MAJOR EXAMINATION

SUBJECT– SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VIII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 14- 02- 20 20
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :

SECTION A : Physics 25 MARKS

3 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 1 questions of 5 marks each 1 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 5 marks.

SECTION B : Chemistry 25 MARKS

1 questions of 2 mark each, 3 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each.

SECTION C : Biology 30 MARKS

2 questions of 2 mark each, 4 questions of 3 marks each, 2 questions of 5 marks each and 2 Practical/
Activity/knowledge based questions of 2 marks each.
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
V. Use only pencil to draw the diagram.

SECTION –A
1. (a) What is S.I unit of charge? [2 Marks]
(b) What is a light year?

2. Giver four ways to reduce friction [2 Marks]

3. (a) What is force ? [2 Marks]

(b) What is electric current ?

4. (a) State the laws of reflection of light. [2 + 1 = 3 Marks]

(b) Define light

5. Find the followings [3 Marks]

40º

(a) Incident angle

(b) Reflected angle
(c) Glance angle of incidence

6. (a) What are the difference between music and noise (any 4) [2 + 1 = 3 Marks]
(b) Why do we hear a thunder after lighting ? Explain
7. Explain the following terms [5 Marks]
(a) Incident ray
(b) Pressure
(c) Mechanical wave
(d) Human eye
(e) Electromagnetic wave

8. (a) What do you mean by rectilinear propagation of light ? Draw a labelled diagram to show rectilinear
propagation of light [2 + 3 = 5 Marks]
(b) What is constellation? Explain ursa major with the diagram.

SECTION –B
9. (a) What are the advantages of using CNG as fuel? [1 Mark]
(b) Write two uses of metals. [1 Mark]

10. What do you mean by refining of petroleum? Write the uses of any two products obtained after
petroleum refining? [3 Marks]

11. Describe how coal is formed from dead vegetation. What is this process called? [3 Marks]

12. Write the important properties and uses of: (2 each) [3 Marks]
(a) Nylon (b) Polyester

13. Make a labelled diagram of candle flame. Explain the various zones. [5 Marks]

14. Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of the following properties:
[5 Marks]
(a) Physical state (b) Ductility
(c) Conduction of heat and electricity (d) Reaction with oxygen
(e) Reaction with water

15. Abida and Ramesh were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker. Abida kept
the beaker near the wick in the yellow part of the candle flame. Ramesh kept the beaker in the
outermost part of the flame. Whose water will get heated in a shorter time?. [2 Marks]

16. With the help of an activity explain the necessary conditions for rusting of iron. [2 Marks]

SECTION –C
17. Write any four hormones and write their functions also. [2 Marks]

18. What is potable water ? Name any two water borne diseases. [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]

19. Write differences between - [3 Marks]

(a) Extinct species and Endangered species (two differences)
(b) National parks and Biosphere reserve (one difference)

20. (a) Differentiate between plant cell and animal cell. [2 + 1 = 3 Marks]
(b) Write one function of mitochondria and chloroplast each.

MT_VIII 2
21. Given below are some jumbled words. Arrange them into meaningful words. [3 Marks]
(i) U L S A X A E
(A single parent involved in this mode of reproduction)
(ii) S I P U V O I R A V
(Those that give birth to young ones)
(iii) O G I C N N L
(Producing an exact copy of an organism by non-sexual method)
(iv) T O Y G Z E
(Result of fertilization)

(v) E N T G O R E S
(Female hormone)
(vi) M O R E Y B
(Division of zygote)

22. (a) Name the organs that produce sperms and ova in males and females, respectively. [5 Marks]
(b) Define fertilisation.
(c) Name two methods of asexual reproduction with an example of each.
(d) Write down the type of fertilisation in (i) Frogs (ii) Hens (iii) Humans (iv) Fish.
(e) Define metamorphosis.

23. (a) How the presence of ozone in our environment is helpful for us ? [2 + 3 = 5 Marks]
(b) What is water pollution? Mention its two effects.

24. It is almost Diwali time. Sounds of crackers and their smoke have filled the air. Rishi convinces his
classmates to take a pledge not to burst crackers at all this season. [2 Marks]
(i) What are the adverse effects of crackers on the environment?
(ii) What values did Rishi uphold by his action?

25. Dr. Deyaan was observing a plant cell in microscope. He saw a circular, double membranous structure
present between the large vacuole and cell membrane. This structure contains thread like material.
Now answer the following questions- [2 Marks]
(a) What this circular structure is called ?
(b) What will happen if this structure is removed from the cell ?

MT_VIII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– MATHEMATICS
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VIII Time : 3 Hours

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 19- 02- 20 20

(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.

SECTION –A
1. A car is travelling at the average speed of 50 km/hr. How much distance would it travel in half an hour?

2. How many triangular faces does a square pyramid have?

3. If '31x5' is a multiple of 3, where x is a digit, what might be the value of x?

7
4. Write the multiplicative inverse of .
19

5. If 23% of a is 46, then find a.

2
6. Find the height of the cylinder whose radius is 7 cm and total surface area is 968 cm .

SECTION –B

7. Rakesh requires 40% to pass an examination. If he gets 185 marks, falls short by 15 marks, what were
the maximum marks he could have got ?

8. If a box of sweets is divided among 24 children, they will get 5 sweets each. How many would each get,
if the number of children is reduced by 4?

3 4
9. Find 4 rational numbers between and .
7 9

10. A bag contains 13 red balls, 15 black balls and 14 white balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag.
What is the probability that the ball drawn is :
(i) White (ii) Black

11. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers?

12. A polyhedron has 8 edges and 5 vertices. How many faces does the polyhedron have?
 SECTION–C
2
13. The area of a trapezium shaped field is 480 m , the distance between two parallel sides is 15 cm and
one of the parallel sides is 20 cm. Find the other parallel side.

