3) 65 to 66

1. (1) and (2) 2. (1) and (3) 3. (2) and (3) 4. (1), (2) and (3)

135. The ratio of the number of qualified candidates to the number of candidates who appeared in the examination

is nearest to:

136. The average percentage of female candidates, who have qualified with respect to those female candidates,

who have appeared is approximately :

DIRECTIONS for questions 137 to 141: Questions based on the information and the pie charts provided as follows:

Mr. Shah has spent Rs. 25,800 I the month of November 2004. His expenditure pattern for different items like food,

housing etc., is shown below in the first pie chart. With the data pertaining to his expenditure on food-items, such as

rice, vegetable, fruits, etc., is shown below in another pie chart. Mr. Shah purchased different fruits during this month

and the expenditure pattern for different fruits is shown in a third pie chart.

Travel

11%

Food

Others 20%

46%

Education

3%

Housing

Clothing 11%

9%

7% 15%

30%

Pulses 9%

20%

Vegetable

25%

19%

Wheat

18%

Fruits

15% 30%

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

137. The ratio of expenses on clothing and on apples is

1. 9 2. 10 3. 11 4. Data is insufficient

3. Approximately Rs. 1290 4. Approximately Rs. 775

139. Mr. Shah plans to increase the consumption of fruits and this would result in an increase in its expenditure

from 15% to 20%. To do so, he plans to reduce the expenditure on rice by a suitable amount. Now, the

expenditure on fruits would be approximately how much percent of expenditure on rice?

1. Between Rs. 3,500 – Rs. 3,600 2. Between Rs. 3,600 – Rs. 3,700

3. Between Rs. 3,700 – Rs. 3,800 4. Between Rs. 3,800 – Rs. 3,900

141. If the total monthly expenditure of Mr. Shah has increased by 10%, but the pattern of expenditures has

remained the same, he would now be spending on apples

1. Approximately Rs. 205 2. Approximately Rs. 235 3. Approximately Rs. 255 4. Approximately Rs. 285

DIRECTIONS for questions 142 to 146: Questions based on the information provided in the following bar chart for

the data related to the revenue and expenditure of XYZ Limited:

2003-04

2002-03

Financial Year

2001-02

Revenue

2000-01 Expenditure

1999-00

1998-99

0 5 10 15 20 25 30

Revenue and Expenditure (in million of Rs.)

1. Increased by 24% since base year of 1998-99 2. Increased by 240% since base year of 1998-99

3. Increased by 140% since base year of 1998-99 4. Data is insufficient to find the answer

144. In how many years profit is less than the preceding year?

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4

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145. From FY 1999-00 to FY 2003-04, the ratio of total revenue earned during these five years to the total

expenditure in the same period is in the range of

I. In all the years, profit is less than expenditure.

II. In all the years, expense is less than revenue of the previous year.

III. Profit has a steady increasing trend.

DIRECTIONS for questions 147 to 150: Questions based on the information, graph and pie charts provided below:

A product coming out of the production line can fail independently for the five different causes, which are C1, C2, C3,

C4 and C5. You are provided with the total number of failures of the product for a six-month period in the graph

shown below. Following this graph, percentage wise breakup of failures for the five causes in the third and the fifth

month are given in the two pie charts.

8000

7000

Total number of failures

6000

5000

4000

3000

2000

1000

0

1 2 3 4 5 6

Month

Percentage of failures for the third month Percentage of failures for the fifth month

C1

C1 C5

C5 15%

20% 25%

26%

C2

C2 15%

10%

C4 C3 C4

C3

26% 18% 25%

20%

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

147. The maximum increase in the number of failures between the third and the fifth month is due to causes

148. If the total number of failures in the seventh month increases by 20% over the total number of failures in the

sixth month, then the percentage increase in the total number of failures in the seventh month with respect to

the total number of failures for the month in which there were least number of total failures, is approximately

149. The ratio of the total failures in the two best performing months (least defects) and the total number of

failures in the two worst performing months during these six months is approximately

150. If the following conclusions are drawn from the information provided:

I. The maximum failure in the fourth month is due to causes C4 and C5.

II. The least failure in the fourth month is due to cause C2.

III. The number of failures for the cause for which there were least number of failures in the third month is

405.

