Examen de Soldadura - Practica de Certificacion y Herramientas de Estudio PDF

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Fundamentals of Welding
Practice Test Kit
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Published by Tests.com LLC

P.O. Box 232
Lititz, PA 17543
www.Tests.com
ISBN: 978-1-938967-33-7
Copyright © 2013 Edward Bohnart
Copyright © 2013 Tests.com LLC, Test Tips
All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, distributed or transmitted in any
form or by any means without the prior written permission of Ray Holder or Tests.com LLC. Published in
electronic format in the United States of America.
About the Author
Edward Bohnart has over thirty five years of experience in the welding industry as a certified
welder, welding supervisor, welding inspector, welding sales representative and welding
instructor. He has served as a Board member of the American Welding Society (AWS) for over a
decade and was its National President from 1995 – 1996. Ed chaired the AWS C5 committee on Arc
Welding and Cutting Processes and served on other AWS committees, including education. The AWS has
recognized Ed as Counselor (class of 2011), with the National Meritorious Award, George E. Willis
Award, Plummer Memorial Educational Lecture Award and designated him as a Distinguished Member.
Ed taught welding for seven years at Boys Town in Nebraska. He is an adjunct instructor for the AWS.
He has lectured at The Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Colorado School of Mines, Texas A&M
and Arizona State University. He is author of Welding Principles & Practices 4th edition published by
McGraw-Hill. He is an active member of the Skills USA Welding Technical Committee and has functioned
as the United States of America’s Welding Technical Expert for the World Skills Competition for two
decades.
Ed currently operates Welding Education and Consulting which designs and conducts customized
training programs for the welding industry.
TOP Digitally Monitored for Compliance to License Terms Copyright © 2013 Edward Bohnart
Table of Contents
Introduction to the Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test...................................................................... 1
Table of Alloying Elements and Lens Shade Guide ..................................................................................... 5
Weld Symbols ............................................................................................................................................... 7
Practice Test
Section 1 – Arc Welding Processes ................................................................................................. 8
Section 2 – Heat Control and Metallurgy...................................................................................... 18
Section 3 – Weld Examination ...................................................................................................... 25
Section 4 – Welding Performance................................................................................................. 37
Section 5 – Welding Definitions and Terminology ........................................................................ 49
Section 6 – Symbols - Welding and NDE ....................................................................................... 63
Section 7 – Test Methods - NDE.................................................................................................... 77
Section 8 – Reports and Records .................................................................................................. 88
Section 9 – Duties and Responsibilities......................................................................................... 93
Section 10 – Safety ........................................................................................................................ 96
Section 11 – Destructive Testing (DT) ......................................................................................... 101
Section 12 – Cutting .................................................................................................................... 105
Section 13 – Brazing and Soldering ............................................................................................. 112
Practice Test Answers ............................................................................................................................. 116
Questions with Answers.......................................................................................................................... 154
Test Preparation and Test Taking Tips ................................................................................................... 305
Bubble Sheet ............................................................................................................................................ 308

Introduction to the Fundamentals of Welding Practice Tests
You are about to begin the process of preparing yourself for a position in one of
the fastest growing industries in the world of work—the welding industry.
The welding industry is a critical component of manufacturing worldwide. It has

been reported that over 50% of our gross national product (GNP) can be attributed to the
use of welding. The welding industry is continuously evolving in processes, materials and
technology. It is an industry that requires continuous and on-going training at all levels, but
most specifically for its educators from secondary through university levels, as well as for
skilled practitioners. Welding is unique in that it is considered both an occupation and a
tool. This makes it known and useable in a very large and diverse career field. Some
individuals do carry the title of welder and have a job description that reflects that. Others
are referred to as pipe fitter, boilermaker and ironworker, etc.… These individuals may use
welding as a tool exclusively for all or only a small portion of the work day. Beyond the
skilled practitioner, there are many other career opportunities, such as technician,
inspector, supervisor, sales representatives and engineer. There are credentialing
programs for all of these areas, from simple/informal internal programs within companies
to nationally/internationally recognized credentialing programs. The American Welding
Society has been instrumental in credentialing many of these areas. The AWS Certified
Welding Inspector (CWI) program has been available for over 30 years, while others are
relatively new.
Welding is the joining together of two pieces of metal by heating to a temperature

high enough to cause softening or melting, with or without the application of pressure,
and with or without the use of filler metal. Any filler metal used has either a melting point
approximately the same as the metals being joined or a melting point that is below these
metals. Brazing is when the base metal does not melt but the filler metal melts above 840
degrees Fahrenheit (°F). It is considered soldering when the filler metal melts below 840
degrees Fahrenheit (°F).
New methods, new applications and new systems have been developed in the last
several years. Continuing research makes welding a dynamic leader in industrial processes.
The industry has made tremendous progress in a short period of time. Furthermore, it has
made a major contribution toward raising the standard of living of the American people.
By simplifying and speeding up industrial processes and making it possible to develop
environmentally sound industries like wind and solar power, hybrid power vehicles, plants
to produce organic fuels, and continued development in nuclear and fossil fuels, along
with continued space exploration and utilization, it has increased the world’s supply of
goods. A quality, long-lasting, attractive, safe product is best fabricated by using one of the
many types of prevailing welding processes.
Testing in the welding industry is very focused on the type of work being done. In
some cases, legal implications are presented in contract requirements, such as for welding
inspectors. It can be specified that independent third party certifications like the American
Welding Society’s Certified Welding Inspector AWS QC-1 are required on certain jobs.
Welders are also required to be qualified by contract documents that specify a specific
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code. Building codes, bridge codes, pressure vessel codes, process piping codes, power
piping codes, cross country pipeline codes and storage tanks codes are typically code
driven to have qualified people doing the work. If there are no legal (code) authorities
requiring certified personnel, companies might do it themselves and use it as a quality
control and marketing tool. They promote the idea they use certified personnel which
indicate quality work is being accomplished. Nationally recognized welding inspector tests
in accordance with the AWS QC-1 have very specific requirements, such as a code section,
practical hands-on section and a welding fundamentals section. These tests are multiple
choice type questions that must be answered within a specified time limit. Welders, on the
other hand, even if certified by an independent third party, will be required by employers
to demonstrate their qualification level by testing. This is typically a hands-on skill test with
the welding process and materials that would be used in production. The welder may or
may not be required to take a written test but must be able to set up the equipment,
follow welding procedures or work instructions. The skilled labor unions offer this type
testing for their members requiring welding credentials. In today’s world, credentials are
everything. They very much help get one’s foot in the door at the interview stage. This
would apply to welder, inspectors, supervisors, technicians and engineers. If these
individuals are properly qualified, they can rapidly advance upwards through the ranks
above less qualified individuals.
My Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test is designed to be used as a study

method for passing an examination on the fundamentals of welding. It is intended for
anyone wishing a career in the welding industry, advancing their technical or engineering
level of knowledge. It is also suitable for on the job training and apprenticeship training
programs. It can serve as a supplementary training tool in building construction,
metalworking and industrial technology training programs. The practice test provides a
course of instruction in welding and cutting that will enable students to learn the
principles. If actual hands on skills are required for your career path, practice will be
required on the various arc welding processes and thermal cutting processes. This would
require a training facility for qualifying welders. This can be done at a community college,
skilled labor union facility or in a private industry training facility. The principles are
presented in this practice test so that student can learn the “whys” of welding.
The sections of the practice test are best followed in sequence to facilitate an
understanding of the various welding processes and related materials. The practice test
presents the understanding of Shielded Metal Arc Welding, Flux Cored Arc Welding- Self
Shielded and Submerged Arc Welding, the arc welding processes protected by flux, along
with the gas shielded processes, such as Gas Tungsten Arc Welding, Gas Metal Arc Welding
and Flux Cored Arc Welding-Gas Shielded. Brazing and soldering are also covered, along
with common mechanical and thermal cutting processes that will aid in material
preparation and enhance welding fit-up issues. How these processes are applied in
manual, semi-automatic, mechanized, automatic and robotics are also covered.
The section on reports and records covers the various careers/jobs from
welder/fitter, supervisor, technician and engineers and the documents they must be
familiar with. Of course different welding industry segments will have their own
documents but in general requirements are similar. The section on duties and
responsibilities covers many of the careers in the welding industry.
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Various industrial practices are cited with the use of national welding codes and
standards. The content of the practice test is based upon many years of experience by this
published author (Welding Principles and Practices 4th ed.) and input from the American
Welding Society, along with other leading welding authorities. This practice test provides
understanding of equipment, electrodes, shielding gases, joints, welds, testing, inspection,
welding safe practices and welding symbols.
There are many illustrations that challenge one’s ability to understand the terms
and definitions used in the welding industry. Welding is an art, technology and
engineering science, which requires the skillful manipulation of the weld pool and a
thorough knowledge of welding processes and materials being used. Students can be
assured of success if they are willing to spend the time required in actual practice and in
the study of the principles presented in this text until they thoroughly understand the
significance. Faithful adherence to this course of study will enable them to master the
fundamentals of joining and cutting processes.
Test Taking Tips
Show Up Prepared: For tests scored via scantron, you should have multiple sharpened #2
or #2.5 soft lead pencils and a big pink pearl eraser. Answers that have been changed
need to be carefully erased or the scantron machine will mis-score it. Have a calculator to
do your math problems. You can have the formulas programmed in and conversion
capability is ok. You cannot use the calculator in your cell phones. Cell phones, for many
reasons, cannot be out or used during testing. The math problems can be mapped out in
the test question booklet as you are not allowed to use scratch paper during these type
tests. You will need a photo ID or the test supervisor will not let you sit for the exam. For
the open book part of the test, make certain you bring your code book properly tabbed,
highlighted, personal notes in margins, etc…Make it your own personal book, be
comfortable with it. Know how to navigate it as quickly as possible. Do Not Rely on Your
Memory. Bring a light snack for break (energy bar etc…). If a lunch break is being provided,
do not get hung up in a long lunch line somewhere. Have something light to eat, with you.
Read and Understand Each Word: These type tests are not for speed reading. The test
question and the distracters must all be read. Typically, all the questions will be multiple
choice with five distracters. If you have the bad habit of picking the first good answer you
come across without reading them all, you will not be effective in taking the exam. If this is
the case, start on the last answer choice and read back toward the question. Leave nothing
to chance. For open book tests, the same rule applies to the code book. When you find the
area of concern to answer the question, look for footnotes, read the whole sentence, read
the whole paragraph and follow up if another section is referenced.
Timed Tests Require Special Techniques: The Practical hands on portion of the AWS CWI
exam has 46 questions and 120 minutes is given to answer them. That is roughly 2.5
minutes per question. The Fundamentals portion of the AWS CWI exam has 150 questions
and 120 minutes is given to answer them. The math works out at 48 seconds per question.
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Since this is a closed book portion of the test, the questions will be more straight forward. If
you have done your home work, you will be prepared and should move through these very
quickly. The code portion of the test is based on which code you have chosen to test on. The
number of questions can range from 46 to 60 questions. You will know in advance how
many questions will be on your test, so do the math and plan your strategy. Do not go into
these tests with a mindset that you are going to go through them in sequence. Your strategy
is to do all the easy ones first. You need to control your stress level. Skipping the hard
questions and working the easy ones will help your confidence. Since you will be skipping
questions, you need to make certain you do not get out of sequence on the scantron sheets.
Every 10th question, verify that you are on proper alignment with the test question and the
scantron sheet number. Do not get hung up on a hard question. Skip it and move on. After
you have answered all the easy ones come back and work on the harder ones. Keep in mind
there is one correct answer out of the answer options. You can increase your odds by
crossing out the distracters; this can be done in the test booklet with the questions. When
the test supervisor advises time is running out leave the last five minutes to finish marking
answers. There are no points for unanswered questions. Answer them all!
No Extra Points for Finishing Early: These are timed tests. Do not be influenced or
intimidated by the person who turns in his/her answer sheet in the first hour. He or she may
very well have just surrendered and given up. Or they might be brilliant with a photographic
memory…. whatever the reason it is none of your concern because you are going to use all
your time. When you get through the questions the first time, go back and review the
difficult ones. These are the ones you will need to spend some extra time on. Keep in mind it
is ok to change an answer but it has been proven, over and over, that your first answer is
usually your best answer. Go with your gut feeling, unless you are 110% sure that your new
answer is correct. You are not competing with others in the room. These tests are not
typically scored on a curve. So do the best you can and finish all the test questions. You need
72% on each test portion to pass at the CWI level.
Maintain Your Focus: Do not get involved with the coffee clutch around the coffee pot or
water cooler during breaks or at lunch. Find a quiet area to relax, collect your thoughts and
prepare for the next phase of the examination. Have a plan and work your plan! Keep a
positive attitude.
Best of luck in your career as a welder.
Edward Bohnart
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Table of Alloying Elements
Steel is basically iron alloyed with carbon with certain additional elements to give the required
properties. Listed below is a summary of the effects that various alloying elements have on steel.
Symbol Element Effect

Al Aluminum Functions as a deoxidizer in steel
Iron, is alloyed with carbon to make steel. It has the effect of increasing the
C Carbon
hardness and strength.
To improve hot working properties and increase strength, toughness and
Mn Manganese
hardenability. It also combines with the sulfur to reduce hot cracking.
Increases resistance to corrosion. The resistance increases as more
chromium is added. 'Stainless Steel' must have a minimum of
Cr Chromium
approximately 12% chromium. It also effects heat treatment and can
improving hardenability and strength.
Is responsible for a great toughness and high strength at both high and low
Ni Nickel
temperatures. It also improves resistance to oxidation and corrosion.
Along with chromium-nickel austenitic steels, it will improves resistance to
pitting corrosion especially by chlorides and sulphur chemicals. In low alloy
Mo Molybdenum steels, it improves high temperature strengths and hardness. In the
chromium steels it reduces the degrading of these steels over time in
service or during heat treatment.
It is primarily used as a stabilizer to prevent chromium carbide sensitization.
It combines with carbon to form titanium carbides, which are quite stable
Ti Titanium
and hard to dissolve in steel, this tends to minimize the occurrence of inter-
granular corrosion.
It is usually added with sulphur to improve machinability in low alloy steels,
phosphorus, in small amounts, aids strength and corrosion resistance. For
P Phosphorus
welding it is generally considered a contaminant as it increases the
tendency of cracking to occur during welding.
As with phosphorus in small amounts sulphur improves machinability but
does cause hot shortness. Hot shortness is when a metal is brittle (cracks)
near it melting temperature. For welding it is generally considered a
S Sulphur
contaminant as it increases the tendency of hot cracking to occur during
welding. This type crack is generally in the center of the weld bead and is
sometime referred to as segregation cracking.
Se Selenium It is added to improve machinability.
It is added to steel primarily as a stabilizer to prevent chromium carbide
sensitization, as such performs in the same way as described for titanium. It
Nb Niobium
also has the effect of strengthening steels and alloys for high temperature
service.
It has the effect of increasing the austenitic stability of stainless steels.
N Nitrogen When added to austenitic stainless steels great improvements are seen in
yield strength.
It is used as a deoxidizer in the melting of steel, as a result, most steels
Si Silicon contain a small percentage of silicon. It is also used in various filler metals
and fluxes to help purify the weld metal.
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It is used in the preparation of magnets, wear-resistant and high-strength
alloys. It is highly radioactive when exposed to the intense radiation of
nuclear reactors. Any stainless steel that is in nuclear service will have a
Co Cobalt
cobalt restriction, generally at 0.2% maximum. Nickel alloyed steels are
used in many of these nuclear type application and cobalt is a residual
element in many of these nickel alloys steels.
Is chemically similar to niobium and has similar effects. In can be used for
Ta Tantalum stamping, deep drawing and for furnace application to slow grain growth at
elevated temperatures
It is normally present in stainless steels as a residual contaminant element.
Cu Copper However it is added to a few alloys to produce precipitation hardening
properties.
It is alloyed with steel and iron for high-speed tool steel, high-strength low-
V Vanadium alloy steel, and wear-resistant cast iron. It affects hardenability and
corrosion resistance.
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Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test- Section 1
Arc Welding Processes
1. The following schematic represents which welding process?
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
2. Electrodes for the shielded metal arc welding process are available to match the
_______ of most metals.
a. ductility and fatigue

b. density and plasticity
c. properties and strength
d. stress and hardness
e. color and finish
3. Power sources for the shielded metal arc welding process are known as
_________________.
a. constant voltage
b. constant potential
c. constant current
d. constant output
e. variable output
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4. All of the following can be supplied by a transformer-rectifier, EXCEPT:
a. a.c. power
b. DCEP power
c. DCEN power
d. ACHF
5. Arc voltage is when ______________.
a. the voltage is being generated between the electrode and the work
b. the machine is on idle; no welding is being done
c. the machine is off
d. the machine is converting to volts
e. the voltage is being generated between the output terminal of the power source
6. The duty cycle is the percentage of a given amount of time that a machine can operate
at the rated current without overheating or breaking down. On what time frame is a
duty cycle rated?
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 40 minutes
e. 1 hr.
7. A long welding arc ______.
a. decreases amperage
b. increases amperage
c. increases voltage
d. decreases voltage
e. Both a and c
8. The size of the coated electrode holder must be in line with the size of ____________.
a. the welding machine

b. the electrode
c. the weld cable
d. the work cable
e. input power
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9. What is the major function of the coating on an arc welding electrode?
a. Acts as a scavenger, removes oxides, and impurities

b. Influences incomplete penetration
c. Liquefies the base metal
d. Adds moisture and accelerates the cooling rate
e. Influences incomplete fusion
10. The welder should never use an electrode that is _______ the thickness of the base
metal.
a. less than
b. equal to or less than
c. equal to or greater than
d. larger than
e. smaller than
11. Which of the following is NOT a low hydrogen electrode?
a. E7015
b. E7014
c. E7016
d. E7018
e. E7028
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
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13. The heat necessary to weld with the gas tungsten arc welding process is produced by
_______.
a. gas flame
b. resistance heating
c. gas plasma (arc)
d. flux
e. chemical reaction
14. All of the following are functions of the arc welding torch, EXCEPT:
a. hold the tungsten

b. direct the electric current to the electrode
c. direct the shielding gas to the welding pool
d. cool the weld zone
15. Argon is an inert gas that shields the arc and weld pool from the atmosphere. It also
has the following characteristic:
a. High arc voltage for more heat

b. High thermal conductivity
c. High gas flow requirements because argon is lighter than air
d. Good arc starting
e. Poor arc starting
16. Square wave refers to the ____________.
a. shape of the filler metal

b. shape of the tungsten electrode
c. shape of the output power
d. shape of the power source control box
e. shape of the volt-amp curve
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17. Which of the following are appropriate arc starting methods for a process that uses a
tungsten electrode and gas shielding?
a. Poke, scratch, HF
b. Lift, bang, HF
c. Lift, scratch, HF
d. Scratch, slide, HF
e. Slip, slide, away
18. Direct current electrode negative produces 70% of the heat in the _____ and 30% of
the heat in the _____ .
a. shielding gas; electrode

b. arc; coolant
c. plate; electrode
d. current; electrode
e. electrode; plate
19. The welding of a 16 gauge (0.060”) thick stainless steel enclosure box for sophisticated
electronic components is being specified. It must be visually attractive and water
tight. Which of the following processes, current and polarity would be preferred for
this job?
a. SMAW a.c.
b. SMAW DCEP
c. GTAW a.c.
d. GTAW DCEN
e. GTAW DCEP
20. A 1.5% lanthanum electrode would be color coded ________ .
a. gold
b. red
c. green
d. brown
e. black
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21. A Tig torche gas nozzle size is indicated with a number 8 which indicates 8/16” or ½”.
What size tungsten would be appropriate to use with this gas nozzle?
a. 0.010 “
b. 1/16”
c. 1/8
d. ¼”
e. The gas nozzle size and electrode diameter have nothing to do with one another.
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
23. Match the mode of metal transfer with its proper illustration.
a. ___Spray
b. ___Globular
c. ___Short circuit
d. ___Pulse
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24. What type of power source is used for a process that uses a wire feeder to feed the
electrode into the welding arc and weld pool?
a. Constant Voltage
b. Constant Current
c. Constant Power
d. Drooper
e. Raiser
25. Which type of power source is most effective in providing all the various modes of
metal transfer?
a. Engine-driven generator
b. Transformer rectifier
c. Transformer
d. Batteries
e. Inverter
26. What takes place when the welding gun trigger is depressed by the welder?
a. Nothing unless the work cable is properly attached to the work.

b. The gas solenoid valve will activate, the wire feeder will start feeding wire, and
welding voltage will be applied to the output terminals.
c. The wire feeder control will turn on the power source will turn on, and the gas
cylinder valve will open.
d. The gun angle will be correct, electrode extension will be correct, and travel speed
will be properly set.
e. None of the above will occur just by pulling the gun trigger.
27. Shielding gases are used to protect the molten metal from _______.
a. heat and distortion

b. being overheated and cooling to fast
c. porosity and brittleness
d. being too cold and not penetrating
e. getting to lumpy and bumpy
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28. Which of the following is a reactive gas used for the shielding of a process that uses a
constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Argon plus carbon dioxide
d. Argon plus oxygen
e. All of the above
29. What type of electrodes must be used with a process the produces no flux residue
(slag) that covers the entire weld?
a. solid
b. metal cored
c. flux cored
d. coated with flux
e. Both a and b
30. Which of the following should be adjusted to control the amperage (current) with a
process that uses a constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a
welding gun?
a. Wire feed speed on the feeder

b. Gas flow rate on the flow meter/regulator
c. The output terminal electrode negative or electrode positive
d. Voltage on the power source
e. Push or pull travel gun angle
31. All of the following applications would be applicable to the AWS electrode
classification number in the illustration, EXCEPT:
a. A filler rod for the GTAW or Tig process

b. An electrode for GMAW or Mig process
c. Have 70ksi tensile strength
d. Metal cored for increased deposition
15
32. If incomplete penetration and fusion are a problem with a process that uses a
constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun, the
length of electrode extending beyond the contact tube should be ______.
a. lengthened
b. shortened
c. kept the same; it would have no effect on penetration or fusion
d. whipped back and forth in the direction of travel
e. weaved from side to side
a. GMAW
b. FCAW gas shielded
c. FCAW self shielded
d. PAW
e. SAW
34. Which gun travel angle is used for a process that produces a slag that covers the entire
weld, to keep the slag from running ahead of the weld pool?
a. Push
b. Work
c. Lead
d. Lag
e. Drag
35. All of the following power sources are used for a process that uses a constant voltage
power source and a constant speed wire feeder, EXCEPT:
a. C.V.
b. C.C.
c. Constant Voltage
d. Constant Potential
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36. The electrode extension for the gas shielding version of a process that produces a slag
that covers the entire weld should be approximately _____ inches.
a. ¼ to ½
b. 3/8 to 1-1/2
c. ¼ to 1-1/2
d. ¾ to 2
e. ¼-2-1/2
a. GMAW
d. PAW
e. SAW
38. A process that uses a constant voltage power source, a constant speed wire feeder
and has separate flux and electrode provided can be applied by using various
methods. All of the following methods can be used, EXCEPT:
a. Manual
b. Semi-automatic
c. Mechanized
d. Automatic
39. Weld backing is used with a process that uses a separate flux and electrode to
_______ .
a. support the highly fluid weld pool so it will not fall through the joint
b. make the material thicker where it is needed
c. provide more weight to the weldment
d. make the overall weld joint stiffer
e. act as a starting and run off tabs
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40. Which of the following operating variables is most effective for controlling the
deposition rate for those processes that utilize a wire feeder in the welding circuit?
a. Voltage
b. Travel speed
c. Gun angle
d. Wire feed speed
e. Amperage
Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test – Section 2

Heat Control and Metallurgy
41. What two elements are used in the making of steel?
a. Granite and coke

b. Limestone and oxygen
c. Slag and dross
d. Carbon and iron
e. Alloys and iron
42. In which grain orientation direction does rolled steel have its greatest strength?
a. With the grain (X)

b. Across the grain (Y)
c. Through the grain (Z)
d. Diagonal across the grain (D)
e. They are all the same strength
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43. Metallurgy is the study of the physical and mechanical properties of metals. Which of the
following would not be considered a physical property of a metal?
a. Unknowneum
b. Melting point
c. Magnetic
d. Thermal conductivity
e. Coefficient of Thermal Expansion
44. _________ is the weight of a volume of material compared with an equal volume of water.
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Heft
e. Both a and b
45. Porosity means _________.
a. how dense a material is

b. how well a material will let a fluid pass through it
c. how tall the material is
d. how much a material weighs compared to an equal volume of water
e. how much the cross section area will expand or contract
46. Loading of a material will cause it to lose its form. The ability of the material to return to its
original shape after the load has been removed is known as its ________.
a. plasticity
b. impact property
c. hardness
d. fatigue
e. elasticity
47. The endurance limit of a material must be considered when concerned about which property?
a. Hardness
b. Tensile strength
c. Yield strength
d. Fatigue
e. Impact
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48. Which of the following elements are used in the making of steel?
a. Carbon, silicon, manganese

b. Krypton, neon, lanthanum
c. Thorium, cesium, lithium
d. Draconian, needium, unobtanium
e. Hydrogen, oxygen, nitronium
49. A medium carbon steel has a carbon content of what percentage range?
a. 0.05% to 0.15%
b. 0.16% to 0.60%
c. 0.60% to 1.70%
d. 1.70% to 2.15%
e. 2.15% to 3.00%
50. Distortion in weldments can occur in which direction?
a. Longitudinal
b. Transvers
c. Diagonal
d. Both longitudinal and transverse
e. Both transverse and diagonal
51. Which of the following methods can be used for controlling expansion and contraction forces?
a. Sequencing the welds

b. Joint design
c. Presetting the joint
d. Welding on both sides of the joint vs. just on one side
e. All of the above
52. Questions 52 and 53 are based on the following illustration. When a weld solidifies there are
tremendous contacting forces present. This is simulated in the weldment by an illustration of
a ‘Spring’. Which of the following terms defines the Spring in a weldment?
a. Tensile forces
b. Compressive forces
c. Distortion forces
d. Residual stresses
e. Bending forces
20
53. Which of the following will NOT relieve the spring in the illustration for question number 12?
a. Preheating
b. Peening
c. Vibratory stress relieving
d. Cryogenic stress relieving
e. External restraint
54. A method used to put the toe of a weld in compression instead of tension to reduce distortion
and prevent cracking is called ________.
a. Channeling
b. Peening
c. Slugging
d. Forging
e. Extruding
55. Which of the following occurs if the tempering temperature is increased?
a. Hardness decreases
b. Hardness increases
c. Elongation decreases
d. Ductility decreases
e. Strength increases
56. Decreasing the base metals temperature will:
a. Increase hardness
b. Decrease ductility
c. Increase tensile strength
d. Decrease impact strength
e. All of the above
57. Match the various types of stress with the illustration of each.
a. ____Torsion – A turning or twisting action.

b. ____Bending – Pressure applied to force away
from a straight line.
c. ____Tension – A pulling action.
d. ____Compression – The application of Pressure.
e. ____Shear – A pulling action causing two
bodies to slide on each other, parallel
to their plane of contact.
21
58. A weld begins to cool along the weld interface next to the imaginary mold. The ____ begin to
grow in regions that specifically trigger their growth, such as at points of contaminations. Thus
they are considered points of weakness.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
e. partial solidification
59. If a liquid weld pool is at a very high level of energy, at what approximate temperature 0F will
the steel begin to solidify?
a. 1333
b. 2780
c. 3200
d. 3780
e. None of the above
60. The liquid weld metal leaving the pool forms into the ______ next to the imaginary mold.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
61. If a weld cools too rapidly, all of the carbon will not have gotten into the proper places. A very
hard, brittle, crystalline structure is created. What is it called?
a. Pearlite
b. Bainite
c. Austenite
d. Martensite
e. Ferrite
22
62. The last to fill is the middle top of the weld. This area will contain all the low melting point
constituents in the weld pool, like sulfur, phosphorus, copper etc…, while alloys like ______,
will prevent the sulfur from causing centerline cracking or hot cracking as it is known.
a. Nickel
b. Molybdenum
c. Manganese
d. Vanadium
e. Titanium
63. Other alloying elements known as scavengers and deoxidizers, like _______, can be used to
purify the weld metal.
a. chrome and tungsten

b. iron and carbon
c. cobalt and tantalum
d. aluminum and silicon
e. niobium and hafnium
64. The separations between the crystals are known as the ______.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
65. A Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) is being accurately accomplished by a qualified

welder. The WPS is calling for a fast travel speed, stringer beads, low voltage (short arc
length), high amperage (wire feed speed) specific preheat and interpass temperature. The size
of the solidified grain will have a large effect on the weld and heat affected zones mechanical
properties. Large solidified grains typically have less strength and impact properties than do
finer solidified grain structures. This WPS will have what effect on the size of the grains?
a. Make them larger.

b. Make them smaller.
c. This WPS only affects heat input not grain size.
d. The WPS is just for show; the welder will weld it as they choose, grain size is not important.
23
66. The atomic size of the alloy elements affect how the alloying is accomplished. Review the
illustration on alloying and select the appropriate alloying method(s).
a. Substitutional
b. Interstitial
c. Pure
d. Combination
e. Both a and b
67. What does the abbreviation PWHT stand for?
a. Pulseweld Hammer Test

b. Post Weld Hammer Test
c. Postweld Heat Treatment
d. Pulse Weld Heat Treatment
68. What is the A-No. for a ferrous weld metal that has an analysis of 0.15% carbon, 15.0%
chrome, 15% nickel, 2.5% manganese and 1.0% silicon and 4.0% molybdenum?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
69. A WPS was qualified on coated steel. The coating consisted of zinc, often referred to as
‘galvanized’. In production, however, they are welding on uncoated steel. Is the WPS still
valid?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Not enough information
d. The WPS is valid but the welder will need to be requalified.
24
70. A shipyard is working on an aluminum supper structure for a research vessel. The WPS has
been qualified and approximately 30 welders are working per shift around the clock. The WPS
simply states:
GMAW, Spray Arc, 100% Argon, 45 CFH, M23 base metal, F22 filler metal, 0.062 diameter
electrode wire, wire feed speed, amperage, weave beads and voltage are appropriate.
However the gas flow rate seems excessive. What is the maximum allowable CFH flow rate
allowable per this WPS?
a. 45
b. 65
c. 75
d. 90

Welding Examination
71. Match the joint names with the illustration.
_____Lap joint-workpieces that are approximately parallel with nonbutting ends that overlap one
another
_____Butt joint-workpieces with butting ends lined up in the same plane
_____T-joint-workpieces with one butting end of a member is lined up perpendicular with a
surface of a nonbutting member
_____Edge joint-workpieces with one or more nonbutting ends lie approximately parallel
_____Corner joint-workpieces with butting or nonbutting ends of one or members come together
and form a right angle
25
72. Match the types of welds with the illustration.
_____Fillet (circular)- deposited in right angle formed by

two plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
_____Spot-an arc spot weld by penetration through the
top plate (no hole) and fusing into the one below
_____Groove-go in the joint, can be loaded in any
direction
_____Surfacing-Used to build up pad of metal and to
replace
metal on worn surfaces. Not in a joint.
_____Plug-weld placed in a hole
_____Slot-weld placed in an elongated hole, (slot)
_____Fillet-deposited in right angle formed by two plates,
goes on a joint not in the joint
73. Fillet welds go on a joint and are triangular shaped. They are most capable of handling shear
type stresses (loads). Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated fillet weld on a T-
joint.
_____Weld Face-is the portion most visible when viewing a

weld
_____Weld Toe-is a line, where the face of the weld blends into
the base metal
_____Weld Leg-distance from the beginning of the joint and
the weld toe
_____Fillet Weld-a triangular shaped weld, setting on the joint
_____Weld Root-how far the weld extends into the joint
26
type stresses (loads). Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated concave fillet
weld on a T-joint. The letter indicators in the illustration may be used in more than one
answer.
___ Theoretical Throat is the shortest of the three throats and weakest part of the weld. Design
engineers use the theoretical throat dimension when calculating the size of the weld,
which needs to match the shear load this weld will see in service along with safety margins.
It is measured from the start of the joint directly to largest right triangle that can be
inscribed in the weld.
___Effective Throat- Because this is a concave fillet weld the effective and actual throats are
identical. It is measured from the weld root directly to the largest right triangle that can be
___Actual Throat-see effective throat because this is a concave weld. As the name implies it is
what is actually their as measure from the weld root directly to the face of the weld.
___Concavity is the distance from a straight line drawn from toe to toe to the face of the weld.
It is measure perpendicular to that straight line and at the greatest distance. Generally the
size of the weld is measured not the concavity of the weld.
___Size of the weld is measured from the plate to the largest right triangle that can be inscribed
in the weld. Note the vertical and horizontal aspects of this measurement.
___Leg of the weld is measured from the plate to the toe of the weld. Note the vertical and
horizontal aspects of this measurement.
75. Which of the following best describes an interruption in the typical flow or nature of the
structure of a material, where the interruption or flow issue does not exceed the
requirements of the welding specification?
a. Flaw
b. Discontinuity
c. Defect
d. Homogeneous
27
76. To visually inspect a fillet weld, you must know the ___________ ___________. If code work
is being done, it will be invoked in the contract documents. If code work is not being done,
then a welding specification should be written which describes what makes the weld
acceptable or rejectable.
a. welding procedure
b. welder performance
c. procedure qualification
d. acceptance criteria
e. profile list
77. Which of the following is not a legitimate acceptance standard for a typical fillet weld? Review
the sample visual inspection specification.
a. Undercut
b. Professionally sound looking weld
c. Porosity
d. Profile
e. Size
78. What type of indication has a very high ratio of length and width to its opening displacement?
It also has a sharp tip.
a. Cracks
b. Craters
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
79. As shown in the illustration , the _________ is the low area at the stopping point of a weld.
a. Fusion
b. Crater
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
28
80. The following scenario applies to questions 80 through 82. The size of a fillet weld is shown on
the drawing. When measuring the size of a fillet weld you must first determine if the weld is
convex, concave or flat. This will determine the type of weld gauge to use. What is position “A”
on this illustration measuring?
a. Flatness
b. Concavity
c. Flushness
d. Convexity
e. Both a and b
81. On a shop drawing, a 5/16 weld size is specified. If the “A” in the illustration is measured to be
3/16 of an inch, is it acceptable per the following table?
a. Yes
b. No WELD LEG SIZE MAXIMUM “A”
dimension
LEG SIZE = 1/8” 1/16”
TO 1/4”
LEG SIZE = 5/16” 3/32”
TO 5/8”
LEG SIZE = 3/4” 1/8”
TO 1.0”
82. The ______ throat is the shortest distance from the weld root to the face of the weld. Refer to
the illustration used in question 80.
a. theoretical
b. effective
c. actual
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
29
83. Use the following scenario in questions 83 and 84. A 5/16 convex fillet weld gauge is being
used to check the weld fillet weld size on this T-joint. What is the horizontal weld size (leg)?
a. Cannot tell for certainty

b. 5/16 inch
c. A little under 5/16 inch
d. Wrong gauge is being used
e. A little over 5/16 inch
84. What is the size of the vertical weld size (leg) from question 83?
a. Cannot tell
b. 5/16 inch
85. What is the size of this concave weld and is the proper gauge being used correctly?
a. 5/16 inch and the proper concave side of the gauge is

being used.
b. 5/16 inch and the convex side of the gauge should be
used.
c. 5/16 inch and either side of the gauge can be used.
d. 5/16 inch and not certain if it is being used correctly.
e. 5/16 inch and concave gauge touches in three points
(the vertical member, horizontal member and in the middle
of the weld).
86. Which is NOT a true statement when using a fillet weld gauge?
a. Use the correct gauge for convex or concave weld.

b. The gauge is held perpendicular to the surface it is in contact with.
c. The gauge needs to be tight against the surface it is in contact with.
d. Day light under the gauge means the weld is smaller than the gauge.
e. Squareness of the joint is not an issue and the gauge will work equally well on any angle.
30
87. In the illustration of weld profiles, which of the following is NOT an unacceptable fillet weld
profile?
a. Incomplete fusion
b. Overlap
c. Excessive convexity
d. Excessive concavity
e. Insufficient throat
88. __________ is a groove melted into the base metal next to the weld toe or weld root and has
not been filled in.
a. Cracks
b. Craters
c. Porosity
d. Under fill
e. Undercut
89. A non-critical fillet weld is being measured in the illustration. Is the undercut acceptable?
a. Yes
b. No
31
90. The photograph is showing what type of discontinuity?
a. Fusion
b. Crater
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
91. If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is referred to as:
a. Incomplete penetration
b. Incomplete bonding
c. Incomplete inclusion
d. Incomplete fusion
92. Match the names and terms with the illustration.
_____Fusion face-the original surface of the joint prior to welding

_____Weld interface-where the weld stops and heat affected zone
begins
_____Depth of fusion-how deep into the base metal the weld goes
beyond the fusion face
_____Incomplete penetration-lack of penetration of the weld into

the joint
93. Where in the illustration is the weld root?
a. Location a
b. Location b
32
94. Match the names with the fillet weld profile issues.
___Excess Convexity
___Concavity
___Wash
95. Groove welds go in the joint. They are capable of absorbing any type of load if properly made
and sized. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Weld Face-is the portion most visible when viewing a weld

___Weld Toe-is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
___Face reinforcement
___Root reinforcement
96. Since groove welds go into the joint, they get their strength from how far they penetrate into
the joint. Match the penetration feature names to the various parts of this illustrated square
groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Groove weld with reinforcement