14. If x and y vary inversely, then find the values of a, b and c

x 12 16 b 8
y a b 4 c

15. A shop gives 20% discount. What would the selling price of each of these be?
(i) A dress marked at Rs. 120
(ii) A bag marked at Rs. 250
(iii) A pair of shoes marked at Rs. 750.

1 a 4
× 3 b
16. If 8 c 8 , then find the value of a + b, where all the digits are different.
s7 2
t 5 d 8

17. Solve the following equations :

3 17 x 3 4
(i) x (ii) 1.6  (iii) 7x  
7 7 1.8 2 3

18. Plot the following points on the graph paper and check if they lie on the same line.
A(2, 6) B(3, 5) C(5, 3) D(6, 2)

19. If 60% people in a city like cricket, 30% like football and remaining like other games. What percent of
people like the other games? If the total number of people is 56 lakhs, find the exact number of people
who like each type of game.

5 2 7
20. A rational number is such that when you multiply it by and add to the product, you get . What
2 3 12
is the number?

21. For the given solid, draw the Top View, the Front View and the Side View.
Top

Side

Front

MT_VIII 2
22. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 15, 12 and 20 days respectively.
(a) Find the time taken to finish the same work if A and B are working together.
(b) Find the time it will take A, B and C to finish the same work together.

SECTION–D

23. The digit in the tens place of a two-digit number is three times the digit in the ones place. If the digits are
reversed, the new number will be 36 less than the original number. Find the number.

24. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
(i) an odd number as the sum
(ii) a total of 10
(iii) same number on both dice
(iv) a sum less than 6.

25. A group of 360 people were asked to vote for their favourite season from the three seasons rainy, winter
and summer.
Season No. of votes

Summer 90

Rainy 120

Winter 150

(i) Which season got the most votes ?

(ii) Find the central angle of each sector.
(iii) Draw a pie chart to show this information.

26. A shopkeeper offers 10% discount to the customers and still makes a profit of 26%. What is the cost
price for the shopkeeper if he marked the article at Rs. 1120?

27. Fabina borrows Rs. 12500 at 12% per annum for 3 years at simple interest and Radha borrows the
same amount for the same time period at 10% per annum compounded annually. Who pays more
interest and by how much?

28. Simplify :
3  6   8  5
(i)   
7  11   21  22
 4  3 15  14  1
(ii)     
 5  7 16  9  2

29. The internal measures of a cuboidal room are 12 m × 8 m × 4 m. Find the total cost of white washing all
2
four walls of the room, if the cost of white washing is Rs. 5 per m . What will be the cost of white
washing if the ceiling of the room is also white washed ?

MT_VIII 3
30. The following bar graph shows the frequency distribution of daily earnings of 80 workers in a factory:
Daily earnings of workers

30
25

Frequency
20

15
10
5
0
300 310 320 330 340 350 360
Earnings (in Rs)

Read the above bar graph and answer the following questions :
(a) How many workers are in the maximum earning group?
(b) In which earning group are the maximum workers?
(c) What is the size of the classes?
(d) How many workers get less than Rs 330?

MT_VIII 4
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– ENGLISH
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VIII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 11- 0 2- 20 20
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :
SECTION A : Reading 15 MARKS
SECTION B : Writing 15 MARKS
SECTION C : Grammar 20 MARKS
SECTION D : Literature 30 MARKS
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

SECTION A : READING

1. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: [11 Marks]
(i) Soil is your garden’s natural growing medium, so it’s vital for the health and successful growth of your
plants and crops that you keep it well maintained. Soil is basically rock that’s been ground down by the
effects of the weather over a long period of time and made fertile by decayed organic matter (derived
from dead insects and leaves). There are hundreds of different soil types, but they can broadly be
classified as sandy, loamy or clay, referring to their basic texture. It is the texture that affects the
drainage, aeration and nutrient content of the soil and you may have to take steps to improve on this in
certain types of soil.
(ii) Take a handful of soil and run a small amount between your forefinger and thumb. Although all soils
contain varying proportions of sand, silt and clay, you’ll readily be able to tell the difference between the
main types.
(iii) Sandy soil feels gritty when dry and even it’s wet particles will not stick together. Loams, on the other
hand, can be moulded in the hand when moist, but aren’t at all sticky and gritty and are fairly loose
when dry. Clay soil is sticky and smooth when wet, but becomes polished when rubbed and baked hard
when dry.
(iv) A loamy soil is a well-balanced amalgamation of sand, silt and clay, which combines excellent drainage
with sufficient moisture retention to assure good growing conditions for most plants. It’s fairly easy to
look after, although loamy soils do benefit from regular applications of well-rotted organic matter to
prevent getting tightly packed.
(v) The particle consistency of sandy soil doesn’t hold water well, with the result that plant foods are often
taken away by rain before they can do any good. Again, well-rotted organic matter can be added to bind
the soil particles together.
(vi) Clay soil is most difficult to work, usually becoming waterlogged, so they are virtually impossible to dig.
Artificial drainage will probably be the first step in improving the texture of the soil and various additives
will break down the structure to make use of its excellent food stocks.
(vii) There are various methods of improving your soil’s texture. Essentially this requires regular applications
of a well-rotted organic substance called humus, which is obtained from decayed plant and animal
matter (manure, compost, and seaweed, each provides ample sources).
MT_VII 1
(viii) The presence of chalk in soil can also affect the growth of plants: some prefer slightly acid (chalk-free)
soils, while others grow more successfully in alkaline, chalky soils. Most fruits and vegetables, however,
grow better in neutral soil.