IV. The total number of failures due to the two most severe causes in the fifth month is 3640.

Then:

1. I and II are true 2. III and IV are true 3. All are false 4. All are true

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Key, Explanations & Analysis

Bulls Eye, SCO – 58-61, Sec – 8C, Madhya Marg, Chandigarh Ph: 6611111, 5089389

Ph: Patiala – 0175-5062699, Bathinda – 0164-5003374, Shimla – 0177-2622329, Ludhiana 0161-3096685

Pune – 020 - 25678999, Jammu - 0191-2582047, Goa - 0832-5641991, Raipur - 0771-5035326-7-8-9

Asansol-0341-2531340, Bilaspur-0775-2504113, Durgapur-0343-2547948, Nasik-0253-5612633,

Delhi-011-51691856, 30917568, 30963192-93, 30917558, 25418967,

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Q. No. Key Q. No. Key Q. No. Key

1. 2 51. 3 101. 4

2. 4 52. 1 102. 2

3. 4 53. 4 103. 3

4. 3 54. 3 104. 1

5. 1 55. 3 105. 2

6. 3 56. 4 106. 2

7. 4 57. 2 107. 3

8. 1 58. 4 108. 3

9. 2 59. 4 109. 4

10. 1 60. 3 110. 4

11. 3 61. 1 111. 3

12. 1 62. 1 112. 3

13. 4 63. 1 113. 4

14. 3 64. 4 114. 4

15. 1 65. 2 115. 1

16. 2 66. 2 116. 1

17. 2 67. 4 117. 4

18. 1 68. 4 118. 2

19. 3 69. 4 119. 3

20. 1 70. 4 120. 2

21. 4 71. 2 121. 3

22. 3 72. 2 122. 4

23. 4 73. 2 123. 3

24. 4 74. 3 124. 2

25. 3 75. 1 125. 1

26. 4 76. 3 126. 1

27. 4 77. 4 127. 2

28. 3 78. 3 128. 4

29. 3 79. 4 129. 4

30. 3 80. 1 130. 2

31. 3 81. 3 131. 4

32. 2 82. 3 132. 4

33. 4 83. 4 133. 4

34. 2 84. 4 134. 4

35. 2 85. 4 135. 3

36. 3 86. 1 136. 1

37. 2 87. 4 137. 2

38. 1 88. 1 138. 2

39. 1 89. 4 139. 4

40. 1 90. 3 140. 4

41. 1 91. 2 141. 3

42. 3 92. 3 142. 2

43. 1 93. 1 143. 3

44. 1 94. 2 144. 3

45. 2 95. 3 145. 4

46. 1 96. 1 146. 4

47. 4 97. 1 147. 3

48. 3 98. 2 148. 3

49. 1 99. 3 149. 1

50. 3 100. 3 150. 2

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

Q. Answer Explanation

No. Key

1. 2 Sentence should start with “While alpine flowers can resist wind, cold, and snow…”

2. 4 Instead of slowing, they tend to speed up.

3. 4 At the airport

4. 3 Irrepresible grin…maneuvered in the crowd.

5. 1 Prim and proper person will not use indecent language.

6. 3 Too many requirements do not favour…

7. 4 Mull over: ponder over

8. 1 Irrelevant is better than extraneous.

9. 2 Coherence: consistency

10. 1 Sentence is correct.

11. 3

12. 1 Sentence is correct.

13. 4 (synonyms)

14. 3 Action performed on the first word.

15. 1 (synonyms)

16. 2 group of fish is shoal

17. 2 characteristic of the person

18. 1 provide direction to the automobile and garden

19. 3 vacillate - not decided

20. 1 dereliction - irresponsibility

21. 4 sanctimonious - holy, proper

22. 3 Q 22-24: Please refer to a dictionary for the meanings.

23. 4

24. 4

25. 3 The passage is about communication skills.

26. 4 “the ability to communicate effectively has become a need today.”

27. 4 All the choices provided are wrong.

28. 3 Directly stated in the passage.

29. 3 Style means way of interacting.

30. 3 Directly stated.

31. 3 Directly stated.

32. 2 “How can people be motivated? It’s again through communication only.”

33. 4 Explained in the second paragraph.

34. 2 Third paragraph "Managing relationship ... key issue."

35. 2 Explained in the last paragraph.

36. 3 First paragraph.

37. 2 “able to sustain the organizational culture but face problems in retaining organizational

climate…” means that they are different.

38. 1 The paragraph explains intellectual capital.