___Incomplete joint penetration
___Root penetration
33
97. Which of the following is NOT a legitimate acceptance standard for a typical groove weld?
a. Undercut
b. Ripple pattern
c. Porosity
d. Profile
e. Size
98. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated V-groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Heat affected zone- has been heated to a point that

a microstructure change has occurred in the
material, but it has not melted.
___ Weld metal- has totally melted and is an add
mixture of the filler metal (electrode), the base
metal that has been melted and any alloying fluxes
from the welding process being used.
___ Base metal- has not melted or gotten hot enough to
undergo any microstructure change
99. The following groove weld profile illustration shows acceptable and unacceptable groove
welds. Which is NOT an unacceptable profile?
a. Excessive undercut
b. Overlap
c. Excessive weld reinforcement
d. Underfill
e. Incomplete fusion
34
100. The illustrations are of groove welds on a corner and butt-joint. Which discontinuity is being
shown?
b. Overlap
c. Inclusion
e. Underfill
101. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated groove weld.
____Undercut face
____Overlap face
____Overlap root
____Undercut root
102. Which word best describes the discontinuity in the illustrated groove weld.
a. Excess concavity
b. Underfill
c. Undercut
d. Excess convexity
e. Excess lumpiness
35
103. Which location is the weld root?
a. Location a
b. Location b
104. Weld start and stopping points have typically the highest probability of discontinuities. So, with
multi-pass welding, the start and stop on each bead and layer should be lined up as shown in
the photograph so they can be more easily inspected and repaired.
a. True
b. False
105. Other types of welds like surface, plug, slot and spot welds may have different criteria than
fillet and groove welds. This is based on their nature of service and the type of loads they will
encounter.
a. True
b. False
36
Welding Performance
106. Welding performance is concerned with the capabilities of a qualified welder or welding
operator to make an acceptable weld while following a qualified welding procedure
specification. This is evidenced by passing the welding performance qualification test(s) as
required per a specific code or welding specification.
a. True
b. False
107. Match all the names with the appropriate definition.
___Welding Performance Qualification Record (WPQR)

___Welding Procedure Specification (WPS)
___Prequalified-Welding Procedure Specification (P-WPS)
___Standard-Welding Procedure Specification (SWPS)
___Mock Up
___Procedure Qualification Test Record
a. The recording of all the parameters on a form that if followed will produce sound welds and
mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose intended.
b. Purchasing a form that someone else has qualified that if followed will produce sound welds and
c. The form used to record all the exact parameters necessary for the passing of all the required
tests prior to a welding procedure specification being qualified.
d. The form used to record all the data when a welder or welding operator is being qualified.
e. A scale or full size model made of a joint that will be tested and approved for production work.
f. Some codes allow the use of data tables for parameters, base metal/filler metal matching
strength, preheats, joint design to be assembled onto a form for the intended purpose of
producing sound welds and mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose intended.
108. A recipe to a chef is like a __________________ to a welder.
a. WPQR
b. WPS
c. PQR
d. Code
37
109. To determine if a welder is qualified, the welder must pass a ________________ test.
a. WPQR
b. WPS
c. PQR
d. Code
110. If the ____________ is changed, the welding procedure and the welder qualification may no
longer be qualified.
a. code
b. welding specification
c. essential variable
d. left or right hand
e. direction of the weld from toward to away from the welder
Use the following Performance Qualification Essential Variable list to answer questions 111 – 114 and
116.
The following is a list of Performance Qualification Essential Variables for a project:

• A change in welding processes
• The deletion of backing
• A change in filler metal F-Number except as allowed in the specification or code
• A change in base metal except as permitted in the specification or code
• For GTAW, a change from alternating current to direct current or vice versa, or a change in
polarity
• A change in welding position from that qualified on the WPQR except as permitted
• A change in vertical weld progression from downhill to uphill, or vice versa.
• For GMAW, a change from spray transfer, globular transfer, or pulse transfer to short-
circuiting transfer; or vice versa
• A change in thickness and or diameter from that tested except as allowed in the
specification or code
111. A welder who is qualified in the GMAW process is required to change the shielding gas
mixture. Is the welder qualified to change the gas or will they have to take a test with this new
shielding gas mixture?
a. The welder is qualified.

b. The welder will have to be tested with this new gas mixture.
c. There is not enough information to answer the question.
38
112. A welder using the SMAW process is changing from DCEP (direct current electrode positive) to
AC (alternating current) to eliminate magnetic arc blow (magnetic fields deflecting the arc)
problems. Is the welder still qualified?
a. Yes
b. No
113. New equipment has been purchased in a shop doing GMAW, including inverter technology
machines. These machines were purchased because of their ability to run the pulse mode of
metal transfer. The shop has been using the regular spray mode of metal transfer. Will all the
welders in the shop have to be requalified?
a. Yes
b. No
114. A welder was qualified on the illustrated single bevel groove weld on a butt joint in the
horizontal position. Now the welder is being asked to make the same type weld in the same
position but without the backing bar. Is the welder qualified to make that weld?
a. Yes
b. No
115. This question is based on the scenario in question number 114. According to the table on
sample position limits for performance tests, in what other position can the welder perform
the weld?
a. F
b. H
c. V
d. O
e. F and H
39
116. A welder qualified on pipe in the 5G position. The welder started on the bottom of the pipe
(6:00 o’clock position) and welded upwards toward the top of the pipe (12:00 o’clock
position). On the job, the welder is told to weld from top to bottom for the reason that it will
be a lot faster and just as good. Is the welder qualified to make this weld?
a. Yes
b. No
117. A welder used an F3 electrode when performing a qualification test. What other F number
electrodes can that welder use when making production welds?
a. Only the F3
b. Only F3X filler metals
c. F3 and any higher F number
d. F3 and any lower F number
e. F4
118. A welder qualification test was conducted using an aluminum 1100 alloy designation which
carries an M-21 Number. Is it ok to have the welding candidate weld on an aluminum 7005
(T53) alloy and temper designation which carries an M-27 Number?
a. Yes
b. No
40
119. Welders have been qualified to weld razor blade thickness materials together. Now they are
being asked to weld thick plates together. Does this present any issues?
a. Yes. This would be a significant change in thickness of the material and weld deposit
thickness. Welders are qualified in ranges of plate or pipe wall thickness or deposit
thickness. On pipe or tubing, the diameter must also be considered.
b. No. As long as the same welding process is being used and they have a qualified welding
procedure specification for the work, there are no issues.
120. A welder is a person who does manual and semiautomatic welding applications. This requires
a great deal of eye-hand manipulative skills as well as knowledge of the equipment. A welding
operator is a person who does mechanized, automatic or robotic applications. The welding
operator must be capable of setting up, adjusting and basic troubleshooting of the welding
process and equipment being used. However, the welding operator may have no manipulative
skills for manual or semi-automatic welding. Therefore, the essential welding variables differ
between the two. One difference is that a welder may use remote or direct visual control of
the weld. Remote would be like watching the weld on a monitor while using a joy-stick to
control the weld pool. Direct would be direct visual observation of the weld pool and controls
or vice versa. This would be an essential variable for a welding operator as described.
a. True
b. False
121. To qualify a welder with standard tests, the specification must identify those tests. See the
sample examination requirements for performance qualifications. The radiograph can be used
in lieu of the bend test. A welder using the GMAW process is qualifying using the radiograph
instead of the bend test. Which mode(s) of metal transfer does not allow this option?
a. Spray
b. Pulse
c. Globular
d. Short-Circuit
e. Both a and b
41
122. A pipe welder is being qualified on a 4 in. schedule 40 pipe (1/4 in. wall thickness) with a
complete penetration V-groove on a butt joint. The pipe is fixed and the pipe axis is
horizontal. How many bend test specimens are required?
a. Not enough information

b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
e. None. It will be radiographed.
123. Another way of qualifying a welder, other than by a standard

test, is a workmanship test. Workmanship weldments are
accepted or rejected primarily based solely upon visual
inspection. A typical workmanship test weldment is shown in
the illustration. What is being tested?
a. Fillet welds
b. Groove welds
c. T, lap, and butt joints
d. Edge and plug welds
e. All of the above
124. For groove welds, the bend test is commonly used for performance qualifications. The weld
and the heat affected zone must be in the bend radius. The bend test is used to test for
_______.
a. tensile strength
b. fatigue
c. impact
d. soundness
e. yield strength
125. For fillet welds, the fillet weld break test is commonly used for performance qualifications.
The weld generally will break if the root of the weld is placed in tension. Does the fillet break
test specimen in the illustration show the force being placed in the proper direction to
accomplish this?
a. Yes
b. No
42
126. The macro examination of a weld is accomplished by cutting into the weld perpendicular to
the direction of the weld. The cut surface is then polished and etched with an acid solution to
provide a clear definition of the weld metal, heat affected zone (HAZ) and the unaffected base
metal. In this process, the cross section of the fillet weld (polished etched surface) is being
examined for which of the following?
b. Cracks
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
127. A welding operator is being qualified. What is the length of the end pieces that will either be
discarded or used in a macroetch test?
a. 1 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 4 in.
d. 4-1/2 in.
e. 6 in.
128. Why are WPS essential variables more involved than welder or operator performance
qualifications?
a. Soundness of the weld must be determined

b. Mechanical properties have to be tested
c. Impact properties maybe required
d. Fatigue properties maybe required
e. All of the above
43
Use the following scenario to answer questions 129 – 135.
Limitations on the thickness ranges qualified by procedure qualification tests are given in the
Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for Procedure Qualification
table below. A WPS is being qualified on a 2 in. pipe with a wall thickness of 1 in. The root and
half of the V-groove will be filled with multi pass filler metal from the GTAW process. The
other half will be filled with multi pass electrodes using the SMAW process.
129. The WPS will be usable on what range of base metal thickness?
a. 3/16 in. through 3 in.

b. 1 in. through 2 in.
c. 2 in. through 3 in.
d. 3/8 in. through 1 in.
e. 3/16 in. through 2 in.
44
130. What is the maximum thickness of GTAW weld metal that can be deposited with this WPS?
a. 3/8 in.
b. ½ in.
c. ¾ in.
d. 1 in.
e. 2 in.
131. A WPS is being qualified on a 3/8 in. thick plate with the GMAW-S process and mode of metal
transfer. What is the range this WPS is qualified for?
a. 3/16 in. through < 0.4125 in.

b. ¾ in. through ½ in.
c. 3/16 in. through ¾ in.
d. 3/16 in. < 0.4125 in.
132. A WPS is being qualified on a 5/8 in. thick plate with the SAW process using multiple
electrodes but in a single pass. What is the maximum thickness this WPS is qualified for?
a. 3/16 in.
b. 0.6875 in.
c. 11/16 in.
d. 1-1/4 in.
e. Both b and c
133. A WPS is being qualified on ½ in. thick M-11 steel plate using a T-joint. The FCAW-S process is
being used to make a single pass weld of 5/16 in. size and a multi pass weld of 3/8 in. in size.
Using the below Sample Thickness and Size Limitations for Fillet Welds for Procedure
Qualification table, this WPS will be good for what size single pass fillet welds in production?
a. Unlimited
b. 2T
c. 5/16 in. and smaller
d. 1/2 in.
e. 2t
45
134. Use the following illustration to answer questions 136 and 137. To qualify a WPS on groove
welds, what tests are required?
a. visual examination
b. guided bend test
c. tension test
d. fracture toughness (if specified in documents)
e. All of the above
135. Which of the following is NOT a test requirement for a fillet weld for WPS qualification?
b. bend test
c. shear test
d. bend-break
e. macro-examination
Continue to the next page.
46
Use the following to answer questions 136 – 137.
Sample list of Procedure Qualification Essential Variables for GMAW:
Joint Design
• A change from a fillet weld to a groove weld
• A change in M-Number or backing
• The addition of thermal backgouging on heat-treatable materials
Base Metals
• A change in base metal thickness beyond range stated
• A change from one M-Number base metal to another M-Number base metal or to a
combination of M-Number base metals except as permitted in the specification
• A change from one unlisted base metal to a different unlisted base metal or to a listed base
metal or vice versa
• A change from an uncoated metal to a coated (such as painted or galvanized) metal unless the
coating is removed from the weld area prior to welding, but not vice versa, except as
permitted in the specification
Filler Metals
• A change from one F-Number to any other F-Number or any other filler metal not listed in the
specification
• For ferrous materials, a change from one A-Number or to a filler metal analysis not listed in
the specification
• A change in filler metal strength exceeding 10,000 psi (69 Mpa) or a change in filler metal
classification to a strength lower than the specified minimum tensile strength designator of
the base metal
• Addition or deletion, or a change in the nominal amount of composition of supplementary
metal (in addition to filler metal) beyond that qualified
• A change in the weld metal thickness beyond that permitted in the specification
Position
• A change from any position to the vertical position, uphill progression. Vertical uphill
progression qualifies all positions.
Preheat and Interpass Temperature

• A decrease in preheat of more than 1000F (380C) from that qualified
• For heat-treatable materials an increase in the preheat or interpass temperature of more than
1000F (380C) from that qualified
Postweld Heat Treatment

• For the following M-Numbers 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, and 12, a change from any one
condition to any other requires requalification:
o No PWHT (post weld heat treatment)
o PWHT below the lower transformation temperature
o PWHT within the transformation temperature range
o PWHT above the upper transformation temperature
47
o PWHT above the upper transformation temperature, followed by treatment below the
lower transformation temperature
• For all materials not covered above, a separate PQR is required for no PWHT and PWHT
Shielding Gas
• Addition or deletion of torch shielding gas
• A change in the specified nominal composition of shielding gas
• For M-51, M-52, M-61 and M-101 base metal, a change in the nominal composition or a
decrease of 15% in the root shielding flow rate
• For M-21 through M-47, an increase of 50% or more, or a decrease of 20% or
more in the shielding gas flow rate used for qualification
• The addition, deletion, or a change in the composition, or a decrease exceeding 15% in the
flow rate of a root shielding gas on single-sided M-4X grove joints and for all welds in M-51
• For M-10I, M-51 through M-54, and M-61 and M-62, the deletion of, or a change in
composition of, or a decrease exceeding 10% in the trailing gas flow rate
Electrical Characteristics
• A change in the mode of metal transfer from short circuiting to globular, spray, or pulsed and
vice versa
Other Variables
• A change in welding process
A change from stringer to a weave bead, but not vice versa, for M-23, M-24, M-26, and M-27 heat-
treatable materials
136. The welding supervisor wants consistency of weld appearance on all the shifts. She has
informed all welders that stringer beads are to be used. Weave beads will no longer be
acceptable. After considering the Procedure Essential Variables, can stringer beads be
acceptable?
a. Yes
b. No
d. No for the procedure, yes for the welders
137. Which of the following essential variables, if changed, will impact both the WPS and the
welder qualification?
a. Shielding Gas Composition

b. To a filler metal strength that exceeds 10,000 psi greater than what was qualified on
c. Change from GMAW to FCAW
d. The addition of backing to the weld joint
48
Welding Definitions and Terminology
138. Match the following trade and colloquial terms with the appropriate definition:
____ Bell hole weld a. The electrode holder or a welding torch or gun where
you might get an electrical shock or “sting”.
____ Dual Shield b. The improper term for a coated electrode used with the
shielding metal arc welding process.
____ Heliarc c. A flux cored electrode that is used without a shielding
gas, it is self shielded much like a coated electrode
turned inside out.
____ Innershield d. A light duty electrode holder attached to a short
(approx. 10 feet) light duty electrode lead, to make it
light and very flexible for the welder to handle.
____ Land e. A flux cored electrode that requires an additional
shielding gas.
____ Rod f. An arc welding process that was developed using helium
as a shielding gas and tungsten as a non-consumable
electrode.
____ Stinger g. A fixed position butt joint being welded on a cross-
country pipe line, that is located at the bottom of a
trench dug out to give the welders access to the joint.
____ Whip h. Is a metal also known as white metal, zinc die-cast, and
is a colloquial term referring to alloys like zinc, lead,
copper, tin, magnesium, and aluminum that consist of
inexpensive, low-melting point metals used to make fast,
inexpensive castings.
____ Pot metal i. The portion of a pipe joint that comes together closest
and is usually an area or surface.
49
139. Match up the terms with the illustration and definitions for a butt joint groove before it is
welded:
Bevel ____
Bevel angle ____
Bevel radius ____
Groove angle ____
Groove face ____
Joint root ____
Root edge ____
Root face ____
Root opening ____
A. is the angle between the bevel and a perpendicular line from the plate surface
B. is the included angle between the groove faces
C. is the root with no width or thickness
D. is the radius used to form a J-groove or U-groove type joint
E. is that portion of the groove face that appears in the joint root
F. is the separation of the joint where the two members come together
G. is where the members come together closest, it may be a point, a line or an area in cross
section
H. is an angular shape on the joint
I. is any surface in a joint prior to welding
50
140. Match the terms with the illustration for a butt joint groove after it is welded. Definitions for
each corresponding reference letter is provided below.
Base metal zone (BMZ) ____

Depth of fusion ____
Face reinforcement ____
Fusion face ____
heat affected zone (HAZ) ____
root reinforcement ____
root surface ____
weld face ____
weld interface ____
weld root ____
weld toe ____
Weld metal zone (WMZ) ____
A. is the most exposed surface of a weld as you look at it from the direction it was
made
B. is the reinforcement from the side the weld was made
C. is the line where the weld face blends into the base metal
D. is the surface of the base metal that is melted during welding
E. is the boundary between the weld metal and the heat affected zone
F. is that area of the base metal that did not melt but became hot
enough to undergo a microstructure or mechanical change
G. is the reinforcement that occurs on the side opposite where the weld
was made
H. is the location where the weld fused deepest into the joint
I. is where the joint comes closest together
J. is the base metal that has not undergone any microstructure or mechanical changes due
to the welding
K. is how far beyond the fusion face the weld metal has melted into the base metal
L. is the solidified weld which is an admixture of the electrode (filler rod), base metal and any
alloys present in the flux or coating on the electrode.
51
141. Match up the terms with the illustration and definitions for a butt joint groove after it is
welded:
depth of bevel ____

groove weld size ____
incomplete joint penetration ____
root penetration ____
A. is that area of the base metal that did not melt but became hot enough to undergo a
microstructure or mechanical change
B. is the perpendicular distance from the surface of the base metal to the to the start of the
root.
C. is how far the weld penetrated into the joint minus any face reinforcement.
D. is how far the weld has penetrated into the root of the joint
E. is the section of the joint root where penetration did not occur. If the weld was designed to
be a complete joint penetration weld (CJP) and it is not, then it is a discontinuity and is known
as incomplete penetration. If the weld was designed to be a partial joint penetration weld
(PJP) then it is not a discontinuity and should not be called incomplete joint penetration and
is just referred to as PJP.
142. Use the following information to answer questions 142 and 143. The American Welding
Society (AWS) describes the weld positions with a numbering system. For a plate, it is 1
through 4, from the easiest weld position (1) to the most difficult weld position (4). The
illustrations represent these four positions. What number would indicate the horizontal
position?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
143. What number would indicate the vertical position?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
52
144. For pipe, the numbering system is 1, 2, 5 and 6, from easiest to most difficult. Label the
following illustrations with the appropriate number.
a. ____ b. ____ c. ____ d. ____
145. Using the illustrations and table, what is the welding position of the fillet weld on the T-joint
at location 2? The axis of the weld is horizontal or 00 and the face rotation is 2250.
1 2 3 4
a. 1F
b. 2F
c. 2G
d. Horizontal fillet
e. Both b and d
53
146. The illustration and table are for groove weld positions. If a groove weld is being made with
the weld axis of 450 and the face rotation of 2700, what would be the correct position and type
of weld?
a. 1G
b. 2G
c. Horizontal fillet
d. Overhead groove
147. From the workmanship weldments, how many 2F welds are made?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
148. One of the four welding positions has progression. Progression is the direction of the way a
weld is made. This is considered an essential variable for the welder and the welding
procedure. Which of the following positions does progression apply to?
a. Flat
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Overhead
54
149. Use the following information to answer questions 149 and 150. Review the illustration for
fillet and groove weld electrode angles. This angle can also be considered for welding guns or
welding torches. What is another term for the forehand travel angle?
a. Drag
b. Static
c. Work
d. Backhand
e. Push
150. The fillet weld is being made on the T-joint with a joint angle of 900 and the groove weld is
being made on a butt joint with a joint angle of 1800. The rule for the proper work angle is to
get equal heat into both members being welded together. To get equal heat into both
members of the T-joint, the work angle should be ____ and the work angle for the butt joint
should be ____.
a. 900 and 1800

b. 450 and 900
c. 1800 and 900
d. 900 and 450
151. The illustration depicts the travel and work angles for pipe welding. What is the weld
progression?
a. Downhill
b. Uphill
c. No progression specified
d. No progression considered on a 5G pipe position
55
152. According to the illustration for a 6G pipe joint, what welding positions will be encountered?
a. Flat, vertical and overhead

b. Flat, horizontal and vertical
c. Flat and vertical only
d. Horizontal, vertical and overhead
e. Vertical and overhead only
153. Which of the following bead manipulation techniques has the lowest heat input into the
weldments which reduces distortion and improves mechanical properties?
a. Whip
b. Oscillation
c. Weave
d. Stringer
56
154. With the semi-automatic welding processes, those with a wire feeder being used require the
electrode to be connected into the electrical circuit. This is accomplished through the contact
tip. The illustration depicts three GMAW welding guns on a common work piece with all of the
gas nozzles the same distance from the work piece, known as the standoff distance. Stickout
is the technical term used to denote the distance from the gas nozzle to the welding arc.
However the critical dimension for the electrical circuit is the distance from the contact tip to
the arc, which is the electrode extension. The shorter the distance the less electrical
resistance, so the welding power source will have to output more amperage to burn the wire
off and maintain the proper arc length. If the contact tip is setback inside the gas nozzle the
electrode extension is increased and more electrical resistance heating of the electrode
occurs, causing it to preheat, thus reducing what the power source has to output amperage
wise to maintain the arc length. Match the volt and ammeter reading with the appropriate
electrode extension. Wire feed speed is constant.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of the above.
155. Match the volt and ammeter reading with the appropriate electrode extension. Wire feed
speed is constant.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of the above.
57
156. Which of the following terms would most accurately applies to when a welder or welding
operator must pay particular attention to the details of the welding operation?
a. Welding attributes
b. Welding sequence
c. Welding technique
d. Welding methods
157. What is the term used to describe the molten metal that makes up the weld prior to its
solidification into the weld bead?
a. Weld pool
b. Weld puddle
c. Weld crater
d. Weld hole
158. Which term best describes the operation where a welder or welding operator has control of a
molten weld pool and the weld pool has a side to side motion that is transverse to the travel
direction?
a. Oscillation
b. Weaving
c. Whipping
d. Both a and c
molten weld pool and the weld pool moves lengthwise with the direction of the travel of the
weld bead.
a. Oscillation
b. Digging
c. Whipping
d. Both b and c
160. The keyhole welding technique is best describes by:
a. using a concentrated heat source to partially or completely penetrate through the

work piece.
b. forming a hole on the leading edge of the weld pool.
c. allowing the molten metal to form at the trailing end of the weld pool by controlling the
progression of the heat source, which then forms the root bead.
d. All of the above.
58
161. A welding operator is responsible for several welding machines running simultaneously. The
welding equipment has process control equipment that only requires occasional or no
observation and requires no manual adjustment during operation. This allows the welding
operator to monitor weld quality, load and unload weld fixtures, while maintaining a clean
safe work area. Which application method is being used?
a. Mechanized
b. Automatic
c. Semiautomatic
d. Robotic
162. Using the proper terms is critical for communication, as it can have a major impact on
productivity, quality and safety. As a safety issue, what is the proper term for the welding
connection from the welding machine to the weldment?
a. Electrode connection
b. Ground connection
c. Work piece connection
d. Weld connection
163. What is the proper term for the container that holds the various gases used for welding,
cutting and heating?
a. Bottle
b. Tank
c. Cylinder
d. Can
164. Some welding processes utilize flux and thus leave a residue of material covering the face of
the weld which must be removed. Thermal cutting processes leave some remains of solidified,
oxidized metallic material on the back side of the cut work piece. What is the proper term for
these materials?
a. Slag
b. Coating
c. Dross
d. Both a and c
165. What is the makeup of dross that is unique from slag?
a. It is hard.
b. It is easily removed.
c. It is metallic.
d. It is nonmetallic.
59
166. Which term describes the welding process manipulation required to connect one weld to
another weld and facilitate proper fusion?
a. Pick-up
b. Re-start
c. Tie-in
d. Back-wash
167. What term describes when one of the five joint members do not come together, meeting,
intersecting or lying at nearly right angles to one another?
a. Orthotic
b. Skewed
c. Octagonal
d. Rectilinear
168. Metal sparks are observed emanating from the fusion welding process. They appear to be
coming from the heat source or the weld pool area and do not become part of the weld metal.
They lay about the weld area, generally of a spherical shape and may or may not be fused into
the base meat. Which term describers this situation?
a. Splatter
b. Bee bee’s
c. Solidus
d. Spatter
169. A weld is being made on a V-groove butt joint on a plate 1.25 inches thick. It is a 1G position
joint and the weld is being made with the FCAW process. The welding specification calls for
the maximum weld width in a single pass of 0.625 inches. The width of the first two layers of
weld are under this 0.625 inch limit. However, the third and subsequent layers will be wider
than the specified maximum limit. Which term is used to describe the weld layers used to
finish this joint?
a. Stringer-layer
b. Weave-layer
c. Split-layer
d. Multi-layer
60
170. A broken surface is being observed. A small pore or inclusion type discontinuity appears as a
round bright area. Which term fits this description?
a. Nucleation
b. Crack
c. Spider web
d. Fisheye
171. A semiautomatic GMAW-P (pulse) set up is being used. The __________ control can be set to
maintain the arc length even at the high travel speed that the welder will be using along a
curving weld joint geometry. This will maintain the weld profile even if the electrode
extension and gun angles cannot be accurately controlled by the welder in this situation.
a. adaptive
b. burn back
c. up slope
d. hot start
172. When called for, backing is used In order to be most assured of getting complete joint
penetration. This can be partially fused or can remain unfused to the root side of the
weldment. Which of the following types of backing material can be used for backing?
a. Ceramic
b. Copper
c. Shoe
d. All of the above
e. Both a and b only
173. Arc strike is a discontinuity, best described by which of the following?
a. When the arc is started

b. When the arc is stopped at the end of the weld (crater arc)
c. An arc mark, melting action, heat affected zone or change in the surface outside the weld
zone
d. Tie-in area
174. Which term describes a distortion control method that uses a longitudinal sequence that has
the weld passes being made in the opposite direction to the overall progress of the weld?
a. Backstep technique
b. Block sequence technique
c. Cascade sequence technique
d. Skip-jump around technique
61
175. Arc time is:
a. the total time the welder is clocked into work.

b. the time the arc is on during the arc welding operation.
c. the non-arc time.
d. the total arc and non-arc time.
176. The difference in electrical potential between the electrode and work piece is termed?
a. Arc amperage
b. Load voltage
c. Open circuit voltage
d. Arc voltage
177. Which of the following terms applies to a device that functions as a barrier device to prevent
the molten weld metal from running out the end of the joint when making a groove weld?
This is to insure the full cross-section of the joint will be filled.
a. Weld tab
b. Weld dam
c. Weld block
d. Weld plug
178. Which term best describes a device that the welder holds in his hand, and when activated, the
continuously fed welding electrode wire would be electrically energized? It also allows the
welder to direct the electrode and supplies shielding gas as needed.
a. Welding torch
b. Welding gun
c. Welding arc
d. Welding rod
179. The “as welded” condition is best described as:
a. the conditions occurring prior to welding.

b. the conditions occurring during the welding operation.
c. the weldment prior to subsequent chemical, mechanical or thermal treatments.
d. the pre-weld chemical, mechanical or thermal treatments.
62
180. High stress areas are found on the corners of weldments. For this reason, most welds are not
to be started or stopped on the corners. The weld needs to be made continuously around the
corner and a specified distance beyond the corner before stopping. Which term describes this
operation?
a. Wrapping the corner

b. End return
c. Boxing
181. Autogenous weld is best described as:
a. a fusion weld made by itself with no filler metal added.

b. a braze weld made by itself with no brazing alloy added.
c. a solder weld made by itself with no soldering alloy added.
d. any of the arc welding processes with or without the use of a consumable electrode.
182. Which of the following terms applies to the combining of various welding processes, such as
combining Laser Beam Welding with Gas Metal Arc Welding, or Laser Beam with Friction Stir
Welding, which results in enhanced performance?
a. Combo Process Welding

b. Multi Process Welding
c. Additive Process Welding
d. Hybrid Welding

Symbols – Welding and NDE
183. A welding symbol consists of:
a. an arrow
b. a reference line
c. a tail
d. a weld symbol
e. All of the above
f. Both a and d only
63
184. A weld symbol consists of:
a. groove/fillet weld
b. plug/slot/stud
c. spot/seam/back
d. backing/surfacing/edge
e. All of the above
f. Both a and c only
185. In the welding symbol illustration, which element is optional?
a. Tail
b. Reference line
c. Arrow
d. They are all optional.
186. Using the welding illustration from question 187, which elements are required on a welding
symbol?
a. Reference line
b. Arrow
c. Weld symbol in the Tail
d. All of the above
64
187. Using the Weld Symbols chart to the right, what is the
common attribute in the square, bevel, J, flare-bevel and
fillet symbols?
a. They are all made up of lines

b. They have straight, diagonal and curved lines
c. They all have an open side
d. They all have a line that is perpendicular to the
horizontal line that is on the left side of the symbol
e. They all look like the joint or weld they are named after
188. Use the Weld Symbols chart to the right to answer this
question. The horizontal line shown with the weld symbol
illustration represents the reference line. All of the weld
symbols are shown drawn above the reference except the
stud, spot-resistance weld and the surfacing symbol. The
other symbols can be shown above or below the
reference line. But the stud and surfacing symbols are
always shown below the reference line. What is the
reason for this?
a. Just makes the symbol easier to draw.

b. There is no joint.
c. To save room on the drawings.
d. Looks fine below the reference line.
e. Not enough information to answer this question.
189. What is the difference between back and backing welds?
a. Equipment used
b. Sequence of when the welds are made
c. Materials used
d. Both a and c only
190. Considering the difference between back and backing welds, which of the following welds are made in
the correct order?
a. Make the grove weld and then the backing weld

b. Make the back and then the groove weld
c. Make the groove weld and then the back weld
d. Make the backing weld and then the groove weld
e. Both c and d are correct.
65
191. Use the Weld Symbols chart from questions 187 - 188 to answer this question. The plug and
slot weld symbols look identical except for the circle with the line going through it. This
symbol indicates a circle with a diameter. So what makes the slot weld different?
a. Smaller hole or circle requires less welding

b. It is made in an elongated hole or slot
c. Larger hole or circle to make it easier to weld
d. Does not matter use either one
e. Look at the parts list drawing see what it shows
192. The sequence of a back or backing weld can be shown in the tail or with multiple reference
lines. With multiple reference lines, the one closest to the arrow will be the first action and
the one furthest from the arrow will be the last action. Letter ____ matches the welding
symbol with the correct weldment.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
193. The scarf is not a welding type joint but a braze type joint. The brazing process uses capillary
action to draw the brazing alloy into the joint. So the scarf joint is used:
a. to increase the surface area of the joint for greater strength

b. so less brazing alloy is needed because the joint fits so tight together
c. to make it faster to make the joint
d. because it is easy to fit up
e. Both a and d
194. Why does the spot resistance symbol straddle the reference line?
a. The welder can make the weld on any side they want to.
b. Because there is no side significance.
c. The detail engineer does not care what side the weld is made on.
d. The supervisor will determine where the weld is to be made.
e. So the welding inspector can make the proper determination.
66
195. The seam weld symbol can be used for many different welding processes. This illustration is of
the gas metal arc welding (GMAW) process. How would the seam symbol appear in relation to
the reference line if the resistance seam welding process was being used?
a. Drawn above the reference line

b. Straddles the reference line
c. Drawn below the reference line
d. Can be drawn anywhere on the
reference line
e. It is a circle so does not matter
196. Observe the bevel groove weld symbol and select the weld letter that is correct.
a. Weld A
b. Weld B
67
a. Weld A
b. Weld B
198. On T-joints, there is only one edge (butting member) on which to cut the bevel. However, on
butt joints like this, the arrow must have a break in it to point toward the plate edge to be
beveled. Letter ____ matches the correct edge to be beveled from the welding symbol.
a. A
b B
c. C
d. D
68
199. Select the correct weld letter which matches the double fillet weld symbols.
a. Welds A
b. Welds B
c. Welds C
200. Which of the following matches the welding symbol with the correct weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
201. Which of the following matches the single V-groove welding symbol with the correct
weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
69
202. Which of the following matches the double V-groove welding symbol with the correct
weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
203. Are the following fillet welds in the proper location and of the proper length?
a. Yes
b. No
70
Answer questions 204 - 207 using the following welding symbol:
204. The weld size is _____.
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
205. A _____ weld is to be made.
a. plug
b. fillet
c. slot
d. spot
e. groove
206. The weld length is _____.
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
207. The weld pitch is ______ .
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
71
Answer questions 208 – 210 using the following weld symbol:
208. This top view is of a column to be welded to a bottom plate with what type of weld?
a. Fillet
b. Groove
c. Slot
d. Spot
e. Arc
209. The weld is to be made in the fabrication shop where it is being originally fabricated.
a. True
b. False
210. With the ‘H’ beam to be welded to the base plate, how long should the weld be?
a. The length of the side of the ‘H’ beam it is pointing at

b. Not enough information to make a determination
c. All around the base of the ‘H’ beam
d. Just on the two sides
72
Use the following weld symbol to answer questions 211 – 215. Refer to the Weld Symbols chart (see
question 189) and the Supplementary Symbols if needed for reference.
211. What type of groove weld is to be made?
a. Double J
b. Single J
c. U
d. Flare V
e. Flare U
212. Which side of the plate will the weld be made from?
a. Top
b. Bottom
c. Edge
213. What type of symbol is shown on the arrow side of the joint?
a. U groove
b. Consumable insert
c. Backing
d. Spacer
e. Boxing
214. What type of profile is required on the face of this weld?
a. U groove
b. Flush
c. Convex
d. Flat
e. Both b or d
73
215. Contour symbols can be enhanced with a letter to designate postweld finishing.
Postweld Finishing
Letters
C Chipping
G Grinding
H Hammering
M Machining
P Planishing
R Rolling
U Unspecified
If a contour symbol is used and no finishing letter is shown, the weld contour is to be
approximately flush, flat, convex or concave in the “as welded” condition. What method
would be used for the weld?
a. Chipping
b. Hammering
c. Planishing
d. Rolling
e. None specified so “as welded”
216. All the various groove welds, except square, have a groove angle. They may also have a root
opening to assist in getting complete joint penetration (CJP). The two dimensions are placed
directly above or below the groove weld symbol. They are read from the reference line out.
The first is the root opening followed by the groove angle. Which of the following matches the
V-groove welding symbol with the shown weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
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217. The square groove welding symbol matches which of the following on the weldments?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
Use the illustration in question 218 to answer questions 218 – 221.
218. Which welding symbol most closely matches the weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
219. Weld symbols can be combined to match the weld requirements. What type of groove weld is
being specified?
a. Bevel
b. Fillet
c. Partial penetration
d. Complete
e. Not enough information
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220. There are two other welds to be made. What type welds are they?
a. Bevel
b. Fillet
d. Complete
221. The joint is to be a _______ joint penetration. The illustration of the welds are correct by
design.
a. partial
b. complete
c. There is not enough information to make a determination.
222. Nondestructive examination (NDE) symbols are virtually the same as the welding symbols.
They use examination letters to designate the methods. The more common ones are:
Electromagnetic ET
Magnetic Particle MT
Penetrant PT
Radiographic RT
Ultrasonic UT
Visual VT
Which method would be used by virtually every person working in the welding industry?
a. ET
b. MT
c. PT
d. RT
e. VT
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223. With the RT methods, the radiation source must be carefully positioned to detect lamellar
type discontinuities like fusion and cracks. When this is required, the NDE symbol will show its
exact location with relationship to the film, the joint and the weld. When this pipe is welded,
the source is set to shoot down the fusion face of this ____0 groove angle. It was welded with
the GMAW-S process, so incomplete ____ is the discontinuity being looked for.
a. 37.5; undercut
b. 18.75; penetration
c. 75; fusion
d. 180; cracks