(ix) Although benefiting the soil in some ways, compost, manure and fertilizers can actually add to its
acidity, as organisms break them down. Over-acid soils can be treated with applications of lime—either
hydrated (slaked) lime, or ground limestone (chalk). Of the two, ground limestone is your best choice.

(x) To apply lime, sprinkle it on the broken top soil and mix it lightly but don’t dig in; leave to wash down by
rain. Apply lime every other year if need be. An alkaline soil can be treated with manure, garden
compost or peat, well dug in.

(A) Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option:

(i) We should keep soil well maintained as…………………

(a) it absorbs and retains water (b) it responds to the effects of weather
(c) it raises water table (d) it is the garden’s natural growing medium.

(ii) Soil is divided into various types on the basis of……………….

(a) colour (b) drainage (c) texture (d) aeration

(iii) Loamy soil is the best for plant growth because……………….

(a) it is a well-balanced mixture of sand, silt, and clay
(b) it has weak drainage and retention
(c) its texture responds slowly to decayed organic matter
(d) it gets tightly packed unless looked after well

(iv) Clay soils are the most difficult to work as…………….

(a) hey don’t hold water well
(b) hey usually become waterlogged
(c) he soil particles are not held together
(d) hey require natural drainage and additives

(v) Soil must be tested before growing fruits and vegetables because
(a) they need alkaline soil
(b) they prefer slightly acidic soil
(c) they grow better in neutral soil
(d) they flourish in over-acidic soil

(vi) ‘Consistency’ in para (v) means………………..

(a) in agreement with (b) having same opinion
(c) thickness (d) firmness

(B) Answer the following questions in brief:

(vii) Which soil is the best for plant growth? Why?
(viii) What do you know about clay soils?
(ix) Why should soil be tested before growing fruits and vegetables?
(x) How can texture of soil be improved?
(xi) Write the similar meaning to:
(a) Decomposed (para (i))
(b) Collection or accumulation (para (iv))
MT_VIII 2
2. Read the following poem and answer the questions given below: [4 Marks]
When you are old and grey and full of sleep,
And nodding by the fire: take down this book,
And slowly read, and dream of the soft look
4 Your eyes had once, and of their shadows deep;
How many loved your moments of glad grace,
And loved your beauty with love false or true,
But one man loved the pilgrim soul in you,
8 And loved the sorrows of your changing face;
And bending down beside the glowing bars,
Murmur, a little sadly, how love fled,
And paced upon the mountains overhead
12 And hid his face amid a crowd of stars.

(i) What does the poem When You Are Old’ reflect?
(a) memory of past (b) true love (c) sympathy (d) pity

(ii) By “pilgrim soul” the poet means………………………

(a) the soul of a pilgrim (b) the soul that is pure (c) his own visiting soul (d) his beloved’s pure soul

(iii) The expression ‘how love fled’ expresses………………………

(a) the sorrows of love-sick person (b) the longings of a deserted beloved
(c) the transitory nature of love (d) the sadness of an old woman

(iv) Find the words similar in meaning to these words.

(a) beauty (line 5) (b) shining (line 9)

SECTION B : WRITING
3. You are Aditi/Aditya of Rani Laxmi Bai School, Jhansi. The Children’s Day was celebrated in your
school on 14th November, this year. You took an active part in the celebrations. Write a report in about
150-200 words on ‘The Children’s Day’ for the school magazine. [8 Marks]
OR
Write an essay in about 150-200 words on “Value of Discipline”.

4. You are Sachin/ Sakshi, the President of the students’ council of your school. Write a letter to the
S.H.O., Police Station Daryaganj, Delhi, drawing his attention towards the increasing incidents of eve-
teasing and crimes against women and young girls in your area. [7 Marks]
OR
Write a letter to the Mayor, Mumbai Corporation, requesting him to provide your colony with proper
drinking water facilities.
SECTION C : GRAMMAR
5. Fill in the blanks with appropriate prepositions. [4 Marks]
(a) He is addicted ………………… gambling. (To, on, with)
(b) We agreed ……………………… a certain course of action. (With, to, upon)
(c) He has been absent ……………… classes for three days now. (For, of, from)
(d) The best candidate should be appointed ………………… the post. (With, to, from)

6. Complete the following sentences using appropriate determiners. [4 Marks]

(a) Our garden looks awful this summer. There are too ……………. weeds. (Much, many)
(b) They say …………………. knowledge is a dangerous thing. (A little, the little)
(c) I didn’t use ……………….. fertilizer last spring. (Much, most)
(d) You have ……………….. patience. (Little, few)
MT_VIII 3
7. Fill in the blanks with an appropriate verb form. [2 Marks]
(i) The boys were playing games when it ………………………. raining.
A. Was starting
B. Started
C. Had started
(ii) How long ……………………… a social activist?
A. have you been
B. are you
C. were you
8. Fill in the blanks with appropriate modal auxiliary verbs. [2 Marks]
(i) There was a time when I ………….. stay up very late.
(ii) I ………………. get you a shawl from Kashmir.
9. Rewrite the following changing the active sentences to passive and passive sentences to active.
[2 Marks]
(i) The thieves have been arrested by the police.
(ii) The girl recited the poem beautifully.
10. Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the adjective. [2 Marks]
(i) Alexander was one of ……………………. kings who ever lived. (great / the greatest / the greater)
(ii) Very few cities in Asia are as ……………………. as Hong Kong. (big / bigger / biggest)
(iii) An airplane flies …………………….. than birds. (more fast / more faster / faster)
(iv) Very few countries are as rich …………………… America. (than / as / so)
11. Change the following sentences from direct to indirect: [4 Marks]
(i) She said to her brother, “When you will arrange a party for me?”
(ii) The little girl said, “I would be a great scientist one day.”
(iii) The photographer said, “Hurrah! What a perfect scenery!”
(iv) I said to the manager, “Can you improve the quality of service?”

