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MAJOR EXAMINATION

SUBJECT– SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –IX Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 10- 02- 202 0

(i) The question paper comprises 3 sections – A, B and C. You are to attempt all the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory. However there are questions with internal choices like two
question of 3 marks and three questions of 5 marks in section B and one question of 2 marks
in section C
(iii) All questions of Section-A, B and C are to be attempted separately.
(iv) Question numbers 1 to 10 in Section-A are 1 marked multiple choice questions [Objectives].
(v) Question numbers 11 to 14 in section-B are 1 mark question. They are to be answered in one
word or in one sentence .
(vi) Question numbers 15 to 17 in Section-B are 2 marks questions. These are to be answered in
about 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 18 to 23 in Section-B are 3 marks questions. These are to be answered in
about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 24 to 29 in Section-B are 5 marks questions. These are to be answered in
about 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 30 to 35 in Section-C are based on practical skills. Each question is a two
marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

Section – A

1. When the medium between two bodies changes, force of gravitation between them : [1]
(A) will increase
(B) will decrease
(C) will change according to the environment
(D) remains same

2. When an apple falls from a tree: [1]


(A) only earth attracts the apple
(B) only apple attracts the earth
(C) both the earth and the apple attract each other
(D) none attracts each other

3. An element with twice as many electrons in its second shell as in the first shell is
(A) carbon. (B) silicon. (C) helium. (D) sodium. [1]

4. Fertilisers ensure increased vegetative growth and healthy plants by supplying- [1]
(A) nitrogen, carbon and oxygen.
(B) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.
(C) phosphorus, calcium and oxygen.
(D) hydrogen, oxygen and carbon.
5. The name of the physician, who discovered that inoculation with cowpox, gave immunity to smallpox, is
[1]
(A) Edward Jenner
(B) Alexander Flemming
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Barry Marshall

6. Naked seeds, perennial, evergreen, woody plants are characteristic features of [1]
(A) Gymnosperms (B) Thallophyta
(C) Angiosperms (D) Bryophyta

7. Acid rain is caused due to the oxides of [1]


(A) nitrogen only.
(B) sulphur and phosphorus.
(C) chlorine and nitrogen.
(D) nitrogen and sulphur.

8. Assertion : Mitochondria is called power house of a cell. [1]


Reason : ATP is produced by mitochondria.
(A) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(D) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.

9. Statement I : The mass of a body changes from place to place. [1]


Statement II : The value of g changes from place to place.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct.
(B) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

10. Statement-1 : For Hydrogen atom, A = Z = 1. [1]


Statement-2 : Hydrogen atom has no neutrons.
(A) Both statement 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statement 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

Section – B
11. Write the statement of 'Archemedes' principle'. [1]

12. Define unsaturated solution. [1]

13. Write one difference between tendons and ligaments. [1]

14. Name the compound which is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere. [1]

-2
15. Find total distance covered by a car moving on straight line path if it is accelerating with 2 ms for 10s.
Consider initially car at rest. [2]

MT_IX 2
16. What causes Japanese Encephalitis? Which organ does it infect? Write any two symptoms if this organ
is infected. [2]

17. Name the various components of air. How is carbon dioxide removed from the air? [2]

18. (a) Define time period and pitch for a sound wave. [2 + 1 = 3]
(b) Write any two applications of ultrasound waves.

19. Find the power transmitted by a motor which gives an output of 500 J in 0.5 seconds. Express your
answer in kW. [3]
OR
A boy does work on a cart of mass 30 kg such that it gets displaced from its rest position to gain a final
velocity of 10 m/s during 2 seconds. Find the net work done on the cart. [3]

20. Describe Bohr’s Model of Atom. [3]


OR
What were the observations of Rutherford’s alpha scattering experiment ? Show by a diagram.

21. Shelly and her mother went to a shop to buy some cooling equipment for her house to heal the summer
heat. The shop keeper showed them two types of cooling equipments - a desert cooler and an all
weather air conditioner. The desert cooler was much cheaper than the air conditioner. Shelly's mother
wanted to buy the desert cooler as it was much cheaper.
Now answer the following questions :
(i) As a student of science, why would you suggest to Shelly's mother to buy the expensive air
conditioner ? Give two reason.
(ii) What are the values associated with the above decision ? [1 × 3 = 3]

22. There is a small pond in a village near the crop fields. The farmers use various manures and fertilizers
in the field to enhance crop production. Recently, people observe large scale dying of fishes in the
pond. Unable to find any solution, the farmers meet your father for his advice. Your father takes an
appointment with the Fishery Officer of the area and discusses the issue with him. [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) What may be the reasons for dying of fishes in the pond?
(b) What suggestion will your father give to the farmers?
(c) What value is shown by your father?

23. (a) Draw a well labelled diagram of plant cell neatly. [2 + 1 = 3]


(b) Why is plasma membrane called selective permeable membrane?

24. Derive the equations of the motion by graphical method with neat and clean graph. [5]

25. What is evaporation? Explain all the factors affecting it. (4 points) [5]
OR
What is diffusion? Explain all the factors affecting it. (4 points)

MT_IX 3
26. (a) Explain nitrogen cycle with the help of flow chart and write all the terms involved in it. [3 + 2 = 5]
(b) Write a short note on green house effect.
OR
What is air pollution? Explain its two main causes and also explain any two harmful effects of air
pollution. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]

27. Answer in short: [1 × 5 = 5]


(a) Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of a mixture of petrol and water.
(b) Convert 470K into degree Celsius .
1 2
(c) Will 1H and 1H have different valency ? Give reason.
(d) Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of different pigments from an extract
of flower petals.
(e) Calculate the mass of 3.5 moles of Al(OH)3

28. (a) What is newton’s second law of motion. Derive the equation for F = ma [3 + 2 = 5]
(b) A gun of mass 1 kg fires a bullet of mass of 50 gm with a velocity of 100 m/s and gets recoiled.
What is the recoiling speed of the gun?
OR
State Newton's Laws of Motion. Which law is called law of inertia? Define the term inertia and state the
relationship between mass and inertia. [5]

29. (a) Name the reptile which has four chambered heart. [1 × 5 = 5]
(b) Give two examples of Monera and Protista each.
(c) Identify the figure and name it. Also name the phylum in which it is placed.

(d) Write any two differences between monocots and dicots.


(e) Penicillium and Agaricus are placed in which kingdom?

Section-C
30. Describe an activity showing Tyndall Effect. [2]

31. If the solubility percentage of 200g. H2O at 40°C is 30, then what is the amount of solute that will remain
undissolved if temperature is brought down to 30°C, at which solubility percentage is 25. [2]

32. (a) Write one difference between Rabi crop and Kharif crop. [2]
(b) Write one difference between mixed cropping and intercropping.

33. An egg after removing its shell by putting it in dilute hydrochloric acid solution, is placed in two different
solutions. What will happen when egg is placed in - [2]
(a) Pure water
(b) Concentrated salt solution

MT_IX 4
34. Figure shows the time velocity graphs for three bodies A, B and C. [2]
60

Velocity (m/s)
50 C
40 B
30
20 A
10
0
1 2 34 5 6
Time (s)
What does slope of graph shows ?
OR
A block of wood is kept on a table top. The mass of wooden block is 5 kg. and its dimensions are
40 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm. Find the pressure exerted by the wooden block on the table top if it is made to
lie on the table top with its sides of dimensions [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Which case has maximum pressure?
(b) Which case has minimum pressure?

20 cm
10
cm
40 cm

40 cm

(b)
cm
20 cm 10

(a)

35. Draw a well labelled diagram of Bell – Jar experiment. [2]

MT_IX 5
MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– MATHEMATICS
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –IX Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 14- 02- 20 20

(i) All questions are compulsory.