Test Methods - NDE
224. Which of the following processes best describes the Non Destructive Examination (NDE)
abbreviation ET?
a. High-frequency sound waves are introduced in the material and will detect not only surface
discontinuities but subsurface discontinuities. The sound waves bounce off of interfaces back
to be analyzed to determine if a discontinuity is present. It can also determine discontinuity
location and size.
b. Radiation is used to penetrate a weld and surrounding metal and will show the internal
structure. This internal structure would be displayed on a film or digital retaining source so
the image can be reviewed by a qualified technician.
c. A magnetic field created in the weldment will be attracted to magnetic particles sprinkled on
the surface. The particles are attracted to discontinuities that are perpendicular to the
magnetic fields. This is referred to as flux leakage. The discontinuities detected can be on the
surface or slightly subsurface.
d. Small electrical currents are induced into the weldment from a coil or prod. If there is an
interruption in the flow of these electrical currents, the coil or prod will detect it. This can
then be displayed on a screen or meter. It can detect both surface and subsurface type
discontinuities.
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225. What NDE abbreviation applies to the following process description?
A magnetic field created in the weldment will be attracted to magnetic particles sprinkled on
a. UT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
226. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation PT?
a. A liquid dye is applied to the surface of the weldment. After a sufficient dwell time, capillary
action will draw the dye into surface discontinuities. The excessive dye is then removed and a
developer is applied. The developer will wick out the dye and expose any surface
discontinuity that may have been missed with normal visual examination.
b. High-frequency sound waves are introduced in the material and will detect not only surface
location and size.
c. Radiation is used to penetrate a weld and surrounding metal and will show the internal
d. Generally does not need any additional tools to perform. It is easy to apply and can be fairly
quickly done on hot or cold weldments. Some simple and inexpensive measuring tools are
generally required.
Radiation is used to penetrate a weld and surrounding metal and will show the internal
a. PT
b. UT
c. RT
d. VT
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228. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation UT?
a. A liquid dye is applied to the surface of the weldment. After a sufficient dwell time capillary
location and size.
generally required.
229. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation VT?
location and size.
generally required.
230. NDE relies upon various energy sources to detect discontinuities. Which of the following
energy sources are used with the NDE processes?
a. Radiation
b. Sound waves
c. Electromagnetics/magnetic fields
d. Penetrants
e. All of the above
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231. What NDE process is indicated in the following description?
Detects surface discontinuities only. It can also verify fit-up, joint configuration, weld
dimensions and profiles.
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
232. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation PT?
a. Detects only surface type discontinuities, requires dwell time and a developer.
b. Detects large discontinuities like porosity, slag, incomplete penetration, incomplete fusion,
and cracks. Lamellar discontinuities like fusion and cracks can me more difficult to
detect. It may also be used for root conditions, fit-up, plate thickness, and pipe wall
thickness.
c. Detects surface and slightly below the surface discontinuities. The material being examined
must be ferromagnetic.
d. Detects surface discontinuities only, can also verify fit-up, joint configuration, weld
dimensions, and profiles.
233. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation MT?
and cracks. Lamellar discontinuities like fusion and cracks can me more difficult to detect. It
may also be used for root conditions, fit-up, plate thickness, and pipe wall thickness.
c. Detects surface and near surface discontinuities on magnetic materials only.
d. Is economical, requires minimal training and is easily accomplished with relatively little
equipment. Limited to exposed surface conditions only.
Detects large discontinuities like porosity, slag, incomplete penetration, incomplete fusion,
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
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Detects most critical weld discontinuities both surface and subsurface. It will work on
magnetic and nonmagnetic materials. It is three dimensional as it can measure discontinuity
length, width and depth. Is can be used for base metal thickness verifications as well.
a. UT
b. RT
c. ET
d. VT
236. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation ET?
a. Detects most critical weld discontinuities both surface and subsurface. It will work on
c. Detects surface and near surface discontinuities. The materials alloy properties, grain
structure and heat treatment may affect the results.
237. Which of the following methods is first in order of importance in the NDE process?
a. UT
b. MT
c. PT
d. RT
e. VT
238. Which is the most effective inspection method to be used before, during and after welding?
a. UT
b. MT
c. PT
d. VT
e. RT
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239. A person using the NDE method must have considerable experience and knowledge in a
variety of areas and be familiar with _____________.
a. materials/drawings
b. codes/welding specifications
c. weld procedures/performance qualifications
d. workmanship standards/aspects of good shop practice
e. All of the above.
240. Along with experience and knowledge, tools may be required for visual inspection such as
______________.
a. various measuring scales and gauges to check weld dimensions

b. temperature indicators
c. flashlight/mirror
d. microscope
e. All of the above
f. A, b and c only
241. PT uses a penetrating liquid dye which is applied to a properly prepared surface. The dye is
pulled into the discontinuity by _______ action.
a. suction
b. heating
c. cooling
d. capillary
e. gravity
242. In Penetrant Testing, what is the term used for allowing the penetrant to complete its task?
a. gravity
b. suction
c. dwell time
d. delay time
e. hold point
243. PT is being used in the field on location. Portability is a key concern but penetrant must be
removed somehow. In this case, which would be the best remover solution for this situation?
a. solvent
b. water soluble
c. emulsifier and water
e. None of the above.
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244. MT locates surface and near surface discontinuities with magnetic fields. MT only works on
magnetic base metals that are ferromagnetic. If the magnetic lines of force are cut, it creates a
flux leakage which is very attractive to the iron particles. For this method to work, how do the
magnetic lines of force have to be orientated in relation to the discontinuity?
a. Parallel
b. Transvers
c. Perpendicular
d. Normal
f. B, c and d only
245. A weldment can be magnetized by passing electricity directly through it and is referred to as
direct magnetization. The other method is placing the weldment into a magnetic field and this
is known as indirect magnetization. Which illustration represents an indirect magnetization?
a. A
b. B
246. Which illustration in question 245 represents a direct magnetization?
a. A
b. B
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247. Once the weldment has been magnetized, the examination medium known as magnetic
particles are applied. The particles can be dry or suspended in a liquid. The particles can be
colored or florescent. The florescent is observable under black light. Once the excess medium
is removed the particles trapped by the flux leakage will reveal the location, shape and size of
the detectable discontinuities. Which of the magnetization methods will pick up a longitudinal
discontinuity in the part being examined?
a. indirect
b. direct
c. longitudinal
d. circular
248. RT uses radiation to penetrate the weld and the surrounding base metal, revealing density
changes in the internal structure. A recording device (photographic film) will show the size and
shape of the discontinuities that are parallel with the transmitted radiation. Most people are
familiar with radiographs or X-rays of their teeth at the dentist or an injured arm or leg in the
emergency room. Which of the following is true?
a. An increase in thickness will make a darker image on the film

b. A low density area will make a darker image on the film
c. A high density area will make a lighter image on the film
d. A decrease in thickness will make a lighter image on the film.
e. An increase in density will make a darker image on the film.
f. Both a and b
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249. In the illustration, why does discontinuity B show up on the developed film?
a. It is the only one that is perpendicular to the radiation

source
b. It is the only one parallel to the radiation source
c. Because ‘A’ and ‘C’ are not flat enough to the
radiation source
d. Poor quality of film they should have all shown up
e. Both b and c
250. Which discontinuity is less likely to be picked up with the RT process?
a. Slag
b. Porosity
c. Cracks
e. Both c and d
251. UT is a widely used method of conducting NDE with high-frequency sound waves. The sound
travels through the material and is reflected back at interfaces. These reflections (echoes) are
picked up on a screen and analyzed by a qualified technician to define the presence and
location of discontinuities. In relation to the sound wave, the interfaces should be ______ to
them to get the best signal.
a. parallel
b. perpendicular
c. sound will bounce make, angle does not matter
85
252. The device used to input the sound into the weldment is called a transducer. The transducer
contains a “piezoelectric” device which turns mechanical energy into electrical energy and vice
versa. The illustration shows the transducer as a square box on top of the weldment being
inspected. This search unit must be ________ to the part.
a. coupled
b. held tightly
c. set loosely
d. as long as the sound gets in the part it does not matter
253. The sound wave illustrated in question 252 is a longitudinal beam of sound and used for
testing plate materials. This would not work very well on welds in the as-welded-condition, so
other sound waves must be available, such as ______ beam sound waves.
a. straight
b. angle
c. shear
d. longitudinal
e. Both b and c
86
254. The illustrations show the angle or shear beam being used to inspect a weld. Note the pips on
the screen. They indicate the main sound going in (main bang) followed by the echo back on
the one showing a discontinuity. Which of the following accurately describes A and B?
a. A is the main bang and B is the discontinuity (slag like inclusion)

b. A is the discontinuity (slag like inclusion) and B is the main bang
c. Not enough information is provided to answer the question.
255. Review the illustration of the ET examination of welded pipe. This is an example of a high
speed tube mill making pipe. The pipe is hot and moving at high speed. ET is a natural choice
for this type of application because the encircling coil ______ .
a. needs to move along with the pipe

b. needs a thick couplent
c. does not touch the pipe
d. needs a heat shield
256. ET can be affected by many variables that can cause eddy current signal misreadings. This, in
some cases, makes this method too sensitive for some welding applications.
a. True
b. False
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Reports and Records
257. Which of the following best describes codes?
a. A document issued by a buyer to a seller to indicate types, quantities, and prices for
products or services the seller will provide to the buyer. It is considered a legal
document of an offer to buy products or services. The acceptance of this document by
a seller usually forms a contract between the buyer and seller, so no contract exists
until it is accepted. It is used to control the purchasing of products and services from
external suppliers.
b. A document that shows that the welder has been engaged in using the welding process
they are qualified on during a specific period of time, usually six months.
c. Statutes or laws enacted by a governmental body.
d. An established norm or requirement about technical systems.
258. Which of the following best describes a contract?
a. A document including general conditions, special conditions, bill of quantities, technical

requirements, schedules, pricing schedules and insurances.
c. Documents of laws adopted by a state or nation.
d. An established norm or requirement about technical systems
259. Which of the following best describes drawings?
a. An explicit set of requirements to be satisfied by a material, product, or service.

b. Guidelines for methods, materials, or practices in order to give guidance to the user.
c. A form of visual instruction that shows shape, size, and welding symbols. They can be
produced in any number of mediums and are typically produced by the contractor,
supplier, manufacturer, subcontractor, or fabricator.
d. These documents are one of the most important pieces that will guarantee a successful
project. The following documents may form part of every project: general conditions,
special conditions, bill of quantities, technical requirements, schedules, pricing
schedules, and insurances.
88
260. Which of the following documents is used by a buyer and seller as a form of a contract?
a. Purchase Order/PO
b. Recommended Practices
c. Specifications
d. Standards
261. Which of the following are guidelines, also known as “best practices”, for those who use
methods and/or materials?
c. Specifications
d. Standards
262. Which of the following is an explicit set of requirements established by the contractor to be
satisfied by a material, product or service?
a. Welder Continuity Report

b. Text Message
c. Specifications
d. Standards
263. Which of the following is an established norm or requirement issued by the federal, state or
local government about technical systems?

b. Standards
c. Specifications
d. Recommended Practices
264. Which of the following is a document that shows that a welder has been engaged in using the
welding process and that the welder is qualified to do so during a specific period of time?

b. Standards
c. Specifications or specs.
89
265. Which of the following is a job document that describes the shape and size of a weldment?
a. Standard
b. Code
c. Specification
d. Drawing
e. Recommended practice
266. Generally, in codes or standards, there are references to the welder being engaged in using
the welding processes for which they are qualified. A welder’s continuity report or log would
typically track this based on what time frame?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Every 12 months
d. Every 6 months
e. When a welder produces too many discontinuities
267. Hold points need to be specified and deal with _____________.
a. a planned delay in fabrication to permit other activities to take place

b. the buzzer at the end of a work shift
c. where to hook a lifting cable
d. the opposite of a “pinch point”
268. The AWS Specifications that begin with the letter “A” and followed by the number “5”, as in
A-5.XX, refer to:
a. Structural welding code for buildings and off shore platforms

b. Structural welding code for bridges
c. Filler metals (electrodes)
d. Structural welding code for sheet metal
e. Aerospace welding code
269. Positive Material Identification (PMI) is critical for proper weld quality control. The system
should:
a. be readily implemented
b. have checks and balances
c. not be based on first in-first out
d. be repeatable and consistent
90
270. You are involved with a welding project. The welding is being done to a recognized code or
standard. Concerns have arisen about how the welders are being qualified. Various questions
have been raised about what welding process they need to be qualified on. Which of the
following documents should you review to answer this question?

b. Code/Standard
c. Specifications
271. To ensure weld quality you must know what the base metal is that is being welded and what
filler metal will be used to weld it. Which of the following documents would cover the
material product form, heat number, chemistry and mechanical properties?
a. FOD
b. PMI
c. MTR
d. WPS
272. Entering a confined space without following all required procedures and having an effective
emergency rescue plan can result in serious injuries or death. Which of the following must be
properly filled out and displayed at the site where the confined space work is taking place?
a. Positive ventilation report

b. Flammability permit
c. Entry permit
d. No paper work required, just a standby rescue person
273. A report outlines deviations from product, process, procedure or compliance specifications
such as:
• WPS travel speed is specified at 18-22 IPM. An oversized weld is observed the
welder’s travel speed is monitored and found to be 16.5 IPM
• Welding symbols do not specify weld size on the drawing
• The meters on the welding machines are not calibrated per the QC manual
What report is this?
a. PQR
b. NCR
c. CJP
d. PWHT
91
274. What is a “Weld Map/Log” and how is it used?
a. Typically an isometric drawing is made of the weldment showing the location and numerical
indications of each weld making up the construction of the structure or the piping system.
b. Much like a road map, so the welds can be located.
c. A spread sheet listing all the welds.
d. Each welder carries a log sheet which they maintain with where their welds were made, at
what time and date.
275. Which of the following definitions fits 'Work In Process - WIP'?
a. Material that has entered the production process but is not yet a finished product.
b. Materials and partly finished products that are at various stages of the production process.
c. Includes inventory of raw materials at the start of the production cycle and finished product
at the end of the production cycle.
d. Both a and b
276. Which of the following describes a safety management tool that indicates the risks or hazards
of a specific job? In this document, the actual workplace situations are identified; measures to
eliminate them or control those hazards are determined and implemented. It is, specifically, a
job safety analysis which systematically evaluates certain jobs, tasks, processes or procedures.
a. RA
b. AHA
c. JSA
d. ALARP
277. Which of the following would be used to indicate the location of the welds, the size of the
welds, weld joint configuration, base metal call outs, NDE requirements and any post weld
processing requirements?
a. WPS
b. PQR
c. Drawing
d. Weld Details
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Duties and Responsibilities
278. A welder, if properly trained and having the proper tools, should be able to perform which of
the following duties and responsibilities?
a. Deposit sound weld metal in a safe manner

b. Build a product from a drawing including welding symbols
c. Cut and fit a weldment
d. Guarantee their own work
f. A, b and c only
279. Which of the following is the welding inspector’s most important attribute?
a. Being an engineer (bachelor or higher degree)

b. Being a technician (associate degree welding or NDE)
c. Being a graduate of a welding program (hold welding credentials)
d. Professional attitude
e. Being able to pass the qualification test
280. A welding inspector should have which of the following knowledge sets?
a. Codes and standards

b. Welding procedures and welder qualifications
c. NDE
d. Welding processes and equipment
f. A, b and d only
281. Ethics can best be thought of as:
a. doing the right thing because you're afraid you'll get caught.
b. weighing the potential punishment against the potential gain then deciding what to do.
c. doing the right thing even when no one is watching.
d. doing the right thing simply because it's the right thing.
e. Both c and d
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282. A welding supervisor needs to be directly involved with a welder qualification test.
a. True
b. False
283. A supervisor is only concerned with production. Quality control and production cannot be
handled by the same people.
a. True
b. False
284. Many companies mistakenly have their supervisors:
a. check quality of parts.

b. expedite parts and push productivity.
c. provide safety tool box talk at shift start up.
d. practice the 5S system (sort, straighten, sweep, schedule and sustain).
e. support welder activities.
285. When a welder and supervisor are evaluating the quality of a weld they should:
a. go with what looks good.

b. lean whichever way the welding inspector is leading them.
c. apply the acceptance criteria.
d. These people should not be inspecting welds.
e. put some extra paint on it to cover it up if the weld is bad.
286. Before welding can be done to an industrial welding standard, the supervisor needs to verify:
a. the quality metric.

b. the cost metric.
c. the safety metric.
d. that the welding procedure specifications and welder qualifications are in order.
e. the throughput metric.
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Use the following information to answer questions 287 through 289.
Duties and Capabilities for a welding sales representative (CWSR) per AWS B5.14 Specification for the
Qualification of Welding Sales Representatives, QC14 Specification for the Certification of Welding
Sales Representatives
5.1 Duties
5.1.1 The WSR, as a minimum, shall be capable of demonstrating the use of welding equipment and
supplies, directing sales of welding supplies and equipment, practicing appropriate sales ethics,
determining customer needs, and providing customer support.
5.1.2 The Employer shall define the WSR’s specific duties. The Employer is responsible for verifying that
the WSR is qualified to perform the duties and tasks as assigned.
5.2 Capabilities. The WSR shall have: (1) Basic knowledge in the application of industrial gases for
welding and cutting processes including the safe handling and storage of industrial gases (2) Basic
knowledge and safe practices of welding processes such as gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW), gas
metal arc welding (GMAW), flux cored arc welding (FCAW), shielded metal arc welding (SMAW), and
submerged arc welding (SAW) (3) The technical knowledge to determine when a welding procedure is
required for a given application (4) The technical knowledge to assist in selecting the most appropriate
welding or cutting process for a given application (5) Basic knowledge of when the application or use
of hardfacing or corrosion resistant overlay is to be used (6) Basic knowledge and safe practices of
cutting processes, including mechanical and various thermal (oxyacetylene, plasma, etc.) processes
(7) Basic knowledge of brazing and soldering processes and their filler materials.
287. The welding sales representative does not need to know how to weld.
a. True
b. False
288. A welding sales representative is required to practice sales ethics.
a. True
b. False
289. Besides understanding welding processes, what other capabilities does a welding sales
representative need?
a. Making drawings
b. Perform inspection duties
c. Ability to understand if a welding procedure is required
d. Ability to understand weld microstructure and post weld heat treatment
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290. Who has the greatest opportunity to assure and control weld quality?
a. Welding Engineer
b. Supervisor
c. Welding Inspector
d. Welder/Welding Operator
e. Both b and d
291. What is the best way to get quality into a product?
a. Engineer it in
b. Build it in
c. Inspect it in
d. Quality is not a consideration in welding - make it cheap, sell it cheap
292. When an inspector is checking welds, she should look for:
a. defects.
b. quality.
c. only critical welds.
d. only the welds that are easy to get to.
293. Who is key in keeping the workplace safe?
a. Management
b. Safety director
c. Engineers
d. Welders
e. Everyone in the workplace

Safety
294. Which of the following are hazards that are encountered in the welding industry?
a. Flash burn
b. Inhalation of fumes and gases
c. Electrical shock
d. Radiation
f. Both b and c only
96
295. Which of the following is NOT part of the standards for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?
a. Welding gun
b. Gloves
c. Boots
d. Welding helmet
e. Safety glasses
f. Both a and c
296. What welding lens shade number should be used for FCAW at 450 amps?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
297. When double eye protection is required while welding, eye glasses of any type must be worn
under the welding helmet.
a. True
b. False
298. Burns can be caused by:
a. radiation
b. hot metal
c. sparks
d. All of the above
e. Both b and c only
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299. Normal pant and shirt material worn around welding should be of what material?
a. Polyester
b. Rayon
c. Cotton
d. Synthetics
e. Both c and d above.
300. What is the exposure limits for highly toxic materials?
a. 1.0 milligram per cubic feet or less

b. 1.0 milligram per square meter
c. 1.0 milligram per cubic meter or less
d. Both a and c
301. Where would a welder find information about toxic materials on a job site?
a. ANSI Z49.1 on Welding Safety and Health

b. Contract documents
c. MSDS
302. All of the following locations would require a confined space analysis to determine if one is
working in a confined space, EXCEPT:
a. a large wide open expanse with a covered pit in the middle

b. a large room with one entrance and exit
c. anywhere where claustrophobia sets in
d. a location that has limited openings for entry and exit, with unfavorable natural ventilation
e. a pipe rack with open air all around with enough separation between the pipes to allow an
adult to crawl into position.
303. When work must be done in a confined space, an entry permit must the filled out and signed
by:
a. AWS CWI
b. AWS CW
c. A qualified person in a position of responsibility
d. The senior welder on the job
98
304. In which of the following situations is ventilation at issue?
a. Welding in a confined space.

b. Welding in a position where the welders head is in close relation to the fume plume
c. Welding with electrode or filler metal
d. Welding with base metal, coatings, paint or shielding gases involved
f. Both a and b only
305. What is the minimum oxygen level for a confined space?
a. 14%
b. 16%
c. 19.5%
d. 23.5%
306. An oxygen-enriched atmosphere above ____ percent will cause flammable materials, such as
clothing and hair, to burn violently when ignited and may cause some nonflammable
materials to ignite.
a. 14
b. 16
c. 19.5
d. 23.5
e. 98.6
307. A welder is working in a confined space and just finished working with a torch. As long as the
torch is off, it is acceptable practice to keep the torch in the confined space.
a. True
b. False
308. Which of the following does not burn?
a. Acetylene
b. Oxygen
c. Oil used for lubricants
d. Natural gas
e. Both c and d
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309. Other than arc radiation, what other eye hazards may be present in a welding operation?
a. Grinding particles
b. Sparks
c. Spatter
d. Slag
310. Which of the following AWS documents covers safety issues?
a. A5.1
b. QC 1
c. D1.1
d. WJ (Welding Journal)
311. All of the following can be used to avoid inhaling welding fumes and gases EXCEPT:
a. cross ventilation
b. respirator
c. natural ventilation
d. remove all sources of contamination
e. positive clean air supplied welding helmet
f. Both c and d
312. A welder is working in a very warm, high humidity area. He is welding on a large vessel in a
seated position. He is equipped with the proper fall protection and proper ventilation.
However, his PPE and clothing has been saturated with sweat. What is the safety concern and
what is the best method to guard against the hazard?
a. Moisture getting into the weld causing cracking; use dry rag to handle consumables
b. Moisture getting into the base metal causing corrosion and porosity; use dry rag when
touching weldment
c. Electrical hazard; use proper insulation between welder and weldment
d. Electrical hazard; get dry PPE and clothing
e. Both b and c
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313. Compressed gas cylinders should be protected from:
a. excessive heat
b. arc strikes (do not allow them to become part of the electrical circuit)
c. mechanical shock
d. moving without safety caps in place
f. Both b and d only

Destructive Testing (DT)
314. In order for a weld to perform as intended in service, it must have certain mechanical
properties. The welder must follow a _________ to ensure the welding will meet the
mechanical requirements.
a. Procedure Qualification Record

b. Performance Qualification Record
c. Welding Procedure Specification
d. Welding Performance Qualification
315. Which of the following best describes the ability of a material to resist indentation?
a. Fatigue
b. Hardness
c. Impact
d. Tensile
316. Which of the following best describes the measurement of strength when tested and
monitored on a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material applying a stretching
force until it breaks?
a. Fatigue
b. Hardness
c. Impact
d. Tensile
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317. Which of the following best describes the term yield strength?
a. A measurement using a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material stretching it
until it reaches a point where the material is no longer elastic but become plastic. This is
the point where permanent deformation takes place and the material will no longer return
to its original length if the pulling force is removed.
b. The calculation property of a material based on its percent in change of length, comparing
its original length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point of breaking. This
property is also calculated based on its percent in change of cross sectional area comparing
its original cross sectional area vs. its cross sectional area after it is broken.
c. This is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform without breaking.
Material toughness is the amount of energy per volume that a material can absorb before
breaking or the resistance to breaking of a material when loaded. This property requires a
balance of strength and ductility.
d. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes
a Boston marathon runner would require. Any stress risers on this type of part can lead to
premature failure. Endurance limit is an important factor when dealing with this type of
loading. If the load is kept below the endurance limit it should never fail in cyclic loading.
318. Which of the following best describes the term ductility?
a. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes a
Boston marathon runner would require. Any stress risers on this type of part can lead to
b. A measurement using a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material stretching it
until it reaches a point where the material is no longer elastic but become plastic. This is the
point where permanent deformation takes place and the material will no longer return to its
original length if the pulling force is removed.
c. The calculation property of a material based on its percent in change of length, comparing its
original length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point of breaking. This property is
also calculated based on its percent in change of cross sectional area comparing its original
cross sectional area vs. its cross sectional area after it is broken.
d. This is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform without breaking.
319. Which of the following is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform
without breaking?
a. Fatigue
b. Toughness
c. Impact
d. Metallographic
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320. Which of the following terms applies when a weld is purposely tested for failure?
a. Bend
b. Break
c. Impact
d. Toughness
321. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term fatigue?
a. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
appropriate etching (acid) solution is applied which eats into the base metal, heat affected
zone and weld metal. Allowing the microstructure of the joint consisting of the base metal,
heat affected zone and weld metal to be presented.
b. The rapid loading of a part generally at different temperature levels. Much like the attributes
a heavy weight prize fighter would require. Test sample are taken from the weld metal zone,
heat affected zone, and base metal zone. The load to break is measured and is typically
recorded in foot/pounds.
c. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
d. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles.. Any stress risers on this
type of part can lead to premature failure. Endurance limit is an important factor when
dealing with this type of loading. If the load is kept below the endurance limit it should never
fail in this type loading.
322. Which of the following best describes the term bend?
a. Testing a welder’s coupon with a method that forces the specimen between a plunger and a
die or wrapping it around a mandrill to determine the soundness of the weld and heat
affected zone.
c. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes a
d. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
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323. Which of the following is the term for when a weld and joint are cut through and a high polish
is applied, much like a mirror finish and an appropriate etching (acid) solution is applied,
where the etching solution eats into the material, exposing the different grain structure of the
base metal, the heat affected zone and the weld metal and exposes the microstructures which
shows the weld profile and any discontinuities that my exist on the surface being examined?
a. Hardness
b. Metallographic
c. Impact
d. Tensile
324. Which of the following is the rapid loading of a part generally at different temperature levels?
a. Hardness
b. Metallographic
c. Impact
d. Tensile
325. Impact strength and notch toughness are synonymous.
a. True
b. False
326. Which of the following tests can be used to determine the soundness of a weld?
a. Face bend
b. Fillet break
c. Root bend
d. Nick break
f. A, b and c only
327. Which of the following are inversely related?
a. Strength and hardness

b. Thermal conductivity and strength
c. Thermal expansion and hardness
d. Strength and ductility
e. Tensile/yield and hardness
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328. Which of the following terms applies to a material’s ductility?
a. Toughness
b. Thickness, width and length
c. Yield and tensile strength
d. Percent elongation and percent reduction of area
e. Fatigue
329. Which of the following terms applies to the fracture toughness requirements?
a. Tensile strength
b. Endurance limits
c. Breaking energy
d. Percent elongation
e. Percent reduction of area
330. Which of the following terms applies to a material being loaded cyclically and not failing?
a. Toughness
b. Fatigue strength
c. Hardness
d. Ductility
e. Tensile strength
331. Are the NDE methods capable of determining the mechanical properties of a weld, as it is
intended to perform in service?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, in some cases.
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Cutting
332. Which of the following is a term for a process that uses an upper blade and a lower blade that
are forced past one other, where, typically, one of the blades remains stationary?
a. Chipping
b. Drilling
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
333. Which of the following is a term for a process that uses a blade with a series of teeth on its
edge to cut a narrow opening in a workpiece?
a. Chipping
b. Sawing
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
334. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term milling?
a. Uses a cutting tool that is rotating and the work is stationary or combined with rotational
motion around a center that is not in line with the rotating cutter. It cuts material by moving
it with relation to the rotating cutting head. It is used in metal fabrication to form parts.
b. Uses an abrasive cutting process that uses a wheel or disk made up of grains of abrasives
each acting as a single point cutting edge. It is used in metal fabrication to separate the
workpiece into two pieces, reduce material for proper fit up, to shape weld profiles, and
remove defects.
c. Uses rotational forces to rotate the work about a center while the tool is stationary. The tool
can advance along the center or advances toward the center (approximately) to deepen the
cut. It is used in metal fabrication to square and bevel pipe ends for groove welds, shape
round members, cut threads, and separate the workpiece into two pieces.
d. Taking a flat piece of sheet metal and making it into anything you need with power
(planishing) hammers, an English wheel, or beading machines. These machines can shrink,
stretch, dome, edge turn, bead, offset, or virtually produce any form that is needed.
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335. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term grinding?
a. A process that uses a cutting tool that is rotating and the work is stationary or combined with
rotational motion around a center that is not in line with the rotating cutter. It cuts material
by moving it with relation to the rotating cutting head. It is used in metal fabrication to form
parts.
b. A process that uses a wheel or disk made up of grains of abrasives each acting as a single
point cutting edge. It is used in metal fabrication to separate the workpiece into two pieces,
reduce material for proper fit up, to shape weld profiles, and remove defects.
c. A process that uses rotational forces to rotate the work about a center while the tool is
stationary. The tool can advance along the center or advances toward the center
(approximately) to deepen the cut. It is used in metal fabrication to square and bevel pipe
ends for groove welds, shape round members, cut threads, and separate the workpiece into
two pieces.
336. Which of the following is used in metal fabrication to square and bevel pipe ends for groove
welds, shape round members, cut threads and separate the workpiece into two pieces?
a. Turning
b. Grinding
c. Shaping
d. Planning
337. Which of the following terms is applied to a process that is carried out by a machine that can
shrink, stretch, dome, edge turn, bead, offset or virtually produce any form that is needed?
a. Turning
b. Grinding
c. Shaping
d. Planning
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338. Which of the following descriptions best define the term drilling?
a. A process that uses a plunging motion while the tool is rotating and work is held stationary. It
is used in metal fabrication for making holes in various workpieces.
b. A process that uses a cutting tool that is rotating and the work is stationary or combined with
parts.
two pieces.
339. Which of the following descriptions best define the term planning?
parts.
b. A process that uses rotational forces to rotate the work about a center while the tool is
two pieces.
c. Taking a flat piece of sheet metal and making it into anything you need with power
d. A process that uses a machine tool that has a linear motion in relation to the workpiece. The
linear toolpath has a single point cutting tool mounted to it. It is used in metal fabrication to
make large flat surface and cutting slots as in keyways.
340. Which of the following uses chisel shaped tools with hammer type blows in metal fabrication
to remove excess metal and slag?
a. Chipping
b. Drilling
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
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341. Which of the following uses a torch with a non-consumable electrode, a plasma arc and inert
gas to cut virtually any conductor?
a. Air Carbon Arc Cutting (CAC-A)

b. Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC)
c. Plasma Arc Cutting (PAC)
d. Laser Beam Cutting (LBC)
342. Which of the following best describes the Air Carbon Arc Cutting Process?
a. Uses a gun to cut virtually any material. This process uses light amplified by stimulated
emission of radiation and an inert gas or in some cases reactive gases even compressed air
for cutting. The high energy produces tremendous heat melting the material and a cut is
produced. It is used in metal fabrication to primarily cut straight or curved lines, bevels,
pierce holes, and joint preparation.
b. Uses arc plasma to melt the metal. The molten metal is blown away by a blast of air. It
employs a consumable electrode to create a molten pool of metal in which the high pressure
high volume air flow can blow away. It works on any metal that a molten pool can be formed
on and the air can blow it away. It is used in metal fabrication to primarily gouge metal for
joint preparation or to remove defects from welds. It can also be used to separate the
workpiece into two pieces.
c. Uses a torch to heat metal to its kindling temperature. When it is cherry red a stream of
oxygen is directed at it, burning the metal into. The metal oxide flow out of the kerf and in
some cases form on the back side of the joint and is referred to as dross. This is a chemical
reaction process and can only cut certain materials. It is used in metal fabrication to primarily
cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special tips; be used for
gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
d. Uses a torch with a non-consumable electrode to cut virtually any conductor. This process
uses a plasma arc and an inert gas or in some cases reactive gases even compressed air for
cutting. The gas or air is forced at high speed out of a nozzle while the tremendous heat of
the arc plasma melts the material and a cut is produced. It is used in metal fabrication to
primarily cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special nozzles;
be used for gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
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343. Which of the following best describes the Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC) Process?
reaction process and so can only cut certain materials. It is used in metal fabrication to
primarily cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special tips; be
used for gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
344. Which of the following processes uses an electrode and an arc plasma to cut?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
d. LBC
e. Both a and c
345. Which of the following processes utilizes a consumable electrode?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
d. LBC
e. Both a and c
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346. Which of the following thermal cutting processes can only effectively cut carbon steel?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
347. What thermal cutting process can cut all metals?
a. OFW
b. PAC
c. CAC-A
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
348. Kerf best describes:
a. depth of cut
b. gap left by cut
c. depth of gouge
d. width of gouge
e. Both b and d only
349. Which of the following is the residue left on the back side of a cut made with one of the
thermal cutting processes?
a. Slag
b. Spatter
c. Arc wash
d. Dross
e. Splatter
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Brazing and Soldering
350. ________ is a metal-joining process that melts the filler metal which flow out and between
several closely fitting joints. Capillary action takes place and draws the molten filler metal into
the joint. The base metal does not reach its melting point. Flux is used to break down surface
tension and allows the molten filler metal to more effective flow and wet out.
a. Fusion Welding
b. Braze Welding
c. Brazing
d. Soldering
e. Both c and d
351. What is the melting point differential between brazing and soldering?
a. 7000 F
b. 7400 F
c. 8000 F
d. 8400 F
e. 9000 F
352. Which of the following describes the Torch Brazing (TB) heating source?
a. Heating of ferrous materials is accomplished by inserting them into a coil. This then induces a
very high current level into them. It is also typically done at very high frequencies so that
magnetic domains are alternated causing additional heat to be produced.
b. Large volumes of joints are typically heated using either electric, gas or oil depending on the
type of equipment used and application.
c. The workpieces are heated locally by large amounts of current flowing through them. Once
at temperature, the filler metal that is placed between the workpieces melts by the heat
generated from the flow of electric current through the electrodes and the work.
d. Heat is applied using a gas flame placed on or near the joint being brazed.
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353. Which of the following describes the Induction Brazing (IB) heating source?
a. Heating of ferrous materials is accomplished by inserting them into a coil. This then induces
a very high current level into them. It is also typically done at very high frequencies so that
b. Large volumes of joints are typically heated using either electric, gas or oil depending on
the type of equipment used and application.
354. Large volumes of joints are typically heated using electric, gas or oil depending on the type of
equipment and application used. Which of the following processes apply to this process?
a. Dip (DB)
b. Furnace (FB)
c. Infrared (IRB)
d. Resistance (RB)
355. The workpieces are heated locally by large amounts of current flowing through them. Once at
temperature, the filler metal that is placed between the workpieces melts by the heat
generated from the flow of electric current through the electrodes and the work. Which of the
following terms apply to this process?
a. Dip (DB)
b. Furnace (FB)
c. Infrared (IRB)
d. Resistance (RB)
356. Which of the following describe the Dip Brazing (DB) heating source?
a. A method using focused 'light energy' typically from high intensity quartz bulbs to heat the
parts to the proper temperature.
c. This method is especially suited for brazing aluminum due to the air being excluded which
prevents the formation of oxides. Fixturing of the parts are required with the filler metal
applied to the faying surfaces. This is done in a slurry form. The assemblies are then placed
into molten salts that act as flux while providing the appropriate heat level.
d. The workpieces are heated locally by large amounts of current flowing through them. Once
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357. Which of the following describe the Infrared Brazing (IRB) heating source?
c. T his method is especially suited for brazing aluminum due to the air being excluded which
358. Which of the following statements is true about the advantages of brazing and soldering?
a. They can join materials with different metallurgical properties.

b. Heavy joint sections are easily joined.
c. Thin joint sections are easily joined.
d. Poor fit up is not an issue.
e. Cleanliness is not an issue because of the flux.
359. Joints for brazing and soldering must be:
a. designed to have a large surface area of contact.