SECTION D : LITERATURE
12. Read the following passage and answer the following questions: [4 Marks]
It stamped its small hoofs impatiently. As long as he held his fingers below the level of the milk, the fawn
was content. It closed its eyes dreamily. It was ecstasy to feel its tongue against his hand. Its small tail
flicked back and forth.
(i) The fawn was impatient to:
(a) See its mother
(b) drink milk
(c) play with Jody
(ii) Jody was feeding milk to the fawn:
(a) In a gourd
(b) in a pan
(c) in a bottle
(iii) Jody was ecstatic because:
(a) The fawn was finally his pet
(b) it was able to drink milk
(c) it trusted and depended fully on him
(iv) The fawn was:
(a) Scared
(b) grieving
(c) happy
MT_VIII 4
13. Answer the following questions in 30-40 words: [10 Marks]
(i) “I could feel his anguish.” What could be the anguish?
(ii) Jody didn’t want Mill-wheel with him for two reasons. What were they?
(iii) What signs do we find in Nature which show that the monsoons are about to end?
(iv) Did the prospect of meeting Stephen Hawking make the writer nervous? If so, why?
(v) How unexpected was the poet’s experience in Lyonnesse?

14. Answer the following questions in detail: [2 × 5 = 10 Marks]

(i) How did the Great Stone Face influence Ernest in his adult life?
OR
What drew Ernest to the Great Stone Face when he was a child?

(ii) Do you think it is right to kill an animal to save a human life? Give reasons for your answer.
OR
Give central idea of the poem “ On the Grasshopper and the Cricket”?

15. Give meaning of the words given below: [6 Marks]

(i) new-mown (ii) gigantic (iii) unsought (iv) mists
(v) swish (vi) soggy

MT_VIII 5
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – fgUnh
l= % 2019-20
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –VIII le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funsZ'k 10-02-2020

(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gSA

(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr x|ka'k
[k.M ^[k* & O;kdj.k
[k.M ^x* & ikB~;iqLrd
[k.M ^?k* & jpuk
[k.M ^d* (vifBr x|ka'k)
1. fuEufyf[kr x|ka”k dks i<+dj ml ij vk/kkfjr iz”uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, & [5 Marks]
,d ckj ,d jktk f”kdkj [ksydj fujk”k ykSV jgk FkkA nqHkkZX; ls vkt mlds gkFk dksbZ tkuoj u yxkA
mlus ,d isM+ ds uhps canj ds ?kk;y csgks”k cPps dks ns[kkA mlus ukSdj ls dgk fd og canj ds cPps dks
lko/kkuh ls mBkdj egy esa ys pysA jktk us ml canj ds cPps dk vkS’k/kky; esa bykt djok;kA dqN gh
fnuksa esa og canj dk cPpk Bhd gks x;kA jktk mls cgqr pkgrk Fkk vkSj jktk vDlj mls vius ikl gh
j[krk FkkA
,d ckj jktk vius cxhps esa vdsyk Vgy jgk FkkA mlh le; “k=q ns”k ds jktk dk ,d lSfud] tks jktk dh
gR;k djuk pkgrk FkkA mlus >kM+h dh vksV ls jktk ij rhj pykuk pkgkA canj dh fuxkg ml ij iM+hA
mlus >iV~Vk yxk;k] ij rhj NwV pqdk FkkA ;g rhj canj ds “kjhj esa pqHk x;k ij jktk dh tku cp xbZ
jktk us ml lSfud dks idM+dj tsy esa Mky fn;kA canj dh ;g d`rKrk ns[k jktk us f”kdkj djuk NksM+
fn;k vkSj f”kdkj ij izfrca/k yxok fn;k
(i) jktk us canj ds cPps dks fdl n”kk esa ik;k\
(A) mNyrs-dwnrs gq, (B) Mky ij cSBk gqvk
(C) ?kk;y vkSj vpsr voLFkk esa (D) nwljs canjksa ds LkkFk [ksyrs gq,
(ii) “k=q ns”k dk lSfud jktk dh gR;k fdlls djuk pkgrk Fkk\
(A) ryokj ls (B) ck.k ls (C) Hkkys ls (D) xyk nckdj
(iii) vpkud canj us D;k ns[kk\
(A) ckx esa Vgyrs jktk us (B) fu”kkuk yxkrs lSfud dks
(C) ckx esa cSBs nwljs canj dks (D) ”k=q ns”k ds jktk dks
(iv) canj dh d`rKrk dk jktk ij D;k izHkko iM+k\
(A) canj dks iqjLd`r fd;k (B) vU; tkuojksa dks ikyuk ”kq: dj fy;k
(C) canj dks viuk lsod fu;qDr dj fy;k (D) tho-tarqvksa ds f”kdkj ij jksd yxok nh
(v) ^og canj dk cPpk Bhd gks x;k^ & okD; esa ^og^ “kCn gSA
(A) loZuke (B) lkoZtfud fo”ks’k.k (C) laKk (D) fØ;k-fo”ks’k.k
(vi) ^nqHkkZX; = nq% + HkkX;^ fdl laf/k ds Hksn ls lacaf/kr gS\
(A) folxZ laf/k (B) nh?kZ laf/k (C) O;atu laf/k (D) xq.k laf/k
 [k.M ^[k* (O;kdj.k)
2. uhps fy[ks iz”uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k, & [10 Marks]
(i) laf/k vkSj laf/k&foPNsn ls vki D;k le>rs gS \ mnkgj.k }kjk Li’V dhft,A
(ii) nh?kZ laf/k ls vki D;k le>rs gS \ blds nks mnkgj.k Hkh fyf[k,A
(iii) f}xq vkSj cgqczhfg lekl esa lksnkgj.k varj li’V dhft,A
(iv) okD; fdls dgrs gS \ vFkZ ds vk/kkj ij blds izdkjksa ds uke fyf[k,A
(v) *rf)r izR;;* ls vki D;k le>rs gSa \ mnkgj.k lfgr fyf[k,A