(ii) The question paper consists of 40 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D.
(iii) Section A contains 20 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each.
Section C contains 8 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D contains 6 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in four questions of 3 marks
each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such
questions.
(v) Use of calculators is not permitted.

SECTION –A

I. 1-10 are multiple choice questions. Select the most appropriate answer from the given options.

1. Which of the following numbers has the terminating decimal representation ?


1 2 23
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
15 35 40
3 2
2. The remainder when 12x – 8x – 6x + 10 is divided by 3x – 2 is :
(A) 6 (B) – 6 (C) – 5 (D) 5

3. The axis on which the point (0,–4) lies is :


(A) Positive x-axis (B) Negative x-axis
(C) Positive y-axis (D) Negative y-axis

4. Minimum numbers of lines required to form a closed figure is :


(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

5. In the figure shown AB is parallel to DE. The difference between angles x and y is :
A B
35°
y c
x

53°
D E
(A) 0º (B) 4º (C) 10º (D) 12º

6. In the given figure, PQR is an equilateral triangle and QRST is a square. Then PSR is :
P

Q R

T S

(A) 30° (B) 15° (C) 90° (D) 60°


7.   
5 8 + 3– 2 – 2   
– 6 when simplified is :
(A) positive and irrational (B) negative and irrational
(C) positive and rational (D) negative and rational

8. Mirror image of point (3, 9) on x-axis is :


(A) (–3, 9) (B) (9, 3) (C) (3, 9) (D) (3, –9)

9. The altitude drawn to the base of an isosceles triangle is of length 8 cm and the perimeter is
32 cm, the area of the triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 32 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 48 cm (D) 56 cm

10. In the given figure, the value of BDE is :


C
80°

D
35° B
A 70°

E
(A) 65° (B) 75° (C) 45° (D) 35°

II. 11-15 Fill in the blanks :

11. The figure formed by joining the mid points of consecutive sides of a quadrilateral is ………..
2
12. In a triangle ABC all the median intersect at point G, if the area of the triangle is 150 cm , then the area
of the triangle AGC is …………

13. Bisecting an angle means drawing a ray in the ……… of the angle such that it divides the angle in two
equal parts.

14. Ratio between volume of right circular cylinder and volume of right circular cone for same radius of
bases, and same height is ……………….

15. Probability of happening of an event is 0.5 then non happning of the event will be ……………… .

III. 16-20 Answer the following :

16. The radius of a circle is 13 cm and the length of one of its chords is 10 cm. Find the distance of the
chord from the centre.

17. The mean of five numbers is 27. If one number is excluded, their mean is 25. Find the excluded
number.

18. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, then name the quadrilateral
5
19. Find the value of , if x = and y = is a solution of the equation x + 4y – 7 = 0.
2
20. In figure, DP = BQ, DPB = BQD and ADP = CBQ. Show that ADP  CBQ.
D Q C

A P B

OR
In a ABC, if A = 45° and B = 70º, then find the shortest and the largest sides of the triangle.

MT_IX 2
SECTION –B

21. The perimeter of a right triangle is 450 m. If its sides are in the ratio 13 : 12 : 5. Find the area of the
triangle.

22. Construct an angle of measure 22 .
2
23. Calculate the mean for the following distribution:
x: 5 6 7 8 9
f : 4 8 14 11 3

24. D is the midpoint of side BC of ABC and E is the midpoint of BD. If O is the midpoint of AE, prove that
1
ar(BOE) = ar(ABC).
8
A

B C
E D
OR
In given figure, PR > PQ and PS bisects QPR. Prove that PSR > PSQ.

Q S R

25. An iron pipe 20 cm long has exterior diameter equal to 25 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is
1 cm, find the area of the whole surface of the pipe.

26. In the given figure, P is the centre of the circle. Prove that XPZ = 2(XZY + YXZ).

OR

In Figure O is the centre of the circle of radius 5 cm. OP  AB, OQ  CD, AB || CD, AB = 6 cm and
CD = 8 cm. Determine PQ.
A P B

O
C D
Q

MT_IX 3
SECTION–C

27. In figure, ABCD is a parallelogram and BC is produced to point Q such that AD = CQ. If AQ intersect DC
at P, show that ar(BPC) = ar(DPQ).
A B

D C
P

28. AB is a diameter of the circle with centre O and chord CD is equal to radius OC. AC and BD produced
meet at P. Prove that CPD = 60º.

O
A B

C D

29. All kings, jacks, diamonds have been removed from a pack of 52 playing cards and the remaining cards are
well shuffled. A card is drawn from the remaining pack. Find the probability that the card drawn is:
(i) red queen (ii) a face card
(iii) a black card (iv) a heart

30. A sphere of diameter 6 cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The
diameter of the cylindrical vessel is 12 cm. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, by how
much will the level of water rise in the cylindrical vessel ?

OR

A right circular cone is 3.6 cm high and radius of its base is 1.6 cm. It is melted and recast into a right
circular cone with radius of its base as 1.2 cm. Find its height.

31. In Fig. BC || XY, BX || CA and AB || YC. Prove that: ar(ABX) = ar(ACY).


B C

X Q Y
P

OR

ABCD is a quadrilateral. A line through D, parallel to AC meets BC produced in P. Prove that ar(ABP)=
ar(ABCD).

32. Fifteen of the 36 students in class 9A are girls.


(a) A student is picked at random. What is the probability of picking a boy ?
(b) Five girls and x boys from class 9B then joined the class. If a student is now picked at random, the
7
probability of picking a boy from class 9A is . Calculate the value of x.
25

MT_IX 4
33. The bisector of B of an isosceles triangle ABC with AB = AC meets the circumcirlce of ABC at P as
shown in the given figure. If AP and BC produced meet at Q, prove that CQ = CA.

OR
Bisector AD of BAC of ABC passes through the centre O of the circumcircle of ABC as shown in
figure. Prove that AB = AC.
A

B C
D

34. State and prove Intercept Theorem.


OR
State and prove mid-point Theorem.

SECTION–D

35. Prove that in a triangle four times the sum of its medians is greater then thrice its perimeter

OR

In quadrilateral PQRS, Prove that : (i) PQ + QR + RS + SP > PR + QS


(ii) PQ + QR + RS + SP < 2 (PR + QS)

36. Construct a triangle if its perimeter is 10.4 cm and two angles are 45° and 120°.
37. In the given figure, O is the centre and AE is the diameter of the semicircle ABCDE. If AB = BC and
AEC = 50°, then find
(a) CBE (b) CDE (c) AOB.
Prove that BO || CE.

OR

Prove that :-(i) There is one and only one circle passing through three given non-collinear points.
(ii) Equal chords of a circle (or of congruent circles) are equidistant from the centre(or centres).

38. In the given figure, ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle with side 10 cm and ∆DBC is right angled triangle
with D = 90°. If BD = 6 cm, then find the area of the shaded portion. (Use = 1.732)

MT_IX 5
39. A cube and a cuboid have the same volume. The dimensions of the cuboid are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. If
the difference between the cost of polishing the cuboid and the cube at the rate of `5 m2 is `80, find
their volumes.

OR

A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of the solid is 19 cm and the
diameter of the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the volume and total surface area of the solid. (use = 22/7).

40. On the occasion of Independence day celebration, the students of a school were asked to grow 100
plants in five different places. The number of plants survived is as follows:

(i) What is the probability of


(a) more than 60 plants survived in a place?
(b) less than 60 plants survived in a place?

(ii) Which mathematical concept is used in above situation?

(iii) Which values are depicted from the given data that you would like to learn?.