39. 1 The passage talks about creation of IC.

40. 1 Third paragraph, last line.

41. 1 We should start with number of cars, then go on to infrastructure.

42. 3 The link is Internet stores – home delivery – profits.

43. 1 Match “recession” to get iv-ii.

44. 1 Distinct link between ii and iii.

45. 2 Colonisation is given in iv and i.

46. 1 Note that i should come after iv.

47. 4 Lowering of interest is continued in iii statement.

48. 3 From both statements we get 2000 = 8x, 2001 = x and 2002 = 3x.

49. 1 1 1 1

From the first statement we get + = , which can be solved.

2 x x 601

50. 3 CP of the pens is given in the first statement while profit in the second, both will give the

answer.

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51. 3 Interest rate is given by both statements, from which the question can be answered.

52. 1 We can calculate father's age from son's age, which is given in the first statement.

53. 4 The statement does not give specific figures, hence the sum cannot be answered.

54. 3 From both statements we can say that she will not get a promotion in 2003.

55. 3 Only choice (3) satisfies all the given conditions.

56. 4 RS, I, Res, C, SF

57. 2 RS, RES, I, C, SF

58. 4 If RES is third and I is last then C and SF must come 1 and 2 which isolates the first

condition.

59. 4 If RES is put on the third place and I is put on the last place. The only two consecutive empty

spaces left for C and SF are 1st and 2nd. And if those two are places there, then there is no

place where RS cane be accommodated as it has to come before C. Thus no possible order

exist taking all the constraints into account. Thus 4th option.

60. 3 AG, CE, BDF

61. 1 AE, DFG, BC satisfies all conditions.

62. 1 AD, CE, BFG

63. 1 CFG, A, BE

64. 4

65. 2 A > V, H > V, H < A, D > H, R < A. Hence D > H > V.

66. 2 E

If most S = A, then most S are also part of E.

A

67. 4

68. 4 Good = 30 Bad = 70

Pat his dog = 15, Bad = 7

Probability of being in good mood = 15/22.

69. 4 2 1 1

× = .

20 19 190

70. 4 CAB = 3, 12, 23. Hence ACE = 1, 32, 53.

71. 2

A

72. 2

73. 2 The example given is about brand loyalty, hence (2).

74. 3 Directly stated in the second sentence.

75. 1

76. 3

77. 4

78. 3

79. 4

80. 1

81. 3 Let volumes of A, B, C be 4x, 5x and 6x

Weights of equal volumes (Density) are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4

⇒ Wt. of A, B, C are 8x, 15x, 24x

8x + 15x + 24x = 94

x=2

⇒ A, B, C are 16, 30 and 48 kg.

Heaviest Mixture = 48 kg.

82. 3 Manufacturing cost = 25x + 500000

⇒ Man. Cost of 110000 = 25 × 110000 + 500000

= 2750000 + 500000

= 3250000

Adv. Cost = 100000

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Total Cost = 3350000

Total Sale proceed = 100000 × x

Total cost = Total Sale Proceeds

(25 × 110000 + 500000) + 100000 + 5 × 110000 = x × 100000

2750000 + 100000 + 550000 + 500000 = x × 100000

3900000 = x × 100000

⇒ x = Rs. 39/-.

83. 4 Let the purchase price of pure milk = Rs. x/- per litre

Cost Price of 90 litre = 90x

Selling Price = 9x + 90 (Profit)

= 90(x + 1)

S.P. of A = 90(x + 1)

S.P. of B = 15 × 100 = 1500/-

Profit = 2.75 × 100 = 275/-

C. Prof B = 1500 – 275 = 1325/-

S.P. of A = C.P. of B

⇒ 90(x + 1) = 1325

1325

x+1= ⇒ 14.72

90

⇒ x = 13.72 closest 13.8/-

84. 4 A takes 4 days ⇒ B takes 8 days

⇒ C takes 16 days ⇒ D takes 32 days

4 × 32 32

(A & D) together takes = = Days

4 + 32 9

8 × 16 16

(B & C) together take = = Day

8 + 16 3

Thus A & D is the first pair.