b. heated with a heat source even including matches.
c. properly fluxed to remove the contaminants.
d. fit up with large gaps to allow the filler metal to easily flow through the joint via gravity.
360. The brazing alloy designation is RBCuZn. What alloy would it contain?
a. Silicon
b. Gold
c. Copper
d. Zinc
e. Both c and d
361. Discontinuities encountered on brazed and soldered joints are easily detected.
a. True
b. False
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362. After brazing or soldering the flux residue needs to be removed because it is:
a. hard and brittle

b. not paintable
c. corrosive
d. a fire hazard
e. weakens the joint
363. An application calls for joining two materials using an alloy specified as BAg, which has a
melting point of 14500 F. Which of the following could not be used in this process?
a. Brazing
b. Silver Brazing
c. Silver Soldering
d. Braze Welding
e. Both c and d
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Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test
Answers with Explanations
1. a - This is the shielded metal arc welding process (SMAW), which uses a finite electrode length, a
coated consumable electrode that generates its own shielding gas by the decomposition of the
flux coating on the electrode and the heat source is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding
process it is best to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite
length or continuous as on a small spool or large pay off pack reel or drum? The second thing to
look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the
breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a
separate flux and electrode combination? Or are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a
combination of both flux and external gas shielding? A third issue to be considered is whether
the electrode is consumed while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue
would be the heat source, which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical
resistance, or many other types of heat sources.
2. c - The American Welding Society has developed a standard electrode classification system. An
electrode for this process could be E6010. The E stands for electrode and the next two or three
digits represent the minimum tensile strength in thousands of pounds per square inch. In this
case, the first two digits from the left represent 60 ksi or 60,000 pounds per square inch. The
third or fourth digits is the welding position. In this case the ‘1’ represents an all position
capable electrode. The final digit is the operating characteristics, such as type of coating,
current, polarity, penetration, deposition rate, bead appearance, spatter level, ease of slag
removal, yield point and percent of elongation (ductility). Always check with the electrode
manufacturer technical data sheet on the particular brand and type being used.
3. c - This is a manual process; the welder must control the arc length as the electrode melts away.
This causes a fluctuation in arc length and voltage. In order to maintain the amperage a constant
current output machine is required. This type power source lets the voltage go up and down
with the arc length but maintains the amperage and the name implies.
4. d - A transformer machine only outputs alternating current. While a rectifier changes a.c. to d.c.
by changing the electrode welding lead and the work lead, the direct current (d.c.) can be
hooked up electrode positive (DCEP) or electrode negative (DCEN). The out of style designation
was Reverse Polarity and Straight Polarity respectively.
5. a - The arc is the ionized gap between the end of the electrode and the work piece. Voltage is
the force pushing the welding current (amps) across this gap. Arc voltage is the most accurate
measurement to control or monitor arc length.
6. a - Duty cycle in the USA is rated on a 10 minute time frame. A 300 amp power source with a
60% duty cycle can be welded with 6 minutes out of any 10 minute segment of time. Four
minutes would be needed to cool down, with the power source on and its fan running. As the
amperage goes up, the duty cycle goes down and vice versa. At a sufficiently low amperage
setting, the duty cycle could be 100% or 10 minutes out of 10 minutes continuously.
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7. e - Lengthening the arc requires more voltage to push the current (amps) across the increase
gap between the electrode and the work piece. The constant current power source is designed
to reduce amperage as the voltage goes up, much like a teeter totter does. As one side goes up
the other side goes down. And vise versa.
8. a - The output of the welding machine should determine the size of the electrode holder, as it
determines how much amperage is available. The equipment hooked to it should be appropriate
for the amperage or overheating of that equipment will occur.
9. a - The key is major function, and that is to purify the weld pool and weld metal.
10. d - Many factors go into the correct selection of the electrode size. Such as joint design,
thickness of the weld layer, welding position, amount of current, skill of the welder and of
course the materials thickness. Using too large of an electrode for the thickness of the material
being welded can lead to excessive melt through or “burn through”.
11. b - The numbers 5, 6, and 8 indicate a low hydrogen type of electrode. There are various
electrode classification charts available that indicate electrode variations.
12. b - This is the gas tungsten arc welding process (GTAW) as it has a solid electrode which is non-
consumable (no metal is transferring across the arc) and is externally shielded via an inert
shielding gas. Filler metal is added separately and, as indicated, may or may not be required. The
heat source used is an arc (plasma).To identify a welding process it is best to start with the
electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite length or continuous, as on a small
spool or large pay off pack reel or drum? The second thing to look for is how the arc and weld
pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux)
or is there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode combination?
Or are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a combination of both flux and external gas
shielding? A third issue to be considered is whether the electrode is consumed while welding or
is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the heat source, which could be an arc
(plasma), chemical reaction, electrical resistance or many other types of heat sources.
13. c - As the process name implies it is an arc welding process. A welding arc is one of the four
states of matter. The four states of matter are solids, liquids, gases and plasma. A plasma is an
ionized gas which means it is a conductor of electricity. It is a very effective transferor of power
in that it takes electrical energy and turns it into heat and light.
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14. d - All are functions of the arc welding torch except cool the weld zone. The torch for this
process is designed to transfer the current to a fixed tungsten electrode, position the electrode
and control the flow and direction of the shielding gas.
15. d - Argon has a very low ionization potential of 15.7 volts. This allows for good arc starting.
16. c - The shape of the output wave form from this type power source is referred to as square
wave. These type power sources have enhanced performance on a.c. They can control the
balance, amplitude, frequency etc… to allow better control of penetration and cleaning action.
17. c - The lift or scratch start and HF (high frequency) methods are the preferred methods of arc
starting when using a tungsten electrode and gas shielded process. The scratch start method is
the least preferred because of tungsten contamination.
18. c - With DCEN, the electrons are moving from the electrode to the plate; thus carrying 70% of
the heat with them. The tungsten electrode is left relatively cool with only 30% of heat directed
at it. This allows for a smaller diameter tungsten which can carry larger amounts of current,
while more heat on the plate allows for faster travel speed and deeper penetration of the weld
pool.
19. d - With this thickness of material, the best control of the weld pool will be had with the gas
tungsten arc welding process with direct current electrode negative.
20. a - See the following table of Tungsten Electrode Identification:
Tungsten Electrode Identification

Common AWS Color
Name Classification Code
Pure EWP Green
2% Cerium EWCe-2 Orange
1% EWLa-1 Black
Lanthanum
1.5% EWLa-1.5 Gold
Lanthanum
2.0% EWLa-2 Blue
Lanthanum
1% Thorium EWTh-1 Yellow
2% Thorium EWTh-2 Red
Zirconium EWZr-1 Brown
21. c - The gas nozzle should be 4 to 6 times larger than the diameter of the electrode.
22. c - This is the gas metal arc welding process (GMAW) as it has a solid electrode or metal cored
electrode wire which is consumable and deposits into the weld bead with no flux being used. It
is externally shielded via a shielding gas. The heat source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a
welding process it is best to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a
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finite length or continuous as on a small spool or large pay off pack reel or drum. The second
thing to look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the
breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a
separate flux and electrode combination? Or are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a
combination of both flux and external gas shielding. A third issue to be considered is whether
the electrode is consumed while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode A forth issue
would be the heat source, which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical
23. c - Spray
b - Globular
a - Short Circuit
d - Pulse
24. a – A process that uses a wire feeder to feed the electrode wire into the welding arc and weld
pool is considered a semi-automatic application process. In order to regulate the melt rate of
the electrode and maintain the proper arc length a constant feed speed wire feeder and
constant voltage (CV) or constant potential (CP) power source is required.
25. e - The small, lightweight, power efficient inverter is the only one capable of running all the
various modes of metal transfer. The inverter could be considered ‘green power’ because they
are so electrically efficient compared to the older technology.
26. b - The gun trigger activates the gas solenoid valve, wire feed motor to feed wire and applies
weld voltage to the output terminals of the power source. It is considered a gun with this
process because a torch only applies heat and shielding, while this gun provides heat and
shielding along with the electrode wire which is fed through it.
27. c - The surrounding air around the weld pool, contains oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen. These
gases get into the molten weld pool and cause gas bubbles to form (porosity) and lead to
embrittlement and weld cracking.
28. e - When a process like this is used on ferrous alloys, those alloys containing iron, a reactive gas
is required to properly control the weld pool. The reactive gas allows the weld pool to wet out
and maintain the proper weld profile. Carbon dioxide and oxygen are reactive gases so all of
these are correct.
29. e - A process that produces no flux residue (slag) must only use solid and or metal cored
electrode wires.
30. a - Amperage is a function of how much wire is being fed into the weld pool in a process that
uses a constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun. The self-
regulating nature of a constant voltage power source, and a constant speed wire feeder, are
evident. As the wire is increased or decreased in speed, the power source will automatically
increase or decrease the melt rate (amperage) to maintain the arc length.
31. a - There is no letter R in the classification designation so it is not a rod. The 70 is the minimum
tensile strength in 1000 of pounds per square inch. The ‘C’ indicates metal cored electrode.
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32. b - Shortening the electrode extension reduces the resistance heating which increases the arc
heating which will increase the amperage and improve the penetration and fusion
characteristics in the weld pool.
33. b - This is the flux cored arc welding process-gas shielded (FCAW-G) as it has a tubular electrode
wire with flux in it. It is also consumable and as it melts it deposits into the weld bead. This is the
gas shielded variety. Flux cored electrodes are also made in a self-shielded configuration which
requires no external shielding gas. The heat source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding
process it is best to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite
length or continuous as on a spool or large pay off pack? The second thing to look for is how the
arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the breakdown of the electrode
coating (flux) or is there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode
combination? Or are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a combination of both flux
and external gas shielding. A third issue to be considered is whether the electrode is consumed
while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the heat source, which
could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical resistance, or many other types of heat
sources.
34. e - To keep the travel angle understandable, the terms ‘Push’ and ‘Drag’ should be used. The
names apply directly to how the gun looks in relationship to the arc and weld pool in the
direction of travel. If a welding process like this produces a slag, the saying “drag slag” certainly
fits the correct travel angle for all welding positions except vertical.
35. b – A process that uses a wire feeder to feed the electrode wire into the welding arc and weld
pool is considered a semi-automatic application process. In order to regulate the melt rate of
the electrode and maintain the proper arc length, a constant feed speed wire feeder and
constant voltage (CV) or constant potential (CP) power source is required. The red volt amp
curve is the most effective with this process.
36. c - Always check with the electrode manufacturer for their recommendations as the electrodes
with flux in their core have a lot of individual operating characteristics, even though they carry
the same AWS classification designations. This also effects the amperage, wire feed speed,
voltage, polarity and of course electrode extension. In this case ¼ to 1-1/2 inch is most common.
37. e - This is the submerged arc welding process (SAW) as it has a solid electrode wire. It is also
consumable and, as it melts, it deposits into the weld bead. It uses a separate granular flux for
shielding and the addition of alloying elements. The arc is buried under this layer of granular
flux, thus the name submerged arc. There is little smoke and the arc radiation is captured under
the granular flux. The heat source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding process it is best
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to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite length or continuous,
as on a spool or large pay off pack? The second thing to look for is how the arc and weld pool
are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is
there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode combination? Or
are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a combination of both flux and external gas
shielding? A third issue to be considered is the electrode consumed while welding or is it a non-
consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the heat source, which could be an arc (plasma),
chemical reaction, electrical resistance, or many other types of heat sources.
38. a - Because this process uses a wire feeder, it is not a manual process like SMAW and GTAW. It
can be easily mechanized or automated. Semi-automatic is a bit more difficult as the welder
must feel the proper travel speed and the arc and weld pool are not visible. If the part is moved
under a fixed welding gun, or the gun is moved along a fixed workpiece travel, speed can be
accurately controlled. If a tracking system is used to follow the joint, that is an automatic
application. If the operator must manually turn knobs to keep the electrode extension correct,
the wire positioned in the joint and observe joint tracking and gun angles, this is the mechanized
application.
39. a - As shown in the schematic in question 37 for this process, weld backing is used on the back
side of the joint to prevent melt through and to assure complete penetration of the weld joint.
40. d - Wire feed speed controls amperage. Amperage melts the electrode and thus controls the
deposition rate. Deposition rate is referred to in terms of how much is being deposited over a
period of time such as pounds per hour (lbs/hr.) of deposited weld metal.
41. d - Carbon and iron are required to make steel. Other alloying elements maybe added as
required to get the proper characteristics required.
42. a - Steel is like lumber and has grain direction. It is strongest in the rolled direction or with the
grain. Much like a 1 X 12 board, it is strongest when stressed along its length, the direction in
which the wood grain has grown. If loaded across the grain, it will be weaker.
43. a - When welding, the melting point of steel (approx. 27800 F) versus the solidification point of
the fast freezing flux or slag (approx. 32000 F) is important to know. Also, it is important to
know that the melting point varies with the carbon and alloy content of steel. Steel is magnetic
until heated above the transformation temperature of approximately 1333 0 F. How fast the
metal conducts heat will have a large effect of preheat and inter-pass temperature control. How
much the metal expands on heating and contracts when cooling needs to be understood to
control buckling and distortion.
44. c - The density of steel is 490 pounds per cubic foot and its specific gravity is 7.8 times that of
water. Water weighs 1000 Kg/m3. Therefore, a cubic meter of steel would weigh approximately
7800 kg depending upon the exact grade of steel being checked. Porosity, slag inclusion or other
types of discontinuities would reduce the weight but not the specific gravity.
45. a - Porosity is not generally considered a critical type discontinuity in regard to mechanical
properties. Some codes allow a generous amount of porosity to be present in some welds.
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However a good welder should try and eliminate it or reach acceptable levels. Hygienic welds
will not allow porosity because it creates a breeding ground for bacteria and the weld cannot be
properly cleaned.
46. e – Metals, such as steel, act like a rubber band. They can be stretched and return to their
original shape when the load has been removed,
47. d - The ability of a material to be effected by repeated load (generally more than 250,000 cycles)
is considered fatigue or cyclic loading. The endurance limit of a material is the load that can be
applied for an unlimited number of cycles without failure occurring.
48. a - Reference table above for all the various alloying elements for steel.
49. b - Reference the classification system table.
50. c - Welds shrink both length wise and across the cross section of the weld. See reference
drawings. The dotted lines indicate position of plate prior to welding.
51. e - A weld bears the most stress when it is made. When it is made, the weld is molten and fully
expanded and then eventually shrinks as it cools and solidifies. Sequencing the welds by moving
them around reduces the overall heat input. The sequence starts at the most highly restrained
joint and works toward the less restrained joints, reducing the type and amount of weld metal
placed in the joint. This method reduces heat input and distortion, setting the joint up
misaligned so that the shrinkage force pulls the joint into alignment. Welding on both sides of
the joint or the neutral axis of the joint more evenly distributes the heat input and limits the
distortion.
52. d - Residual stresses are those stresses that remain in the weldment after the weld has cooled
and contracted. These stresses can exceed the tensile strength of the materials and cause
cracking. Or they can exceed the yield strength of the materials can cause distortion.
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53. e - All of the methods in the answer options, except external restraint, either mechanically or
thermally “relax the spring” thus relieving the stress to a level that is acceptable. External
restraint, such as a ‘strong back’ will keep the joint from moving. However, the external restraint
locks in the residual stress and if it is removed the joint will buckle.
54. b - Peening is the mechanical working of a weld using impact blows.
55. a - The strength and hardness properties are tied directly together. While ductility (reduction of
area and percent elongation) work just the opposite of strength and hardness. Tempering is
usually done to reduce hardness and improve ductility.
56. e - As steel is cooled, hardness and tensile strength will increase and ductibility and impact
strength will decrease. The converse is true as it is heated up.
57. a. e - Torsion is a turning or twisting action.

b. c – Bending is pressure applied to force away from a straight line.
c. b – Tension is a pulling action.
d. a – Compression is the application of pressure and the opposite of tension.
e. d – Shear is pulling action causing two bodies to slide on each other, parallel to their
plane of contact.
58. a - Review the illustration on weld solidification.
59. b - When welding, the melting point of steel (approx. 27800 F) versus the solidification point of
the fast freezing flux or slag (approx. 32000 F) is important to know. Also, it is important to
know that the melting point varies with the carbon and alloy content of steel. Steel is magnetic
until heated above the transformation temperature of approximately 1333 0 F. How fast the
metal conducts heat will have a large effect of preheat and inter-pass temperature control. How
much the metal expands on heating and contracts when cooling needs to be understood to
control buckling and distortion.
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60. c - Review the illustration on weld solidification. Visualize the
weld pool as a very active student body at a typical junior high
school. As the students leave school they must get on the correct
bus to get home. If the bus leaves too early, some of the students
will be stranded. If the bus stays parked at the curb too long,
some of the students may be coaxed off the bus leaving it
partially empty. The anlage helps one understand how the atoms
leave the weld pool upon solidification and hopefully get into the
proper grain structure. For steel to function as intended, each
solid grain (bus) must have the proper amount of iron, carbon
and other alloying elements. Preheating will slow the cooling rate
allowing the carbon extra time to get on the bus. While too high
of an interpass temperature slows the cooling rate to the point
where the chrome may leave the bus depleting the corrosion
resistance the bus should have.
61. d - Martensite is this hard brittle structure and must be dealt with as it will lead to cracking.
62. c - Review the chart on all the various alloying elements.
63. d - Review the chart on all the various alloying elements.
64. d - Review the illustration on weld solidification for the lines that are separating the grains. Thus
setting the boundaries for that particular grain.
65. b - This will produce a small grain structure which is what is being specified on the WPS and is
what is being accomplished by the qualified welder, which is weld hot, fast, tight arc length and
no weave beads.
66. e – The substitutional method is when large alloying elements like chrome are used. To make
the school bus corrosion resistant, 12% of the iron atoms (they are also a large element and
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occupy the bus seats) need to be removed to make room for the chrome atoms. The interstitial
method is when small alloying elements like carbon are used. Carbon is so small it does not
need a seat. Carbon can fit in between the iron atoms at the atomic level. None of the iron
atoms are displaced. Alloying causes a distortion or strain in the arrangement of these grains.
This is brought about by the atoms exerting varying degrees of atomic attraction and repulsion
on one another, thus making the material have better mechanical and physical properties.
67. c - If a qualified WPS is used and a qualified welder made the welds, the weld and surrounding
area may still have metallurgical problems. This may involve improper grain size and excessive
harness that will need correcting by performing after weld heating and controlled cooling. This is
referred to as Postweld Heat Treatment (PWHT) and is specified on the WPS. Review the
Procedure Essential Variables for additional information.
68. d - The Sample Classification of Ferrous Weld Metal illustration lists the chemical analysis of the
various A-Numbers. Only the A-Number 8 matches the chemical requirements in the question.
69. a - Welding on coated materials is critical, as they present various contamination issues, so
review the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with the Base Metal for specific information.
The question is specifically addressing only the WPS.
70. b - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with the Shielding Gas and this
M23 Base Metal, the maximum allowable flow rate must not be greater than 50% of the 45 CFH
what is specified.
71. e - Lap joint-workpieces that are approximately parallel with nonbutting ends that overlap one
another
a - Butt joint-workpieces with butting ends lined up in the same plane
d - T joint-workpieces with one butting end of a member is lined up perpendicular with a
c - Edge joint-workpieces with one or more nonbutting ends lie approximately parallel
b - Corner joint-workpieces with butting or nonbutting ends of one or members come together
72. c - Fillet (circular) deposited in right angle formed by two plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
d - Spot an arc spot weld by penetration through the top plate (no hole) and fusing into the one
below
e - Groove go in the joint, can be loaded in any direction
g - Surfacing used to build up pad of metal and to replace metal on worn surfaces. Not in a
joint.
b - Plug weld placed in a hole
a - Slot weld placed in an elongated hole, (slot)
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f - Fillet deposited in right angle formed by two plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
73. d - Weld Face is the portion most visible when viewing a weld
e - Weld Toe is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
a - Weld Leg distance from the beginning of the joint and the weld toe
c - Fillet Weld a triangular shaped weld, setting on the joint
b - Weld Root how far the weld extends into the joint
74. h - Theoretical Throat is the shortest of the three throats and weakest part of the weld. Design
engineers use the theoretical throat dimension when calculating the size of the weld, which
needs to match the shear load this weld will see in service along with safety margins. It is
measured from the start of the joint directly to largest right triangle that can be inscribed in
the weld.
b - Effective Throat - Because this is a concave fillet weld the effective and actual throats are
b - Actual Throat - See effective throat because this is a concave weld. As the name implies, it is
measured from the weld root directly to the face of the weld.
c - Concavity is the distance from a straight line drawn from toe to toe to the face of the weld. It
is measured perpendicular to that straight line and at the greatest distance. Generally the
size of the weld is measured, not the concavity of the weld.
e -Size is the size as they are measuring from the plate to the largest right triangle that can be
inscribed in the weld. Note the vertical and horizontal aspects of this measurement.
d - Leg is the legs of this weld as they are measuring from the plate to the toes of the weld. Note
the vertical and horizontal aspects of this measurement.
75. b - Discontinuity is the most appropriate term, as a flaw and defect exceed the requirements of
the welding specification. Homogeneous means “of a uniform nature” which is not being
described in the question.
76. d - Acceptance criteria is the acceptable term when doing code work. The first three answer
options describe issues dealing with the welding procedure and welder qualification
requirements and do not specifically get into visually accepting the weld. The last one is part of
the acceptance criteria, as the profile of the weld is very important.
77. b - Professionally sound looking welds have failed and ugly welds have held up. The old saying
“don’t judge a book by its cover” seems to fit this situation. Judging should be very objective and
based on what is stated in the specification.
78. a – Cracks are the most serious discontinuity that can occur and are always considered a defect.
There are a number of different orientations and types of cracks. A center line crack is shown in
the photograph. Cracks are the result of localized stresses from causes such as other
discontinuities, notches or high restraint areas. Welding cracks exhibit little sign of stretching;
this is due to localized hardening of the cracked material.
79. b - Note the crater shown in the picture also has a center line crack in it.
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80. d - Convexity is the maximum distance from the face of a convex fillet weld perpendicular to a
line jointing the weld toes.
81. b – Per the specification above, the maximum for a 5/16 inch weld would be 3/32 inch. Excess
convexity is to be avoided. Under fatigue loading it creates stress risers at the weld toes. With
this convex weld and flat/flush welds the leg and size are the same measurement.
82. c - The question asks about weld root to the face of the weld. Do not be confused by the
“shortest distance”. You have to read and understand each word in the question and you must
read all of the responses presented.
83. a - The vertical leg is being measured. The horizontal leg can be estimated via the scribed line.
To do it accurately, you need to pick the gauge up and swing it around so that the horizontal leg
is being measured and the scribed line is running horizontal.
84. c - Light is showing between the weld and the blade of the gauge. So it is not a 5/16 inch weld.
Check with the weld specification to see if an undersized weld is allowed.
85. e - It is being used to measure the throat but the gauge has scribed lines on it showing the
largest right triangle that can be inscribed in the weld. The size of this angle (weld) is 5/16 inch.
86. e - The joint must be square to allow the gauge to fit properly. Experienced users can make
allowances for the joint not being square and make a good judgment on the weld size.
Miniature gauges are available to medicate the joint not being square.
87. d - Excessive concavity is not specified in the fillet weld profile illustration. It would be picked up
as insufficient throat or an undersized weld.
88. e - Undercut best describes this fashion. Some people want to call it “under fill” but it is not
correct, since it is not in the weld being located next to the toe.
89. a - The undercut is acceptable per the illustration and the acceptance requirement.
90. c - Porosity is a gas bubble being trapped in the solidifying weld metal. There are many different
types of porosity. The photograph shows scattered surface porosity. Other types are as follows:
- Cluster, which is randomly appearing localized in groups

- Piping-or wormhole, which is longer than its diameter and perpendicular to
the weld face
- Aligned-or linear, which is orientated in a line
- Elongated-or wormtrack, which is longer than its width and is parallel with
the weld face.
91. d - If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is referred to as
Incomplete fusion.
92. b - Fusion face is the original surface of the joint prior to welding. There are actually two fusion
faces a vertical and the horizontal one with the call out.
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d - Weld interface begins where the weld stops and heat affected zone begins. There are
actually two weld interfaces a vertical and the horizontal one with the call out.
a- Depth of fusion is how deep into the base metal the weld goes beyond the fusion face. There
are actually two areas that have depth of fusion, a horizontal one and this vertical one with
the call out.
c - Incomplete penetration-lack of penetration of the weld into the joint is actually incorrect for
fillet welds. Groove welds have penetration issues, while fillet welds have fusion issues. This
is incomplete fusion.
93. a – Location a is the weld root. Location b is how far the weld penetrated into the base metal.
The weld strength is determined by how far the weld penetrated into the joint. The root is
where the joint comes together closest. Since this is a square groove weld with a reinforcing
fillet weld on top of it on a corner joint, the root extends the whole thickness of the plate.
94. c – Excess Convexity

b – Concavity
a - Wash - which is a non standard term describing the welding metal washing up on the vertical
member. Special information should be found in the welding specification for this.
95. a - Weld Face is the portion most visible when viewing a weld
d - Weld Toe is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
b - Face reinforcement
c - Root reinforcement
96. b - Groove weld with reinforcement

c - Incomplete joint penetration
a – Root penetration. The groove weld size, joint penetration and root penetration are all the
same thing because this is a square groove weld
97. b - Ripple pattern might affect appearance of the weld but is not an acceptance requirement.
Judging should be very objective and based on what is stated in the specification.
98. b - Heat affected zone – This zone has been heated to a point that a microstructure change has
occurred in the material, but it has not melted.
c - Weld metal- An area that has totally melted and is an add mixture of the filler metal
(electrode), the base metal that has been melted and any alloying fluxes from the welding
process being used.
a - Base metal- An area that has not melted or gotten hot enough to undergo any microstructure
change
99. e - Incomplete fusion is not shown on the illustration and is not considered a profile issue.
However, incomplete fusion is a very critical type defect and should be avoided.
100. d –The illustrations show incomplete fusion. These are areas where the weld and base metal did
not melt and flow together.
101. c - Undercut face

d - Overlap face
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b - Overlap root
a - Undercut root
102. b - Underfill is when the face of the weld is below the surface of the joint. It only occurs on
groove welds.
103. a – Location a is the weld root. Location ‘b is how far the weld penetrated into the base metal.
The weld strength is determined by how far the weld penetrated into the joint. The root is
where the joint comes together closest. Since this is a square groove weld the root extends the
whole thickness of the plate.
104. b – Never put all the discontinuity prone points of a weld in one location. They need to be
staggered around the joint to minimize the discontinuity effects.
105. a - Always know the requirements being placed on the type of welding being considered. For
structural type welding, fillet welds are most common, while in the piping industry groove welds
are most common.
106. a - This is standard industry practice for qualifying a welder or welding operator.
107. d – Welding Performance Qualification Record (WPQR) -The form used to record all the
data when a welder or welding operator is being qualified.
a - Welding Procedure Specification (WPS)- The recording of all the parameters on a form that
if followed during testing, production or doing weld repair, will produce sound welds and
mechanically strong weld that are fit for the purpose intended.
f - Prequalified-Welding Procedure Specification (P-WPS) -Some codes allow the use of data
tables for parameters, base metal/filler metal matching strength, preheats and joint design
to be brought together onto a form for the intended purpose of producing sound welds and
mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose intended without having to do so
much mechanical testing.
b – Standard-Welding Procedure Specification (SWPS) - Purchasing a form that someone else
has qualified; by having all the mechanical testing done; that if followed will produce sound
welds and mechanically strong weld that are fit for the purpose intended.
e - Mock Up - A scale or full size model made of a joint that will be tested and approved for
production work.
c - Procedure Qualification Test Record - The form used to record all the exact parameters
necessary for the passing of all the required tests prior to a welding procedure specification
being qualified.
108. b - WPS is much like a recipe is to a chef. If it is followed, a consistent weld will be made.
109. a - WPQR determines if a welder is qualified to a Welding Procedure Specification.
110. c - Essential Variables, if changed, will require the welder and or the welding procedure
specification to be requalified.
111. a – Shielding gas is not on the list of performance qualification essential variables so shielding
gas is not an essential variable for the welder.
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112. a - With the SMAW process, current and polarity are not essential variables as stated in the
sample list. However, for GTAW they are considered extremely important parameters.
113. b - Reference the sample list of performance qualification essential variables for the welder.
114. b - From the list of essential variables, the deletion of backing is not allowed. It is much easier to
make this weld with the backing bar on. To remove it makes it much more difficult and the
welder would have to prove on another WPQR test that they can make the weld without
backing.
115. a - From the illustration in question 116, the weld is being made in the horizontal position and is
a groove weld. So, from the table, the test position in the second column is 2G. Going across
from the 2G, the only other position they are qualified to weld on is flat. Read the footnotes to
verify if they apply to answering this question.
116. b - A portion of this weld is made in the vertical position. Vertical is the only position that deals
with progression, so the welder needs to be requalified with this new progression direction.
117. d – From the Sample Allowable Filler Metals table, first column, first row applies to this
question. The welder will be able to use the F-number used in the test, which was F3, and any
lower F number.
118. a - Reference the Sample Allowable Base Metals for Performance Qualification table. The first
and second column in the fourth row cover this situation. For additional information on Base
Metal Specifications and M-Number listing please check this American Welding Society site at
http://www.aws.org/technical/B2.1-B2.1M-BMG-2009-ADD1.pdf.
119. a - A change in thickness and or diameter from that tested, except as allowed in the
specification or code, may require qualification. Always verify this type of information.
120. a - A change in the welding application from manual or semiautomatic to any of the more
mechanized applications or vice versa would require qualification. Always verify this type of
information.
121. d - Reference the sample examination requirements for performance qualifications and
footnote a.
122. b - On the Sample Number of Bend Tests per Performance Qualification table, a fixed pipe with
its axis horizontal is the number ‘5’ position and the ‘G’ for groove weld or 5G for short.
123. e - This is considered general knowledge after completing section 3 on a weld examination.
124. d - Soundness is what is required of the welder. The mechanical properties are determined by
the welding procedure specification.
125. a - As it is being loaded, the force will place the root of the fillet weld in tension. The sample will
either bend over upon itself or break. Both are acceptable. If the fillet weld breaks, the surface
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of the fracture should show no cracks, incomplete root fusion, no inclusion or porosity
exceeding 3/32 inch (2 mm) in its greatest dimension and also the sums of the greatest
dimensions or all inclusions or porosity should not exceed 3/8 in. (10 mm) for the length of the
specimen.
126. c - Incomplete fusion and cracks are critical type discontinuities and are defects, thus making
them rejectable.
127. d - The test specimen’s length for an operator is 15 in. long. So the test specimen’s length
divided by 2 = 7-1/2 in., minus 3 in. = 4-1/2 in. Alternatively, the length is 15 in. and the fillet
weld break specimen is 6 in. So 15 minus 6 divided by two equals 4-1/2 in.
128. e - WPS must be capable of dealing with all of these situations. Welder or Welding Operator
qualifications deal with soundness only.
129. e – The first three columns of the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove
Welds for Procedure Qualification table apply.
130. d - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for Procedure
Qualification table, the first column footnote a (2) applies along with the 4th column.
131. d - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for Procedure
Qualification table, the first three columns and footnote b applies.
132. e - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for Procedure
Qualification table, columns one and three and foot note d apply. Also 0.6875 in. and 11/16 in.
are the same. They equal 5/8 in. time 1.1.
133. c - From the Sample Thickness and Size Limitations for Fillet Welds for Procedure Qualification
table, columns one and three plus foot note c apply.
134. e - From the Sample Test Methods Required for Procedure Qualification, columns one and two
plus foot note b apply.
135. b - From the Sample Test Methods Required for Procedure Qualification, columns one, three
and four.
136. a - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with Other Variables and this M23
Base Metal, this is ok but not vice versa. This is a heat input issue on a heat treatable material
and stringer beads produce less heat input, so this is ok.
137. a - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables and the Performance Essential Variables,
the only one that applies to the qualification of both is the welding process. Keep in mind, the
welder is responsible for soundness in the weld, while the WPS is concerned with soundness
and also the mechanical properties.
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138. g – Bell hole weld - A fixed position butt joint being welded on a cross-country pipe line, that is
located at the bottom of a trench dug out to give the welders access to the joint.
e – Dual shield -A flux cored electrode that requires an additional shielding gas.
f – Heliarc - An arc welding process that was developed using helium as a shielding gas and
tungsten as a non-consumable electrode.
c – Innershield - A flux cored electrode that is used without a shielding gas, it is self shielded
much like a coated electrode turned inside out.
i – Land - The portion of a pipe joint that comes together closest and is usually an area or
surface.
b – Rod - The improper term for a coated electrode used with the shielding metal arc welding
process.
a – Stinger - The electrode holder or a welding torch or gun where you might get an electrical
shock or “sting”.
d – Whip - A light duty electrode holder attached to a short (approx. 10 feet) light duty
electrode lead, to make it light and very flexible for the welder to handle.
h – Pot metal - Is a metal also known as white metal, zinc die-cast, and is a colloquial term
referring to alloys like zinc, lead, copper, tin, magnesium, and aluminum that consist of
inexpensive, low-melting point metals used to make fast, inexpensive castings.
139. H - Bevel is an angular shape on the joint.

A – Bevel angle is the angle between the bevel and a perpendicular line from the plate surface.
D – Bevel radius is the radius used to form a J-groove or U-groove type joint.
B – Groove angle is the included angle between the groove faces.
I – Groove face is any surface in a joint prior to welding.
G – Joint root is where the members come together closest, it may be a point, a line or an area
in cross section.
C – Root edge is the root with no width or thickness.
E - Root face is that portion of the groove face that appears in the joint root.
F – Root opening is the separation of the joint where the two members come together.
140. J – Base Metal Zone (BMZ) is the base metal that has not undergone any
microstructure or mechanical changes due to the welding
K - Depth of Fusion is how far beyond the fusion face the weld metal has melted into the base
metal
B - Face reinforcement is the reinforcement from the side the weld was made
D - Fusion face is the surface of the base metal that is melted during
welding
F - Heat affected zone (HAZ) is that area of the base metal that did not
melt but became hot enough to undergo a microstructure or
mechanical change
G - Root reinforcement is the reinforcement that occurs on the side
opposite where the weld was made
I - Root surface is where the joint comes closest together
A - Weld face is the most exposed surface of a weld as you look at it from
the direction it was made
E - Weld interface is the boundary between the weld metal and the heat
affected zone
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H - Weld root is the location where the weld fused deepest into the joint
C - Weld toe is the line where the weld face blends into the base metal
L – Weld Metal Zone (WMZ) is the solidified weld which is an admixture of the
electrode (filler rod), base metal and any alloys present in the flux or coating
on the electrode.
141. B – Depth of Bevel is the perpendicular distance from the surface of the base metal to
the to the start of the root.
C – Groove weld size is how far the weld penetrated into the joint minus any face
reinforcement.
A – Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) is that area of the base metal that did not melt but
became hot enough to undergo a microstructure or mechanical change
E - Incomplete joint penetration is the section of the joint root where penetration did
not occur. If the weld was designed to be a complete joint penetration weld (CJP)
and it is not then it is a discontinuity and is known as incomplete penetration. If the
weld was designed to be a partial joint penetration weld (PJP) then it is not a
iscontinuity and should not be called incomplete joint penetration and is just
referred to as PJP.
D – Root penetration is how far the weld has penetrated into the root of the joint
142. d – Horizontal is considered easier than most of the other positions for purposes of numbering.
Two of these example test plate positions have the plate surfaces vertical. This may create some
confusion with them being horizontal. But it is the direction the weld that is made on these
surfaces that must be considered.
143. c – Vertical is considered one of the more difficult positions to weld. It is also the only position
that involves progression; vertical uphill vs. vertical downhill. Progression is an essential variable
for welder qualification and also weld procedure qualification.
144. a. 6 - the pipe axis (center line of the pipe) is 450 from the horizontal plane and the pipe is fixed
not rolled and contains three of the most difficult positions. (horizontal, vertical and
overhead)
b. 1 - the pipe axis is horizontal but the pipe is rotated so weld is in the flat position
c. 5 - the pipe axis is horizontal but the pipe is not rotated but fixed so that the welder must
weld overhead on the bottom of the pipe, vertical on the sides and flat position on the top
d. 2 - the pipe axis is vertical so the weld is in the horizontal position
145. e - The AWS numbering system for welding positions can also be enhanced with a letter to
denote the type of weld. The letter “F” represents a fillet weld and the letter “G” represents a
groove weld. Illustrated are the flat, horizontal, vertical, and overhead positions for fillet welds
on plate. The third column shows the axis of the weld and the fourth column shows the face
rotation. Diagram reference B is the only one that matches from column two with the answer in
column one.
146. e - It is a 3G or vertical groove weld. The axis angle and face rotation only match up with the
Diagram Reference D which is vertical.
147. c – There are 4 horizontal fillets made. There is also a horizontal groove weld.
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148. c - Vertical has to be specified as to uphill welding or downhill welding.
149. e - Push is referred to with the forehand welding and travel angle for both illustrations. The
essentials of operation for the welder or operator are to control the weld pool and they are:
• Current or amperage
• Length of the arc or voltage
• Angle of the electrode both in the travel and work directions (see
illustration),
• Manipulation- electrode position in the joint, uphill or downhill, stringers or
weave, electrode extension, etc…,
• Speed of travel
The word CLAMS will help you remember these essentials.
150. b – The T-joint is 900.. To get equal heat into both members, you must split this angle so it is 450.
The butt joint is 1800. To get equal heat into both members, you must split this angle so it is
900.
151. b – The correct answer is uphill per the arrow on the side of the pipe labeled “weld
progression”.
152. d - 6G has the pipe axis at 450.
153. d – The stringer bead manipulation technique has the lowest heat input into the weldment.
When the welder manipulates the welding pool they control its size and shape. With stringer
bead manipulation, the weld pool is moved along the intended path in a straight line. This
results in faster cooling rates because of the faster travel speed. This will improve impact
strength grain structure and reduces distortion. With the weave bead manipulation the weld
pool is moved along the intended path but with a side-to-side oscillation. It is generally done to
increase weld width but must be kept within Code limits. The reduced travel speed increases
heat input and slows the cooling rate which can have a negative effect on the impact strength of
the grain structure. It also increases the distortion level.
154. c - The power source is constant voltage so it will maintain the output voltage. However, the
amperage will go up and down with the electrode extension. Long electrode extension equals
low amperage.
155. a - The power source is constant voltage so it will maintain the output voltage. However, the
amperage will go up and down with the electrode extension. Short electrode extension equals
high amperage.
156. c - These are items that require control by the welder or welding operator.
157. a - This is the preferred term. Puddle is often used but limit the depth of penetration, while a
pool does not tend to limit its depth.
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158. b - This welding technique would appear in the welding instructions or in the welding procedure
specification. This generally increases the heat input per weld pass, but will generally reduce the
total number of weld passes required to fill the joint.
159. c - This welding technique may or may not appear in the welding instructions or in the welding
procedure specification as it is not considered an essential variable. However, it does help
control weld profile, penetration and the keyhole size on the root pass.
160. d - This welding technique is used with various welding processes and various application
methods because of its ability to control penetration and when complete penetration is
required to control root reinforcement.
161. b - With this type of process controlled equipment the welding operator can be much more
productive. The other application methods require constant monitoring and, in some cases, the
weld operator may also be required to be a welder with manipulative welding skills.
162. c – Work piece connection is the correct term as it accurately described what is being
connected. Unfortunately, many people call it the ground connection. However, this is in error
as the ground connection deals with the electrical equipment requirements to bring everything
to ground potential for safety reasons.
163. c - Many of these are high pressure cylinders capable of storing gases up to 2,200 pounds per
square inch. They must be properly stored and handled. Using incorrect terms reduces ones
opinion of their seriousness. Liking them to a thermos bottle or a 5 gallon gas can or gas tank.
164. d - Slag and dross are correct. They are often confused together but they are two separate
materials. One is a byproduct of the flux use with certain welding processes like SAW, FCAW and
SMAW and the other is from thermal cutting operations.
165. c - Dross is metallic, while slag is nonmetallic. Thermal cutting produces dross not slag.
166. c - This term can also be used to describe the length of the weld along the toes and how well
they tie into the base metal. The crater area at the end of the weld and how well it ties in with
the base metal can also be referred to as a tie-in. The term pick-up is used in many companies
to describe a welder or welding operator going over their work and making in process repair of
defective welds. However, pick-up is not a standard term in the welding industry.
167. b - They can be skewed butt joints, skewed T-joints, skewed corner joints, skewed edge joints or
skewed lap joints. Various codes and welding specification indicate just what angles make the
joint skewed and how to deal with the size of the weld and penetration issues on groove welds.
168. d – Spatter is the correct term and there is no “L” in it. There generally is no acceptance
requirement for spatter. However, it must be removed for various NDE inspections and if
painting or finishing of the weld area is required.
169. c - This technique results in layers that have more than one weld bead per layer. This technique
will keep the width of each weld bead in specification.
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170. d - A fisheye is caused by the presence of hydrogen in the weld. If this appeared on a break test
of some type it may or may not be acceptable. Always verify the acceptance criteria per the
code or specification.
171. a - Adaptive control senses and makes changes in conditions by directing the welding
equipment to take corrective action to mediate what is getting out of parameters. In this case,
arc length is correcting for the voltage changes.
172. d - The backing material can be metallic or nonmetallic. The shoe is a form of backing vs. a bar;
the shoe can be stationary or moveable. They all function as barrier devices to prevent the
molten weld metal from running through the joint being welded.
173. c - This discontinuity can be critical from a metallurgical situation if the base metal has a
sensitive microstructure. Most codes or welding specification do not allow it and it must be
thoroughly inspected and repaired.
174. a – The backstep technique is the only method that has the weld passes made in the opposite
direction to the overall progress of the weld. It has the normal distortion forces actually working
against themselves, thus reducing the distortion effects.
175. b - This is also considered the operating factor and is thought of as the percentage of a shift that
a welder/welding operator is actually welding. For robotic and mechanized welding, it can be as
high as 90% while for manual and semiautomatic welding it can be as low as 10-20% operating
factors.
176. d - The distance between the electrode and work piece is where the arc plasma is created. The
difference in electrical potential or electro motive force (EMF) or voltage are all sanominus and
relate to electrical pressure across the welding arc.
177. b - The weld dam, much like the backing material, can be metallic or nonmetallic. However, it is
placed at the end of the joint. Some codes and welding specification do not allow this device as
it can create discontinuities like incomplete fusion and slag inclusions. In this case a weld tab
would be used.
178. b - Since the electrode wire is fed through it and is electrically energized it is a gun. A welding
torch only supplies electrical energy to a fixed non-consumable electrode as used in GTAW or
PAW processes.
179. c - Post weld treatment is generally specified on the drawings, welding procedure specification
or weld instructions. The weld can be cleaned of slag, spatter and smoke but nothing else.
180. c - Many people use all of these terms to describe this technique. However, since the AWS 3.0
Standard Welding Terms and Definitions are being used as a guide, then boxing is the only
standard term to be used.
181. a – “Autogenous” means, in and of itself, or produced independently of external influences. It