MT_IX 6
MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– ENGLISH
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –IX Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 19- 0 2- 20 20
I. The question paper is divided into three sections :
SECTION A : Reading 20 MARKS
SECTION B : Writing & Grammar 30 MARKS
SECTION C : Literature 30 MARKS
II. All questions are compulsory.
III. You may attempt any section at a time.
IV. All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section A : Reading [20 Marks]


1. Read the following extract and answer the following questions:- [8 Marks]
There are several indicators of a developed nation. It is economically, agriculturally and technologically
advanced. There is all round prosperity. The benefits of prosperity reach the common people. They
have a reasonable life span and enjoy the basic comforts and good health. They are able to educate
and feed their children well. Poverty, illiteracy, ignorance, disease and inequalities are reduced to a
minimum. Quality goods are produced in abundance and exports keep on rising. The nation is able to
protect its security as it is self-reliant in defence and has a standing in the international forum.
India, even after more than sixty five years since independence is branded as a developing country.
Achieving the developed status means the major transformation of our national economy to make it one
of the largest economies of the world, where people live well and above the poverty line. The
transformation can be materialised within the next 15 to 20 years as India has the necessary potential.
Our natural resources are richer as compared to those of many other countries. We have abundant
supplies of all the ores and minerals. We have rich bio-diversity, abundant sunshine, varied agro-
climatic conditions and plenty of rainfall all over India. The country either already has the necessary
technologies or can develop them easily. Our people and our farmers not only have a great learning
capability but most of them also have an entrepreneurial and competitive spirit. Avenues to channelize
this spirit constructively and productively are required. We need the will to take action and commit
ourselves to be one of the world leaders. We must resolve to work hard with a long term vision.
Technology is the highest wealth generator in the shortest possible time can provide us with
infrastructure and help transform education and training, food and processing, industries and
agriculture. It is the key to achieving quality products in an increasingly competitive market and to
continually upgrading human skills. It is the only vital input for ensuring health security and better living
conditions for people. It can enable us to double cereals by 2020 and to make arrangements for their
storage, transportation, distribution and marketing. It can make us leaders in machine tool industries.
Through Software engineering we can enter computer-aided design and computer-aided manufacturing.
Therefore, the major role in India's development is to be played by the vast pool of our talented
scientists, researchers and technologists. They should shed pessimism and think big because they are
the only ones who understand the forces of technological modernisation. They should take it as a
challenge to make India a developed country. They must spearhead the movement by talking about
what can be done and encouraging people that difficulties can be overcome. They must I possible help
to industries, business managers, administrators and others.
1.1 Answer the following Questions:- [1 × 6 = 6 Marks]
(a) Write the basic fields in which a developed country is advanced.
(b) What kind of life do the people in a developed country live?
(c) What is required for achieving the developed status for India?
(d) "Technology is the highest wealth generator in the shortest time". Ho,
(e) Who can play a major role in India's development?
(f) How can India enter computer-aided design and manufacturing?

1.2 Find out a word from the passage which means(ANY TWO): [1 × 2 = 2 Marks]
(a) A machine for producing electricity-.........................
(b) A large quantity more than enough -........................
(c) The state of having good fortune, wealth, money etc. ................................

2. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows. [12 Marks]
Reading Comprehension (RC, as it is normally called) is the most peculiar section in almost all
scholastic, entrance and employment tests. The skills in RC make a lot of difference to one’s chances of
good grades/selection.
Most students find it difficult to tackle topics that are diverse from the field they are in or they are
comfortable with. So one needs to develop a taste for even the most obscure and boring topic on this
planet. For success in RC one should be able to understand. And even with an average speed one can
succeed if one implements the strategies.
Broadly speaking, RC passages can be classified in a few categories. Fact based RC is the simplest
form of RC. These types of passages have lot of information in the form of names, numbers etc. In this
type of passages one should read very fast.
Don’t try to memorize any facts, numbers or names etc. In fact there is no need to even remember
them. Just make yourself familiar with the structure of the passage. Just see in which paragraph author
is talking about what. Mark it. Then when you go to the questions, identify in which paragraph
information regarding that question is mentioned. Go to that paragraph, read the numbers, names etc.
and mark the answer.
Inference based RC is the toughest form of RC. Here the passage is fairly tough to understand. This
includes passages on topics like Religion, Spirituality, Philosophy, etc. Most of the students will be
comfortable attempting these passages at least in RC. The reading speed is fairly slow in this type of
passages. The way to master this type of passages is to read them again and again while practising.
Topic based RC includes passages on any particular topic like economics, astrology, medical science,
etc. Generally what makes -these passages tough is usage of technical terms. If a topic is new to us
then presence of technical term scares us even if they are defined in the passage. For success in this
type of passages we need to have a fan-understanding of the definition of the term if it is defined in the
passage. Read that definition twice if you need to. But don’t worry about technical terms if they are not
defined in the passage. Assume them to be non-existent and proceed. Key principle in these passages
is that don’t go to the next line unless the previous line is clear.
Reading passage first and then questions is the most popular strategy for RC. While answering the
question you may come back to the passage to find answer as you have just read the passage initially
and not crammed it. But you should not come back for each and every question. If you come back for
majority of questions then you haven’t read the passage properly. The key to success for this strategy is
that you should understand the passage very well. We will suggest students to follow this technique
from the beginning and work upon this.
Reading questions first and then passage is the strategy followed by a few students. They just look at
the questions and not options. The objective is that after seeing the questions when you read the
passage then you read only that part carefully where the answer is given. The flaw with this is that you
will not be able to remember all the questions. Besides this, this strategy fails when there are questions
that require understanding of the passage.

MT_IX 2
2.1 Answer the following questions by choosing the most appropriate option (ANY FOUR):
[1 × 4 = 4 Marks]
(i) Most students find Reading Comprehension difficult because……………………….
(a) the language is tough (b) the vocabulary is difficult
(c) the style is too involved (d) the topics are unrelated to their interest
(ii) Fact based RC is the easiest because……………………….
(a) it is written in simple language (b) there are no allusions
(c) it contains information (d) it can be memorised easily

(iii) For answering a question on RC, one should……………………….


(a) memorise the facts, figures, etc.
(b) mark what the author is talking about in the para
(c) mark the essential details of the passage
(d) remember the names, numbers, etc.

(iv) Topic based RC is tough as……………………….


(a) it contains technical terms (b) it is based on different topics
(c) it demands instant understanding (d) one can’t read them fast enough
(v) Careful reading of the passage is essential for……………………….
(a) answering difficult questions
(b) saving time and effort
(c) proper understanding and answering correctly
(d) selective identification of relevant parts

2.2. Answer the following questions in brief (ANY THREE): [2 × 3 = 6 Marks]


(i) What should one do for finding the right answers?
(ii) Why is topic based R C tough?
(iii) Which step is considered more essential for finding right answers? Why?
(iv) What is the most popular strategy for solving Reading Comprehension(RC)?

2.3. Find the words similar in the meaning from passage. [1 × 2 = 2 Marks]
(a) Different (para 2) (b) Accept as true (para 6)

Section B : WRITING & GRAMMAR [30 Marks]

3 Write a diary entry in 80-100 words about how you enjoyed the celebration of your birthday last week
when several friends and relatives made the occasion lively and worth remembering. [8 Marks]
OR
Imagine you have been selected as a member of Team India and as a result you are on top of the
world. Write a diary entry in about 80-100 words giving vent to your feelings and in relation to your
motherland.