85. 4 Breadth = 6x ⇒ Length = 7x

Area of carpet = 42 x2

Area of floor = (7x + 2) (6x + 2)

7x = 42x2 + 26x + 4

Area of Margin = 26x + 4

6x Now 42x2 + 26x + 4 = 4(26x + 4)

42x2 – 78x – 12 = 0

7x2 – 13x – 2 = 0

Length = 14 ft. 7x2 – 14x + x – 2 = 0

Breadth = 12 ft. 7x (x – 2) + (x – 2) = 0

Area of floor = 224 ft. 1

Area of Margin = 224 – 168 = 56 sq ft. x= − ,x=2

7

Area of carpet = 168 sq ft.

⇒ Cost of carpeting @ Rs. 20/- per sq ft. = 168 × 20 = 3360/-. Rs. 3360/-.

86. 1 1+ x

If f(x) = Log

1− x

2x

1+ 2

2x

f = Log 1 + x2 = Log 1 + x + 2x

2

1+ x 2x 2

1− 1 + x − 2x

1 + x2

2

1 + x 1 + x

= Log = 2 Log = 2 f ( x ).

1 − x 1 − x

87. 4 Least value of 3x + 4y

If x2y3 = 6

3x + 4y will have least value when

x2 = y 3 = 6 ⇒ x = 61/4 & y = 61/6

⇒ 3x + 4y = 3 • 6 1 / 4 + 4 • 6 1 / 6 = 4 • 7 + 5 • 3 = 10.

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88. 1 P is a prime number

= Logpp1/2 – Logpp1/3 + Logpp1/4 ……………

1 1 1

= − + .......................

2 3 4

1 1 1

= 1 − 1 + − + ........................

2 3 4

1 1 1

= 1 − 1 − + − ........................

2 3 4

= 1 – Log 2

x 2 x3 x 4

Log(1 + x ) = x − + − .................

2 3 4

1 1 1

Log(1 + 1) = 1 − + − .......................

2 3 4

89. 4 First 4 pension payments = 1000 + 1000 × .9 + 1000 × .92 + 1000 × .93

= 3439 = 3450/-

Maxm. amt. he can receive = 1000 + 1000 × ,9 + 1000 × .92 + ………..∞

1000

= = 10000 / −

1 − 0.9

90. 3 The subsets are

{1}, {4, 5, 6}, {11, 12, 13, 14, 15}, …………..

The middle term of each subsets are 1, 5, 13, ………….

Middle term of nth subset = 2n2 – 2n + 1

Middle term of 21st subset = 2 ⋅ 212 − 2 ⋅ 21 + 1 = 841

The subsets have 1, 3, 5, ………. elements

21st subset will have = 1 + (21 – 1) 2 = 41 elements

Thus last term = 841 + 20 = 861.

91. 2 If z1 – z2= z1 + z2

z1 − z 2

⇒ =1

z1 + z 2

z1 − z 2

⇒ = cos α + i sin α

z1 + z 2

2 z1 1 + cos α + i sin α z α

⇒ = ⇒ 1 = i cot

− 2 z 2 − 1 + cos α + i sin α z2 2

α

⇒ z1 = i k z 2 Here k = cot

2

⇒ z1 & z2 are at rt. Angles.

Alternatively z1 – z2= z1 + z2

⇒ Diagonals of a parallelogram with sides z1 & z2 are equal.

⇒ It is rectangle

⇒ z1 & z2 are at rt. angle

π

⇒ Difference in Argument = .

2

92. 3 (zk + 1)5 + zk5 = 0

⇒ z5 = (1 + zk)5

⇒ z 5 = 1 + z 5

⇒ z = 1 + z

1

⇒z= −

2

5

5

∑ Re z

k =0

k =−

2

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93. 1 The number of subsets of set containing (2n + 1) elements that have at the most ‘n’ elements

is given by 2n+1C0 + 2n+1C1 + 2n+1C2 + ……….. + 2n+1Cn

Going by the options

N = 4 ⇒ 9C0 + 9C1 + 9C2 + 9C3 + 9C4.

Thus n = 4.

94. 2 30 n

1

30

1

S= U

i =1

Ai = U

j=1

Bj , n(s) =

10 ∑ n(Ai) = 10 × 5 × 30 = 15 → (i)

i =1

n

1 1 n

Also n(s) =

9 ∑ n(Bj) = 9 × 3n = 3 → (ii)

j=1

From (i) and (ii)

n

= 15 thus n = 45.