must be a non-consumable electrode arc welding process, or a heat source that does not add
filler metal must be used.
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182. d - Hybrid welding is the standard term for the combining of these various welding processes.
183. e - The welding symbol includes all the elements including the weld symbol plus size, length,
contour, shape, size of the groove and many other elements.
.
184. e - The weld symbol references the type of weld to be made.
185. a – The welding symbol is made up of basically three elements. They are the reference line
(which is always drawn horizontally), the arrow (connects the reference line to the arrow side of
the joint to be welded) and the tail (for specifications, process, or other information not shown
with the reference line). The tail is optional and is not shown if not needed. The arrow and
reference line are mandatory.
186. e - The reference line and arrow are required. The weld symbol can be omitted if the weld is
described on the drawing or specified in the tail.
187. d - The common attribute between the square, bevel, J, flare-bevel and fillet symbols is that
they all have a line that is perpendicular to the horizontal line that is on the left side of the
symbol.
188. b – The stud and surfacing symbols just have one member and no joint. So the arrow would just
be pointing at a surface. All the rest of the symbols have two or more members coming together
to create the joint.
189. b – Though the weld symbols are identical, the sequence of how the welds are made is
different. The back weld is made last and the backing weld is made first.
190. e – The back weld is made last and the backing welds are made first.
191. b - It is made in an elongated hole or slot, as can be determine by looking at the illustration of
the slot weld.
192. c - If you chose A you have the sequence correct but you have your arrow and other side of the
reference line turned around.
193. a - Since the brazing alloy generally has less strength than the base metal, the larger cross
sectional area of the scarf joint make up for that.
194. b – The resistance spot weld symbol straddles the reference line because there is no side
significance.
195. b – The seam symbol straddles the reference line because there is no side significance with the
resistance seam weld.
196. b - The weld symbol is above the reference line so the weld will be made on the opposite side of
the joint the arrow is pointing at. The reference line is critical for determining which side of the
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joint the weld is to be made on. Above the reference line means the weld will be made on the
opposite side of the joint the arrow is pointing at. While below the reference line means the
weld will be made on the side of the joint the arrow is point at.
197. a - Because the weld symbol is below the reference line, the weld will be made on the side of
the joint the arrow is pointing at.
198. b – As a process of elimination, the answer can only be B or D because the symbol is below the
reference line (arrow side) and the break in the arrow is pointing at the upper joint member. B
is the correct answer.
199. a - Welds B and Welds C are not showing the other side of the joint but the other side of the
plate. To get to the other side of the joint, follow the joint.
200. b - Any information appearing directly to the left of the weld symbol deals with the size of the
weld, the depth of bevel for groove welds and strength in some cases like resistant spot welds.
On fillet welds, this number will be the size of the weld. Make certain the weld size matched the
arrow and the other side of the joint. Remember not to look through the plate but follow the
“day light” through the joint.
201. d - On groove weld symbols, the information directly to the left is read from left to right. The
first number will be the depth of the bevel and the second number, that is always in
parentheses, is the size of the weld. The weld size is 5/8 inch and the depth of the bevel is 3/4
inch. All of them are on the arrow side. However, only A and D have the depth and size
information on the left side of the weld symbol. D is the only one that has the sequence correct.
It is read left to right and you cannot make the groove weld before the bevel is in place.
202. b - The bevel is 1/4 inch and the weld size is 7/16. This is by design, so this is a partial joint
penetration (PJP) weld. The groove weld size is always in parentheses and to the left of the
symbol. The numbers are read from left to right and the bevel must be made first followed by
the groove weld.
203. a - To the right of the weld symbol is always the length of the weld. If intermittent welds are
called for, it will be followed by the center to center spacing also known as the weld (pitch). If
there is no information to the right of the weld symbol the weld should be the full length of the
joint. The arrow and other sides are correct and because there are no dimensions for size or
length these are appropriate.
204. a - 1/4inch to the left of the weld symbol indicates the size.
205. b – A fillet weld is to be made, based on the symbol. It has the triangular shape.
206. b – The weld length is 2 inches. The first number to the right of the weld symbol will be the
length.
207. d – The weld pitch is 4 inches. The second number to the right of the weld symbol will be the
pitch. (center to center distance).
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208. a – The column is to be welded to a bottom plate with a fillet weld, because of the triangular
shape.
209. b – There is a field symbol flag at the junction of the reference line and arrow.
210. c – Note the “weld all around” symbol at the junction of the reference line and arrow.
211. c – A U groove weld is to be made because of its shape.
212. b – The bottom weld symbol is above the reference line.
213. c – Backing is the rectangular shape on either side of the reference line.
214. e – The flush or flat profile is required on the face of the weld.
215. e – Since no finishing letter was specified, “as welded” is understood which means no post weld
mechanical working of the weld. It has to be “as welded”. The ‘U’ could have been specified and
would result in the same profile. However, any of the listed methods to accomplish this could
have been used.
216. c - if you answered E you must remember that the information to the right of the weld symbol is
length and pitch. A and B have the sequence incorrect and D has the bevel angle not the groove
angle.
217. c - B and D have the weld on the wrong side of the joint. A has the wrong weld size, and E has no
root opening.
218. a - While B and E show CJP in the tails, C has the arrow and other side turned around, D has the
weld symbols in the wrong sequence.
219. a – A bevel on the other side of the joint is being specified.
220. b – A fillet weld is indicated with the triangle shape on both sides of the reference line.
221. a – Complete penetration is not indicated on the drawings of the welds.
222. e – Visual inspection (VT) is the most common and required prior to more extensive test
methods.
223. c - What is shown is the bevel angle and fusion-along the fusion faces that is of major concern
with the short circuit mode of metal transfer.
224. d - ET stands for Electromagnetic Examination. This process is also referred to as Eddy Current
Examination.
225. c - MT stands for Magnetic Particle Examination. The magnetization can be direct by passing
electrical current directly through the part. Alternatively, the magnetization can be indirect by
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placing the part next to a magnetic field. As long as the discontinuity is perpendicular to the
magnetic field, a flux leakage will occur and attract the magnetic particles.
226. a - PT stands for Penetrant Examination. The two types of dyes used are visual and fluorescent.
Subsurface discontinuities cannot be detects. The part being inspected does not have to be a
magnetic material for the dye to penetrate into the part.
227. c - RT stands for Radiographic Examination. This process can use either X-rays or Gamma rays to
pass through the part and the variation of the part’s density will be exposed on a film or picked
up with a digital device. This is the first NDE process that allows inspection all the way through
the part.
228. b - UT stands for Ultrasonic Examination. The sound waves can travel all the way through the
weldment so subsurface discontinuities are readily detected. It is the only method that is three
dimensional so the location and size can be determined with this method. The weldment can be
either magnetic or nonmagnetic material.
229. d - VT stands for Visual Examination. VT Is the most common inspection method used by the
welder, operator, supervisor, technician, engineer, or welding inspector to judge the
appearance of the weld.
230. e - All of the energy sources listed are used for NDE.
231. d - VT stands for Visual Examination. This is the most common NDE process and can be used
before, during and after welding to assure product quality and productivity.
232. a - PT stands for Penetrant Examination. It can also be used on magnetic and nonmagnetic
materials.
233. c - MT stands for Magnetic Examination. This process will not work on the nonferrous materials
like aluminum, copper, austenitic stainless steel and titanium.
234. b - RT stands for Radiographic Examination. Since it is picking up density changes the radiation
source must be parallel with the discontinuity. It only detects discontinuities in a two
dimensional manner so the exact depth of the discontinuity is not readily known.
235. a - UT stands for Ultrasonic Examination. Sound waves traveling through the weldment is very
effective in finding critical discontinuities like cracks, and incomplete fusion. Since it is not using
magnetics it can be used on all materials.
236. c - ET stands for Electromagnetic Examination, also known as Eddy Current Examination. In
many cases, this process is too sensitive for many weldments. Most typical application is in the
piping or boiler industry.
237. e - Many codes and standards require visual inspection acceptance, prior to any of the other
NDE methods.
238. d – Visual inspection (VT) can be used before welding to review documents, check welding
procedures, qualify/certify welders, check certifications, establish hold points, develop
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inspection plan, check base metals, check filler metals, check shielding gas, check welding
equipment, check weld preparations, check joint fit up, check weld joint cleanliness, check
preheat, if required, develop system for reject identification and develop defect repair system.
During welding, visual inspection is used to check welding variables for welding procedure
specification compliance, examine tacks, roots pass, intermediate passes, final passes, check
backgouged surfaces, check preheat temperatures, check interpass temperatures and check
interpass cleaning. After welding, visual inspection is used to examine weld appearance, check
weld size, check weld length, check part dimensions, monitor other NDE methods, monitor
postweld heat treating and prepare inspection reports.
239. e - To do visual inspection professionally, some codes require that the person be qualified and
carry certification documents attesting to that fact.
240. f - Good vision is required for visual inspection, with no magnification greater than 10 X power.
241. d – Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in a narrow space or root opening. This is
accomplished without the assistance of external forces and even in opposition of external forces
like gravity.
242. c – Dwell time is specified on the procedure to allow the penetrant to flow into the narrow
discontinuities.
243. a – Solvent is very portable and preferred for “on location” testing. It comes in a spray can and
uses a hand-wiping motion after it has been sprayed onto a suitable material to remove the
excess penetrant.
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244. f - The magnetic lines have to be 900 to the discontinuity as shown in the illustration. And b, c,
and d all mean 900. If they were parallel, no flux leakage would take place and the discontinuity
would not show up.
245. b - Illustration B represents indirect magnetization.
246. a - Illustration A is direct magnetization.
247. b – Do not be confused by the circular magnetic fields as they are both producing circular
magnetic fields. The question is asking about the discontinuity in the part being examined.
Visualize how the magnetic lines of force shape themselves along or around the parts being
inspected. The coil method amplifies the magnetic field by the number of coils and amount of
current flowing through them, into very strong longitudinal magnetic fields in the part inside the
coil. The direct magnetization (also known as a “head shot”) is creating circular magnetic fields
because of the direction the current is flowing through the part being examined. A longitudinal
discontinuity will be best detected when the magnetic fields are perpendicular to it and not less
than 450 to it.
248. e - Less radiation hitting the film because of greater density will underexposes the film making it
darker. More radiation hitting the film because of less density will expose the film making it
lighter.
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249. b - In order for the film to pick up the density change, the radiation must be parallel with the
discontinuity.
250. e - Slag and porosity will be easily picked up because they have a cross section that is round and
align with the beam in any direction. Planar type discontinuities like cracks and incomplete
fusion will be missed unless a favorable alignment with the radiation source is made.
251. b - Sound striking the flat (perpendicular) surface will give the strongest signal back.
252. a - The transducer must be coupled to the part with a couplent. Air space between the part and
the transducer must be avoided, as sound does not travel efficiently through the air.
253. e - The angle and shear beams are the same thing and work well for weld inspection because
the sound comes in on an angle underneath the weld reinforcement. Straight and longitudinal
beams are the same thing and work well determining thickness of plate, laminations and other
type plate discontinuities.
254. a - A indicates the main sound going in (main bang) followed by the echo back on B, the one
showing a discontinuity
255. c - Electromagnetic (Eddy current) examination (ET) uses small electrical currents which are
induced into a material. Any changes in the flow of these currents in the material are picked up
on a coil, without any contact with the part being inspected, and the data is sent to an
instrument for display.
256. a - Variables like permeability, conductivity, probe position, weld contour and grain structures
can adversely affect the readings.
257. c – Codes are a body of laws, as of a nation, city, etc., arranged systematically for easy reference
258. a - Nothing should be started until the contract is accepted and signed by all parties as stated. It
carries legal implications.
259. c - Drawings can be detailed shop drawings showing great detail of individual parts, simple hand
sketched drawings or professionally produced assembly drawings. An understanding of the
various views, dimensioning, tolerances and welding symbols are required by those
using the drawings.
260. a – The PO covers the details of what is being provided and the cost.
261. b - These are generally not considered as mandatory but function as guidelines to assist with the
proper execution of the job.
262. c - Specifications are a detailed descriptions of the parts of a whole: statement or enumeration
of particulars as to actual or required size, quality, performance, terms, etc…
263. b - A standard is established for use as a rule or basis of comparison in measuring or judging
capacity, quantity, content, extent, value, quality, etc…
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264. a - These type reports are critical because a welder must be proficient in the use of the welding
process they are qualified on. If they have not used the process they are qualified on in a specific
amount of time their qualifications lapse and they must be requalified. Which is time consuming
and costly.
265. d – A drawing is a form of visual instruction that shows shape, size and welding symbols. They
can be produced in any number of drawing mediums and are typically produced by the
contractor, supplier, manufacturer, subcontractor, or fabricator.
266. d - The document shows evidence that the welder has been engaged in using the welding
process they are qualified on during a specific period of time, usually six months.
267. a - The key is it should be a planned hold point for fabrication, and the supervisor should plan
around it to reduce or eliminate lost time.
268. c - This is the designation for all of AWS documents dealing with filler metals and shielding
gases. There are over 30 publications that provide great details and the classification systems for
all of them.
269. e - A good material identification process would apply all of the listed answers.
270. b - The essential variable covering welding processes that the welder is qualified to use will be
found in the code or standard that is specified in the contract documents.
271. c - The material test report (MTR) must be kept on file for review. In some cases the material
must somehow be traceable back to the MTR or some form of PMI must be used.
272. c - The entry permit must be signed by the entry supervisor, must be posted at all entrances or
otherwise made available to entrants before they enter a permit space. The permit must verify
that pre-entry preparations outlined in the standard have been completed. The duration of
entry permits must not exceed the time required to complete an assignment.
273. b - The non-conformance report (NCR) shall include who, what, where and when related to a
deviation. It should indicate the root cause of the issue or the why. If properly staffed and
managed, it should provide for resolution via a CAPA (Corrective and Preventative Action) plan
which would immediately correct and prevent this non-conformance from occurring again or
the how it will be dealt with.
274. a - For tracking purposes, this is the best answer. It is required by certain contract requirements
where the criticality of the welds are paramount. Each weld, as it is completed, will be labeled
with the number from the weld map/log, date completed, WPS used, and the welder or welding
operator identification number.
275. d - Should only apply to active initial production work. Sub-assemblies would be considered WIP.
Many companies do not keep track of weld repairs during this phase of production. However,
the true cost of production cannot be understood if this is not somehow monitored.
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276. c - Job Safety Analysis or JSA should be a straight forward document that is communicated with
the welders as part of pre-job and tool box safety meetings. It also can be included with the
worker’s job descriptions. Refining the safe work procedures as discussed in the safety manual
and or standard operating procedures can all be built off of the JSA process. JSA can also be very
helpful for training new welders and welding operators.
277. d - This type of information is known as ‘Weld Details’ and may be a separate document or the
information can be found in various locations.
278. e - All of the listed options fit into the welder’s duties and responsibilities. That a welder should
guarantee their own work should be considered in a company’s quality manual as the welder
and their direct supervisor are a critical part in building quality into the weldment.
279. d - A professional attitude is most important to perform ones best work. It consists of pride,
passion and belief in what you are doing. Before you go out to do your inspections think about
what you are looking for. Some people think they are looking for defects. A more wholesome
thought process is to look for “quality”. Keeping in mind that quality needs to be a team concept
from top to bottom in a company. Building quality into a project is much more effective than
trying to inspect quality in a project.
280. e - As indicated in the body of knowledge all of the listed options are very important for a well-
rounded certified welding inspector.
281. e - Ethics cannot be legislated, you either have a moral compass or you don’t. Communicating
with someone you trust is very easy, communicating with someone you don’t trust is difficult at
best and communication will suffer. We trust people who demonstrate ethical behavior and we
generally don’t trust those people who demonstrate unethical behavior.
282. b - The welders should not be directly qualified by someone directly involved with production.
There should be some separation between quality assurance and production. This should be
spelled out in the companies QC manual.
283. b - As can be seen in the body of knowledge, the supervisor has to be well skilled in both
productivity and quality issues. To build quality in a product the welders and supervisors have to
be working together.
284. b - Everyone in the company should be servicing and supporting the welding work centers. Pull
through works much better than push. Productivity and quality are byproducts of the other
answer options.
285. c - If the work is being done to a code, standard or welding specification, there should be
acceptance criteria written down. A display board can also be used to show acceptable and
rejectable welds. Inspection and production need to be using the same criteria. They both need
to be able to guarantee their work!
286. d - All industrial codes and standards reference the requirement for having qualified procedures.
They need to be openly available and the welders need to be trained on their proper use. The
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welders need to be qualified on those procedures and their qualification must be current. The
supervisor needs to do this by verifying the welder’s continuity report.
287. b - As stated in 5.1 Duties, and specifically in 5.1.1, a welding sales representative “shall be
capable of demonstrating the use of welding equipment and supplies….”.
288. a - As stated in 5.1 Duties, and specifically in 5.1.1, a welding sales representative “shall be
capable of….practicing appropriate sales ethics….””.
289. c - As stated in 5.2 Capabilities (3), a welding sales representative shall have “The technical
knowledge to determine when a welding procedure is required for a given application” All the
rest are beyond the scope of this certification process.
290. e - The supervisor and welder/welding operator together are involved with every inch of weld
that is being deposited. If they are properly trained and have all the correct tools, they are in the
best position to provide the quality control.
291. b - Build it in - everyone from top to bottom in a company needs to be involved. It must be a
team approach with everyone working toward meeting the contract requirements in an efficient
manner.
292. b - Inspection should be done with a proper frame of mind. If we are building quality into the
product with everyone trained, using the proper tools, and knowing the weld requirements,
everyone has the same end in mind. If we turn it into cops and robbers it will not be a
comfortable experience for anyone. Properly done inspection adds value to the product and can
be done in a team approach.
293. e - Everyone must be involved by taking personal responsibility for their own safety and the
safety of those working around them. This is evident when mutual respect, caring and open
communication is taking place. These all foster a climate conducive to safety.
294. e - Eye injuries are very common in most cases because the safety rules are not being followed.
In any shop environment safety glasses are mandatory. For welding, a welding hood with proper
lens is required to eliminate ultraviolet and infrared light as well as reduce the visible light
spectrum. Fumes and gases emanating from the welding process, base metal, and coating must
be guarded against. This is accomplished by the welder keeping their head out of the fume
plume, positive pressure welding helmet, ventilation or use of respirators. It only takes
approximately 0.006 amps to kill a person. While welding is typically done at low voltage, good
insulation is the best protection from electrical shock. The welding arc and molten metal emits
radiation which can burn your eyes or skin like a sunburn. Falling objects can injure the head and
feet, so hard hats and safety toe boots with metatarsal protection are generally required.
295. a - As the name implies, PPE deals with just the personal protective equipment, while the
welding gun is part of the equipment and is not considered personal. Some companies do issue
a welder a gun which gives them a feeling of ownership. This in turn will generally keep the gun
and including safety issues like insulation in better working order.
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296. e - As indicated in the Lens Shade Selector Guide, welding lens shade number 14 should be used
for FCAW at 450 amps.
297. b - Eye protection requires safety glasses, not just any type of glasses. A typical company policy
might be “Double eye protection shall be worn when grinding, welding, buffing, needle scaling,
using a wire wheel, chop sawing, and handling chemicals as required by the MSDS.
298. d - Radiation, sparks, and spatter are present with the welding arc. Sparks and hot metal are also
produced from the cutting flame or plasma. Weldments and equipment get hot. Burns can occur
when radiation or these flying sparks, hot metal, slag, spatter, hot weldments or hot equipment
come in contact with unprotected or under protected skin or eyes. Check out the free AWS
Safety and Health Fact Sheets at http://www.aws.org/technical/facts/
299. c - Cotton and wool are generally recommended apparel around welding operations. Synthetics
like polyester, rayon etc… are not recommended as they melt, creating more of burn hazard.
300. c – The exposure limits for highly toxic materials is 1.0 milligram per cubic meter or less, as
indicated in the illustration on Highly Toxic Materials Exposure Limits.
301. c - Current and relevant information as found in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) include
information on toxic materials on the job site and are available on the job site.
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302. c – Only c is unacceptable to determine if a space is confined or not, while d is a very good
definition of what a confined space is.
303. c - The key is someone qualified with this unique safety situation. This requires a great deal of
training and experience to recognize all the possible hazardous situations.
304. e - Fumes and gases are a big concern in the welding industry. Welders should keep their head
out of the fume plume., If this is not possible then natural ventilation or a positive air pressure
inside of the welding helmet must be used. The fumes could also be captured at or near the
source, filtered and the air returned clean to the environment. If all this fails, then the proper
selection and fitting of a respirator will be required.
305. c – The minimum oxygen level for a confined space is 19.5% per the Oxygen Scale.
306. d - Never use pure oxygen to ventilate a confined space. Ventilate with normal air. Do not use
the oxygen from a cutting torch to cool yourself off or directly breathe from it.
307. a - Anything that is not in use or could adversely affect the contaminate level within the
confined space should be removed. Even if a torch is turned off a leaky valve or hose could
compromise the environment.
308. b - Oxygen is one of the three elements required to make fire. The others are heat and fuel.
Oxygen will not burn on its own but add the other two elements and you have fire. Burning is a
chemical reaction where oxygen is combined with the fuel.
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309. e - Anything in the air that can get into the eyes can be considered a hazard. Add velocity to the
particles and some very serious injuries can occur.
310. e – None of the answers covers safety issues. AWS Z49.1 is an American National Standard and
is titled Safety in Welding, Cutting and Allied Processes. Every shop and person working in the
welding industry should be familiar with it. It is available free of charge by downloading it from
the AWS web site.
311. f - Cross ventilation, a respirator or positive clean air supplied welding helmets are most
effective. Natural ventilation is not effective if it does not move the fume plume away from the
welders breathing zone. Removing all the sources of contamination is not possible.
312. c - For electrical hazards insulation is the best guard. Working in wet conditions lowers the
resistance and makes the insulation less effect. Keep everything as dry as possible if at all
possible.
313. e - All of these must be followed in order to handle gas cylinders in a safe manner. The high
pressure cylinders carry over 2200 pounds per square inch of pressure. The muzzle blast from a
12 gauge shot gun is only 1800 pounds per square inch for comparison. So cylinders store a high
amount of energy so respect it and handle them carefully.
314. c - Welding Procedure Specifications (WPS) have been qualified by various means. If a welder
follows the WPS and the welds are sound, you can have confidence that the mechanical
properties will be there.
315. b - Window glass is very hard, but can be scratched with a diamond, because the diamond is
harder than the glass. Or the diamond can indent the glass. However the harder a material is,
the less ductile and the more brittle the materials will be.
316. d –Tensile is the resistance to being pulled apart under a slowly applied load until it breaks. The
tensile test will also indicate yield strength and ductility.
317. a - The maximum load that can be applied to a material before permanent deformation will take
place. Engineers use the yield strength in design calculations not the tensile strength.
318. c - Ductility is an important feature of a material. It is opposite that of a material being brittle.
319. b - Toughness is the amount of energy per volume that a material can absorb before breaking or
the resistance to breaking when loaded. This property requires a balance of strength and
ductility.
320. b -This type break tests is required in many codes and standards. As it is easily applied and
evaluated. Called a Nick Break test for groove and fillet welds or a Fillet Weld Break test to
determine the welds soundness. The amount of force to make the weld fail is not the issue it is
the cross sectional area of the broken weld is what is being examined. It must have complete
fusion, no porosity, slag or other discontinuities that exceed specified amounts and distances in
between the discontinuities.
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321. d - This is much like the attributes of a Boston marathon runner. A flag pole in a wind storm is a
good example of fatigue property. As it is being whipped about the base section of the pole is
going from compression to tension and vice versa at each flexing of the pole.
322. a –The procedure described in answer “a” Is an easily performed test both in the field or in a
shop. The specimen is being subjected to tension type forces on the outside of the bend and
compressive loading on the inside of the bend. The purpose of the test is to determine
soundness in the test piece. The test piece must be properly prepared and the weld and heat
effected zone must be in the bend area.
323. b - This method does an excellent job of exposing the weld cross sectional area. The depth of
fusion, fusion face, weld interface and heat affected zones can be viewed.
324. c - Test sample are taken from the weld metal zone, heat affected zone, and base metal zone.
The load to break is measured and is typically recorded in foot/pounds of breaking energy.
325. a - Charpy V notch (CVN) is a very common impact test used in industry. It has a specimen that
has been purposely notched so that it fails at that specific point. The specimen is highly
machined and the notch angle, depth and radius at the bottom of the notch is accurately and
consistently controlled. The breaking force, along with the percent of lateral expansion and
broken surface, is analyzed for the percent of shear which will determine if it is a brittle or
ductile failure.
326. e - They are all examining for soundness. The bend tests are not intended to break. The root
bend has the maximum forces acting on the root of the weld and the face bend has the
maximum forces acting on the face of the weld. The nick and fillet are both intended to be break
tests. So the broken surface is the point of interest. If a fillet weld does not break but folds over
on itself that is considered a pass.
327. d - Tensile, yield and hardness go together at the expense of ductility and toughness. So, as the
strength goes up, ductility goes down and they are inversely related.
328. d - Ductility is a measurement based on its percent in change of length, comparing its original
length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point of breaking. This property is also
calculated based on its percent in change of cross sectional area comparing its original cross
sectional area vs. its cross sectional area after it is broken. Indicator marks are placed on the
specimen generally 2 inches apart before being place in the tensile test machine. It is gradually
stretched until it breaks. The specimen is taken out and the broken ends are brought together
and the 2 inch marks are now further apart. This data is put into a formula and the result is
known as percent elongation, which is an indication of ductility. If the tensile specimen is round,
the cross sectional area is calculated prior to tensile testing and after testing the edge of the
broken specimens cross sectional area is calculated again. This data is put into a formula and the
result is known as percent reduction of area, which is an indication of ductility.
329. c - Fracture toughness is the rapid loading of a part, generally at different temperature levels, to
determine impact properties that will be encountered in the environment. Test samples are
taken from the weld metal zone, heat affected zone and base metal zone. The breaking energy
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is measured and is typically recorded in foot/pounds of energy. The CVN machine is used to
perform this type of testing.
330. b - Fatigue strength deals with the repeated loading of a part in excess of 250,000 cycles. Any
stress risers on this type of part can lead to premature failure. Endurance limit is an important
factor when dealing with this type of loading. If the load is kept below the endurance limit, it
should never fail even with an unlimited number of cyclic loads.
331. b - Mechanical properties can only be accurately determined by destructive testing, such as
tensile and impact testing machines. However, NDE does not damage the part being inspected
and does pick up soundness type discontinuities.
332. d - A good example would be scissors or as hair dressers call them shears. Shearing is when two
blades moving in close proximity to each other and parting the material between them.
333. b - The teeth on the saw cut a narrow kerf the width of the saw blade. It is mechanical not
thermal, so little heat is induced into the part being cut so distortion is minimal.
334. a - There are vertical and horizontal milling machines. These are very versatile machines and can
perform many part shaping functions.
335. b - There are many different shapes for grinding materials, such as disks, wheels, blades, etc…;
some made up with extremely fine grains for delicate high polish work; or coarse grained
particles for rapid material removal.
336. a - A lath is a good example of a turning machine. They are very accurate and work angles and
diameters to fractions of a thousand of an inch or fractions of a degree.
337. c – Shaping is taking a flat piece of sheet metal and making it into anything you need with power
(planishing) hammers, an English wheel or beading machines. These machines can produce
virtually any form that is needed.
338. a - A drill motor can be as simple as a battery powered portable unit and as complex as an
industrial type multiple spindle machines. Some heavy duty portable drill presses utilized electro
magnets to hold them to the structure being drilled.
339. d - Planning machines are seldom used today due to it only having a single point cutting tool.
They have been replaced by milling machines with multi point cutting tools that do similar type
work much more efficiently.
340. a - A slag hammer or chipping hammer would be a good example for this. The chisel shaped tool
can be incorporated with a handle much like a hammer or be a pneumatic hammer with a chisel
type tool attached. This type set up is often referred to as a jitter bug.
341. c - This process uses a plasma arc and an inert gas or in some cases reactive gases even
compressed air for cutting. The gas or air is forced at high speed out of a nozzle while the
tremendous heat of the arc plasma melts the material and a cut is produced. It is used in metal
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fabrication to primarily cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with
special nozzles; be used for gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
342. b - The Air Carbon Arc Cutting Process uses an arc as the heating source. The electrode is made
of carbon and the molten metal is blown away by a blast of air. It is excellent for gouging and for
removing weld metal to find defects.
343. c - The Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC) Process uses a fuel gas and oxygen as a heat source. Once the
material reaches its kindling temperature (“cherry red color”) the cutting lever is depressed and
a pure blast of oxygen rapidly oxidizes the cut area. Only materials that rapidly oxidize can be
effectively cut with this process.
344. e - Oxy fuel and laser do not create a plasma and are not electrical conductors so no plasma is
produced.
345. c - The only two processes that use electricity and an electrode are Carbon Arc Cutting-Air and
Plasma Arc Cutting and only the CAC-A electrode is consumed during use.
346. b - OFC is a chemical reaction process and only metal, like carbon steel, that rust (rapidly
oxidize) can be easily cut.
347. e - Since PAC and CAC-A are both arc plasma processes, if the material is a conductor and
creates a molten pool, the gas will be able to blow it away. This is unlike OFC, which is a
chemical reaction process.
348. b – Kerf Is the material that was removed by the cutting action. The gap or width of cut are
commonly described with the term kerf.
349. d - Since the residue is metallic, it is dross. Many people incorrectly consider it as slag. Slag is
nonmetallic.
350. e - This description would apply to both brazing and soldering. Both use capillary action to draw
the filler metal into the joint. Braze welding is where a brazing filler metal is applied into a joint
designed for fusion welding. The filler metal fills the joint but capillary action is not required. A
braze welding joint can be no stronger than the filler metal used.
351. d - Filler metals that melt above 8400 F are considered brazing alloys and those that melt below
8400 F are considered soldering alloys.
352. d - A torch functions as a handle that directs the gases and flame to the joint being brazed. It
also can turn the flame on and off and make other flame adjustments as needed.
353. a - The heating source is due to the resistance of the part to some extremely high current
flowing in it. If the current is induced at high frequency there is also friction heating taking
place due to the flip flop of the magnetic domains.
354. b - The heat source is a refractory enclosure being heated with some type of energy source
similar to an electric or fuel gas oven on a kitchen stove.
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355. d - Large amounts of current flowing through the part creates the heat source in the form of
electrical resistance, similar to the heating coils in and electric toaster or the heating coils on an
electric range top.
356. c - The parts to be brazed are dipped into a bath or slurry which is the effective heat source.
357. a - Just like the infrared light from the sun warms your skin on a hot summer day, the same
effect can be amplified with the proper placement and focus of high intensity quartz bulbs.
358. a - Since the base materials are not melted, it is relatively easy to join dissimilar metals and even
non-metals like ceramics. As to the other answer options, they must be properly controlled for
the joints to be fit for purpose.
359. a - Fusion welding joints are not designed for brazing and soldering. Large surface areas of
contact in close proximity to one another are required to get the strength levels required.
360. e - As indicated in the AWS brazing filler metal classification illustration. The ‘B’ stands for
Brazing and the one ‘R’ indicates a Rod. Always use the proper brazing alloy as specified.
361. b - Voids and unbonded areas are possible with both of these processes. Since the alloy is drawn
into the joint by capillary action it is difficult to determine visually if an acceptable joint was
made.
362. c - The chemicals required in the flux can be very corrosive. Some joint and structures like pipe
and tubing are difficult to properly clean, as the flux can flow inside these closed structures and
so cannot be properly removed.
363. c - The melting point of the filler metal is well above the soldering maximum of 8400 F. Braze
welding is acceptable if capillary action is not used to pull the alloy into the joint. Since the joint
design was not specified braze welding is ok.
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Questions with Answers
An additional practice exam format to make it easier for you to reference answers.