4. Write a short story in 150 – 200 words, with the help of the cues given below. Give a suitable title to the
story. [8 Marks]
Satish was standing on the balcony watching the last rays of the Sun. Loud and angry voices in the
street below distracted his attention. He ran down the stairs to see what had happened ... …
OR
An eminent bacteriologist, Dr.Hargobind Narula , went to the tropical rainforest of South America to
study some new strains of disease causing bacteria. There, while carrying out his explorations, he came
across a remote uninhibited area and set up his camp there. A few months later he wrote to his
friend.Given below is an excerpt from his letter:
“You are aware that around the country only some parts of amazon are still partially explored. I had an
occasion to spend a night at a small village at a point where a certain tributary – the name and position
of which I withhold- opens into the main river. There perched on a tree I saw a dimorphodon or
pterodactyl, a flying reptile of the Jurassic period”.
As Dr.Hargobind Narula, write a story about your adventure with the dinosaurs. Do not exceed in more
than 150 to 200 words.
MT_IX 3
5. The following passages have not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect
word and the correction the space provided. Remember to underline the word that you have
supplied. (ANY FOUR) [4 Marks]
Incorrect Correct
Word Word
The birth of a son on our family (a) ………. ……….
was the great occasion. In fact, (b) ………. ……….
I was an only daughter in house (c) ………. ……….
my parents fearing I might (d) ………. ……….
be their first or last child. (e) ………. ……….

6. Passivize the following sentences (ANY 4). [4 Marks]


(i) Some children don't like spicy foods.
(ii) The man is digging the general.
(iii) Jack effects till to fetch a pail of water.
(iv) They looked after the girl.
(v) Let him being some chocolates.

7. Change the following into Indirect Narration. (ANY 4) [4 Marks]


(i) Tim asked "where is the book?"
(ii) Niharika said, "May God help you."
(iii) Renu said to me, "I wake up early everyday."
(iv) Jacob said, "I read this book last month."
(v) Teacher said, "Aishwarya why are you late today?"

Section C : Literature 30 [Marks]

8 Read the following extract and answer the questions that follows : [4 Marks]
It's a bag all right and this is a gun all right. What's all this ?
(i) Who is the speaker here?
(ii) What is the intruder doing here?
(iii) What strange things did the intruder find in Gerrard's bag?
(iv) Did the intruder believe Gerrard?

9. Answer the following questions in 30 to 40 words. [2 × 5 = 10 Marks]


(i) What is the meaning of "anchoring earth" and "earth cave"?
(ii) What was Saint Peter tired and hungry?
(iii) How was the intruder befooled by Gerrad's false story?
(iv) What is Maria's mantra for success?
(v) What happened to Bruno when he was sent to the zoo?

10. Prove that Santosh had the courage to violate the established traditions. (100 to 150 words)
[8 Marks]
OR
Why does the author call the atmosphere at Pashupatinath Temple a 'febrile confusion'?

11. Describe the role played b the author's friends in rebuilding his life in 'A House Is Not a Home'. (100 to
150 words) [8 Marks]
OR
Olga was instrumental in bringing back Lushkoff back to normal life. How did Olga change Luskhoff?

MT_IX 4
MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – fgUnh
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –IXth le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funsZ'k 12-02-2020
(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-
(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr x|ka'k
[k.M ^[k* & O;kdj.k
[k.M ^x* & ikB~;iqLrd
[k.M ^?k* & jpuk
[k.M ^d* (vifBr x|ka'k)
1. fuEufyf[kr x|ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj fn, x, Á'uksa ds mŸkj 20&30 'kCnksa esa fyf[k, [9 Marks]
vkt Hkkjrh; jktuhfr esa QSys Hkz’Vkpkj vkSj mPp laoS/kkfud inksa ds fy, usrkvksa ds chp eph gksM+ dks
ns[kdj ;g fo”okl ugha gksrk gS fd ns”k us dHkh fdlh ,sls egkiq:’k dks Hkh ns[kk gksxk] ftlus viuh thr
dh iw.kZ laHkkouk ds ckn Hkh ;g dgk gks fd ^^;fn ,d O;fDr Hkh esjs fojks/k esa gqvk] rks ml fLFkfr esa eSa
iz/kkuea=h cuuk ugha pkgw¡xkA Hkkjr ds nwljs iz/kkuea=h Jh ykycgknqj “kkL=h ,sls gh egku~ jktusrk Fks] ftuds
fy, in ugha] cfYd ns”k dk fgr loksZifj FkkA
27 ebZ] 1964 dks izFke iz/kkuea=h tokgjyky usg: dh e`R;q ds ckn ns”k dks lkgl ,oa fuHkhZdrk ds LkkFk
usr`Ro djus okys usrk dh t:jr FkhA tc iz/kkuea=h in ds nkosnkj ds :i esa eksjkjth nslkbZ vkSj iztkrkaf=d
ewY;ksa dks ns[krs gq, “kkL=h th us pquko esa Hkkx ysus ls Li’V budkj dj fn;kA
varr% dkaxzsl ds rRdkyhu v/;{k dkejkt us dkaxzsl dh ,d cSBd cqykbZ] ftlesa “kkL=h th dks leFkZu nsus
dh ckr dh xbZ vkSj 2 twu] 1964 dks dkaxzsl ds lalnh; ny us loZ lEefr ls mUgs viuk usrk Lohdkj
fd;kA bl rjg 9 twu] 1964 dks ykycgknqj “kkL=h ns”k ds nwljs iz/kkuea=h cuk, x,A “kkL=h th
dfBu&ls&dfBu ifjfLFkfr dk lgtrk] lkgl] fuHkhZdrk ,oa /kS;Z ds lkFk lkeuk djus dh vuks[kh {kerk
j[krs FksA
bldk mnkgj.k ns”k dks muds iz/kkueaf=Ro dky esa ns[kus dks feykA o’kZ 1965 esa ikfdLrku us tc Hkkjr ij
vkØe.k djus dk nqLlkgl fd;k] rks “kkL=h th ds ukjs ^t; toku] t; fdlku^ ls mRlkfgr gksdj tgk¡
,d vksj ohj tokuksa us jk’Vª dh j{kk ds fy, vius izk.k gFksyh ij j[k fy,] rks nwljh vksj Hkkjrh; fdlkuksa
us ns”k ds ukStokuksa ds fy, i;kZIr ek=k esa vUu mitkus dk dk;Z izkjaHk dj fn;kA
¼d½ “kkL=h th dk ukjk ^t; toku] t; fdlku^ ds yksdfiz; gksus dk dkj.k Li’V djsaA [2 Marks]
¼[k½ Hkkjrh; fdlkuksa ds fy, ykycgknqj “kkL=h fdruk egRo j[krs Fks\ [2 Marks]
¼x½ iz/kkuea=h ds :i esa ukfer gksuk “kkL=h th dks D;ksa ilan ugha Fkk\ [2 Marks]
¼?k½ izLrqr x|ka”k dk mi;qDr “kh’kZd rdZ lfgr fyf[k,A [2 Marks]
¼³½ ^iztkrkaf=d^ “kCn esa ls izR;; ,oa “kCn vyx dhft,A [1 Mark]
2. fuEufyf[kr dkO;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj fn, x, Á'uksa ds mŸkj 20&30 'kCnksa esa fyf[k, [6 Marks]
j.k chp pkSdM+h Hkj&Hkjdj] jk.kk dh iqryh fQjh ugha
psrd cu x;k fujkyk FkkA rc rd psrd eqM+ tkrk FkkA
jk.kk Árki ds ?kksM+s ls] dkS'ky fn[kyk;k pkyksa esa
iM+ x;k gok dk ikyk FkkA mM+ x;k Hk;kud Hkkyksa esa
fxjrk u dHkh psrd&ru ij] fuHkhZd x;k og <kyksa esaA
jk.kk Árki dk dksM+k FkkA ljiV nkSM+k djokyksa esaA
og nkSM+ jgk vfj&eLrd ij] gS ;gha jgk vc ;gk¡ ugha
;k vkleku dk ?kksM+k FkkA og ogha jgk] vc ogk¡ ugha
tks rfud gok ls ckx fgyh] Fkh txg u dksbZ tgk¡ ugha
ysdj lokj mM+ tkrk FkkA fdl vfj&eLrd ij dgk¡ ughaA
¼d½ ÁLrqr dkO;ka'k esa fdldh cgknqjh dk o.kZu fd;k x;k gS\ mldh fdlh ,d fo'ks"krk ij Ádk'k Mkfy,A
[2 Marks]
¼[k½ jk.kk Árki ds ?kksM+s psrd dks dksM+k D;ksa ugha ekjuk iM+rk Fkk\ [2 Marks]
¼x½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa ds lekukFkZd 'kCn fyf[k, [2 Marks]
(i) vfj (ii) ?kksM+k