3. ¼d½ laLÑr milxZ v/k] le~] nql~ o ijk ls nks&nks ”kCn cukb,A [2 Marks]
¼[k½ fuEufyf[kr ”kCnksa dk laf/k&foPNsn dhft, & [3 Marks]
(i) “k;u (ii) Hkou (iii) izk.kk;ke (iv) rFkSo
(v) unh”k (vi) panzksn;
¼x½ fuEufyf[kr ”kCnksa dk lekl foxzg dhft, vkSj izdkj Hkh fyf[k,A [3 Marks]
(i) prqeqZ[k (ii) Hkw[k&I;kl (iii) ns”kHkfDr (iv) f=jRu
(v) izfr lIrkg (vi) panzeq[k
¼?k½ fuEufyf[kr eqgkojksa dk vFkZ fyf[k, & [4 Marks]
(i) viuk mYyw lh/kk djuk (ii) dku dk dPpk gksuk
(iii) xkxj esa lkxj Hkjuk (iv) [kwu&ilhuk ,d djuk
¼p½ fuEufyf[kr yksdksfDr;ksa ds vFkZ fyf[k, & [4 Marks]
(i) va/kksa eas dkuk jktk (ii) mYVk pksj dksroky dks Mk¡Vs
(iii) nw/k dk nw/k ikuh dk ikuh (iv) [kksnk igkM+ fudyh pqfg;k

[k.M ^x* (ikB~;iqLrd)

4. fuEu i|ka”k dk HkkokFkZ Li’V dhft, & [4 Marks]
(i) /kksrh QVh&lh lhl ixk u >¡xk ru es]a izHkq! Tkus dks vkfg cls dsfg xzkekA
}kj [kM+ks f}t nqcZy ,d] jáks pfdlksa clq/kk vfHkjkekA
iwNr nhu n;ky dks /kke] crkor vkiuks uke lqnkekA
(ii) ekyk rks dj esa fQjS] thHk fQjS eq[k ek¡fgA
euqok¡ rks ngq¡ fnfl fQjS] ;g rkS lqfeju ukfgaAA

5. fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa ds mÙkj la{ksi esa fyf[k, & [10 Marks]

(i) E;ku ds LFkku ij ryokj dk eksyHkko D;ksa djuk pkfg,A
(ii) ?kj dks O;ofLFkr djus ds fy, D;k fd;k x;k \
(iii) QkYds us fdldh miyfC/k dks viuk;kA
(iv) *lqnkek pfjr* dfork ds jpf;rk dkSu gS \
(v) fcyoklh feJ th us :i;s dk izca/k dgk¡ ls fd;k Fkk \
(vi) ekrk ;”kksnk fdlds fpjthoh vFkkZr nh?kkZ;q gksus dh dkeuk djrh gSa \
(vii) cw¡n ds iwoZt dkSu Fks vkSj os dgk¡ Fks \
(viii) ckt ds lkeus gksrs gq, Hkh lk¡i fuHkhZd D;ksa Fkk \
(ix) xojb;k dh Vksih cukus dsa fdl&fdl dk ;ksxnku Fkk \
(x) *lwjnkl ds in* ikB esa fdldk o.kZu fd;k x;k gS \

6. fuEufyf[kr iz”uksa ds mÙkj foLrkj ls fyf[k, & [15 Marks]

(i) vaxzst ds lkeus fcyoklh th us >kÅyky dks igpkuus ls D;ksa badkj dj fn;k \ vkids fopkj esa
fcyoklh th us ,slk vthc O;ogkj D;ksa fd;k \
(ii) *lkbfdy vkanksyu* ls iqMqdksV~VbZ dh efgykvksa ds thou esa dkSu&dkSu ls cnyko vk, gS \

MT_VIII 2
 (iii) foV~By dk p;u *vkyevkjk* fQYe ds uk;d ds :i esa gqvk] ysfdu mUgsa gVk;k D;ksa x;k \ foV~By us
iqu % uk;d gksus ds fy, D;k fd;k \ vius fopkj fyf[k,A
(iv) Vksih cuus rd ds ,d&,d dk;Z dks fyf[k,A
(v) ckt fT+kanxh Hkj vkdk”k esa gh mM+rk jgk] fQj ?kk;y gksus ds ckn Hkh og mM+uk D;ksa pkgrk Fkk \
7. fuEu ”kCnksa ds vFkZ fyf[k, & [4 Marks]
(i) ifjiw.kZ (ii) fo;ksx (iii) mtjr (iv) xfr”khyrk
(v) iksVjh (vi) Ñf=e (vii) Qjeku (viii) vkik

[k.M ^?k* (jpuk)

8. i= fyf[k, & [5 Marks]
vkids fe= us fo|ky; ds lkeus lM+d ikj dj jgs ,d cPps dh tku cpkbZ] vius fe= dks iz”kaluh; dk;Z
ds fy, lEekfur djus gsrq iz/kkukpk;Z th dks izkFkZuk&i= fy[k,A
vFkok
vius fe= dks lapkj ds vk/kqfudre~ lk/kuksa dh mi;ksfxrk ,oa ykHk crkrs gq, i= fyf[k,A

9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d fo’k; ij ¼150 ”kCnksa½ fuca/k fyf[k,A [7 Marks]

(i) ekuo thou esa f”k{kk dk egRo
(ii) lekpkj&i=ksa ls ykHk

MT_VIII 3
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– SOCIAL SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –VIII Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 17- 02- 2020
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 35 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 8 questions of 3 marks each.
Section C contains 6 questions of 5 marks each.
Section D contains 1 question of 6 marks (Map work).