3

95. 3 G1

G2 G6

G3 G5

G4

6 gentlemen around a round table can sit in 5! ways i.e. 120. Now there are six vacant spaces,

which are to be occupied by 4 ladies and it can be done in 6P4 ways i.e. 360 ways. Thus the

total no. of ways is 120 × 360 = 43200. Thus 3rd option.

96. 1 a, b, c are complex numbers

0 −b −c

−

z= b 0 − a is

− −

c a 0

Expanding

− − −−

= 0(0 + aa ) + b(a c ) – c(- a b)

− −−

= ab c + a b c

−

= ab c + abc = Purely Real & None Zero.

= 2.Re(z)

97. 1

1 r 2r

n

∆r = 2 n n2 ∑∆

r =1

r =?

1

n n (n + 1) 2n +1

2

n n

1 ∑

r =1

r ∑2

r =1

r

n n

2n − 1

∑ ∆r = 2 n n2 ∑2 r =1

r

= 2 + 22 + .............2n = 2 ⋅

2 −1

= 2n +1 − 2

r =1 n (n + 1) n +1

n 2

2

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

n (n + 1)

1 2n +1 − 2

2

= 2 n n2

n (n + 1)

n 2n +1

2

1− n 0 −2

R1 – R2 = 2 n n2

n (n + 1)

n 2n +1

2

n (n + 1)

{ }

3

= (1 − n )n ⋅ 2n +1 − 2

− 0( ) − 2 n (n + 1) − n − 2(n ) .

2

98. 2 The eqn. of chord of contact of tangents drawn from (4, 3) to x2 + y2 = 9 is 4x + 3y = 9

3

Eqn. of OP is y = x

4

9

Now OM = (Length of ⊥ from (0, 0) on 4x + 3y = 9 is) =

5 Q

QR = 2QM = 2 OQ 2 − OM 2

81 24 P

= 2 9− = O

25 5 (4, 3) M

9 16

PM = OP – OM = 5 − = R

5 5

1 24 16 192

Area of ∆PQR = = sq. units.

2 5 5 25

99. 3 Sample space = (24 – 1) (23 – 1) (22 – 1)

= 15 × 7 × 3

= 315

Fav. Events = 4C1 × 3C1 × 2C1 = 4 × 3 × 2 = 24

24

Reqd. Prob. =

315

100. 3 Suppose Romesh (Ravi) arrive at x(y) minutes past 10 AM where 0 ≤ x, y ≤ 60

Romesh & Ravi will meet provided x - y ≤ 10 (x, y) lies on or inside the square with

vertices 0(0, 0) A(60, 0) B(60, 60) and C(0, 60)

The region that lying inside the square OABC and satisfying the inequality x - y > 0

consists two triangles DAE and GFC.

1 1 C(0, 60) 5

Sum of areas of two triangle = (50) 2 + (50) 2 = 502 B(60, 60)

2 2

502 25 11 E(60, 50)

Prob. = 1 − 2 = 1 − =

60 36 36

cos α sin α 0 cos α sin α 0

∆ = cos β sin β 0 cos β sin β 0

cos γ sin γ 0 cos γ sin γ 0

=0

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102. 2 byx = Slope of line of regression of y on x = k

1

and bxy = Slope of line of regression of x on y =

4

Therefore b yx ⋅ b xy = 4k

⇒ r2 = 4k ⇒ 0 ≤ 4k ≤ 1 [0 ≤ r2 ≤ 1]

1

⇒ ⇒0≤k≤

4

103. 3

D

x mt

C

60°

A 45° B

BC = Incomplete pillar, BD = Complete pillar

BC BD

tan 45° = & tan 60° = , ⇒ BC = 100mt & BD = 100 3 , ⇒ BC + CD = 100 3

AB AB

⇒ 100 + x = 100 3 , x = 100 ( 3 -1)

104. 1 We have 2î + xĵ + 3 k̂ = 4 î + (4x – 2) ĵ + 2 k̂

⇒ 4 x 2 + 10 = 20 + (4 x − 2) 2

⇒ 3x2 – 4x – 4 = 0

⇒ x = 2, -2/3

105. 2 4 12

sin −1 + sin −1 = tan −1 x

5 13

4 12

LHS = tan −1 5 + tan −1 13

2 2

4 12

1− 1−

5 13

4 12

= tan −1 5 + tan −1 13

3 5

5 13

4 12

+

4 12 56 15 56

= tan −1 + tan −1 = tan −1 3 5 = tan −1 × = tan −1

3 5 4 12 15 15 − 48 − 33

1− ×

3 5

56

Thus x = −

33

106. 2 BM P

∆BPM, tan∠BPM =

PM

3

⇒ PM = 3 BM = a

2

∆OPM, PM = OM + OP2

2 2 D C

3a 2 a2

⇒ 2

= + h2

h 4

⇒ a2 = 2h2 M

O

A B

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107. 3 Go by the option

a 3 a 3

Triangle with vertices − , a , − ,− a & ( a , 0)