[k.M ^[k* (O;kdj.k)


3. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dk o.kZ&foPNsn dhft, [1 + 1 = 2 Marks]
(i) mTToy (ii) pk¡nuh

4. ¼d½ vuqukfld laca/kh v'kqf);ksa dks nwj djds 'kCnksa dks iqu%fyf[k, [2 Marks]
(i) vka[k (ii) dkaVk
¼[k½ vuqLokj mnkgj.k okys 3 'kCn fyf[k,A [3 Marks]
¼x½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa esa mfpr LFkku ij uqDrs dk Á;ksx djds mUgsa iqu% fyf[k, [1 Mark]
(i) tkfye (ii) QSlyk

5. ¼d½ vR;kpkj 'kCn es ls ewy 'kCn o Á;qDr milxZ dks vyx&vyx djds fyf[k,A [1 Mark]
¼[k½ *fy[kkbZ* 'kCn esa ls ewy 'kCn o Á;qDr ÁR;; dks vyx&vyx djds fyf[k,A [1 Mark]
¼x½ *ij* milxZ dk Á;ksx djds u;k 'kCn cukb,A [1 Mark]

6. ¼d½ nh?kZ lfU/k dh ifjHkk"kk mnkgj.k lfgr fyf[k, [1+1 = 2 Marks]


¼[k½ fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dk laf/k&foPNsn dhft, [1+1 = 2 Marks]
(i) iou (ii) lTtu

[k.M ^x* (ikB~;iwLrd)


7. fuEufyf[kr Á'uksa ds mŸkj 20&30 'kCnksa esa fyf[k, [5 Marks]
¼d½ dhpM+ ds Áfr fdlh dks lgkuqHkwfr D;ksa ugha gksrh [2 Marks]
¼[k½ dfo;ksa dh /kkj.kk dks ys[kd us ;qfDr'kqU; D;ksa dgk gS\ [2 Marks]
¼x½ pyrs iqjts yksx /keZ ds uke ij D;k djrs gS\ [1 Mark]

2
8. dhpM+ dk dkO; ikB dk ifjp; fyf[k,A [5 Marks]
vFkOkk
/keZ dh vkM+ ikB dk mÌs'; Li"V dhft,A

9. fuEufyf[kr Á'uksa ds mŸkj 20&30 'kCnksa esa fyf[k, [5 Marks]


¼d½ dfo us *vfXu iFk* fdlds Árhd Lo:i Á;ksx fd;k gS\ [2 Marks]
¼[k½ *,d i= Nk¡g Hkh ek¡x er* bl iafDr dk vk'k; Li"V dhft, [2 Marks]
¼x½ u, clrs bykds esa dfo jkLrk D;ksa Hkwy tkrk gS\ [1 Mark]

10. dfo vfXu iFk ij pyrs gq, Nk¡g ek¡xus ds fy, euq"; dks euk djrk gSA D;ks\a *vfXu iFk* dfork ds vk/kkj
ij yxHkx 100 'kCnksa esa fyf[k,A [5 Marks]
vFkok
*[kq'kcw jprs gSa gkFk* dfork esa dfo us fdl lp dks ÁdV fd;k gS rFkk dSls\ Li"V dhft,A mŸkj yxHkx
100 'kCnksa esa fyf[k,A

11. *nh;s ty mBs* ikB dk ifjp; fyf[k,A [5 Marks]


vFkok
^^dk”k! eSa vkids eqYd esa vkdj ;g lc viuh vk¡[kksa ls ns[k ldrk^^ gkfen us ,slk D;kas dgk\

[k.M ^?k* (jpuk)


12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij fn, x, ladsr fcanqvks ds vk/kkj ij 80 ls 100 'kCnksa esa vuqPNsn
fyf[k, [5 Marks]
1. daI;wVj ;qx
Lkadsr fcanq Û Hkwfedk
Û daI;wVj % ,d ;qx Økafr
Û euksjatu txr esa daI;wVj
Û daI;wVj dk egRo
vFkok
2. fnuksa&fnu c<+rh eg¡xkbZ / eg¡xkbZ ds c<+rs pj.k
Lkadsr fcanq Û eg¡xkbZ D;k gS\
Û eg¡xkbZ ds dkj.k
Û fuokj.k ds mik;
13. Nk=kokl esa jg jgs NksVs HkkbZ ds }kjk dh xbZ eksckby Q+ksu dh ek¡x ij vHkh bldk mi;ksx u djus dh
lykg nsrs gq, i= fyf[k,A [5 Marks]
vFkok
viuh NksVh cgu dks dqlaxfr ls gksus okys nq’izHkko ls lpsr djrs gq, cMs+ HkkbZ dh vksj ls ,d i= fyf[k,A

3
14. fn, x, fp= dks /;ku ls ns[kdj 20 ls 30 'kCnksa esa fp= dk o.kZu viuh Hkk"kk esa ÁLrqr dhft,A
[5 Marks]

vFkok

15. ^^eg¡xkbZ vkSj filrk vke vkneh^^ fo’k; ij lekt ds nks lkekU; O;fDr;ksa ds chp dk laokn fyf[k,A
[5 Marks]
vFkok
*jDrnku ds fo"k; esa nks ;qokvksa ds e/; gksus okys laokn dks yxHkx 50 'kCnksa esa fyf[k,A

16. ^i;kZoj.k lqj{kk^ fo’k; ij 25&50 “kCnksa esa foKkiu rS;kj dhft,A [5 Marks]
vFkok
fdlh eksckby Q+ksu ls lacaf/kr foKkiu 25&50 'kCnksa esa rS;kj dhft,A

4
MAJOR EXAMINATION
SUBJECT– SOCIAL SCIENCE
SESSION 2019-20
Maximum Marks : 80 Class –IX Time : 3 Hours
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS 17- 02- 2020
(i) The question paper has 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question from serial number 1 to 20 are objective type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
Answer them as instructed.
(iii) Question from serial number 21 to 28 are 3 marks questions. Answer of these questions should
not exceed 80 words each.
(iv) Question from serial number 29 to 34 are 5 marks questions. Answer of these questions should
not exceed 120 words each.
(v) Question number 35 is a map question of 6 marks with two parts, 35(a) from History (2 marks)
and 35(b) from Geography (4 marks).

SECTION –A
1. Why the makers of our Constitution thought of a special system of reserved constituencies for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes ?
(A) They are the most weaker section in our society.
(B) Influential and resourceful person may prevent the weaker section to cast their votes.
(C) If weaker section cannot vote, assemblies and parliament would be deprived of the voice of a
significant section of our population.
(D) All of these
2. ‘Land to the tiller’ was the slogan used in Assembly Election of 1977 in West Bengal by ………… .