SECTION –A

1. Between 1783 and 1789 the production of Indigo in the world fell down by –
rd th th
(A) 1/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/4

2. After the revolt of 1857, the British had regained control on the country by the end of the year –
(A) 1858 (B) 1857 (C) 1859 (D) 1860

3. Civil court was also known as :-

(A) Diwani Adalat (B) Jaiydari Adalat (C) Qazi Adalat (D) None of these

4. Which country was known as “workshop of the world”?

(A) India (B) Britain (C) France (D) Russia

5. In 1885 the Court of Directors sent the Woods Despatch which emphasised the benefit of European
learning. Select the best option.
I. “It will introduce Indian to European ways of life”.
II. “English education with the tastes and dutities of Indians”.
III. “It would create a demand for British goods”.
IV. “It will supply the company with civil servants”.
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

6. The vernacutar press act was passed in

(A) 1876 (B) 1877 (C) 1878 (D) 1879

7. Who said that, “It was the upper castes who were responsible for the Harijans, being unfit today”.
(A) H. J khandekar (B) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) T.T Krishnamachari (D) B.R. Ambedkar

8. The parliament can remove the President, the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court. The
procedure is called :
(A) Amendment (B) Impeachment (C) Judicial enquiry (D) Judicial review
9. All the subordinate courts functions under the supervision of the
(A) Supreme Court (B) High Court
(C) The Prime Minister (D) The Superintendent of Police

10. When was the Air Act amended?

(A) 1981 (B) 1986 (C) 1985 (D) 1987

11. How many public toilets blocks were constructed by Sulabh International?
(A) 7800 (B) 7100 (C) 7500 (D) 7200

12. Article 17 of the constitution states that the following practice have been abolished :-
(A) Trafficking (B) beggar
(C) untouchability (D) employment of children below 10 years of act

13. Mark the option not correctly matched :

(A) Forest land for mining – demanded by industrialist
(B) Reserve land for national parks – demanded by environmentalists.
(C) Forest land for agriculture – demanded by farmers
(D) Forest land for dams – demanded by the general public

14. Cognisable means :-

(A) Police can arrest the person only after the permission of the magistrate
(B) Police can arrest a person only after the permission of the court
(C) A charge or crime for which the police is entitled to arrest a person without seeking permission of the court
(D) The police cannot arrest a person on any condition

15. Which country is the leading producer of the coffee?

(A) Brazil (B) Columbia (C) India (D) Egypt

16. Which of the following is a public sector industry?

(A) Amul (B) Pepsi (C) TISCO (D) Bhilai steel plant

17. The nuclear power stations of India are at

(I) Tarapur (II) Rawatbhata (III) Kalpakkam (IV) Naraura
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, II, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) I, III, IV

18. Man consumes some biotic and abiotic articles in their natural state. In does not include
(A) Fruits and vegetables (B) Cereals
(C) spices (D) wood

19. The country which does not have high growth rate of population.
(A) Kenya (B) New Zealand (C) Brazil (D) Egypt

th
20. About 1/6 of the population of India according to 2001 census, resides in
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh

MT_VIII 2
 SECTION –B

21. What is meant by sustainable development? Discuss some principles of sustainable development.

22. Distinguish between the following :

(a) Biogas and Natural gas
(b) Shifting cultivation and commercial farming
(c) Agro based industries and mineral based industries

23. What do you mean by Assertive Dalit groups? State one reason why you think reservations play an
important role in providing social justice to Dalit and Adivasis?

24. List the fundamental rights generated by article 22 of the constitution.

25. Write in your own words what you understand by the following sentence ; “They also began fighting for
greater equality and wanted to change the idea of law from a set of rules that they were forced to obey,
to law a including idea of justice”.

26. What was the immediate cause of the outbreak of the revolt of 1857? Where did it start?

27. “Urban landlords added to the woes and plight of farmers.” Explain.

28. Discuss the causes of defect of Siraj-ud-Daulah at the hands of the English?

SECTION –C
29. Mention the various pre-requisites for a natural gift to become a resource. Why are resources distributed
unequally over the earth?

30. Distribution of world population is affected by different factors. What are these factors?

31. Write reasons why you think the constitution’s safeguards to protect minority communities are very important?

32. You read that one of the main functions of the judiciary is ‘upholding the law and enforcing fundamental
rights’. Discuss this with respect to Bhopal gas tragedy.

33. Explain the ways and means in which the East India company tried to streamline the vernacular
education in India.
Or
Discuss the ways adopted by Dr. Ambedkar to uproot social ills like untouchability, social discrimination
and the problem of social economic fulfilment of the downtrodden in society?

34. What was the role of Mir Jafar in the conflict between English East India company and the Nawabs of
Bengal?
Or
“Refugees who came to India during partition had to be rehabilitated and this was very huge and difficult
task.” Why did these refugees come to India and what were the difficulties for the government of India?
Or
Why did Gandhiji choose to break the salt law?
SECTION –D
35. On an outline map of India mark the following locations :
(i) Where Rani Laxmi Bai revolted?
(ii) Place where cotton will workers took the Satyagraha.
(iii) Foundation of tata iron and steel industry.
(iv) Kaiga – Nuclear power plant.
(v) Head quarters of Tata Iron and steel Industry.
(vi) First state that is formed on the basis of languages
MT_VIII 3
MT_VIII 4
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– COMPUTER
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 50 Class –VIII Time : 3 Hour
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 15-02-2020
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections A, B and C.
(iii) Section A contains 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 5 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 5 questions of 4 marks each.