Arc Welding Processes
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
a - This is the shielded metal arc welding process (SMAW), which uses a finite
electrode length, a coated consumable electrode that generates its own
shielding gas by the decomposition of the flux coating on the electrode and the
heat source is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding process it is best to start
with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite length or
continuous as on a small spool or large pay off pack reel or drum? The second
thing to look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-
shielded by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside
of a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode combination? Or are
they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a combination of both flux and
external gas shielding? A third issue to be considered is whether the electrode
is consumed while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue
would be the heat source, which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction,
electrical resistance, or many other types of heat sources.
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2. Electrodes for the shielded metal arc welding process are available to match the _______ of most
metals.
a. ductility and fatigue

b. density and plasticity
c. properties and strength
d. stress and hardness
e. color and finish
c - The American Welding Society has developed a standard electrode

classification system. An electrode for this process could be E6010. The E stands
for electrode and the next two or three digits represent the minimum tensile
strength in thousands of pounds per square inch. In this case, the first two digits
from the left represent 60 ksi or 60,000 pounds per square inch. The third or
fourth digits is the welding position. In this case the ‘1’ represents an all position
capable electrode. The final digit is the operating characteristics, such as type of
coating, current, polarity, penetration, deposition rate, bead appearance,
spatter level, ease of slag removal, yield point and percent of elongation
(ductility). Always check with the electrode manufacturer technical data sheet
on the particular brand and type being used.
3. Power sources for the shielded metal arc welding process are known as _________________.
a. constant voltage
b. constant potential
c. constant current
d. constant output
e. variable output
c - This is a manual process; the welder must control the arc length as the
electrode melts away. This causes a fluctuation in arc length and voltage. In
order to maintain the amperage a constant current output machine is required.
This type power source lets the voltage go up and down with the arc length but
maintains the amperage and the name implies.
4. All of the following can be supplied by a transformer-rectifier, EXCEPT:
a. a.c. power
b. DCEP power
c. DCEN power
d. ACHF
d - A transformer machine only outputs alternating current. While a rectifier

changes a.c. to d.c. by changing the electrode welding lead and the work lead,
the direct current (d.c.) can be hooked up electrode positive (DCEP) or electrode
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negative (DCEN). The out of style designation was Reverse Polarity and Straight
Polarity respectively.
5. Arc voltage is when ______________.
a. the voltage is being generated between the electrode and the work
b. the machine is on idle; no welding is being done
c. the machine is off
d. the machine is converting to volts
e. the voltage is being generated between the output terminal of the power source
a - The arc is the ionized gap between the end of the electrode and the work
piece. Voltage is the force pushing the welding current (amps) across this gap.
Arc voltage is the most accurate measurement to control or monitor arc length.
6. The duty cycle is the percentage of a given amount of time that a machine can operate at the
rated current without overheating or breaking down. On what time frame is a duty cycle
rated?
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 40 minutes
e. 1 hr.
a - Duty cycle in the USA is rated on a 10 minute time frame. A 300 amp power
source with a 60% duty cycle can be welded with 6 minutes out of any 10
minute segment of time. Four minutes would be needed to cool down, with the
power source on and its fan running. As the amperage goes up, the duty cycle
goes down and vice versa. At a sufficiently low amperage setting, the duty cycle
could be 100% or 10 minutes out of 10 minutes continuously.
7. A long welding arc ______.
a. decreases amperage
b. increases amperage
c. increases voltage
d. decreases voltage
e. Both a and c
e - Lengthening the arc requires more voltage to push the current (amps) across
the increase gap between the electrode and the work piece. The constant
current power source is designed to reduce amperage as the voltage goes up,
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much like a teeter totter does. As one side goes up the other side goes down.
And vise versa.
8. The size of the coated electrode holder must be in line with the size of ____________.
a. the welding machine

b. the electrode
c. the weld cable
d. the work cable
e. input power
a - The output of the welding machine should determine the size of the
electrode holder, as it determines how much amperage is available. The
equipment hooked to it should be appropriate for the amperage or overheating
of that equipment will occur.
9. What is the major function of the coating on an arc welding electrode?
a. Acts as a scavenger, removes oxides, and impurities

b. Influences incomplete penetration
c. Liquefies the base metal
d. Adds moisture and accelerates the cooling rate
e. Influences incomplete fusion
a - The key is major function, and that is to purify the weld pool and weld metal.
10. The welder should never use an electrode that is _______ the thickness of the base metal.
a. less than
b. equal to or less than
c. equal to or greater than
d. larger than
e. smaller than
d - Many factors go into the correct selection of the electrode size. Such as joint
design, thickness of the weld layer, welding position, amount of current, skill of
the welder and of course the materials thickness. Using too large of an
electrode for the thickness of the material being welded can lead to excessive
melt through or “burn through”.
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11. Which of the following is NOT a low hydrogen electrode?
a. E7015
b. E7014
c. E7016
d. E7018
e. E7028
b - The numbers 5, 6, and 8 indicate a low hydrogen type of electrode. There are
various electrode classification charts available that indicate electrode
variations.
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
b - This is the gas tungsten arc welding process (GTAW) as it has a solid
electrode which is non-consumable (no metal is transferring across the arc) and
is externally shielded via an inert shielding gas. Filler metal is added separately
and, as indicated, may or may not be required. The heat source used is an arc
(plasma).To identify a welding process it is best to start with the electrode. Is it
solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite length or continuous, as on a small
spool or large pay off pack reel or drum? The second thing to look for is how the
arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded by the breakdown
of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside of a tubular type electrode
or a separate flux and electrode combination? Or are they externally shielded
via a shielding gas or a combination of both flux and external gas shielding? A
third issue to be considered is whether the electrode is consumed while welding
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or is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the heat source,
which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical resistance or many
other types of heat sources.
13. The heat necessary to weld with the gas tungsten arc welding process is produced by _______.
a. gas flame
b. resistance heating
c. gas plasma (arc)
d. flux
e. chemical reaction
c - As the process name implies it is an arc welding process. A welding arc is one
of the four states of matter. The four states of matter are solids, liquids, gases
and plasma. A plasma is an ionized gas which means it is a conductor of
electricity. It is a very effective transferor of power in that it takes electrical
energy and turns it into heat and light.
14. All of the following are functions of the arc welding torch, EXCEPT:
a. hold the tungsten

b. direct the electric current to the electrode
c. direct the shielding gas to the welding pool
d. cool the weld zone
d - All are functions of the arc welding torch except cool the weld zone. The
torch for this process is designed to transfer the current to a fixed tungsten
electrode, position the electrode and control the flow and direction of the
shielding gas.
15. Argon is an inert gas that shields the arc and weld pool from the atmosphere. It also has the
following characteristic:
a. High arc voltage for more heat

b. High thermal conductivity
c. High gas flow requirements because argon is lighter than air
d. Good arc starting
e. Poor arc starting
d - Argon has a very low ionization potential of 15.7 volts. This allows for good
arc starting.
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16. Square wave refers to the ____________.
a. shape of the filler metal

b. shape of the tungsten electrode
c. shape of the output power
d. shape of the power source control box
e. shape of the volt-amp curve
c - The shape of the output wave form from this type power source is referred
to as square wave. These type power sources have enhanced performance on
a.c. They can control the balance, amplitude, frequency etc… to allow better
control of penetration and cleaning action.
17. Which of the following are appropriate arc starting methods for a process that uses a tungsten
electrode and gas shielding?
a. Poke, scratch, HF
b. Lift, bang, HF
c. Lift, scratch, HF
d. Scratch, slide, HF
e. Slip, slide, away
c - The lift or scratch start and HF (high frequency) methods are the preferred
methods of arc starting when using a tungsten electrode and gas shielded
process. The scratch start method is the least preferred because of tungsten
contamination.
18. Direct current electrode negative produces 70% of the heat in the _____ and 30% of the heat
in the _____ .
a. shielding gas; electrode

b. arc; coolant
c. plate; electrode
d. current; electrode
e. electrode; plate
c - With DCEN, the electrons are moving from the electrode to the plate; thus
carrying 70% of the heat with them. The tungsten electrode is left relatively cool
with only 30% of heat directed at it. This allows for a smaller diameter tungsten
which can carry larger amounts of current, while more heat on the plate allows
for faster travel speed and deeper penetration of the weld pool.
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19. The welding of a 16 gauge (0.060”) thick stainless steel enclosure box for sophisticated
electronic components is being specified. It must be visually attractive and water tight. Which
of the following processes, current and polarity would be preferred for this job?
a. SMAW a.c.
b. SMAW DCEP
c. GTAW a.c.
d. GTAW DCEN
e. GTAW DCEP
d - With this thickness of material, the best control of the weld pool will be had
with the gas tungsten arc welding process with direct current electrode
negative.
20. A 1.5% lanthanum electrode would be color coded ________ .
a. gold
b. red
c. green
d. brown
e. black
a - See the following table of Tungsten Electrode Identification:
Tungsten Electrode Identification

Common AWS Color
Name Classification Code
Pure EWP Green
2% Cerium EWCe-2 Orange
1% EWLa-1 Black
Lanthanum
1.5% EWLa-1.5 Gold
Lanthanum
2.0% EWLa-2 Blue
Lanthanum
1% Thorium EWTh-1 Yellow
2% Thorium EWTh-2 Red
Zirconium EWZr-1 Brown
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21. A Tig torche gas nozzle size is indicated with a number 8 which indicates 8/16” or ½”. What
size tungsten would be appropriate to use with this gas nozzle?
a. 0.010 “
b. 1/16”
c. 1/8
d. ¼”
e. The gas nozzle size and electrode diameter have nothing to do with one another.
c - The gas nozzle should be 4 to 6 times larger than the diameter of the
electrode.
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. FCAW
e. SAW
c - This is the gas metal arc welding process (GMAW) as it has a solid electrode or
metal cored electrode wire which is consumable and deposits into the weld bead
with no flux being used. It is externally shielded via a shielding gas. The heat
source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding process it is best to start
with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite length or
continuous as on a small spool or large pay off pack reel or drum. The second
thing to look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-
shielded by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside of
a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode combination? Or are
external gas shielding. A third issue to be considered is whether the electrode is
consumed while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode A forth issue would
be the heat source, which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical
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23. Match the mode of metal transfer with its proper illustration.
a. ___Spray
b. ___Globular
c. ___Short circuit
d. ___Pulse
Answers:
c - Spray
b - Globular
a - Short Circuit
d - Pulse
24. What type of power source is used for a process that uses a wire feeder to feed the electrode
into the welding arc and weld pool?
a. Constant Voltage
b. Constant Current
c. Constant Power
d. Drooper
e. Raiser
a – A process that uses a wire feeder to feed the electrode wire into the welding
arc and weld pool is considered a semi-automatic application process. In order
to regulate the melt rate of the electrode and maintain the proper arc length a
constant feed speed wire feeder and constant voltage (CV) or constant potential
(CP) power source is required.
25. Which type of power source is most effective in providing all the various modes of metal
transfer?
a. Engine-driven generator
b. Transformer rectifier
c. Transformer
d. Batteries
e. Inverter
e - The small, lightweight, power efficient inverter is the only one capable of
running all the various modes of metal transfer. The inverter could be
considered ‘green power’ because they are so electrically efficient compared to
the older technology.
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26. What takes place when the welding gun trigger is depressed by the welder?
a. Nothing unless the work cable is properly attached to the work.

b. The gas solenoid valve will activate, the wire feeder will start feeding wire, and welding
voltage will be applied to the output terminals.
c. The wire feeder control will turn on the power source will turn on, and the gas cylinder
valve will open.
d. The gun angle will be correct, electrode extension will be correct, and travel speed will be
properly set.
e. None of the above will occur just by pulling the gun trigger.
b - The gun trigger activates the gas solenoid valve, wire feed motor to feed wire
and applies weld voltage to the output terminals of the power source. It is
considered a gun with this process because a torch only applies heat and
shielding, while this gun provides heat and shielding along with the electrode
wire which is fed through it.
27. Shielding gases are used to protect the molten metal from _______.
a. heat and distortion

b. being overheated and cooling to fast
c. porosity and brittleness
d. being too cold and not penetrating
e. getting to lumpy and bumpy
c - The surrounding air around the weld pool, contains oxygen, nitrogen and
hydrogen. These gases get into the molten weld pool and cause gas bubbles to
form (porosity) and lead to embrittlement and weld cracking.
28. Which of the following is a reactive gas used for the shielding of a process that uses a constant
voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Argon plus carbon dioxide
d. Argon plus oxygen
e. All of the above
e - When a process like this is used on ferrous alloys, those alloys containing iron, a
reactive gas is required to properly control the weld pool. The reactive gas allows the
weld pool to wet out and maintain the proper weld profile. Carbon dioxide and oxygen
are reactive gases so all of these are correct.
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29. What type of electrodes must be used with a process the produces no flux residue (slag) that
covers the entire weld?
a. solid
b. metal cored
c. flux cored
d. coated with flux
e. Both a and b
e - A process that produces no flux residue (slag) must only use solid and or
metal cored electrode wires.
30. Which of the following should be adjusted to control the amperage (current) with a process
that uses a constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun?
a. Wire feed speed on the feeder

b. Gas flow rate on the flow meter/regulator
c. The output terminal electrode negative or electrode positive
d. Voltage on the power source
e. Push or pull travel gun angle
a - Amperage is a function of how much wire is being fed into the weld pool in a
process that uses a constant voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder
and a welding gun. The self-regulating nature of a constant voltage power
source, and a constant speed wire feeder, are evident. As the wire is increased
or decreased in speed, the power source will automatically increase or decrease
the melt rate (amperage) to maintain the arc length.
31. All of the following applications would be applicable to the AWS electrode classification
number in the illustration, EXCEPT:
a. A filler rod for the GTAW or Tig process

b. An electrode for GMAW or Mig process
c. Have 70ksi tensile strength
d. Metal cored for increased deposition
a - There is no letter R in the classification designation so it is not a rod. The 70 is

the minimum tensile strength in 1000 of pounds per square inch. The ‘C’
indicates metal cored electrode.
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32. If incomplete penetration and fusion are a problem with a process that uses a constant
voltage power source, constant speed wire feeder and a welding gun, the length of electrode
extending beyond the contact tube should be ______.
a. lengthened
b. shortened
c. kept the same; it would have no effect on penetration or fusion
d. whipped back and forth in the direction of travel
e. weaved from side to side
b - Shortening the electrode extension reduces the resistance heating which

increases the arc heating which will increase the amperage and improve the
penetration and fusion characteristics in the weld pool.
a. GMAW
d. PAW
e. SAW
b - This is the flux cored arc welding process-gas shielded (FCAW-G) as it has a
tubular electrode wire with flux in it. It is also consumable and as it melts it
deposits into the weld bead. This is the gas shielded variety. Flux cored
electrodes are also made in a self-shielded configuration which requires no
external shielding gas. The heat source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a
welding process it is best to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare,
coated and is it a finite length or continuous as on a spool or large pay off pack?
The second thing to look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded.
Are they self-shielded by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is
there flux inside of a tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode
combination? Or are they externally shielded via a shielding gas or a
combination of both flux and external gas shielding. A third issue to be
considered is whether the electrode is consumed while welding or is it a non-
consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the heat source, which could be
an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical resistance, or many other types of
heat sources.
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34. Which gun travel angle is used for a process that produces a slag that covers the entire weld,
to keep the slag from running ahead of the weld pool?
a. Push
b. Work
c. Lead
d. Lag
e. Drag
e - To keep the travel angle understandable, the terms ‘Push’ and ‘Drag’ should
be used. The names apply directly to how the gun looks in relationship to the
arc and weld pool in the direction of travel. If a welding process like this
produces a slag, the saying “drag slag” certainly fits the correct travel angle for
all welding positions except vertical.
35. All of the following power sources are used for a process that uses a constant voltage power
source and a constant speed wire feeder, EXCEPT:
a. C.V.
b. C.C.
c. Constant Voltage
d. Constant Potential
b – A process that uses a wire feeder to feed the electrode wire into the welding
arc and weld pool is considered a semi-automatic application process. In order
to regulate the melt rate of the electrode and maintain the proper arc length, a
constant feed speed wire feeder and constant voltage (CV) or constant potential
(CP) power source is required. The red volt amp curve is the most effective with
this process.
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36. The electrode extension for the gas shielding version of a process that produces a slag that
covers the entire weld should be approximately _____ inches.
a. ¼ to ½
b. 3/8 to 1-1/2
c. ¼ to 1-1/2
d. ¾ to 2
e. ¼-2-1/2
c - Always check with the electrode manufacturer for their recommendations as

the electrodes with flux in their core have a lot of individual operating
characteristics, even though they carry the same AWS classification
designations. This also effects the amperage, wire feed speed, voltage, polarity
and of course electrode extension. In this case ¼ to 1-1/2 inch is most common.
a. GMAW
d. PAW
e. SAW
e - This is the submerged arc welding process (SAW) as it has a solid electrode
wire. It is also consumable and, as it melts, it deposits into the weld bead. It
uses a separate granular flux for shielding and the addition of alloying elements.
The arc is buried under this layer of granular flux, thus the name submerged arc.
There is little smoke and the arc radiation is captured under the granular flux.
The heat source used is an arc (plasma). To identify a welding process it is best
to start with the electrode. Is it solid, tubular, bare, coated and is it a finite
length or continuous, as on a spool or large pay off pack? The second thing to
look for is how the arc and weld pool are being shielded. Are they self-shielded
by the breakdown of the electrode coating (flux) or is there flux inside of a
tubular type electrode or a separate flux and electrode combination? Or are
external gas shielding? A third issue to be considered is the electrode consumed
while welding or is it a non-consumable electrode. A forth issue would be the
heat source, which could be an arc (plasma), chemical reaction, electrical
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38. A process that uses a constant voltage power source, a constant speed wire feeder and has
separate flux and electrode provided can be applied by using various methods. All of the
following methods can be used, EXCEPT:
a. Manual
b. Semi-automatic
c. Mechanized
d. Automatic
a - Because this process uses a wire feeder, it is not a manual process like
SMAW and GTAW. It can be easily mechanized or automated. Semi-automatic is
a bit more difficult as the welder must feel the proper travel speed and the arc
and weld pool are not visible. If the part is moved under a fixed welding gun, or
the gun is moved along a fixed workpiece travel, speed can be accurately
controlled. If a tracking system is used to follow the joint, that is an automatic
application. If the operator must manually turn knobs to keep the electrode
extension correct, the wire positioned in the joint and observe joint tracking and
gun angles, this is the mechanized application.
39. Weld backing is used with a process that uses a separate flux and electrode to _______ .
a. support the highly fluid weld pool so it will not fall through the joint
b. make the material thicker where it is needed
c. provide more weight to the weldment
d. make the overall weld joint stiffer
e. act as a starting and run off tabs
a - As shown in the schematic in question 37 for this process, weld backing is

used on the back side of the joint to prevent melt through and to assure
complete penetration of the weld joint.
40. Which of the following operating variables is most effective for controlling the deposition rate
for those processes that utilize a wire feeder in the welding circuit?
a. Voltage
b. Travel speed
c. Gun angle
d. Wire feed speed
e. Amperage
d - Wire feed speed controls amperage. Amperage melts the electrode and thus
controls the deposition rate. Deposition rate is referred to in terms of how
much is being deposited over a period of time such as pounds per hour (lbs/hr.)
of deposited weld metal.
169
Heat Control and Metallurgy
41. What two elements are used in the making of steel?
a. Granite and coke

b. Limestone and oxygen
c. Slag and dross
d. Carbon and iron
e. Alloys and iron
d - Carbon and iron are required to make steel. Other alloying elements maybe added as
required to get the proper characteristics required.
42. In which grain orientation direction does rolled steel have its greatest strength?
a. With the grain (X)

b. Across the grain (Y)
c. Through the grain (Z)
d. Diagonal across the grain (D)
e. They are all the same strength
a - Steel is like lumber and has grain direction. It is strongest in the rolled
direction or with the grain. Much like a 1 X 12 board, it is strongest when
stressed along its length, the direction in which the wood grain has grown. If
loaded across the grain, it will be weaker.
43. Metallurgy is the study of the physical and mechanical properties of metals. Which of the
following would not be considered a physical property of a metal?
a. Unknowneum
b. Melting point
c. Magnetic
d. Thermal conductivity
e. Coefficient of Thermal Expansion
a - When welding, the melting point of steel (approx. 27800 F) versus the
solidification point of the fast freezing flux or slag (approx. 32000 F) is important
to know. Also, it is important to know that the melting point varies with the
170
carbon and alloy content of steel. Steel is magnetic until heated above the
transformation temperature of approximately 1333 0 F. How fast the metal
conducts heat will have a large effect of preheat and inter-pass temperature
control. How much the metal expands on heating and contracts when cooling
needs to be understood to control buckling and distortion.
44. _________ is the weight of a volume of material compared with an equal volume of water.
a. Mass
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Heft
e. Both a and b
c - The density of steel is 490 pounds per cubic foot and its specific gravity is 7.8
times that of water. Water weighs 1000 Kg/m3. Therefore, a cubic meter of steel
would weigh approximately 7800 kg depending upon the exact grade of steel
being checked. Porosity, slag inclusion or other types of discontinuities would
reduce the weight but not the specific gravity.
45. Porosity means _________.
a. how dense a material is

b. how well a material will let a fluid pass through it
c. how tall the material is
d. how much a material weighs compared to an equal volume of water
e. how much the cross section area will expand or contract
a - Porosity is not generally considered a critical type discontinuity in regard to

mechanical properties. Some codes allow a generous amount of porosity to be
present in some welds. However a good welder should try and eliminate it or
reach acceptable levels. Hygienic welds will not allow porosity because it creates
a breeding ground for bacteria and the weld cannot be properly cleaned.
46. Loading of a material will cause it to lose its form. The ability of the material to return to its
original shape after the load has been removed is known as its ________.
a. plasticity
b. impact property
c. hardness
d. fatigue
e. elasticity
e – Metals, such as steel, act like a rubber band. They can be stretched and
return to their original shape when the load has been removed,
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47. The endurance limit of a material must be considered when concerned about which property?
a. Hardness
b. Tensile strength
c. Yield strength
d. Fatigue
e. Impact
d - The ability of a material to be effected by repeated load (generally more than

250,000 cycles) is considered fatigue or cyclic loading. The endurance limit of a
material is the load that can be applied for an unlimited number of cycles
without failure occurring.
48. Which of the following elements are used in the making of steel?
a. Carbon, silicon, manganese

b. Krypton, neon, lanthanum
c. Thorium, cesium, lithium
d. Draconian, needium, unobtanium
e. Hydrogen, oxygen, nitronium
a - Reference table above for all the various alloying elements for steel.
49. A medium carbon steel has a carbon content of what percentage range?
a. 0.05% to 0.15%
b. 0.16% to 0.60%
c. 0.60% to 1.70%
d. 1.70% to 2.15%
e. 2.15% to 3.00%
b - Reference the classification system table.
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50. Distortion in weldments can occur in which direction?
a. Longitudinal
b. Transvers
c. Diagonal
d. Both longitudinal and transverse
e. Both transverse and diagonal
c - Welds shrink both length wise and across the cross section of the weld. See
reference drawings. The dotted lines indicate position of plate prior to welding.
51. Which of the following methods can be used for controlling expansion and contraction forces?
a. Sequencing the welds

b. Joint design
c. Presetting the joint
d. Welding on both sides of the joint vs. just on one side
e. All of the above
e - A weld bears the most stress when it is made. When it is made, the weld is
molten and fully expanded and then eventually shrinks as it cools and solidifies.
Sequencing the welds by moving them around reduces the overall heat input.
The sequence starts at the most highly restrained joint and works toward the
less restrained joints, reducing the type and amount of weld metal placed in the
joint. This method reduces heat input and distortion, setting the joint up
misaligned so that the shrinkage force pulls the joint into alignment. Welding on
both sides of the joint or the neutral axis of the joint more evenly distributes the
heat input and limits the distortion.
52. Questions 52 and 53 are based on the following illustration. When a weld solidifies there are
tremendous contacting forces present. This is simulated in the weldment by an illustration of
a ‘Spring’. Which of the following terms defines the Spring in a weldment?
a. Tensile forces
b. Compressive forces
c. Distortion forces
d. Residual stresses
e. Bending forces
173
d - Residual stresses are those stresses that remain in the weldment after the
weld has cooled and contracted. These stresses can exceed the tensile strength
of the materials and cause cracking. Or they can exceed the yield strength of the
materials can cause distortion.
53. Which of the following will NOT relieve the spring in the illustration for question number 12?
a. Preheating
b. Peening
c. Vibratory stress relieving
d. Cryogenic stress relieving
e. External restraint
e - All of the methods in the answer options, except external restraint, either
mechanically or thermally “relax the spring” thus relieving the stress to a level
that is acceptable. External restraint, such as a ‘strong back’ will keep the joint
from moving. However, the external restraint locks in the residual stress and if it
is removed the joint will buckle.
54. A method used to put the toe of a weld in compression instead of tension to reduce distortion
and prevent cracking is called ________.
a. Channeling
b. Peening
c. Slugging
d. Forging
e. Extruding
b - Peening is the mechanical working of a weld using impact blows.
55. Which of the following occurs if the tempering temperature is increased?
a. Hardness decreases
b. Hardness increases
c. Elongation decreases
d. Ductility decreases
e. Strength increases
a - The strength and hardness properties are tied directly together. While
ductility (reduction of area and percent elongation) work just the opposite of
strength and hardness. Tempering is usually done to reduce hardness and
improve ductility.
174
56. Decreasing the base metals temperature will:
a. Increase hardness
b. Decrease ductility
c. Increase tensile strength
d. Decrease impact strength
e. All of the above
e - As steel is cooled, hardness and tensile strength will increase and ductibility
and impact strength will decrease. The converse is true as it is heated up.
57. Match the various types of stress with the illustration of each.
a. ____Torsion – A turning or twisting action.

b. ____Bending – Pressure applied to force away
c. ____Tension – A pulling action.
d. ____Compression – The application of Pressure.
e. ____Shear – A pulling action causing two
ANSWERS:
a. e - Torsion is a turning or twisting action.

b. c – Bending is pressure applied to force away
c. b – Tension is a pulling action.
d. a – Compression is the application of
pressure and the opposite of tension.
e. d – Shear is pulling action causing two
58. A weld begins to cool along the weld interface next to the imaginary mold. The ____ begin to
grow in regions that specifically trigger their growth, such as at points of contaminations. Thus
they are considered points of weakness.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
175
a - Review the illustration on weld solidification.
59. If a liquid weld pool is at a very high level of energy, at what approximate temperature 0F will
the steel begin to solidify?
a. 1333
b. 2780
c. 3200
d. 3780
b - When welding, the melting point of steel (approx. 27800 F) versus the
solidification point of the fast freezing flux or slag (approx. 32000 F) is important
to know. Also, it is important to know that the melting point varies with the
carbon and alloy content of steel. Steel is magnetic until heated above the
transformation temperature of approximately 1333 0 F. How fast the metal
conducts heat will have a large effect of preheat and inter-pass temperature
control. How much the metal expands on heating and contracts when cooling
needs to be understood to control buckling and distortion.
60. The liquid weld metal leaving the pool forms into the ______ next to the imaginary mold.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
176
c - Review the illustration on weld solidification.
Visualize the weld pool as a very active student
body at a typical junior high school. As the
students leave school they must get on the
correct bus to get home. If the bus leaves too
early, some of the students will be stranded. If
the bus stays parked at the curb too long, some
of the students may be coaxed off the bus
leaving it partially empty. The anlage helps one
understand how the atoms leave the weld pool
upon solidification and hopefully get into the
proper grain structure. For steel to function as
intended, each solid grain (bus) must have the
proper amount of iron, carbon and other alloying
elements. Preheating will slow the cooling rate
allowing the carbon extra time to get on the bus. While too high of an interpass
temperature slows the cooling rate to the point where the chrome may leave
the bus depleting the corrosion resistance the bus should have.
61. If a weld cools too rapidly, all of the carbon will not have gotten into the proper places. A very
hard, brittle, crystalline structure is created. What is it called?
a. Pearlite
b. Bainite
c. Austenite
d. Martensite
e. Ferrite
d - Martensite is this hard brittle structure and must be dealt with as it will lead
to cracking.
62. The last to fill is the middle top of the weld. This area will contain all the low melting point
constituents in the weld pool, like sulfur, phosphorus, copper etc…, while alloys like ______,
will prevent the sulfur from causing centerline cracking or hot cracking as it is known.
a. Nickel
b. Molybdenum
c. Manganese
d. Vanadium
e. Titanium
c - Review the chart on all the various alloying elements.
177
63. Other alloying elements known as scavengers and deoxidizers, like _______, can be used to
purify the weld metal.
a. chrome and tungsten

b. iron and carbon
c. cobalt and tantalum
d. aluminum and silicon
e. niobium and hafnium
d - Review the chart on all the various alloying elements.
64. The separations between the crystals are known as the ______.
a. initial crystals
b. imaginary mold
c. solid grains
d. grain boundaries
d - Review the illustration on weld solidification for the lines that are separating
the grains. Thus setting the boundaries for that particular grain.
178
65. A Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) is being accurately accomplished by a qualified
welder. The WPS is calling for a fast travel speed, stringer beads, low voltage (short arc
length), high amperage (wire feed speed) specific preheat and interpass temperature. The size
of the solidified grain will have a large effect on the weld and heat affected zones mechanical
properties. Large solidified grains typically have less strength and impact properties than do
finer solidified grain structures. This WPS will have what effect on the size of the grains?
a. Make them larger.

b. Make them smaller.
c. This WPS only affects heat input not grain size.
d. The WPS is just for show; the welder will weld it as they choose, grain size is not important.
b - This will produce a small grain structure which is what is being specified on
the WPS and is what is being accomplished by the qualified welder, which is
weld hot, fast, tight arc length and no weave beads.
66. The atomic size of the alloy elements affect how the alloying is accomplished. Review the
illustration on alloying and select the appropriate alloying method(s).
a. Substitutional
b. Interstitial
c. Pure
d. Combination
e. Both a and b
e – The substitutional method is when large alloying elements like chrome are
used. To make the school bus corrosion resistant, 12% of the iron atoms (they
are also a large element and occupy the bus seats) need to be removed to make
room for the chrome atoms. The interstitial method is when small alloying
elements like carbon are used. Carbon is so small it does not need a seat.
Carbon can fit in between the iron atoms at the atomic level. None of the iron
atoms are displaced. Alloying causes a distortion or strain in the arrangement of
these grains. This is brought about by the atoms exerting varying degrees of
atomic attraction and repulsion on one another, thus making the material have
better mechanical and physical properties.
179
67. What does the abbreviation PWHT stand for?
a. Pulseweld Hammer Test

b. Post Weld Hammer Test
c. Postweld Heat Treatment
d. Pulse Weld Heat Treatment
c - If a qualified WPS is used and a qualified welder made the welds, the weld and
surrounding area may still have metallurgical problems. This may involve improper grain
size and excessive harness that will need correcting by performing after weld heating
and controlled cooling. This is referred to as Postweld Heat Treatment (PWHT) and is
specified on the WPS. Review the Procedure Essential Variables for additional
information.
68. What is the A-No. for a ferrous weld metal that has an analysis of 0.15% carbon, 15.0%
chrome, 15% nickel, 2.5% manganese and 1.0% silicon and 4.0% molybdenum?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
d - The Sample Classification of Ferrous Weld Metal illustration lists the

chemical analysis of the various A-Numbers. Only the A-Number 8 matches the
chemical requirements in the question.
69. A WPS was qualified on coated steel. The coating consisted of zinc, often referred to as
‘galvanized’. In production, however, they are welding on uncoated steel. Is the WPS still
valid?
a. Yes
b. No
d. The WPS is valid but the welder will need to be requalified.
a - Welding on coated materials is critical, as they present various

contamination issues, so review the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with
the Base Metal for specific information. The question is specifically addressing
only the WPS.
180
70. A shipyard is working on an aluminum supper structure for a research vessel. The WPS has
been qualified and approximately 30 welders are working per shift around the clock. The WPS
simply states:
GMAW, Spray Arc, 100% Argon, 45 CFH, M23 base metal, F22 filler metal, 0.062 diameter
electrode wire, wire feed speed, amperage, weave beads and voltage are appropriate.
However the gas flow rate seems excessive. What is the maximum allowable CFH flow rate
allowable per this WPS?
a. 45
b. 65
c. 75
d. 90
b - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with the Shielding
Gas and this M23 Base Metal, the maximum allowable flow rate must not be
greater than 50% of the 45 CFH what is specified.

Welding Examination
71. Match the joint names with the illustration.
_____Lap joint-workpieces that are approximately parallel with nonbutting ends that overlap one
another
_____Butt joint-workpieces with butting ends lined up in the same plane
_____T-joint-workpieces with one butting end of a member is lined up perpendicular with a
_____Edge joint-workpieces with one or more nonbutting ends lie approximately parallel
_____Corner joint-workpieces with butting or nonbutting ends of one or members come together
181
ANSWER:
e - Lap joint-workpieces that are approximately parallel with nonbutting ends that overlap one
another
a - Butt joint-workpieces with butting ends lined up in the same plane
d - T joint-workpieces with one butting end of a member is lined up perpendicular with a
c - Edge joint-workpieces with one or more nonbutting ends lie approximately parallel
b - Corner joint-workpieces with butting or nonbutting ends of one or members come together
72. Match the types of welds with the illustration.
_____Fillet (circular)- deposited in right angle formed by two

plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
_____Spot-an arc spot weld by penetration through the
top plate (no hole) and fusing into the one below
_____Groove-go in the joint, can be loaded in any
direction
_____Surfacing-Used to build up pad of metal and to replace
metal
on worn surfaces. Not in a joint.
_____Plug-weld placed in a hole
_____Slot-weld placed in an elongated hole, (slot)
_____Fillet-deposited in right angle formed by two plates,
goes on a joint not in the joint
ANSWER:
c - Fillet (circular) deposited in right angle formed by two plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
d - Spot an arc spot weld by penetration through the top plate (no hole) and fusing into the one
below
e - Groove go in the joint, can be loaded in any direction
g - Surfacing used to build up pad of metal and to replace metal on worn surfaces. Not in a
joint.
b - Plug weld placed in a hole
a - Slot weld placed in an elongated hole, (slot)
f - Fillet deposited in right angle formed by two plates, goes on a joint not in the joint
182
type stresses (loads). Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated fillet weld on a
T-joint.
_____Weld Face-is the portion most visible when viewing a

weld
_____Weld Toe-is a line, where the face of the weld blends into
the base metal
_____Weld Leg-distance from the beginning of the joint and
the weld toe
_____Fillet Weld-a triangular shaped weld, setting on the joint
_____Weld Root-how far the weld extends into the joint
ANSWER:
d - Weld Face is the portion most visible when viewing a weld

e - Weld Toe is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
a - Weld Leg distance from the beginning of the joint and the weld toe
c - Fillet Weld a triangular shaped weld, setting on the joint
b - Weld Root how far the weld extends into the joint
type stresses (loads). Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated concave fillet
weld on a T-joint. The letter indicators in the illustration may be used in more than one
answer.
___ Theoretical Throat is the shortest of the three throats and weakest part of the weld. Design
engineers use the theoretical throat dimension when calculating the size of the weld,
which needs to match the shear load this weld will see in service along with safety margins.
It is measured from the start of the joint directly to largest right triangle that can be
___Effective Throat- Because this is a concave fillet weld the effective and actual throats are
___Actual Throat-see effective throat because this is a concave weld. As the name implies it is
what is actually their as measure from the weld root directly to the face of the weld.
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___Concavity is the distance from a straight line drawn from toe to toe to the face of the weld.
It is measure perpendicular to that straight line and at the greatest distance. Generally the
size of the weld is measured not the concavity of the weld.
___Size of the weld is measured from the plate to the largest right triangle that can be inscribed
in the weld. Note the vertical and horizontal aspects of this measurement.
___Leg of the weld is measured from the plate to the toe of the weld. Note the vertical and
horizontal aspects of this measurement.
ANSWERS:
h - Theoretical Throat is the shortest of the three throats and weakest part of the weld.
Design engineers use the theoretical throat dimension when calculating the size of
the weld, which needs to match the shear load this weld will see in service along
with safety margins. It is measured from the start of the joint directly to largest right
triangle that can be inscribed in the weld.
b - Effective Throat - Because this is a concave fillet weld the effective and actual
throats are identical. It is measured from the weld root directly to the largest right
triangle that can be inscribed in the weld.
b - Actual Throat - See effective throat because this is a concave weld. As the name
implies, it is measured from the weld root directly to the face of the weld.
c - Concavity is the distance from a straight line drawn from toe to toe to the face of
the weld. It is measured perpendicular to that straight line and at the greatest
distance. Generally the size of the weld is measured, not the concavity of the weld.
e -Size is the size as they are measuring from the plate to the largest right triangle that
can be inscribed in the weld. Note the vertical and horizontal aspects of this
measurement.
d - Leg is the legs of this weld as they are measuring from the plate to the toes of the
weld. Note the vertical and horizontal aspects of this measurement.
75. Which of the following best describes an interruption in the typical flow or nature of the
structure of a material, where the interruption or flow issue does not exceed the
requirements of the welding specification?
a. Flaw
b. Discontinuity
c. Defect
d. Homogeneous
b - Discontinuity is the most appropriate term, as a flaw and defect exceed the
requirements of the welding specification. Homogeneous means “of a uniform
nature” which is not being described in the question.
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76. To visually inspect a fillet weld, you must know the ___________ ___________. If code work
is being done, it will be invoked in the contract documents. If code work is not being done,
then a welding specification should be written which describes what makes the weld
acceptable or rejectable.
a. welding procedure
b. welder performance
c. procedure qualification
d. acceptance criteria
e. profile list
d - Acceptance criteria is the acceptable term when doing code work. The first
three answer options describe issues dealing with the welding procedure and
welder qualification requirements and do not specifically get into visually
accepting the weld. The last one is part of the acceptance criteria, as the profile
of the weld is very important.
77. Which of the following is not a legitimate acceptance standard for a typical fillet weld? Review
the sample visual inspection specification.
a. Undercut
b. Professionally sound looking weld
c. Porosity
d. Profile
e. Size
b - Professionally sound looking welds have failed and ugly welds have held up.
The old saying “don’t judge a book by its cover” seems to fit this situation.
Judging should be very objective and based on what is stated in the
specification.
78. What type of indication has a very high ratio of length and width to its opening displacement?
It also has a sharp tip.
a. Cracks
b. Craters
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
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a – Cracks are the most serious discontinuity that can occur and are always
considered a defect. There are a number of different orientations and types of
cracks. A center line crack is shown in the photograph. Cracks are the result of
localized stresses from causes such as other discontinuities, notches or high
restraint areas. Welding cracks exhibit little sign of stretching; this is due to
localized hardening of the cracked material.
79. As shown in the illustration , the _________ is the low area at the stopping point of a weld.
a. Fusion
b. Crater
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
b - Note the crater shown in the picture also has a center line crack in it.
80. The following scenario applies to questions 80 through 82. The size of a fillet weld is shown
on the drawing. When measuring the size of a fillet weld you must first determine if the weld
is convex, concave or flat. This will determine the type of weld gauge to use. What is position
“A” on this illustration measuring?
a. Flatness
b. Concavity
c. Flushness
d. Convexity
e. Both a and b
d - Convexity is the maximum distance from

the face of a convex fillet weld
perpendicular to a line jointing the weld
toes.
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81. On a shop drawing, a 5/16 weld size is specified. If the “A” in the illustration is measured to be
3/16 of an inch, is it acceptable per the following table?
a. Yes
b. No WELD LEG SIZE MAXIMUM “A”
dimension
LEG SIZE = 1/8” 1/16”
TO 1/4”
LEG SIZE = 5/16” 3/32”
TO 5/8”
LEG SIZE = 3/4” 1/8”
TO 1.0”
b – Per the specification above, the maximum for a 5/16 inch weld would be
3/32 inch. Excess convexity is to be avoided. Under fatigue loading it creates
stress risers at the weld toes. With this convex weld and flat/flush welds the leg
and size are the same measurement.
82. The ______ throat is the shortest distance from the weld root to the face of the weld. Refer to
the illustration used in question 80.
a. theoretical
b. effective
c. actual
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
c - The question asks about weld root to the face of the weld. Do not be
confused by the “shortest distance”. You have to read and understand each
word in the question and you must read all of the responses presented.
83. Use the following scenario in questions 83 and 84. A 5/16 convex fillet weld gauge is being
used to check the weld fillet weld size on this T-joint. What is the horizontal weld size (leg)?
a. Cannot tell for certainty

b. 5/16 inch
a - The vertical leg is being measured. The horizontal leg can be estimated via
the scribed line. To do it accurately, you need to pick the gauge up and swing it
187
around so that the horizontal leg is being measured and the scribed line is
running horizontal.
84. What is the size of the vertical weld size (leg) from question 83?
a. Cannot tell
b. 5/16 inch
c - Light is showing between the weld and the blade of the gauge. So it is not a
5/16 inch weld. Check with the weld specification to see if an undersized weld is
allowed.
85. What is the size of this concave weld and is the proper gauge being used correctly?
a. 5/16 inch and the proper concave side of the gauge is

being used.
b. 5/16 inch and the convex side of the gauge should be
used.
c. 5/16 inch and either side of the gauge can be used.
d. 5/16 inch and not certain if it is being used correctly.
e. 5/16 inch and concave gauge touches in three points
(the vertical member, horizontal member and in the middle
of the weld).
e - It is being used to measure the throat but the gauge has scribed lines on it
showing the largest right triangle that can be inscribed in the weld. The size of
this angle (weld) is 5/16 inch.
86. Which is NOT a true statement when using a fillet weld gauge?
a. Use the correct gauge for convex or concave weld.