3. Name the most common form of democracy in today’s world.


4. A communication issued by an appropriate authority stating the policy or decision of the government is
known as ………..

5. It is the language, culture and religion of minorities that needs special protection. Otherwise they may
get neglected or undermined under the impact of the language, religion and culture of the majority. That
is why the constitution of India specifies this right of the minority.
This is known as
(A) Right to Equality (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Cultural and Educational Rights (D) Right to constitutional Remedies

6. Match the following items given in Column I with those in Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Louis becomes king of France 1. 1792-93
B. France becomes a Republic 2. 1804
C. Napoleon becomes Emperor of France 3. 1774
D. Napoleon defeated at Waterloo 4. 1815

7. Arrange the following in the correct sequence.


(i) Mishrilal purchased a mechanical sugarcane crushing machine.
(ii) Mishrilal sold the Jagerry to traders.
(iii) Mishrilal took a Bank loan.
(iv) Sugarcan was crushed earlier by bullocks, but now machines are preferred.
Options :
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
8. Find the incorrect option.
(A) Duma is the Russian parliament or Legislature.
(B) Duma’s members were elected and made laws.
(C) It is the most important administrative body.
(D) It is a place of worship for the Russians.

9. Analyse the meaning of the word ‘Genocidal War’.

10. …………. System was introduced in Java by the Dutch colonies to control the forest land.

11. Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modern farming
method in India. The farmers in these regions setup tubewells for irrigation and made use to HYV
seeds, chemical fertilisers and pesticides in farming. Some of them bought farm machinery, use tractors
and threshers, which made ploughing and harvesting faster. They were rewarded with high yields of
wheat.
This situation depicts
(A) modern ways of farming (B) new method of farming
(C) Green Revolution (D) high production situation

12. Arrange the following in correct sequence.


(i) Food Corporation of India purchases wheat and rice from the farmers where there is surplus
production.
(ii) Before the sowing season, the government declares the Minimum support Price (MSP).
(iii) This helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather condition.
(iv) The foodgrains are stored in granaries.
(A) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (C) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

13. Famous cooperative AMUL is located at


(A) Gujarat (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Karnataka (D) Rajasthan

14. Match the following items given in Column I with those in Column II.
Column I Column II
A. Anai Mudi 1. Eastern Ghats
B. K2 2. Karakoram
C. Mahendragiri 3. Western Ghats
D. Nanga Parbat 4. Zaskar

15. Where does the Brahmaputra river have less silt, despite a longer course ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam
(C) Sikkim (D) Tibet

16. What is locally known as ‘Mahawat’ in the North India ?

17. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen ?


(A) Freedom to criticise the government
(B) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(C) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(D) Both (B) and (C)

18. Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a
democratic country ?
(A) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(B) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(C) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
(D) People are free to believe in and practise any religion.

MT_IX 2
19. Complete the following table with correct information.
Plants Found Division of Forest Receiving Rainfall
Tropical Bamboo, Sal,
Deciduous Shisham, Sandal, A? B?
Forest Wood, etc.

20. Correct the following statement and rewrite it :


The Tropic of Capricorn divided India into almost two equal parts.

SECTION –B
21. What is the significance of ‘The Tennis Court Oath’ in the French Revolution ?
22. Who was Dietrich Brandis ? Explain his achievement in India.
23. What is the model code of conduct for election campaign ?
24. ‘Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha’. Analyse the statement.
25. Explain ‘Right against Exploitation.
26. Write a short note on ‘India Desert.
27. What is the ITCZ ? What is its significance ?
28. How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming ? How is it different from the small
farmers ?

SECTION –C
29. What is a Constitution ? Why do we need a Constitution ?
30. Explain the drainage basin of Godavari & Narmada.
31. What is ‘age composition’ ? How does it affect the population’s social & economic structure ?
32. How is food security ensured in India ?
33. Explain Hitler or Nazis policy towards the youth.
Or
Describe the status of women in Nazi Germany according to the theory of a racial state.
34. Explain the Russian February Revolution 1917.

SECTION –D
35. (a) On the outline map of world locate and label any two countries that were axis powers in Second
World War.
(b) Six features (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) are marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify any four of these features with the help of following information and label them on the map.
(i) A mountain range.
(ii) An important river of South India.
(iii) Locate and label Tropic of Cancer on the same map.
(iv) Salt water Lake in Rajasthan
(v) National Park famous for one horned rhinoceroes.
(vi) Wildlife sanctuary in Rajasthan

MT_IX 3
(a)

MT_IX 4
(b)

MT_IX 5
MAJOR EXAMINATION
fo"k; – laLÑr
l= % 2019-20
vf/kdre vad : 80 d{kk –IX le; : 3 ?k.Vs
lkekU; funZs'k 12-02-2020

(i) lHkh iz'u djuk vfuok;Z gS-


(ii) bl iz'u i= esa pkj [k.M fn;s x;s gS
[k.M ^d* & vifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼10 vad½
[k.M ^[k* & jpukRed&dk;Ze~ ¼15 vad½
[k.M ^x* & vuqÁ;qDr&O;kdj.ke~ ¼25 vad½
[k.M ^?k* & ifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼30 vad½
[k.M ^d* vifBr&vocks/kue~ ¼10 vad½
1. v/kksfyf[kre~ vuqPNsna ifBRok ÁnŸkÁ”ukuke~ mŸkjkf.k fy[kr&
,s”o;ZekjksX;e~ HkkSfrda lq[ke~ vkfn fdf×pnfi oLrq /kusu fouk yC/kqa uSo ”kD;rsA ;Kk%] nkue~] mRlok%]
xqgLFkl×pkyua ok loZefi dk;Ztkra /kusuSo lai|rsA u dsoyefLeUuso vfirq osns·fi foŸkL; egkRE;a n`”;rsA /kusuSo
cya] ikf.MR;a] ÁHkqRo×p yH;UrsA ;L; lehis /kua orZrs rL; thou;k=k lqpk::is.k pyfr fdUrq ;L; lehis /kua
ukfLr rL; thou;k=k rq nq%[kdjh n`”;rsA /kusu lokZf.k d’Vkfu nwjh HkofUrA dfFkre~ vfi&Þ/keZ’Vdk deZ’Vdk
Vdk ,o ijea ine~A ;L; x`gs Vdk ukfLr gk! Vdk VdVdk;rsAAß vFkkZr~ vfLeu~ lalkjs *Vdk* vFkkZr~ /kueso /keZ%
vfLr] /kueso deZ vfLrA ,oa lalkjs loksZPpa ina /kua /kusu ok vfLrA ija ;L; ujL; lehis /kua u Hkofr l%
vgfuZ”ka vU;a Áfr nqcZy% HkwRok dsoya foo”kr;k i”;fr ,oA vr% dfFkre~&/kueso loZa orZrsA
I. ,dinsu mŸkjr&
(i) /kusu fda nwjh Hkofr\
(ii) lalkjs loksZPpa ina fde~ vfLr\

II. iw.kZokD;su mŸkjr&


(i) /kusu fda&fda lai|rs\
(ii) vfLeu~ lalkjs d% /keZ% vfLr\

III. Hkkf’kddk;Ze~&
(i) vfLeu~ vuqPNsns *egkRE;e~* bfr drZ`inL; fØ;kina fde~\
(ii) *osnk% vfi /kuL; egRoa xk;fUrA* vfLeu~ okD;s drZ`ina fde~\
(iii) v= vuqPNsns *Vdk* inL; d% i;kZ;% vkxr\