Section A

1. People who purchase products are ……..

(A) Sellers (B) Producers (C) Buyers (D) Businessman

2. People who sell products and services are ………..

(A) Buyers (B) Sellers (C) Producers (D) None

3. ………… is a social networking website.

(A) Facebook (B) Gmail (C) You tube (D) None

4. …………. can be used at various retailers while shopping.

(A) Metro card (B) Smart card (C) Greeting card (D) None

5. Pirated software may contain ……………

(A) Quality (B) Viruses (C) Costly (D) None

6. <BR> and <HR> are …………. tags.

(A) Empty (B) Non-empty (C) Full empty (D) None

7. Bgcolor is the attribute of ………. tag.

(A) Font (B) Body (C) IMG (D) Title

8. <B> tag is used to make the text ……….

(A) Bold (B) Italicized (C) Underlined (D) None

9. Which tag is used to change the fond size?

(A) <Font face> (B) <Font size> (C) <Font height> (D) <Font width>

10. …………….. is a markup language.

(A) EXML (B) DLL (C) XML (D) <PHTL>

Fill in the Blank

11. Online shopping is the same as buying product using _______________ .

12. Internet is like a big _______________ .

13. Software piracy is the illegal _______________ .

14. Computer security includes the _______________ and _______________ that are designed to protect
the computer system.

15. Website contain different pages called _______________ .

Write True or False:

16. HTML is a language of webpage designing.

17. Copyright means all rights reserved. The © symbol show the material to be the sole property of the
owner.

18. E–commerce is buying and selling of products offline.

19. Commerce involves buying and selling of a product

20. A blog is a type of website which contains regular entries of commentary, descriptions of events or
some other material such as graphics or videos.

Section B
21. List four e-commerce website and use of primary key.

22. What are the limitations of a pirated software.

23. Differentiate between ordered list and unordered list with example.

24. What do you mean by e–commerce? And its disadvantage.

25. Write some advantages of a database.

Section C
26. What is software piracy? Explain the different forms of software piracy.

27. Write some advantages of e–commerce and explain mode of e-commerce with example.

28. What do you mean by Hacker and Cracker.

29. Explain structure of an HTML document and its features.

Or
Write a HTML program to display a Table in webpage.
NAME Roll No. City
ABC 101 Kota
XYZ 102 Jaipur
MNO 103 Udaipur

30. Write short notes on the following :

(A) Social Networking
(B) Video Conferencing.
(C) Topology
(D) Importance of ethics

MT_VIII 2
 MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – laLÑr
l= % 2019-20
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –VIIIth le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funZs'k 12- 0 2- 202 0

(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-

(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & ifBr&vocks/kue~
[k.M ^[k* & ikB~;iqLrd
[k.M ^x* & vuqÁ;qDr O;kdj.k
[k.M ^?k* & jpukRed dk;Ze~
[k.M ^d*
1. ijfeUnj~ & IykfLVdL; e`frdkeka y;kHkokr~ vLekad i;kZoj.kL; d`rs egrh {kfr% HkofrA iwoZa rq dkikZalsu]
peZ.kk] ykSgsu] yk{k;k] e`frd;k] dk’Bsu ok fufeZrkfu oLrqfu ,oa izkI;Urs LeA v/kquk rRLFkkus IykfLVd
fufeZrkfu oLrwfu ,oa izkI;Urs LeA ^v/kquk rRLFkkus IykfLVd fufeZrkfu oLrwfu ,o izkI;Urs^ oSHko%- vkez
?kfVifVV~dk] vU;kfu cgqfo/kkfu ik=kf.k] dyesR;knhfu lokZf.k rq IykfLVd fufeZrkfu HkofUrA
tkslsQ%- vke~ vLekfHk% fi=ksa% f”k{kdk.kka lg;ksxsu IykfLVdL; fofo/ki{kk% fopkj.kh;%A i;kZoj.ksu lg i”ko%
vfi j{k.kh;k%A ¼,oesykiUr% losZ unhrhja izkIrk%] unhtys fuefTtrk% HkofUrA½ [7 Marks]

2. funsZ”kkuqlkja ydkjifjorZua dq:r& [5 Marks]

(i) efgyk% rM+kxkr~ tya u;fUrA ¼yksV~ ydkj½
(ii) ;w;a fda fo|ky;a xPNFk\ ¼y`V~ ydkj½
(iii) lk v/;kius layXuk Hkofr ¼y`V~ ydkj½
(iv) rs ckydk% fo|ky;kr~ x`ga xPNfUr ¼yM~a ydkj½
(v) efgyk rM+kxkr tya u;fUr ¼yksV~ ydkj½

3. v/kksfyf[krinkuka lekukFkZdinkfu fpRok& [5 Marks]

(i) f”k{k.ks vonkua
(ii) ifFk vfojre~
(iii) gzn; v/;kius
(iv) ;ksxnkua eufl
(v) fujUrje~ ekxsZ
4. leqfprinsu fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;r& [5 Marks]
(i) fuR;a o`}ksilsfou% _______ o/kZUrs ¼pRokfj / i×p / ‘kV~½
(ii) ,rr~ fo|kr~ _______ y{k.ka lq[knq%i;ksA ¼”kjhjs.k / leklsu / foLrkjs.k½
(iii) n`f’Viwre~ U;lsr~ _______ ¼gLre~ / ikne~ / eq[ke~½
(iv) ekrk fi=S% ril% fu’d`fr% _______ drqZe”kD;kA ¼n”ko’kSZjfi / ‘kf’V% o’kSZjfi / o’kZ”krSjfi½
(v) f=’kq rq’ Vs’kq _______ loZa lekI;rs ¼ti% / ri / deZ½

5. fo”ks’k.k inS% lg fo”ks’;inkfu ;kst;r& [5 Marks]