b. The gauge is held perpendicular to the surface it is in contact with.
c. The gauge needs to be tight against the surface it is in contact with.
d. Day light under the gauge means the weld is smaller than the gauge.
e. Squareness of the joint is not an issue and the gauge will work equally well on any angle.
e - The joint must be square to allow the gauge to fit properly. Experienced
users can make allowances for the joint not being square and make a good
judgment on the weld size. Miniature gauges are available to medicate the joint
not being square.
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87. In the illustration of weld profiles, which of the following is NOT an unacceptable fillet weld
profile?
b. Overlap
c. Excessive convexity
d. Excessive concavity
e. Insufficient throat
d - Excessive concavity is not specified in the fillet weld profile illustration. It

would be picked up as insufficient throat or an undersized weld.
88. __________ is a groove melted into the base metal next to the weld toe or weld root and has
not been filled in.
a. Cracks
b. Craters
c. Porosity
d. Under fill
e. Undercut
e - Undercut best describes this fashion. Some people want to call it “under fill”
but it is not correct, since it is not in the weld being located next to the toe.
89. A non-critical fillet weld is being measured in the illustration. Is the undercut acceptable?
a. Yes
b. No
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a - The undercut is acceptable per the illustration and the acceptance
requirement.
90. The photograph is showing what type of discontinuity?
a. Fusion
b. Crater
c. Porosity
d. Weld profile
e. Undercut
c - Porosity is a gas bubble being trapped in the solidifying weld metal. There are
many different types of porosity. The photograph shows scattered surface
porosity. Other types are as follows:
- Cluster, which is randomly appearing localized in groups

- Piping-or wormhole, which is longer than its diameter and perpendicular to
the weld face
- Aligned-or linear, which is orientated in a line
- Elongated-or wormtrack, which is longer than its width and is parallel with
the weld face.
91. If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is referred to as:
b. Incomplete bonding
c. Incomplete inclusion
d - If the weld does not combine with another weld or the base metal it is
referred to as Incomplete fusion.
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92. Match the names and terms with the illustration.
_____Fusion face-the original surface of the joint prior to welding

_____Weld interface-where the weld stops and heat affected zone
begins
_____Depth of fusion-how deep into the base metal the weld goes
beyond the fusion face
_____Incomplete penetration-lack of penetration of the weld into

the joint
ANSWERS:
b - Fusion face is the original surface of the joint prior to welding. There are actually two
fusion faces a vertical and the horizontal one with the call out.
d - Weld interface begins where the weld stops and heat affected zone begins. There are
actually two weld interfaces a vertical and the horizontal one with the call out.
a- Depth of fusion is how deep into the base metal the weld goes beyond the fusion
face. There are actually two areas that have depth of fusion, a horizontal one and this
vertical one with the call out.
c - Incomplete penetration-lack of penetration of the weld into the joint is actually
incorrect for fillet welds. Groove welds have penetration issues, while fillet welds
have fusion issues. This is incomplete fusion.
93. Where in the illustration is the weld root?
a. Location a
b. Location b
a – Location a is the weld root. Location b is how far the weld penetrated into
the base metal. The weld strength is determined by how far the weld
penetrated into the joint. The root is where the joint comes together closest.
Since this is a square groove weld with a reinforcing fillet weld on top of it on a
corner joint, the root extends the whole thickness of the plate.
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94. Match the names with the fillet weld profile issues.
___Excess Convexity
___Concavity
___Wash
ANSWERS:
c – Excess Convexity
b – Concavity
a - Wash - which is a non standard term describing the welding metal washing up on the
vertical member. Special information should be found in the welding specification for
this.
95. Groove welds go in the joint. They are capable of absorbing any type of load if properly made
and sized. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Weld Face-is the portion most visible when viewing a weld

___Weld Toe-is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
___Face reinforcement
___Root reinforcement
ANSWER:
a - Weld Face is the portion most visible when viewing a weld

d - Weld Toe is a line, where the face of the weld blends into the base metal
b - Face reinforcement
c - Root reinforcement
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96. Since groove welds go into the joint, they get their strength from how far they penetrate into
the joint. Match the penetration feature names to the various parts of this illustrated square
groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Groove weld with reinforcement

___Incomplete joint penetration
___Root penetration
ANSWERS:
b - Groove weld with reinforcement

c - Incomplete joint penetration
a – Root penetration. The groove weld size, joint penetration and root penetration are
all the same thing because this is a square groove weld.
97. Which of the following is NOT a legitimate acceptance standard for a typical groove weld?
a. Undercut
b. Ripple pattern
c. Porosity
d. Profile
e. Size
b - Ripple pattern might affect appearance of the weld but is not an acceptance
requirement. Judging should be very objective and based on what is stated in
the specification.
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98. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated V-groove weld on a butt-joint.
___Heat affected zone- has been heated to a point that

a microstructure change has occurred in the
material, but it has not melted.
___ Weld metal- has totally melted and is an add
mixture of the filler metal (electrode), the base
metal that has been melted and any alloying fluxes
from the welding process being used.
___ Base metal- has not melted or gotten hot enough to undergo any microstructure change
ANSWERS:
b - Heat affected zone – This zone has been heated to a point that a microstructure
change has occurred in the material, but it has not melted.
c - Weld metal- An area that has totally melted and is an add mixture of the filler metal
(electrode), the base metal that has been melted and any alloying fluxes from the
welding process being used.
a - Base metal- An area that has not melted or gotten hot enough to undergo any
microstructure change
99. The following groove weld profile illustration shows acceptable and unacceptable groove
welds. Which is NOT an unacceptable profile?
a. Excessive undercut
b. Overlap
c. Excessive weld reinforcement
d. Underfill
e. Incomplete fusion
e - Incomplete fusion is not shown on the illustration and is not considered a

profile issue. However, incomplete fusion is a very critical type defect and
should be avoided.
194
100. The illustrations are of groove welds on a corner and butt-joint. Which discontinuity is being
shown?
b. Overlap
c. Inclusion
e. Underfill
d –The illustrations show incomplete fusion. These are areas where the weld
and base metal did not melt and flow together.
101. Match the names to the various parts of this illustrated groove weld.
____Undercut face
____Overlap face
____Overlap root
____Undercut root
ANSWERS:
c - Undercut face
d - Overlap face
b - Overlap root
a - Undercut root
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102. Which word best describes the discontinuity in the illustrated groove weld.
a. Excess concavity
b. Underfill
c. Undercut
d. Excess convexity
e. Excess lumpiness
b - Underfill is when the face of the weld is below the surface of the joint. It only
occurs on groove welds.
103. Which location is the weld root?
a. Location a
b. Location b
a – Location a is the weld root. Location ‘b is how far the weld penetrated into
the base metal. The weld strength is determined by how far the weld
penetrated into the joint. The root is where the joint comes together closest.
Since this is a square groove weld the root extends the whole thickness of the
plate.
104. Weld start and stopping points have typically the highest probability of discontinuities. So, with
multi-pass welding, the start and stop on each bead and layer should be lined up as shown in
the photograph so they can be more easily inspected and repaired.
a. True
b. False
196
b – Never put all the discontinuity prone points of a weld in one location. They
need to be staggered around the joint to minimize the discontinuity effects.
105. Other types of welds like surface, plug, slot and spot welds may have different criteria than
fillet and groove welds. This is based on their nature of service and the type of loads they will
encounter.
a. True
b. False
a - Always know the requirements being placed on the type of welding being
considered. For structural type welding, fillet welds are most common, while in
the piping industry groove welds are most common.

Welding Performance
106. Welding performance is concerned with the capabilities of a qualified welder or welding
operator to make an acceptable weld while following a qualified welding procedure
specification. This is evidenced by passing the welding performance qualification test(s) as
required per a specific code or welding specification.
a. True
b. False
a - This is standard industry practice for qualifying a welder or welding operator.
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107. Match all the names with the appropriate definition.
___Welding Performance Qualification Record (WPQR)

___Welding Procedure Specification (WPS)
___Prequalified-Welding Procedure Specification (P-WPS)
___Standard-Welding Procedure Specification (SWPS)
___Mock Up
___Procedure Qualification Test Record
a. The recording of all the parameters on a form that if followed will produce sound welds and
b. Purchasing a form that someone else has qualified that if followed will produce sound welds
and mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose intended.
c. The form used to record all the exact parameters necessary for the passing of all the
required tests prior to a welding procedure specification being qualified.
d. The form used to record all the data when a welder or welding operator is being qualified.
e. A scale or full size model made of a joint that will be tested and approved for production
work.
f. Some codes allow the use of data tables for parameters, base metal/filler metal matching
strength, preheats, joint design to be assembled onto a form for the intended purpose of
producing sound welds and mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose intended.
ANSWERS:
d – Welding Performance Qualification Record (WPQR) -The form used to record all the
data when a welder or welding operator is being qualified.
a - Welding Procedure Specification (WPS)- The recording of all the parameters on a
form that if followed during testing, production or doing weld repair, will produce
sound welds and mechanically strong weld that are fit for the purpose intended.
f - Prequalified-Welding Procedure Specification (P-WPS) -Some codes allow the use of
data tables for parameters, base metal/filler metal matching strength, preheats and
joint design to be brought together onto a form for the intended purpose of
producing sound welds and mechanically strong welds that are fit for the purpose
intended without having to do so much mechanical testing.
b – Standard-Welding Procedure Specification (SWPS) - Purchasing a form that someone
else has qualified; by having all the mechanical testing done; that if followed will
produce sound welds and mechanically strong weld that are fit for the purpose
intended.
e - Mock Up - A scale or full size model made of a joint that will be tested and approved
for production work.
c - Procedure Qualification Test Record - The form used to record all the exact
parameters necessary for the passing of all the required tests prior to a welding
procedure specification being qualified.
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108. A recipe to a chef is like a __________________ to a welder.
a. WPQR
b. WPS
c. PQR
d. Code
b - WPS is much like a recipe is to a chef. If it is followed, a consistent weld will

be made.
109. To determine if a welder is qualified, the welder must pass a ________________ test.
a. WPQR
b. WPS
c. PQR
d. Code
a - WPQR determines if a welder is qualified to a Welding Procedure

Specification.
110. If the ____________ is changed, the welding procedure and the welder qualification may no
longer be qualified.
a. code
b. welding specification
c. essential variable
d. left or right hand
e. direction of the weld from toward to away from the welder
c - Essential Variables, if changed, will require the welder and or the welding
procedure specification to be requalified.
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Use the following Performance Qualification Essential Variable list to answer questions 111 – 114 and
116.
The following is a list of Performance Qualification Essential Variables for a project:

• A change in welding processes
• The deletion of backing
• A change in filler metal F-Number except as allowed in the specification or code
• A change in base metal except as permitted in the specification or code
• For GTAW, a change from alternating current to direct current or vice versa, or a change in
polarity
• A change in welding position from that qualified on the WPQR except as permitted
• A change in vertical weld progression from downhill to uphill, or vice versa.
• For GMAW, a change from spray transfer, globular transfer, or pulse transfer to short-
circuiting transfer; or vice versa
• A change in thickness and or diameter from that tested except as allowed in the
specification or code
111. A welder who is qualified in the GMAW process is required to change the shielding gas
mixture. Is the welder qualified to change the gas or will they have to take a test with this new
shielding gas mixture?
a. The welder is qualified.

b. The welder will have to be tested with this new gas mixture.
c. There is not enough information to answer the question.
a – Shielding gas is not on the list of performance qualification essential

variables so shielding gas is not an essential variable for the welder.
112. A welder using the SMAW process is changing from DCEP (direct current electrode positive) to
AC (alternating current) to eliminate magnetic arc blow (magnetic fields deflecting the arc)
problems. Is the welder still qualified?
a. Yes
b. No
a - With the SMAW process, current and polarity are not essential variables as
stated in the sample list. However, for GTAW they are considered extremely
important parameters.
200
113. New equipment has been purchased in a shop doing GMAW, including inverter technology
machines. These machines were purchased because of their ability to run the pulse mode of
metal transfer. The shop has been using the regular spray mode of metal transfer. Will all the
welders in the shop have to be requalified?
a. Yes
b. No
b - Reference the sample list of performance qualification essential variables for

the welder.
114. A welder was qualified on the illustrated single bevel groove weld on a butt joint in the
horizontal position. Now the welder is being asked to make the same type weld in the same
position but without the backing bar. Is the welder qualified to make that weld?
a. Yes
b. No
b - From the list of essential variables, the deletion of backing is not allowed. It
is much easier to make this weld with the backing bar on. To remove it makes it
much more difficult and the welder would have to prove on another WPQR test
that they can make the weld without backing.
115. This question is based on the scenario in question number 116. According to the table on
sample position limits for performance tests, in what other position can the welder perform
the weld?
a. F
b. H
c. V
d. O
e. F and H
201
a - From the illustration in question 116, the weld is being made in the
horizontal position and is a groove weld. So, from the table, the test position in
the second column is 2G. Going across from the 2G, the only other position they
are qualified to weld on is flat. Read the footnotes to verify if they apply to
answering this question.
116. A welder qualified on pipe in the 5G position. The welder started on the bottom of the pipe
(6:00 o’clock position) and welded upwards toward the top of the pipe (12:00 o’clock
position). On the job, the welder is told to weld from top to bottom for the reason that it will
be a lot faster and just as good. Is the welder qualified to make this weld?
a. Yes
b. No
b - A portion of this weld is made in the vertical position. Vertical is the only
position that deals with progression, so the welder needs to be requalified with
this new progression direction.
117. A welder used an F3 electrode when performing a qualification test. What other F number
electrodes can that welder use when making production welds?
a. Only the F3
b. Only F3X filler metals
c. F3 and any higher F number
d. F3 and any lower F number
e. F4
d – From the Sample Allowable Filler Metals table, first column, first row applies
to this question. The welder will be able to use the F-number used in the test,
which was F3, and any lower F number.
202
118. A welder qualification test was conducted using an aluminum 1100 alloy designation which
carries an M-21 Number. Is it ok to have the welding candidate weld on an aluminum 7005
(T53) alloy and temper designation which carries an M-27 Number?
a. Yes
b. No
a - Reference the Sample Allowable Base Metals for Performance Qualification

table. The first and second column in the fourth row cover this situation. For
additional information on Base Metal Specifications and M-Number listing
please check this American Welding Society site at
http://www.aws.org/technical/B2.1-B2.1M-BMG-2009-ADD1.pdf.
119. Welders have been qualified to weld razor blade thickness materials together. Now they are
being asked to weld thick plates together. Does this present any issues?
a. Yes. This would be a significant change in thickness of the material and weld deposit
thickness. Welders are qualified in ranges of plate or pipe wall thickness or deposit
thickness. On pipe or tubing, the diameter must also be considered.
b. No. As long as the same welding process is being used and they have a qualified welding
procedure specification for the work, there are no issues.
a - A change in thickness and or diameter from that tested, except as allowed in

the specification or code, may require qualification. Always verify this type of
information.
203
120. A welder is a person who does manual and semiautomatic welding applications. This requires
a great deal of eye-hand manipulative skills as well as knowledge of the equipment. A welding
operator is a person who does mechanized, automatic or robotic applications. The welding
operator must be capable of setting up, adjusting and basic troubleshooting of the welding
process and equipment being used. However, the welding operator may have no manipulative
skills for manual or semi-automatic welding. Therefore, the essential welding variables differ
between the two. One difference is that a welder may use remote or direct visual control of
the weld. Remote would be like watching the weld on a monitor while using a joy-stick to
control the weld pool. Direct would be direct visual observation of the weld pool and controls
or vice versa. This would be an essential variable for a welding operator as described.
a. True
b. False
a - A change in the welding application from manual or semiautomatic to any of

the more mechanized applications or vice versa would require qualification.
Always verify this type of information.
121. To qualify a welder with standard tests, the specification must identify those tests. See the
sample examination requirements for performance qualifications. The radiograph can be used
in lieu of the bend test. A welder using the GMAW process is qualifying using the radiograph
instead of the bend test. Which mode(s) of metal transfer does not allow this option?
a. Spray
b. Pulse
c. Globular
d. Short-Circuit
e. Both a and b
d - Reference the sample examination requirements for performance

qualifications and footnote a.
204
122. A pipe welder is being qualified on a 4 in. schedule 40 pipe (1/4 in. wall thickness) with a
complete penetration V-groove on a butt joint. The pipe is fixed and the pipe axis is
horizontal. How many bend test specimens are required?
a. Not enough information

b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
e. None. It will be radiographed.
b - On the Sample Number of Bend Tests per Performance Qualification table, a

fixed pipe with its axis horizontal is the number ‘5’ position and the ‘G’ for
groove weld or 5G for short.
123. Another way of qualifying a welder, other than by a standard

test, is a workmanship test. Workmanship weldments are
accepted or rejected primarily based solely upon visual
inspection. A typical workmanship test weldment is shown in
the illustration. What is being tested?
a. Fillet welds
b. Groove welds
c. T, lap, and butt joints
d. Edge and plug welds
e. All of the above
e - This is considered general knowledge after completing section 3 on a weld

examination.
124. For groove welds, the bend test is commonly used for performance qualifications. The weld
and the heat affected zone must be in the bend radius. The bend test is used to test for
_______.
a. tensile strength
b. fatigue
c. impact
d. soundness
e. yield strength
d - Soundness is what is required of the welder. The mechanical properties are

determined by the welding procedure specification.
205
125. For fillet welds, the fillet weld break test is commonly used for performance qualifications.
The weld generally will break if the root of the weld is placed in tension. Does the fillet break
test specimen in the illustration show the force being placed in the proper direction to
accomplish this?
a. Yes
b. No
a - As it is being loaded, the force will place the root of the fillet weld in tension.
The sample will either bend over upon itself or break. Both are acceptable. If the
fillet weld breaks, the surface of the fracture should show no cracks, incomplete
root fusion, no inclusion or porosity exceeding 3/32 inch (2 mm) in its greatest
dimension and also the sums of the greatest dimensions or all inclusions or
porosity should not exceed 3/8 in. (10 mm) for the length of the specimen.
126. The macro examination of a weld is accomplished by cutting into the weld perpendicular to
the direction of the weld. The cut surface is then polished and etched with an acid solution to
provide a clear definition of the weld metal, heat affected zone (HAZ) and the unaffected base
metal. In this process, the cross section of the fillet weld (polished etched surface) is being
examined for which of the following?
b. Cracks
c. Both a and b
c - Incomplete fusion and cracks are critical type discontinuities and are defects,
thus making them rejectable.
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127. A welding operator is being qualified. What is the length of the end pieces that will either be
discarded or used in a macroetch test?
a. 1 in.
b. 2 in.
c. 4 in.
d. 4-1/2 in.
e. 6 in.
d - The test specimen’s length for an operator is 15 in. long. So the test
specimen’s length divided by 2 = 7-1/2 in., minus 3 in. = 4-1/2 in. Alternatively,
the length is 15 in. and the fillet weld break specimen is 6 in. So 15 minus 6
divided by two equals 4-1/2 in.
128. Why are WPS essential variables more involved than welder or operator performance
qualifications?
a. Soundness of the weld must be determined

b. Mechanical properties have to be tested
c. Impact properties maybe required
d. Fatigue properties maybe required
e - WPS must be capable of dealing with all of these situations. Welder or

Welding Operator qualifications deal with soundness only.
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Use the following scenario to answer questions 129 – 135.
Limitations on the thickness ranges qualified by procedure qualification tests are given in the
Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for Procedure Qualification
table below. A WPS is being qualified on a 2 in. pipe with a wall thickness of 1 in. The root and
half of the V-groove will be filled with multi pass filler metal from the GTAW process. The
other half will be filled with multi pass electrodes using the SMAW process.
129. The WPS will be usable on what range of base metal thickness?
a. 3/16 in. through 3 in.

b. 1 in. through 2 in.
c. 2 in. through 3 in.
d. 3/8 in. through 1 in.
e. 3/16 in. through 2 in.
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e – The first three columns of the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe
for Groove Welds for Procedure Qualification table apply.
130. What is the maximum thickness of GTAW weld metal that can be deposited with this WPS?
a. 3/8 in.
b. ½ in.
c. ¾ in.
d. 1 in.
e. 2 in.
d - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for
Procedure Qualification table, the first column footnote a (2) applies along with
the 4th column.
131. A WPS is being qualified on a 3/8 in. thick plate with the GMAW-S process and mode of metal
transfer. What is the range this WPS is qualified for?
a. 3/16 in. through < 0.4125 in.

b. ¾ in. through ½ in.
c. 3/16 in. through ¾ in.
d. 3/16 in. < 0.4125 in.
d - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for
Procedure Qualification table, the first three columns and footnote b applies.
132. A WPS is being qualified on a 5/8 in. thick plate with the SAW process using multiple
electrodes but in a single pass. What is the maximum thickness this WPS is qualified for?
a. 3/16 in.
b. 0.6875 in.
c. 11/16 in.
d. 1-1/4 in.
e. Both b and c
e - From the Sample Thickness Limitation of Plate and Pipe for Groove Welds for
Procedure Qualification table, columns one and three and foot note d apply.
Also 0.6875 in. and 11/16 in. are the same. They equal 5/8 in. time 1.1.
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133. A WPS is being qualified on ½ in. thick M-11 steel plate using a T-joint. The FCAW-S process is
being used to make a single pass weld of 5/16 in. size and a multi pass weld of 3/8 in. in size.
Using the below Sample Thickness and Size Limitations for Fillet Welds for Procedure
Qualification table, this WPS will be good for what size single pass fillet welds in production?
a. Unlimited
b. 2T
c. 5/16 in. and smaller
d. 1/2 in.
e. 2t
c - From the Sample Thickness and Size Limitations for Fillet Welds for
Procedure Qualification table, columns one and three plus foot note c apply.
134. Use the following illustration to answer questions 134 and 135. To qualify a WPS on groove
welds, what tests are required?
b. guided bend test
c. tension test
d. fracture toughness (if specified in documents)
e. All of the above
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e - From the Sample Test Methods Required for Procedure Qualification,
columns one and two plus foot note b apply.
135. Which of the following is NOT a test requirement for a fillet weld for WPS qualification?
b. bend test
c. shear test
d. bend-break
e. macro-examination
b - From the Sample Test Methods Required for Procedure Qualification,

columns one, three and four.
Use the following to answer questions 136 – 137.
Sample list of Procedure Qualification Essential Variables for GMAW:
Joint Design
• A change from a fillet weld to a groove weld
• A change in M-Number or backing
• The addition of thermal backgouging on heat-treatable materials
Base Metals
• A change in base metal thickness beyond range stated
• A change from one M-Number base metal to another M-Number base metal or to a
combination of M-Number base metals except as permitted in the specification
• A change from one unlisted base metal to a different unlisted base metal or to a listed base
metal or vice versa
• A change from an uncoated metal to a coated (such as painted or galvanized) metal unless the
coating is removed from the weld area prior to welding, but not vice versa, except as
permitted in the specification
Filler Metals
• A change from one F-Number to any other F-Number or any other filler metal not listed in the
specification
• For ferrous materials, a change from one A-Number or to a filler metal analysis not listed in
the specification
• A change in filler metal strength exceeding 10,000 psi (69 Mpa) or a change in filler metal
classification to a strength lower than the specified minimum tensile strength designator of
the base metal
• Addition or deletion, or a change in the nominal amount of composition of supplementary
metal (in addition to filler metal) beyond that qualified
• A change in the weld metal thickness beyond that permitted in the specification
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Position
• A change from any position to the vertical position, uphill progression. Vertical uphill
progression qualifies all positions.
Preheat and Interpass Temperature

• A decrease in preheat of more than 1000F (380C) from that qualified
• For heat-treatable materials an increase in the preheat or interpass temperature of more than
1000F (380C) from that qualified
Postweld Heat Treatment

• For the following M-Numbers 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, and 12, a change from any one
condition to any other requires requalification:
o No PWHT (post weld heat treatment)
o PWHT below the lower transformation temperature
o PWHT within the transformation temperature range
o PWHT above the upper transformation temperature
o PWHT above the upper transformation temperature, followed by treatment below the
lower transformation temperature
• For all materials not covered above, a separate PQR is required for no PWHT and PWHT
Shielding Gas
• Addition or deletion of torch shielding gas
• A change in the specified nominal composition of shielding gas
• For M-51, M-52, M-61 and M-101 base metal, a change in the nominal composition or a
decrease of 15% in the root shielding flow rate
• For M-21 through M-47, an increase of 50% or more, or a decrease of 20% or
more in the shielding gas flow rate used for qualification
• The addition, deletion, or a change in the composition, or a decrease exceeding 15% in the
flow rate of a root shielding gas on single-sided M-4X grove joints and for all welds in M-51
• For M-10I, M-51 through M-54, and M-61 and M-62, the deletion of, or a change in
composition of, or a decrease exceeding 10% in the trailing gas flow rate
Electrical Characteristics
• A change in the mode of metal transfer from short circuiting to globular, spray, or pulsed and
vice versa
Other Variables
• A change in welding process
A change from stringer to a weave bead, but not vice versa, for M-23, M-24, M-26, and M-27 heat-
treatable materials
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136. The welding supervisor wants consistency of weld appearance on all the shifts. She has
informed all welders that stringer beads are to be used. Weave beads will no longer be
acceptable. After considering the Procedure Essential Variables, can stringer beads be
acceptable?
a. Yes
b. No
d. No for the procedure, yes for the welders
a - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables dealing with Other

Variables and this M23 Base Metal, this is ok but not vice versa. This is a heat
input issue on a heat treatable material and stringer beads produce less heat
input, so this is ok.
137. Which of the following essential variables, if changed, will impact both the WPS and the
welder qualification?
a. Shielding Gas Composition

b. To a filler metal strength that exceeds 10,000 psi greater than what was qualified on
c. Change from GMAW to FCAW
d. The addition of backing to the weld joint
a - After reviewing the Procedure Essential Variables and the Performance

Essential Variables, the only one that applies to the qualification of both is the
welding process. Keep in mind, the welder is responsible for soundness in the
weld, while the WPS is concerned with soundness and also the mechanical
properties.
213
Welding Definitions and Terminology
138. Match the following trade and colloquial terms with the appropriate definition:
____ Bell hole weld a. The electrode holder or a welding torch or gun where
you might get an electrical shock or “sting”.
____ Dual Shield b. The improper term for a coated electrode used with the
shielding metal arc welding process.
____ Heliarc c. A flux cored electrode that is used without a shielding
gas, it is self shielded much like a coated electrode
turned inside out.
____ Innershield d. A light duty electrode holder attached to a short
(approx. 10 feet) light duty electrode lead, to make it
light and very flexible for the welder to handle.
____ Land e. A flux cored electrode that requires an additional
shielding gas.
____ Rod f. An arc welding process that was developed using helium
as a shielding gas and tungsten as a non-consumable
electrode.
____ Stinger g. A fixed position butt joint being welded on a cross-
country pipe line, that is located at the bottom of a
trench dug out to give the welders access to the joint.
____ Whip h. Is a metal also known as white metal, zinc die-cast, and
is a colloquial term referring to alloys like zinc, lead,
copper, tin, magnesium, and aluminum that consist of
inexpensive, low-melting point metals used to make fast,
inexpensive castings.
____ Pot metal i. The portion of a pipe joint that comes together closest
and is usually an area or surface.
ANSWERS:
g – Bell hole weld - A fixed position butt joint being welded on a cross-country pipe line, that is
located at the bottom of a trench dug out to give the welders access to the joint.
e – Dual shield -A flux cored electrode that requires an additional shielding gas.
f – Heliarc - An arc welding process that was developed using helium as a shielding gas and
tungsten as a non-consumable electrode.
c – Innershield - A flux cored electrode that is used without a shielding gas, it is self shielded
much like a coated electrode turned inside out.
i – Land - The portion of a pipe joint that comes together closest and is usually an area or
surface.
b – Rod - The improper term for a coated electrode used with the shielding metal arc welding
process.
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a – Stinger - The electrode holder or a welding torch or gun where you might get an electrical
shock or “sting”.
d – Whip - A light duty electrode holder attached to a short (approx. 10 feet) light duty
electrode lead, to make it light and very flexible for the welder to handle.
h – Pot metal - Is a metal also known as white metal, zinc die-cast, and is a colloquial term
referring to alloys like zinc, lead, copper, tin, magnesium, and aluminum that consist of
inexpensive, low-melting point metals used to make fast, inexpensive castings.
139. Match up the terms with the illustration and definitions for a butt joint groove before it is
welded:
Bevel ____
Bevel angle ____
Bevel radius ____
Groove angle ____
Groove face ____
Joint root ____
Root edge ____
Root face ____
Root opening ____
A. is the angle between the bevel and a perpendicular line from the plate surface
B. is the included angle between the groove faces
C. is the root with no width or thickness
D. is the radius used to form a J-groove or U-groove type joint
E. is that portion of the groove face that appears in the joint root
F. is the separation of the joint where the two members come together
G. is where the members come together closest, it may be a point, a line or an area in cross
section
H. is an angular shape on the joint
I. is any surface in a joint prior to welding
ANSWERS:
H - Bevel is an angular shape on the joint.

A – Bevel angle is the angle between the bevel and a perpendicular line from the plate
surface.
D – Bevel radius is the radius used to form a J-groove or U-groove type joint.
B – Groove angle is the included angle between the groove faces.
I – Groove face is any surface in a joint prior to welding.
G – Joint root is where the members come together closest, it may be a point, a line or
an area in cross section.
C – Root edge is the root with no width or thickness.
E - Root face is that portion of the groove face that appears in the joint root.
F – Root opening is the separation of the joint where the two members come together.
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140. Match the terms with the illustration for a butt joint groove after it is welded. Definitions for
each corresponding reference letter is provided below.
Base metal zone (BMZ) ____

Depth of fusion ____
Face reinforcement ____
Fusion face ____
root reinforcement ____
root surface ____
weld face ____
weld interface ____
weld root ____
weld toe ____
Weld metal zone (WMZ) ____
A. is the most exposed surface of a weld as you look at it from the direction it was
made
B. is the reinforcement from the side the weld was made
C. is the line where the weld face blends into the base metal
D. is the surface of the base metal that is melted during welding
E. is the boundary between the weld metal and the heat affected zone
F. is that area of the base metal that did not melt but became hot
enough to undergo a microstructure or mechanical change
G. is the reinforcement that occurs on the side opposite where the weld
was made
H. is the location where the weld fused deepest into the joint
I. is where the joint comes closest together
J. is the base metal that has not undergone any microstructure or mechanical changes due
to the welding
K. is how far beyond the fusion face the weld metal has melted into the base metal
L. is the solidified weld which is an admixture of the electrode (filler rod), base metal and any
alloys present in the flux or coating on the electrode.
ANSWERS:
J – Base Metal Zone (BMZ) is the base metal that has not undergone any
microstructure or mechanical changes due to the welding
K - Depth of Fusion is how far beyond the fusion face the weld metal has
melted into the base metal
B - Face reinforcement is the reinforcement from the side the weld was made
D - Fusion face is the surface of the base metal that is melted during
welding
F - Heat affected zone (HAZ) is that area of the base metal that did not
melt but became hot enough to undergo a microstructure or
mechanical change
216
G - Root reinforcement is the reinforcement that occurs on the side
opposite where the weld was made
I - Root surface is where the joint comes closest together
A - Weld face is the most exposed surface of a weld as you look at it from
the direction it was made
E - Weld interface is the boundary between the weld metal and the heat
affected zone
H - Weld root is the location where the weld fused deepest into the joint
C - Weld toe is the line where the weld face blends into the base metal
L – Weld Metal Zone (WMZ) is the solidified weld which is an admixture of the
electrode (filler rod), base metal and any alloys present in the flux or coating
on the electrode.
141. Match up the terms with the illustration and definitions for a butt joint groove after it is
welded:
depth of bevel ____

groove weld size ____
incomplete joint penetration ____
root penetration ____
A. is that area of the base metal that did not melt but became hot enough to undergo a
microstructure or mechanical change
B. is the perpendicular distance from the surface of the base metal to the to the start of the
root.
C. is how far the weld penetrated into the joint minus any face reinforcement.
D. is how far the weld has penetrated into the root of the joint
E. is the section of the joint root where penetration did not occur. If the weld was designed to
be a complete joint penetration weld (CJP) and it is not, then it is a discontinuity and is known
as incomplete penetration. If the weld was designed to be a partial joint penetration weld
(PJP) then it is not a discontinuity and should not be called incomplete joint penetration and is
just referred to as PJP.
ANSWERS:
B – Depth of Bevel is the perpendicular distance from the surface of the base metal to
the to the start of the root.
C – Groove weld size is how far the weld penetrated into the joint minus any face
reinforcement.
A – Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) is that area of the base metal that did not melt but
became hot enough to undergo a microstructure or mechanical change
E - Incomplete joint penetration is the section of the joint root where penetration did
not occur. If the weld was designed to be a complete joint penetration weld (CJP)
and it is not, then it is a discontinuity and is known as incomplete penetration. If the
weld was designed to be a partial joint penetration weld (PJP) then it is not a
discontinuity and should not be called incomplete joint penetration and is just
217
referred to as PJP.
D – Root penetration is how far the weld has penetrated into the root of the joint
142. Use the following information to answer questions 142 and 143. The American Welding
Society (AWS) describes the weld positions with a numbering system. For a plate, it is 1
through 4, from the easiest weld position (1) to the most difficult weld position (4). The
illustrations represent these four positions. What number would indicate the horizontal
position?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
d – Horizontal is considered easier than most of the other positions for

purposes of numbering. Two of these example test plate positions have the
plate surfaces vertical. This may create some confusion with them being
horizontal. But it is the direction the weld that is made on these surfaces that
must be considered.
143. What number would indicate the vertical position?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
c – Vertical is considered one of the more difficult positions to weld. It is also

the only position that involves progression; vertical uphill vs. vertical downhill.
Progression is an essential variable for welder qualification and also weld
procedure qualification.
218
144. For pipe, the numbering system is 1, 2, 5 and 6, from easiest to most difficult. Label the
following illustrations with the appropriate number.
a. ____ b. ____ c. ____ d. ____
ANSWERS:
a. 6 - the pipe axis (center line of the pipe) is 450 from the horizontal plane and the
pipe is fixed not rolled and contains three of the most difficult positions.
(horizontal, vertical and overhead)
b. 1 - the pipe axis is horizontal but the pipe is rotated so weld is in the flat
position
c. 5 - the pipe axis is horizontal but the pipe is not rotated but fixed so that the
welder must weld overhead on the bottom of the pipe, vertical on the sides
and flat position on the top
d. 2 - the pipe axis is vertical so the weld is in the horizontal position
145. Using the illustrations and table, what is the welding position of the fillet weld on the T-joint
at location 2? The axis of the weld is horizontal or 00 and the face rotation is 2250.
1 2 3 4
a. 1F
b. 2F
c. 2G
d. Horizontal fillet
e. Both b and d
219
e - The AWS numbering system for welding positions can also be enhanced with
a letter to denote the type of weld. The letter “F” represents a fillet weld and
the letter “G” represents a groove weld. Illustrated are the flat, horizontal,
vertical, and overhead positions for fillet welds on plate. The third column
shows the axis of the weld and the fourth column shows the face rotation.
Diagram reference B is the only one that matches from column two with the
answer in column one.
146. The illustration and table are for groove weld positions. If a groove weld is being made with
the weld axis of 450 and the face rotation of 2700, what would be the correct position and type
of weld?
a. 1G
b. 2G
c. Horizontal fillet
d. Overhead groove
e - It is a 3G or vertical groove weld. The axis angle and face rotation only match
up with the Diagram Reference D which is vertical.
147. From the workmanship weldments, how many 2F welds are made?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
220
c – There are 4 horizontal fillets made. There is also a
horizontal groove weld.
148. One of the four welding positions has progression. Progression is the direction of the way a
weld is made. This is considered an essential variable for the welder and the welding
procedure. Which of the following positions does progression apply to?
a. Flat
b. Horizontal
c. Vertical
d. Overhead
c - Vertical has to be specified as to uphill welding or downhill welding.
149. Use the following information to answer questions 151 and 152. Review the illustration for
fillet and groove weld electrode angles. This angle can also be considered for welding guns or
welding torches. What is another term for the forehand travel angle?
a. Drag
b. Static
c. Work
d. Backhand
e. Push
e - Push is referred to with the forehand welding and travel angle for both
illustrations. The essentials of operation for the welder or operator are to
control the weld pool and they are:
• Current or amperage
• Length of the arc or voltage
221
• Angle of the electrode both in the travel and work directions (see
illustration),
• Manipulation- electrode position in the joint, uphill or downhill, stringers or
weave, electrode extension, etc…,
• Speed of travel
The word CLAMS will help you remember these essentials.
150. The fillet weld is being made on the T-joint with a joint angle of 900 and the groove weld is
being made on a butt joint with a joint angle of 1800. The rule for the proper work angle is to
get equal heat into both members being welded together. To get equal heat into both
members of the T-joint, the work angle should be ____ and the work angle for the butt joint
should be ____.
a. 900 and 1800