IV. mifj fyf[krL; vuqPNsnL; leqfpra “kh’kZda fy[krA


[k.M ^[k* jpukRed dk;Ze~ ¼15 vad½
2. fi=s jDrnkuf”kfojfo’k;da i=a e×tw’kk;ka ÁnŸrinkuka lgk;r;k iwj;r&
ijh{kkHkoukr~
iwT; fir`egksn;] fnukad% ....................
(i) .................... v= dq”kya r=kLrqA g~;% (ii) .................... fo|ky;s (iii) .................... jDrnkuf”kfoje~
vk;ksftre~A loZÁFkea vlekda (iv) .................... LojDra Ák;PNr~A rnuUrje~ (v) .................... v/;kidk%
,rfLeu~ (vi) .................... vxzljk% vHkou~A rs’kke~ (vii) .................... n`’V~ok vge~ vrho (viii) ....................
vHkoe~A Hkoku~ vfi ,rka (ix) .................... n`’V~ok ÁlUuks Hkfo’;fr bfr vk”kkLegsA fpUr;k vye~A
Hkonh;% iq=%
(x) ....................
e×tw’kk
ee] Ákpk;Z%] ,de~] vusds] pj.koUnuk] Hkkouke~] ÁHkkfor%] “kqHkdk;sZ] dkSLrqHk%] mRlkge~

3. v/kksÁnŸka fp=a n`’V~ok e×tw’kk;ka ÁnŸkinkuka lgk;r;k fp=L; o.kZua i×plq laLd`rokD;s’kq dq:r&

vFkok
Hkkjrh uke/ks;k dU;k Lofo’k;s fda onfr] bfr vo/kk;Z Øe”k% i×p okD;ku~ laLd`rs jp;r&

4. v/kksfyf[krokD;kuka laLd`rHkk’kk;ke~ vuqokna dq:r&


(i) Nk= xsan ls [ksy jgs gSaA
(ii) esjk HkkbZ t;iqj esa jgrk gSA
(iii) laLd`r lHkh Hkk’kkvksa dh tuuh gSA
(iv) lquhrk Áfrfnu eafnj tkrh gSaA
(v) rqe lc dgk¡ tk jgs gks\
MT_IX 2
[k.M ^x* ¼vuqÁ;qDr&O;kdj.ke~ 25 vad½
5. js[kkf³
d rinkuka lfU/ka lfU/k&foPNsna ok d`Rok fy[kr&
(i) u $ vu`ra czw;kr~A
(i) vL; nsos”oj% dq=kfLr\
(iii) l% u`i% Hkkoqd% vfLrA
(iv) egk $ vks’kf/ke~ bo okD;a onuh;e~A
6. fodYisH;% mfpra “kCn:ia fpRok okD;kfu iwj;r&
(i) vLeS ........................... bna Qye~ vfLrA ¼ckyd½
¼d½ ckyde~ ¼[k½ ckydk; ¼x½ ckydsH;% ¼?k½ ckydL;
(ii) ........................... dk;kZy;% v=So vfLrA ¼jek½
¼d½ je;k ¼[k½ je;ks% ¼x½ jek;k% ¼?k½ jek%

(iii) ........................... lnSo fgrdkjdk% HkofUrA ¼lk/kq½


¼d½ lk/kq% ¼[k½ lk/ko% ¼x½ lk/kks% ¼?k½ lk/kquk
(iv) mfprinS% ........................... fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;kfeA ¼vLen~½
¼d½ vLekde~ ¼[k½ vLer~ ¼x½ vge~ ¼?k½ vLekfHk%
7. fodYisH;% mfpra /kkrq:ia fpRok okD;kfu iwj;r&
(i) tUefnolL; “kqHkdkeuk% ...........................A ¼vl~&yksV~ydkjs½
¼d½ vLrq ¼[k½ lUrq ¼x½ vfLr ¼?k½ L;kr~
(ii) Nk=k% /;kusu ...........................A ¼iB~&fof/kfy³~ydkjs½
¼d½ iBsr~ ¼[k½ iBUrq ¼x½ iBs;q% ¼?k½ iB

(iii) f”k’;k% xq:u~ ...........................A ¼lso~&fof/kfy³~ydkjs½


¼d½ lsors ¼[k½ lsoUrs ¼x½ lsols ¼?k½ lsosrs
(iv) tuk%tya lnSo ...........................A¼ik&fof/kfy³~ydkjs½
¼d½ ficfUr ¼[k½ ficsre~ ¼x½ fics;q% ¼?k½ ficUrq
8. miinfoHkDR;uqlkja fodYisH;% mfpra ina fpRok okD;kfu iwj;r&
(i) firk ........................... dqI;frA ¼iq=½
¼d½ iq=k; ¼[k½ iq=e~ ¼x½ iq=L; ¼?k½ iq=s.k

(ii) ...........................fouk eqfDr% u HkofrA ¼Kku½


¼d½ Kkusu ¼[k½ Kkue~ ¼x½ Kkuk; ¼?k½ KkuL;

(iii) ckyd% ...........................fcHksfrA ¼flag½


¼d½ flage~ ¼[k½ flagL; ¼x½ flagsu ¼?k½ flagkr~

(iv) lquhrk ...........................lg vki.ka xPNfrA ¼firk½


¼d½ fi=k ¼[k½ firje~ ¼x½ firq% ¼?k½ fir`u~

MT_IX 3
9. v/kksfyf[krokD;s’kq js[kkf³
d rins’kq Ád`frÁR;;kS foHkT; la;ksT; ok fodYisH;% fpRok fy[kr&
(i) lkr= n`”k~ $ DRok u`R;frA
¼d½ æ’Vqe~ ¼[k½ n`’V~ok ¼x½ n”kZuk; ¼?k½ i”;u~
(ii) jk/kk
fogL; vonr~A
¼d½ fo $ gl~ $ Y;i~ ¼[k½ fo $ gl~ $ DRok ¼x½ fogl~ $ “kr` ¼?k½ fo $ gl~ $ rqequ~
(iii) vge~
v/kquk Qykfu vk $ uh $ rququ~ vki.k xPNkfeA
¼d½ vkuh; ¼[k½ vkusrqe~ ¼x½ uhRok ¼?k½ usrqe~
(iv) firjalsoekuk% ÁlhnfUrA
¼d½ lso~ $ “kr` ¼[k½ lso~ $ rqequ~ ¼x½ lso~ $ Y;i~ ¼?k½ lso~ $ “kkup~

10. v/kksfyf[krokD;s’kq v³k


d uka LFkkus’kq laLd`r s la[;kokpdinkfu fyf[kRok fjDrLFkkukfu iwj;r&
(i) ekxsZ ........................... (22) ckfydk% ØhMfUrA
(ii) dkyk% ........................... (3) HkofUrA
(iii) ØhMk{ks=s ........................... (47) Nk=k% [ksyfUrA

11. v/kksfyf[krinsH;% milxZ] /kkrqa ina p i`Fkd~ d`Rok fy[kr&


(i) ÁR;onr~ & ...........................
(ii) fuirfr & ...........................
(i) midkj% & ...........................
(i) vf/kdkj% & ...........................