2 2 2 2

lie on the circle x2 + y2 = a2

Thus the line opposite to vertex is

a

x = − or 2x + a = 0

2

108. 3 22000 = (24)500 = (17-1)500 = 500C0 17500 – 500C1 . 17 ---------- + (-1)500 = 17n+1

109. 4 We have

22(tan2 θ + cos2 θ) – 2xy tan θ + y2sin2θ = 0

Comparing with ax2 + 2hxy + by2 = 0

a = tan2 θ + cos2 θ, 2h = -2tan θ

b = sin2 θ

m1 & m2 – be the slopes

2h 2 tan θ 2

⇒ m1 + m2 = − = =

b sin 2 θ sin θ cos θ

a tan 2 θ + cos 2 θ 1

m1m2 = = = −1

b sin 2 θ sin 2 θ cos 2 θ

m1 – m2 = (m1 + m 2 ) 2 − 4m1m 2

4 4

= − +4

sin 2 θ cos 2 θ sin 2 θ cos 2 θ

=2

110. 4 ∠GOB = 30º C

∆OGB

OG = 10, ∠OBG = 60º D B

10

tan 60o =

BG 130º

O G

10 10 10

BG = o =

60 3 E A

10 20

AB = 2 ⋅ BG = 2 × =

3 3 F

111. 3 The slope form of the normal to the parabola y = 4ax is y =mx–2am–am3. For the given

2

1 1

curve y2 = x, we will have 4a = 1 ⇒ a = 1/4. Hence eqn. of the normal y = mx - m − m 3 .

2 4

1 1 3 1 1 2

If it passes through (c, 0) 0 = mc- m − m ⇒ m = 0, or c - m − m = 0. The value of

2 4 2 4

1 1 1 1

m is give c - − n 2 = 0 , m = ± 2 c − for three normal to be real c >

2 4 2 2

112. 3 The equation of the tangent at (h, h) to x2 + y2 = a2 is hx + hy = a2. Slope of tangent = slope of

hx + hy = a2 which is -1.

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Bulls Eye Sample Paper JMET

113. 4 Area of square I = 10 × 10 = 100 sq. units

D 5 5 C

Area of square II = 5 2 × 5 2 = 50 sq. units

Area of square III = 5 × 5 = 25 sq. units 5 5

Thus total area = 100 + 50 + 25 + ………….. ∞

100

= = 200 sq. units.

1− 1

2

5 5

A 5 5 B

114. 4 Area of tunnel = Curved Area of Larger tunnel – Curved Area of Smaller tunnel + Area of

Cylinder

40 4 2⋅5 4 20/π

= × 12 + − × + 2 ⋅ 5 × 16

2 5 2 5

64

= 20 × − 1 + 40

5 12 cm

= 256 – 1 + 40 = 295 cm2 5 π/4

115. 1 5

2

Rate of flow = 20 × 100 × π ×

2

25

= 2000 × π

4

= 1250 π cm3/min.

2

1 60

Volume of cone = × π × × 100 = 30000π cm3

3 2

30000π

Time in Min. = Min = 2.5 Min

12500π

116. 1 abc

The radius of circumcircle =

4∆

The biggest triangle is the one which is equilateral if each side = ‘a’

a3 a

Thus R = =

3 2 3

4 a

4

We have R = 3m

Thus a = 3 3m .

3 27 3 2

Area = (3 3 ) 2 = m

4 4

27 3

cos = × 100 = 675 3 .

4

117. 4 n

π πr

Lim

n →α

∑ n sin n

r =1

1 π

∫ ∫

= π sin xπ dx = sin t dt = 2.

0 0

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118. 2 We have g(x)g(y) = g(x) + g(y) – g(xy) - 2 ∀ x, y ε r

X = 2, y = 1, g(2)g(1) = g(2) + g(1) + g(2) – 2

5g(1) = 5 + g(1) + 5 – 2

⇒ g(1) = 2.