(i) LoPNrk {kfr%
(ii) xPNfUr LokLF;djh
(iii) vU;r~ fe=kf.k
(iv) egrh “kkfUre~
(v) dkf×pr~ vodje~
[k.M ^[k*
6. js[kkafdr inkfu vk/k`R; iz”u fuekZ.k dq:r& [5 Marks]
(i) tkx:dr;k ,o LoPNrk·fHk;kuefi xfr izkIL;fr\
(ii) lkfgR; jpu;k vfi lkfo=h egh;rsA
(iii) r;ks% fuR;a fiz;a dq;kZr~A
(iv) o;a Lons”kL; jkT;kuka fo’k;s KkrqfePNkfeA
(v) izns”ks·fLeu~ gLrf”kYikuka ckgqY;a orZrsA

7. v/kksfyf[krkuka iz”ukuke mÙkjkf.k ,d insu fy[kr & [5 Marks]

(i) lIrHkfxuh izns”ks d% m|ksx% loZizeq[k%\
(ii) dhn`”kha okpa onsr~\
(iii) vkRe o”ka fde~ Hkofr\
(iv) fo/kokuka f”kjkseq.MuL; fujkdj.kk; lk dS% fefyrk\
(v) ekxsZ fde~ n`’V~ok ckyk% ijLija okrkZyki dq oZfUr\
(vi) m|kue~ dS% fuuknS% jE;e~\
(vii) lIrHkfxuh-izns”ks ds fuolfUr\
(viii) dsu ihfM+r% oSHko% cfgjkxr%\
(ix) dhn`”khuka dqjhrhuka lkfo=h eq[kja fojks/ke~ vdjksr~\
(x) uhfr uouhre~ ikB% dLekr~ xzUFkkr~ ladfyr\

8. mi;qZDr dFkukuka le{ke~ ^vkez^ vuqi;qZDr dFkukuka le{ka ^u^ bfr fy[kr& [5 Marks]
(i) euq’;% lnSo rnso deZ dq;kZr~ ;sukUrjkRek rq’;rsA
(ii) ckydk% /ksuqa dnyh Qykfu Hkkst;fUrA
(iii) unhtys fuefTtrk% ckyk% izlUuk% HkofUrA
(iv) vfHkoknu ”khyL; fdefi u o/kZrsA
(v) vkReo”ka rq loZeso nq%[kefLrA

2
 [k.M ^x*
9. v/kksfyf[krkuka iz”ukuke~ mÙkjkf.k fgUnha Hkk’kk;ka fy[kr& [5 Marks]
(i) ,rRizknsf”kdk% dS% fu’.kkrk% lfUr\
(ii) o’kZ”krS% vfi dL; fu’d`fr% drqZ u “kD;k\
(iii) lq[knq%[k;ksa fda y{k.ke~ mDre~\
(iv) fda fda lgekuk lkfo=hckbZ Lo<`<+ fu”p;kr~ u fopyfr\
(v) jkstfyu~ vkxR; fda djksfr\

10. la[;k okpd “kCnk% laLd`r Hkk’kk;ka fy[kr & [4 Marks]

(i) 51 (ii) 63 (iii) 97 (iv) 78
(v) 56 (vi) 66 (vii) 72 (viii) 80

11. v/kksfyf[krs’kq lfU/k foPNsna dq:r & [4 Marks]

(i) bR;fLeu~ (ii) lglSo (iii) fir`.ke~ (iv) ioue~
(v) nsof’kZ (vi) ijksidkj% (vii) nsoS”o;Ze (viii) nsosUnz%

12. e×tw’kkr% fpRok mfpr vO;;su okD; iwfrZ dq:r& [5 Marks]

¼rkor~ vfi] ,o] ;Fkk] fuR;a] ;kn`”ke~½
(i) ;kor~ lQy% u Hkofr ______ ifjJea dq:A
(ii) rs’kq ______ f=’kq rq’Vs’kq ri% lekI;rsA
(iii) o’kZ “krS% ______ fu’d`fr% u drqaZ “kD;kA
(iv) ______ jktk rFkk iztkA
(v) ______ deZ dfj’;flA rkn`”ka Qya izkIL;flA

[k.M ^?k*

13. v/kksfyf[krkuka “yksdkuka vuqokna vFkZe~ ok dq:r& [6 Marks]

(i) f=”kwykfXu ukxS% i`fFkO;L=?kksjS%
v.kwuka egk”kfDrfHk% iwfjrs;e~A
lnk jk’Vª j{kkjrkuka /kjs;e~
f{krkS jktrs Hkkjr Lo.kZ Hkwfe%AA
(ii) r;ksfuR;a fiz;a dq;kZnkpk;ZL; p loZnk
rs’oso f=’kq rq’Vs’kq ri% loZ lekI;rsA
(iii) vfHkoknu “khyL; fuR;a o`}ksilsfou%A
pRokfj rL; o/kZUrs vk;qfZ o|k ;”kks cye~AA

3
14. fo”ks’;-fo”ks’k.kkuke~ mfpra esyua dq:r& [5 Marks]
(i) v;e~ laLd`fr%
(ii) laLd`fr fof”k’Vk;ke~ bfrgkls
(iii) egRok/kkf;uh izns”k%
(iv) izkphus leok;%
(v) ,d% HkkjrHkwekS

15. Lo- ikB~; iqLdkr~ ,d “yksd·a fi fy[kr [3 Marks]

;% vfLeu~ iz”ui=s u vkLrke~
¼viuh ikB~; iqLrd dk ,d “yksd fy[ks tks bl iz”u i= esa ugha gks½

16. ^^lIrHkfxU;%^^ bfr dFkklkja fgUnh Hkk’kk;ka fy[kr~ [6 Marks]