[k.M ^?k* ¼ifBr&vocks/kue~ 30 vad½


12. v/kksfyf[kra x|ka”ka i|ka”k ukV~;ka”ka p ifBRok Á”ukuke~ mŸkjkf.k mŸkjiqfLrdk;ka fy[kr&
¼v½ fpjdkya Hkous fp=fofp=oLrwfu lfTtrkfu n`’V~ok lk foLe;a xrkA JkUrka rka foyksD; dkd% Ákg&iwoZ
y?kqÁkrjk”k% fØ;rke~&on Roa Lo.kZLFkkY;ka Hkkstua dfj’;fl fda ok jtrLFkkY;ke~ rkezLFkkY;ke~\ ckfydk
O;ktgkj&rkezLFkkY;kesokga fu/kZuk Hkkstua dfj’;kfeA rnk lk dU;k pk”p;Zpfdrk l×tkrk ;nk Lo.kZLFkkY;ka
Hkkstua i;Zosf’kre~A uSrkn`d~ Loknq Hkkstue|kof/k ckfydk [kkfnrorhA dkdks czwrs&ckfyds! vgfePNkfe ;Ÿoa
loZnk pk=So fr’B ija ro ekrk orZrs pSdkfduhA Roa “kh?kzeso Lox`ga xPNA
I. ,dinsu mŸkjr&
(i) dhn`”kha rka foyksD; dkd% Ákg\
(ii) ckfydk dhn`”ka Hkkstue~ v|kof/k u [kkfnrorh\

II. iw.kZokD;su mŸkjr&


Ckfydk fda O;ktgkj\

III. Hkkf’kddk;Ze~&
(i) *rnk lk dU;k vk”;p;Zpfdrk l×tkrkA* vfLeu~ okD;s *dU;k* bfr fo”ks’;inL; fo”ks’k.kina fdefLr\
(ii) vuqPNsns *tuuh* bR;L; inL; d% i;kZ;% fyf[kr%\
(iii) *Roa “kh?kza Lox`ga xPNA* v= fØ;kina fdefLr\

MT_IX 4
¼c½ ra “kCneolqIrLrq tVk;qjFk “kqJqosA
fujh{; jko.ka f{kÁa oSnsgha p nn”kZ l%AA
I. ,dinsu mŸkjr&
(i) dhn`”k% tVk;q% ra “kCna “kqJqos\
(ii) tVk;q% ÁFkea da fujhf{kroku~\

II. iw.kZokD;su mŸkjr&


jko.ka fujh{; l% tVk;q% f{kÁa dka nn”kZ\
III. Hkkf’kddk;Ze~&
(i) v= “yksds *fpje~* bfr inL; d% foi;Z;% vkxr\
(ii) *nn”kZ* bR;L;k% fØ;k;k% “yksds drZ`ina fde~\
(iii) *n`’V~ok* bR;FksZ v= fda ina Á;qDre~\

¼l½ vfHkeU;q% & vya LoPNUnÁykisu! vLekda dqys vkReLroa drqZeuqfpre~A j.kHkwekS grs’kq “kjku~ i”;]
en`rs vU;r~ uk u Hkfo’;frA
c`gUuyk & ,oa okD;”kkS.Mh;Ze~A fdeFkZ rsu inkfruk x`ghr%\
vfHkeU;q% & v”kL=a ekefHkxr%A firje~ vtqZua Leju~ vga dFka gU;ke~A v”kL=s’kq ekn`”kk% u ÁgjfUrA
vr% v”kL=ks·;a eka o×pf;Rok x`ghroku~A
jktk & Ro;Zrka Ro;ZrkefHkeU;q%A
c`gUuyk & br br% dqekj%A ,’k egkjkt% miliZrq dqekj%A
vfHkeU;q% & vk%A dL; egkjkt%\
jktk & ,g~;ksfg iq=! dFka u ekefHkokn;fl\ ¼vkRexre~½ vgks! vfRlDr% [kYo;a {kf=;dqekj%A
vgeL; niZÁ”keua djksfeA ¼Ádk”ke~ ½ vFk dsuk;a x`ghr%\
Hkhelsu% & egkjkt! e;kA
vfHkeU;q% & v”kL=s.ksR;fHk/kh;rke~A
Hkhelsu% & “kkUra ikie~A /kuqLrq nqcZyS% ,o x`g~;rsA ee rq HkqtkS ,o Ágj.ke~A
vfHkeU;q% & ek rkon~ Hkks% fda Hkoku~ e/;e% rkr% ;% rL; ln`”ka op% onfrA
Hkxoku~ & iq=~ dks·;a e/;eks uke\
I. ,dinsu mŸkjr&
(i) vfHkeU;q% j.kHkwekS dFka x`ghr%\
(ii) dL; dqys vkReLroa vuqfpre~ vfLr\

II. iw.kZokD;su mŸkjr&


vfHkeU;q% dsu x`ghr%\
III. Hkkf’kddk;Ze~&
(i) *{kf=;dqekj%* bfr inL; vfLeu~ laokns fo”ks’k.kina fde~\
(ii) *ee rq HkqtkS ,o Ágj.ke~A* v= drZ` ina fdefLr\
(iii) *Ádk”ke~* bfr inL; foi;Z;ine~ v= ukV~;ka”ks fde~ vkxre~\

13. js[kkf³
d rinkfu vk/k`R; Á”ufuekZ.ka dq:r&
(i) vkyL;a fogk; fo/kk/;;ua drZO;e~A
(ii) o`{kk.kka
Qykfu vfi ijkFkkZ; HkofUrA
(iii) ee f”k”kq% Ro;k lg unha xr%A
(iv) vtqZusu o;a ifjjf{krk%A

MT_IX 5
14. v/kksfyf[krL; “yksd};L; vUo;e~ vfprinS% iwj;r&
I. xq.ks’oso fg drZO;% Á;Ru% iq:’kS% lnkA
xq.k;qDrks nfjæks·fi us”ojSjxq.kS% le%AA
vUo;%& iq:’kS% (i) ……….. xq.ks’kq (ii) ……….. fg Á;Ru% (iii) …………….. nfjæ% (iv) ………… xq.k;qDr%
¼uj%½ bZ”ojS% vxq.kS% le% ¼u Hkofr½A
e×tw’kk
vfi] ,o] drZO;%] lnk

II. rqyka ykSglgL=L; ;= [kknfUr ew’kdk%A


jktUr= gjsPN~;suks ckyda] uk= la”k;%AA
vUo;%& (i) ……….. ;= (ii) ……….. rqyka (iii) …………….. [kknfUr r= “;su% (iv) ………… gjsr~ v= la”k;% uA
e×tw’kk
ckyde~] ew’kdk%] ykSglglzL;] jktu~
vFkok
v/kksfyf[krL; ”yksdL; HkkokFkZa HkkokFkZa e×tw’kk;k% inkuka lgk;rk iwj;r&
fuorZ; efra uhpka ijnkjfHke”kZukr~A
u rRlekpjs)hjks ;Rijks·L; foxgZ;sr~AA
HkkokFkZ%& g fo}u~ jko.k~ Roa ijs’kka L=hgj.ka :ia (i) ……….. Lo nqeZfra fuorZ; ;r% (ii) ………. tuk% rkn`”kkf.k
dekZf.k u (iii) ……….. ;s’kke~ vU;% tu% (iv) ………… djksfrA
e×tw’kk
vidhfrZe~] ikikr~] dq;Zq%] /kS;ZoUr%

15. v/kksfyf[krokD;kfu ?kVukØekuqlkja la;ksT; iqufyZ[kr&


(i) Hkks% ukfLr lk] Ronh;k rqyk ew’kdSHkZf{krk bfrA
(ii) l% ,dnk fons”ka xPNu~ vfpUr;r~A
(iii) dfLeaf”pn~ vf/k’Bkus th.kZ/ku% uked% of.kDiq=% vklhr~A
(iv) /kfud% u`iL; lehia U;k;kFkZ e~ vxPNr~A
(v) Hkks% Jsf’Bu~! nh;rka es lk fu{ksirqykA
(vi) beak ykSgrqyka Jsf’Bu% x`gs fuf{kI; xPNkfeA
(vii) dFka “;su% iq=a usrqa leFkksZ·fLrA
(viii) vL; iq=L; vigj.ka “;susu d`re~A

16. v/kksfyf[krinkuka rs’kka foi;Z;inS% lg esyua dq:r&


(i) ew[kkZ.kke~ ¼d½ ijkFkZ%
(ii) LokFkZ% ¼[k½ mifj
(iii) v/k% ¼x½ fonq’kke~

MT_IX 6