1

Putting y = in the given relation

x

1 1

g ( x ) ⋅ g = g( x ) + g + g (1) − 2

x

x

1 1

⇒ g ( x ) ⋅ g = g ( x ) + g

x

x

⇒ g(x ) = x n + 1

= 2⋅3 = 6

Now g(2) = 2n + 1 ⇒ n = 2

⇒ g(x) = x2 + 1

Lim g( x ) = 32 + 1 = 10

x →3

119. 3 Let y = f(ex)

dy

⇒ = f ' (e x ) ⋅ e x

dx

d2y

⇒ = f " ( e x ) ⋅ e x ⋅ e x + f ' (e x ) ⋅ e x

dx 2

d2y

= f " (e x ) ⋅ e 2 x + f ' (e x ) ⋅ e x

dx 2

d2y

= f " ( e' ) ⋅ e 2 + f ' ( e ' ) ⋅ e

dx 2 x =1

= e[e f”(e) + f’(e)]

120. 2 The mean of the series a, a + d, ……….. a + 2nd is

1

x= [a + a + d + ...........a + 2nd ]

2n + 1

1 2n + 1

= (a + a + 2nd)]

2n + 1 2

= a + nd

2n

1

Mean deviation = ∑

2n + 1 r = 0

(a + rd) − (a + nd )

2n

1

= ∑

2n + 1 r = 0

r−nd

1 n (n + 1)

= 2d(1 + 2 + ...........n ) = d.

(2n + 1) 2n + 1

121. 3 At 1750 y makes a loss but at 2625 there is profit. Hence best answer would be (3).

122. 4 The ratio at the levels of production specified, is 9 : 6 : 4.

123. 3 We notice that profit per unit is O for Z.

124. 2 X = 4000 - 3500 = 50. At 500, we see that X makes a loss.

125. 1 In HR, employees have gone up from 5%(8280) to 14%(8400) = 414 to 1176, an increase of

over 180%.

126. 1 Decrease in employees = 25% (6720) = 1680. Change in no. of employees in OPR = 25% x

75% x 6720 = 1260. Hence decreased = 1680 - 1260 = 420.

127. 2 Given 2m – 2n = 56. ⇒ m = 6, n = 3.

128. 4 Maximum change is a HR, from 5 to 18%. Since there is no choice beginning with HR, the

answer is (4).

129. 4 Visual question. In SPT 3 time spent is 2 : 2 : 1. In SPT 4 time spent is 1 : 3 : 2 .5.

130. 2 Visual question. Notice that time spent is widest for SPT 4.

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131. 4 SPT 4, from day 1 to day 2.

132. 4 (2 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 3)/5 = 9/5 = 1.9

133. 4 Information about average marks of qualified female candidates is not given.

134. 4

135. 3 (915 + 1139 + 941 + 1258)/(6884 + 8403 + 7226 + 8282) = 4253/30795 = 0.14.

136. 1 (383 + 474 + 402 + 545)/(2624 + 3141 + 2890 + 3188) = 1804/11843 = 15.24%

137. 2 Clothing = 9%. Apples = 30% x 15% x 20% = 0.9%. Hence 10 : 1.

138. 2 40% x 20% x 25800 = 2064.

139. 4 Fruits = 20%, Rice = 10%. Hence 20/10 = 200%.

140. 4 Rice + apples + travel = 15% x 20% + 0.9% + 11% = 14.9% x 25800 = 3844.

141. 3 New expenditure = 28,300. Amt. spent on apples = 0.9% x 28300 = 255.

142. 2 Revenue increases from 7 to 24 in the given 7 years. Increase = 17/7 = 240%.

143. 3 Visual question.

144. 3 Visual question. 2003-04, 2002-03, 2001-02.

145. 4 (10 + 20 + 16 + 23 + 24)/(6 + 10 + 7 + 16 + 20) = 93/57 = 160%.

146. 4 Only (2) is true.

147. 3 Visually, we see that only C2 and C3 are increasing.

148. 3 Fail in 7th month = 6810 x 1.20 = 8172. Reqd. increase = (8172 - 2060)/2060 x 100 = 300%.

149. 1 (3070 + 2060)/(7280 + 6810) = 5130/14090 = 36%.

150. 2 Visual question.

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