b. 450 and 900
c. 1800 and 900
d. 900 and 450
b – The T-joint is 900.. To get equal heat into both members, you must split this
angle so it is 450. The butt joint is 1800. To get equal heat into both members,
you must split this angle so it is 900.
151. The illustration depicts the travel and work angles for pipe welding. What is the weld
progression?
a. Downhill
b. Uphill
c. No progression specified
d. No progression considered on a 5G pipe position
b – The correct answer is uphill per

the arrow on the side of the pipe
labeled “weld progression”.
222
152. According to the illustration for a 6G pipe joint, what welding positions will be encountered?
a. Flat, vertical and overhead

b. Flat, horizontal and vertical
c. Flat and vertical only
d. Horizontal, vertical and overhead
e. Vertical and overhead only
d - 6G has the pipe axis at 450.
153. Which of the following bead manipulation techniques has the lowest heat input into the
weldments which reduces distortion and improves mechanical properties?
a. Whip
b. Oscillation
c. Weave
d. Stringer
d – The stringer bead manipulation technique has the lowest heat input into the
weldment. When the welder manipulates the welding pool they control its size
and shape. With stringer bead manipulation, the weld pool is moved along the
intended path in a straight line. This results in faster cooling rates because of
the faster travel speed. This will improve impact strength grain structure and
reduces distortion. With the weave bead manipulation the weld pool is moved
along the intended path but with a side-to-side oscillation. It is generally done
to increase weld width but must be kept within Code limits. The reduced travel
speed increases heat input and slows the cooling rate which can have a negative
effect on the impact strength of the grain structure. It also increases the
distortion level.
223
154. With the semi-automatic welding processes, those with a wire feeder being used require the
electrode to be connected into the electrical circuit. This is accomplished through the contact
tip. The illustration depicts three GMAW welding guns on a common work piece with all of the
gas nozzles the same distance from the work piece, known as the standoff distance. Stickout
is the technical term used to denote the distance from the gas nozzle to the welding arc.
However the critical dimension for the electrical circuit is the distance from the contact tip to
the arc, which is the electrode extension. The shorter the distance the less electrical
resistance, so the welding power source will have to output more amperage to burn the wire
off and maintain the proper arc length. If the contact tip is setback inside the gas nozzle the
electrode extension is increased and more electrical resistance heating of the electrode
occurs, causing it to preheat, thus reducing what the power source has to output amperage
wise to maintain the arc length. Match the volt and ammeter reading with the appropriate
electrode extension. Wire feed speed is constant.
a. A
b. B
c. C
c - The power source is constant voltage so it will maintain the output voltage.
However, the amperage will go up and down with the electrode extension. Long
electrode extension equals low amperage.
224
155. Match the volt and ammeter reading with the appropriate electrode extension. Wire feed
speed is constant.
a. A
b. B
c. C
a - The power source is constant voltage so it will maintain the output voltage.
However, the amperage will go up and down with the electrode extension.
Short electrode extension equals high amperage.
156. Which of the following terms would most accurately applies to when a welder or welding
operator must pay particular attention to the details of the welding operation?
a. Welding attributes
b. Welding sequence
c. Welding technique
d. Welding methods
c - These are items that require control by the welder or welding operator.
157. What is the term used to describe the molten metal that makes up the weld prior to its
solidification into the weld bead?
a. Weld pool
b. Weld puddle
c. Weld crater
d. Weld hole
a - This is the preferred term. Puddle is often used but limit the depth of
penetration, while a pool does not tend to limit its depth.
225
molten weld pool and the weld pool has a side to side motion that is transverse to the travel
direction?
a. Oscillation
b. Weaving
c. Whipping
d. Both a and c
b - This welding technique would appear in the welding instructions or in the

welding procedure specification. This generally increases the heat input per
weld pass, but will generally reduce the total number of weld passes required to
fill the joint.
molten weld pool and the weld pool moves lengthwise with the direction of the travel of the
weld bead.
a. Oscillation
b. Digging
c. Whipping
d. Both b and c
c - This welding technique may or may not appear in the welding instructions or
in the welding procedure specification as it is not considered an essential
variable. However, it does help control weld profile, penetration and the
keyhole size on the root pass.
160. The keyhole welding technique is best describes by:
a. using a concentrated heat source to partially or completely penetrate through the

work piece.
b. forming a hole on the leading edge of the weld pool.
c. allowing the molten metal to form at the trailing end of the weld pool by controlling the
progression of the heat source, which then forms the root bead.
d - This welding technique is used with various welding processes and various
application methods because of its ability to control penetration and when
complete penetration is required to control root reinforcement.
226
161. A welding operator is responsible for several welding machines running simultaneously. The
welding equipment has process control equipment that only requires occasional or no
observation and requires no manual adjustment during operation. This allows the welding
operator to monitor weld quality, load and unload weld fixtures, while maintaining a clean safe
work area. Which application method is being used?
a. Mechanized
b. Automatic
c. Semiautomatic
d. Robotic
b - With this type of process controlled equipment the welding operator can be
much more productive. The other application methods require constant
monitoring and, in some cases, the weld operator may also be required to be a
welder with manipulative welding skills.
162. Using the proper terms is critical for communication, as it can have a major impact on
productivity, quality and safety. As a safety issue, what is the proper term for the welding
connection from the welding machine to the weldment?
a. Electrode connection
b. Ground connection
c. Work piece connection
d. Weld connection
c – Work piece connection is the correct term as it accurately described what is

being connected. Unfortunately, many people call it the ground connection.
However, this is in error as the ground connection deals with the electrical
equipment requirements to bring everything to ground potential for safety
reasons.
163. What is the proper term for the container that holds the various gases used for welding,
cutting and heating?
a. Bottle
b. Tank
c. Cylinder
d. Can
c - Many of these are high pressure cylinders capable of storing gases up to

2,200 pounds per square inch. They must be properly stored and handled. Using
incorrect terms reduces ones opinion of their seriousness. Liking them to a
thermos bottle or a 5 gallon gas can or gas tank.
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164. Some welding processes utilize flux and thus leave a residue of material covering the face of
the weld which must be removed. Thermal cutting processes leave some remains of solidified,
oxidized metallic material on the back side of the cut work piece. What is the proper term for
these materials?
a. Slag
b. Coating
c. Dross
d. Both a and c
d - Slag and dross are correct. They are often confused together but they are
two separate materials. One is a byproduct of the flux use with certain welding
processes like SAW, FCAW and SMAW and the other is from thermal cutting
operations.
165. What is the makeup of dross that is unique from slag?
a. It is hard.
b. It is easily removed.
c. It is metallic.
d. It is nonmetallic.
c - Dross is metallic, while slag is nonmetallic. Thermal cutting produces dross

not slag.
166. Which term describes the welding process manipulation required to connect one weld to
another weld and facilitate proper fusion?
a. Pick-up
b. Re-start
c. Tie-in
d. Back-wash
c - This term can also be used to describe the length of the weld along the toes
and how well they tie into the base metal. The crater area at the end of the
weld and how well it ties in with the base metal can also be referred to as a tie-
in. The term pick-up is used in many companies to describe a welder or welding
operator going over their work and making in process repair of defective welds.
However, pick-up is not a standard term in the welding industry.
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167. What term describes when one of the five joint members do not come together, meeting,
intersecting or lying at nearly right angles to one another?
a. Orthotic
b. Skewed
c. Octagonal
d. Rectilinear
b - They can be skewed butt joints, skewed T-joints, skewed corner joints,
skewed edge joints or skewed lap joints. Various codes and welding
specification indicate just what angles make the joint skewed and how to deal
with the size of the weld and penetration issues on groove welds.
168. Metal sparks are observed emanating from the fusion welding process. They appear to be
coming from the heat source or the weld pool area and do not become part of the weld metal.
They lay about the weld area, generally of a spherical shape and may or may not be fused into
the base meat. Which term describers this situation?
a. Splatter
b. Bee bee’s
c. Solidus
d. Spatter
d – Spatter is the correct term and there is no “L” in it. There generally is no
acceptance requirement for spatter. However, it must be removed for various
NDE inspections and if painting or finishing of the weld area is required.
169. A weld is being made on a V-groove butt joint on a plate 1.25 inches thick. It is a 1G position
joint and the weld is being made with the FCAW process. The welding specification calls for
the maximum weld width in a single pass of 0.625 inches. The width of the first two layers of
weld are under this 0.625 inch limit. However, the third and subsequent layers will be wider
than the specified maximum limit. Which term is used to describe the weld layers used to
finish this joint?
a. Stringer-layer
b. Weave-layer
c. Split-layer
d. Multi-layer
c - This technique results in layers that have more than one weld bead per layer.
This technique will keep the width of each weld bead in specification.
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170. A broken surface is being observed. A small pore or inclusion type discontinuity appears as a
round bright area. Which term fits this description?
a. Nucleation
b. Crack
c. Spider web
d. Fisheye
d - A fisheye is caused by the presence of hydrogen in the weld. If this appeared

on a break test of some type it may or may not be acceptable. Always verify the
acceptance criteria per the code or specification.
171. A semiautomatic GMAW-P (pulse) set up is being used. The __________ control can be set to
maintain the arc length even at the high travel speed that the welder will be using along a
curving weld joint geometry. This will maintain the weld profile even if the electrode
extension and gun angles cannot be accurately controlled by the welder in this situation.
a. adaptive
b. burn back
c. up slope
d. hot start
a - Adaptive control senses and makes changes in conditions by directing the

welding equipment to take corrective action to mediate what is getting out of
parameters. In this case, arc length is correcting for the voltage changes.
172. When called for, backing is used In order to be most assured of getting complete joint
penetration. This can be partially fused or can remain unfused to the root side of the
weldment. Which of the following types of backing material can be used for backing?
a. Ceramic
b. Copper
c. Shoe
d. All of the above
d - The backing material can be metallic or nonmetallic. The shoe is a form of

backing vs. a bar; the shoe can be stationary or moveable. They all function as
barrier devices to prevent the molten weld metal from running through the
joint being welded.
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173. Arc strike is a discontinuity, best described by which of the following?
a. When the arc is started

b. When the arc is stopped at the end of the weld (crater arc)
c. An arc mark, melting action, heat affected zone or change in the surface outside the weld
zone
d. Tie-in area
c - This discontinuity can be critical from a metallurgical situation if the base

metal has a sensitive microstructure. Most codes or welding specification do not
allow it and it must be thoroughly inspected and repaired.
174. Which term describes a distortion control method that uses a longitudinal sequence that has
the weld passes being made in the opposite direction to the overall progress of the weld?
a. Backstep technique
b. Block sequence technique
c. Cascade sequence technique
d. Skip-jump around technique
a – The backstep technique is the only method that has the weld passes made in
the opposite direction to the overall progress of the weld. It has the normal
distortion forces actually working against themselves, thus reducing the
distortion effects.
175. Arc time is:
a. the total time the welder is clocked into work.

b. the time the arc is on during the arc welding operation.
c. the non-arc time.
d. the total arc and non-arc time.
b - This is also considered the operating factor and is thought of as the

percentage of a shift that a welder/welding operator is actually welding. For
robotic and mechanized welding, it can be as high as 90% while for manual and
semiautomatic welding it can be as low as 10-20% operating factors.
176. The difference in electrical potential between the electrode and work piece is termed?
a. Arc amperage
b. Load voltage
c. Open circuit voltage
d. Arc voltage
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d - The distance between the electrode and work piece is where the arc plasma
is created. The difference in electrical potential or electro motive force (EMF) or
voltage are all sanominus and relate to electrical pressure across the welding
arc.
177. Which of the following terms applies to a device that functions as a barrier device to prevent
the molten weld metal from running out the end of the joint when making a groove weld?
This is to insure the full cross-section of the joint will be filled.
a. Weld tab
b. Weld dam
c. Weld block
d. Weld plug
b - The weld dam, much like the backing material, can be metallic or
nonmetallic. However, it is placed at the end of the joint. Some codes and
welding specification do not allow this device as it can create discontinuities like
incomplete fusion and slag inclusions. In this case a weld tab would be used.
178. Which term best describes a device that the welder holds in his hand, and when activated, the
continuously fed welding electrode wire would be electrically energized? It also allows the
welder to direct the electrode and supplies shielding gas as needed.
a. Welding torch
b. Welding gun
c. Welding arc
d. Welding rod
b - Since the electrode wire is fed through it and is electrically energized it is a

gun. A welding torch only supplies electrical energy to a fixed non-consumable
electrode as used in GTAW or PAW processes.
179. The “as welded” condition is best described as:
a. the conditions occurring prior to welding.

b. the conditions occurring during the welding operation.
c. the weldment prior to subsequent chemical, mechanical or thermal treatments.
d. the pre-weld chemical, mechanical or thermal treatments.
c - Post weld treatment is generally specified on the drawings, welding

procedure specification or weld instructions. The weld can be cleaned of slag,
spatter and smoke but nothing else.
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180. High stress areas are found on the corners of weldments. For this reason, most welds are not
to be started or stopped on the corners. The weld needs to be made continuously around the
corner and a specified distance beyond the corner before stopping. Which term describes this
operation?
a. Wrapping the corner

b. End return
c. Boxing
c - Many people use all of these terms to describe this technique. However,
since the AWS 3.0 Standard Welding Terms and Definitions are being used as a
guide, then boxing is the only standard term to be used.
181. Autogenous weld is best described as:
a. a fusion weld made by itself with no filler metal added.

b. a braze weld made by itself with no brazing alloy added.
c. a solder weld made by itself with no soldering alloy added.
d. any of the arc welding processes with or without the use of a consumable electrode.
a – “Autogenous” means, in and of itself, or produced independently of external

influences. It must be a non-consumable electrode arc welding process, or a
heat source that does not add filler metal must be used.
182. Which of the following terms applies to the combining of various welding processes, such as
combining Laser Beam Welding with Gas Metal Arc Welding, or Laser Beam with Friction Stir
Welding, which results in enhanced performance?
a. Combo Process Welding

b. Multi Process Welding
c. Additive Process Welding
d. Hybrid Welding
d - Hybrid welding is the standard term for the combining of these various
welding processes.
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Symbols – Welding and NDE
183. A welding symbol consists of:
a. an arrow
b. a reference line
c. a tail
d. a weld symbol
e. All of the above
f. Both a and d only
e - The welding symbol includes all the elements including the weld symbol plus
size, length, contour, shape, size of the groove and many other elements.
.
184. A weld symbol consists of:
a. groove/fillet weld
b. plug/slot/stud
c. spot/seam/back
d. backing/surfacing/edge
e. All of the above
f. Both a and c only
e - The weld symbol references the type of weld to be made.
185. In the welding symbol illustration, which element is optional?
a. Tail
b. Reference line
c. Arrow
d. They are all optional.
a – The welding symbol is made up of basically three elements. They are the
reference line (which is always drawn horizontally), the arrow (connects the
reference line to the arrow side of the joint to be welded) and the tail (for
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specifications, process, or other information not shown with the reference line).
The tail is optional and is not shown if not needed. The arrow and reference
line are mandatory.
186. Using the welding illustration from question 185, which elements are required on a welding
symbol?
a. Reference line
b. Arrow
c. Weld symbol in the Tail
d. All of the above
e - The reference line and arrow are required. The weld symbol can be omitted
if the weld is described on the drawing or specified in the tail.
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187. Using the Weld Symbols chart to the right, what is the
common attribute in the square, bevel, J, flare-bevel and
fillet symbols?
a. They are all made up of lines

b. They have straight, diagonal and curved lines
c. They all have an open side
d. They all have a line that is perpendicular to the
horizontal line that is on the left side of the symbol
e. They all look like the joint or weld they are named after
d - The common attribute between the square,

bevel, J, flare-bevel and fillet symbols is that they
all have a line that is perpendicular to the
horizontal line that is on the left side of the symbol.
188. Use the Weld Symbols chart to the right to answer this
question. The horizontal line shown with the weld symbol
illustration represents the reference line. All of the weld
symbols are shown drawn above the reference except the
stud, spot-resistance weld and the surfacing symbol. The
other symbols can be shown above or below the
reference line. But the stud and surfacing symbols are
always shown below the reference line. What is the
reason for this?
a. Just makes the symbol easier to draw.

b. There is no joint.
c. To save room on the drawings.
d. Looks fine below the reference line.
e. Not enough information to answer this question.
b – The stud and surfacing symbols just

have one member and no joint. So the
arrow would just be pointing at a surface.
All the rest of the symbols have two or
more members coming together to create
the joint.
189. What is the difference between back and backing welds?
a. Equipment used
b. Sequence of when the welds are made
c. Materials used
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b – Though the weld symbols are identical, the sequence of how the welds are
made is different. The back weld is made last and the backing weld is made
first.
190. Considering the difference between back and backing welds, which of the following welds are
made in the correct order?
a. Make the grove weld and then the backing weld

b. Make the back and then the groove weld
c. Make the groove weld and then the back weld
d. Make the backing weld and then the groove weld
e. Both c and d are correct.
e – The back weld is made last and the backing welds are made first.
191. Use the Weld Symbols chart from questions 187 - 188 to answer this question. The plug and
slot weld symbols look identical except for the circle with the line going through it. This
symbol indicates a circle with a diameter. So what makes the slot weld different?
a. Smaller hole or circle requires less welding

b. It is made in an elongated hole or slot
c. Larger hole or circle to make it easier to weld
d. Does not matter use either one
e. Look at the parts list drawing see what it shows
b - It is made in an elongated hole or slot, as can be determine by looking at the

illustration of the slot weld.
192. The sequence of a back or backing weld can be shown in the tail or with multiple reference
lines. With multiple reference lines, the one closest to the arrow will be the first action and
the one furthest from the arrow will be the last action. Letter ____ matches the welding
symbol with the correct weldment.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
237
c - If you chose A you have the sequence correct but you have your arrow and
other side of the reference line turned around.
193. The scarf is not a welding type joint but a braze type joint. The brazing process uses capillary
action to draw the brazing alloy into the joint. So the scarf joint is used:
a. to increase the surface area of the joint for greater strength

b. so less brazing alloy is needed because the joint fits so tight together
c. to make it faster to make the joint
d. because it is easy to fit up
e. Both a and d
a - Since the brazing alloy generally has less strength than the base metal, the
larger cross sectional area of the scarf joint make up for that.
194. Why does the spot resistance symbol straddle the reference line?
a. The welder can make the weld on any side they want to.
b. Because there is no side significance.
c. The detail engineer does not care what side the weld is made on.
d. The supervisor will determine where the weld is to be made.
e. So the welding inspector can make the proper determination.
b – The resistance spot weld symbol straddles the reference line because there
is no side significance.
195. The seam weld symbol can be used for many different welding processes. This illustration is of
the gas metal arc welding (GMAW) process. How would the seam symbol appear in relation to
the reference line if the resistance seam welding process was being used?
a. Drawn above the reference line

b. Straddles the reference line
c. Drawn below the reference line
d. Can be drawn anywhere on the
reference line
e. It is a circle so does not matter
b – The seam symbol straddles the reference line because there is no side
significance with the resistance seam weld.
238
a. Weld A
b. Weld B
b - The weld symbol is above the reference line so the weld will be made on the
opposite side of the joint the arrow is pointing at. The reference line is critical
for determining which side of the joint the weld is to be made on. Above the
reference line means the weld will be made on the opposite side of the joint the
arrow is pointing at. While below the reference line means the weld will be
made on the side of the joint the arrow is point at.
a. Weld A
b. Weld B
239
a - Because the weld symbol is below the reference line, the weld will be made
on the side of the joint the arrow is pointing at.
198. On T-joints, there is only one edge (butting member) on which to cut the bevel. However, on
butt joints like this, the arrow must have a break in it to point toward the plate edge to be
beveled. Letter ____ matches the correct edge to be beveled from the welding symbol.
a. A
b B
c. C
d. D
b – As a process of elimination, the answer can only be B or D because the

symbol is below the reference line (arrow side) and the break in the arrow is
pointing at the upper joint member. B is the correct answer.
199. Select the correct weld letter which matches the double fillet weld symbols.
a. Welds A
b. Welds B
c. Welds C
a - Welds B and Welds C are not showing the other side of the joint but the
other side of the plate. To get to the other side of the joint, follow the joint.
240
200. Which of the following matches the welding symbol with the correct weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
b - Any information appearing directly to the left of the weld symbol deals with
the size of the weld, the depth of bevel for groove welds and strength in some
cases like resistant spot welds. On fillet welds, this number will be the size of the
weld. Make certain the weld size matched the arrow and the other side of the
joint. Remember not to look through the plate but follow the “day light”
through the joint.
201. Which of the following matches the single V-groove welding symbol with the correct
weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
d - On groove weld symbols, the information directly to the left is read from left
to right. The first number will be the depth of the bevel and the second number,
that is always in parentheses, is the size of the weld. The weld size is 5/8 inch
and the depth of the bevel is 3/4 inch. All of them are on the arrow side.
However, only A and D have the depth and size information on the left side of
the weld symbol. D is the only one that has the sequence correct. It is read left
to right and you cannot make the groove weld before the bevel is in place.
241
202. Which of the following matches the double V-groove welding symbol with the correct
weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
b - The bevel is 1/4 inch and the weld size is 7/16. This is by design, so this is a
partial joint penetration (PJP) weld. The groove weld size is always in
parentheses and to the left of the symbol. The numbers are read from left to
right and the bevel must be made first followed by the groove weld.
203. Are the following fillet welds in the proper location and of the proper length?
a. Yes
b. No
a - To the right of the weld symbol is always the length of the weld. If
intermittent welds are called for, it will be followed by the center to center
spacing also known as the weld (pitch). If there is no information to the right of
the weld symbol the weld should be the full length of the joint. The arrow and
other sides are correct and because there are no dimensions for size or length
these are appropriate.
242
Answer questions 204 - 207 using the following welding symbol:
204. The weld size is _____.
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
a - 1/4inch to the left of the weld symbol indicates the size.
205. A _____ weld is to be made.
a. plug
b. fillet
c. slot
d. spot
e. groove
b – A fillet weld is to be made, based on the symbol. It has the triangular shape.
206. The weld length is _____.
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
b – The weld length is 2 inches. The first number to the right of the weld symbol
will be the length.
207. The weld pitch is ______ .
a. 1/4 inch
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches
d. 4 inches
243
d – The weld pitch is 4 inches. The second number to the right of the weld
symbol will be the pitch. (center to center distance).
Answer questions 208 – 210 using the following weld symbol:
208. This top view is of a column to be welded to a bottom plate with what type of weld?
a. Fillet
b. Groove
c. Slot
d. Spot
e. Arc
a – The column is to be welded to a bottom plate with a fillet weld, because of

the triangular shape.
209. The weld is to be made in the fabrication shop where it is being originally fabricated.
a. True
b. False
b – There is a field symbol flag at the junction of the reference line and arrow.
210. With the ‘H’ beam to be welded to the base plate, how long should the weld be?
a. The length of the side of the ‘H’ beam it is pointing at

b. Not enough information to make a determination
c. All around the base of the ‘H’ beam
d. Just on the two sides
c – Note the “weld all around” symbol at the junction of the reference line and
arrow.
244
Use the following weld symbol to answer questions 211 – 215. Refer to the Weld Symbols chart (see
question 189) and the Supplementary Symbols if needed for reference.
211. What type of groove weld is to be made?
a. Double J
b. Single J
c. U
d. Flare V
e. Flare U
c – A U groove weld is to be made because of its shape.
212. Which side of the plate will the weld be made from?
a. Top
b. Bottom
c. Edge
b – The bottom weld symbol is above the reference line.
213. What type of symbol is shown on the arrow side of the joint?
a. U groove
b. Consumable insert
c. Backing
d. Spacer
e. Boxing
c – Backing is the rectangular shape on either side of the reference line.
245
214. What type of profile is required on the face of this weld?
a. U groove
b. Flush
c. Convex
d. Flat
e. Both b or d
e – The flush or flat profile is required on the face of the weld.
215. Contour symbols can be enhanced with a letter to designate postweld finishing.
Postweld Finishing
Letters
C Chipping
G Grinding
H Hammering
M Machining
P Planishing
R Rolling
U Unspecified
If a contour symbol is used and no finishing letter is shown, the weld contour is to be
approximately flush, flat, convex or concave in the “as welded” condition. What method
would be used for the weld?
a. Chipping
b. Hammering
c. Planishing
d. Rolling
e. None specified so “as welded”
e – Since no finishing letter was specified, “as welded” is understood which

means no post weld mechanical working of the weld. It has to be “as welded”.
The ‘U’ could have been specified and would result in the same profile.
However, any of the listed methods to accomplish this could have been used.
246
216. All the various groove welds, except square, have a groove angle. They may also have a root
opening to assist in getting complete joint penetration (CJP). The two dimensions are placed
directly above or below the groove weld symbol. They are read from the reference line out.
The first is the root opening followed by the groove angle. Which of the following matches the
V-groove welding symbol with the shown weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
c - if you answered E you must remember that the information to the right of
the weld symbol is length and pitch. A and B have the sequence incorrect and D
has the bevel angle not the groove angle.
217. The square groove welding symbol matches which of the following on the weldments?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
c - B and D have the weld on the wrong side of the joint. A has the wrong weld
size, and E has no root opening.
247
Use the illustration in question 218 to answer questions 218 – 221.
218. Which welding symbol most closely matches the weldment?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
a - While B and E show CJP in the tails, C has the arrow and other side turned
around, D has the weld symbols in the wrong sequence.
219. Weld symbols can be combined to match the weld requirements. What type of groove weld is
being specified?
a. Bevel
b. Fillet
d. Complete
a – A bevel on the other side of the joint is being specified.
220. There are two other welds to be made. What type welds are they?
a. Bevel
b. Fillet
d. Complete
b – A fillet weld is indicated with the triangle shape on both sides of the
reference line.
248
221. The joint is to be a _______ joint penetration. The illustration of the welds are correct by
design.
a. partial
b. complete
c. There is not enough information to make a determination.
a – Complete penetration is not indicated on the drawings of the welds.
222. Nondestructive examination (NDE) symbols are virtually the same as the welding symbols.
They use examination letters to designate the methods. The more common ones are:
Electromagnetic ET
Magnetic Particle MT
Penetrant PT
Radiographic RT
Ultrasonic UT
Visual VT
Which method would be used by virtually every person working in the welding industry?
a. ET
b. MT
c. PT
d. RT
e. VT
e – Visual inspection (VT) is the most common and required prior to more
extensive test methods.
249
223. With the RT methods, the radiation source must be carefully positioned to detect lamellar
type discontinuities like fusion and cracks. When this is required, the NDE symbol will show its
exact location with relationship to the film, the joint and the weld. When this pipe is welded,
the source is set to shoot down the fusion face of this ____0 groove angle. It was welded with
the GMAW-S process, so incomplete ____ is the discontinuity being looked for.
a. 37.5; undercut
b. 18.75; penetration
c. 75; fusion
d. 180; cracks
c - What is shown is the bevel angle and fusion-along the fusion faces that is of
major concern with the short circuit mode of metal transfer.

Test Methods - NDE
224. Which of the following processes best describes the Non Destructive Examination (NDE)
abbreviation ET?
a. High-frequency sound waves are introduced in the material and will detect not only surface
location and size.
b. Radiation is used to penetrate a weld and surrounding metal and will show the internal
c. A magnetic field created in the weldment will be attracted to magnetic particles sprinkled on
d. Small electrical currents are induced into the weldment from a coil or prod. If there is an
interruption in the flow of these electrical currents, the coil or prod will detect it. This can
then be displayed on a screen or meter. It can detect both surface and subsurface type
discontinuities.
250
d - ET stands for Electromagnetic Examination. This process is also referred to as
Eddy Current Examination.
A magnetic field created in the weldment will be attracted to magnetic particles sprinkled on
a. UT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
c - MT stands for Magnetic Particle Examination. The magnetization can be

direct by passing electrical current directly through the part. Alternatively, the
magnetization can be indirect by placing the part next to a magnetic field. As
long as the discontinuity is perpendicular to the magnetic field, a flux leakage
will occur and attract the magnetic particles.
226. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation PT?
a. A liquid dye is applied to the surface of the weldment. After a sufficient dwell time, capillary
location and size.
generally required.
a - PT stands for Penetrant Examination. The two types of dyes used are visual
and fluorescent. Subsurface discontinuities cannot be detects. The part being
inspected does not have to be a magnetic material for the dye to penetrate into
the part.
251
Radiation is used to penetrate a weld and surrounding metal and will show the internal
a. PT
b. UT
c. RT
d. VT
c - RT stands for Radiographic Examination. This process can use either X-rays
or Gamma rays to pass through the part and the variation of the part’s density
will be exposed on a film or picked up with a digital device. This is the first NDE
process that allows inspection all the way through the part.
228. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation UT?
location and size.
generally required.
b - UT stands for Ultrasonic Examination. The sound waves can travel all the way
through the weldment so subsurface discontinuities are readily detected. It is
the only method that is three dimensional so the location and size can be
determined with this method. The weldment can be either magnetic or
nonmagnetic material.
252
229. Which of the following processes best describes the NDE abbreviation VT?
location and size.
generally required.
d - VT stands for Visual Examination. VT Is the most common inspection

method used by the welder, operator, supervisor, technician, engineer, or
welding inspector to judge the appearance of the weld.
230. NDE relies upon various energy sources to detect discontinuities. Which of the following
energy sources are used with the NDE processes?
a. Radiation
b. Sound waves
c. Electromagnetics/magnetic fields
d. Penetrants
e. All of the above
e - All of the energy sources listed are used for NDE.
231. What NDE process is indicated in the following description?
Detects surface discontinuities only. It can also verify fit-up, joint configuration, weld
dimensions and profiles.
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
d - VT stands for Visual Examination. This is the most common NDE process and
can be used before, during and after welding to assure product quality and
productivity.
253
232. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation PT?
and cracks. Lamellar discontinuities like fusion and cracks can me more difficult to
detect. It may also be used for root conditions, fit-up, plate thickness, and pipe wall
thickness.
c. Detects surface and slightly below the surface discontinuities. The material being examined
must be ferromagnetic.
d. Detects surface discontinuities only, can also verify fit-up, joint configuration, weld
dimensions, and profiles.
a - PT stands for Penetrant Examination. It can also be used on magnetic and

nonmagnetic materials.
233. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation MT?
c. Detects surface and near surface discontinuities on magnetic materials only.
c - MT stands for Magnetic Examination. This process will not work on the
nonferrous materials like aluminum, copper, austenitic stainless steel and
titanium.
Detects large discontinuities like porosity, slag, incomplete penetration, incomplete fusion,
a. PT
b. RT
c. MT
d. VT
b - RT stands for Radiographic Examination. Since it is picking up density

changes the radiation source must be parallel with the discontinuity. It only
detects discontinuities in a two dimensional manner so the exact depth of the
discontinuity is not readily known.
254
Detects most critical weld discontinuities both surface and subsurface. It will work on
a. UT
b. RT
c. ET
d. VT
a - UT stands for Ultrasonic Examination. Sound waves traveling through the

weldment is very effective in finding critical discontinuities like cracks, and
incomplete fusion. Since it is not using magnetics it can be used on all materials.
236. Which of the following statements best describes the NDE abbreviation ET?
a. Detects most critical weld discontinuities both surface and subsurface. It will work on
c. Detects surface and near surface discontinuities. The materials alloy properties, grain
structure and heat treatment may affect the results.
c - ET stands for Electromagnetic Examination, also known as Eddy Current

Examination. In many cases, this process is too sensitive for many weldments.
Most typical application is in the piping or boiler industry.
237. Which of the following methods is first in order of importance in the NDE process?
a. UT
b. MT
c. PT
d. RT
e. VT
e - Many codes and standards require visual inspection acceptance, prior to any
of the other NDE methods.
255
238. Which is the most effective inspection method to be used before, during and after welding?
a. UT
b. MT
c. PT
d. VT
e. RT
d – Visual inspection (VT) can be used before welding to review documents,

check welding procedures, qualify/certify welders, check certifications, establish
hold points, develop inspection plan, check base metals, check filler metals,
check shielding gas, check welding equipment, check weld preparations, check
joint fit up, check weld joint cleanliness, check preheat, if required, develop
system for reject identification and develop defect repair system. During
welding, visual inspection is used to check welding variables for welding
procedure specification compliance, examine tacks, roots pass, intermediate
passes, final passes, check backgouged surfaces, check preheat temperatures,
check interpass temperatures and check interpass cleaning. After welding, visual
inspection is used to examine weld appearance, check weld size, check weld
length, check part dimensions, monitor other NDE methods, monitor postweld
heat treating and prepare inspection reports.
239. A person using the NDE method must have considerable experience and knowledge in a
variety of areas and be familiar with _____________.
a. materials/drawings
b. codes/welding specifications
c. weld procedures/performance qualifications
d. workmanship standards/aspects of good shop practice
e - To do visual inspection professionally, some codes require that the person be

qualified and carry certification documents attesting to that fact.
240. Along with experience and knowledge, tools may be required for visual inspection such as
______________.
a. various measuring scales and gauges to check weld dimensions

b. temperature indicators
c. flashlight/mirror
d. microscope
e. All of the above
f. A, b and c only
f - Good vision is required for visual inspection, with no magnification greater

than 10 X power.
256
241. PT uses a penetrating liquid dye which is applied to a properly prepared surface. The dye is
pulled into the discontinuity by _______ action.
a. suction
b. heating
c. cooling
d. capillary
e. gravity
d – Capillary action is the ability of a liquid to flow in a narrow space or root

opening. This is accomplished without the assistance of external forces and
even in opposition of external forces like gravity.
242. In Penetrant Testing, what is the term used for allowing the penetrant to complete its task?
a. gravity
b. suction
c. dwell time
d. delay time
e. hold point
c – Dwell time is specified on the procedure to allow the penetrant to flow into
the narrow discontinuities.
257
243. PT is being used in the field on location. Portability is a key concern but penetrant must be
removed somehow. In this case, which would be the best remover solution for this situation?
a. solvent
b. water soluble
c. emulsifier and water
a – Solvent is very portable and preferred for “on location” testing. It comes in a
spray can and uses a hand-wiping motion after it has been sprayed onto a
suitable material to remove the excess penetrant.
244. MT locates surface and near surface discontinuities with magnetic fields. MT only works on
magnetic base metals that are ferromagnetic. If the magnetic lines of force are cut, it creates a
flux leakage which is very attractive to the iron particles. For this method to work, how do the
magnetic lines of force have to be orientated in relation to the discontinuity?
a. Parallel
b. Transvers
c. Perpendicular
d. Normal
f. B, c and d only
f - The magnetic lines have to be 900 to the discontinuity as shown in the

illustration. And b, c, and d all mean 900. If they were parallel, no flux leakage
would take place and the discontinuity would not show up.
258
245. A weldment can be magnetized by passing electricity directly through it and is referred to as
direct magnetization. The other method is placing the weldment into a magnetic field and this
is known as indirect magnetization. Which illustration represents an indirect magnetization?
a. A
b. B
b - Illustration B represents indirect magnetization.
246. Which illustration in question 245 represents a direct magnetization?
a. A
b. B
a - Illustration A is direct magnetization.
259
247. Once the weldment has been magnetized, the examination medium known as magnetic
particles are applied. The particles can be dry or suspended in a liquid. The particles can be
colored or florescent. The florescent is observable under black light. Once the excess medium
is removed the particles trapped by the flux leakage will reveal the location, shape and size of
the detectable discontinuities. Which of the magnetization methods will pick up a longitudinal
discontinuity in the part being examined?
a. indirect
b. direct
c. longitudinal
d. circular
b – Do not be confused by the circular magnetic fields as they are both

producing circular magnetic fields. The question is asking about the
discontinuity in the part being examined. Visualize how the magnetic lines of
force shape themselves along or around the parts being inspected. The coil
method amplifies the magnetic field by the number of coils and amount of
current flowing through them, into very strong longitudinal magnetic fields in
the part inside the coil. The direct magnetization (also known as a “head shot”)
is creating circular magnetic fields because of the direction the current is
flowing through the part being examined. A longitudinal discontinuity will be
best detected when the magnetic fields are perpendicular to it and not less than
450 to it.
248. RT uses radiation to penetrate the weld and the surrounding base metal, revealing density
changes in the internal structure. A recording device (photographic film) will show the size
and shape of the discontinuities that are parallel with the transmitted radiation. Most people
are familiar with radiographs or X-rays of their teeth at the dentist or an injured arm or leg in
the emergency room. Which of the following is true?
a. An increase in thickness will make a darker image on the film

b. A low density area will make a darker image on the film
c. A high density area will make a lighter image on the film
d. A decrease in thickness will make a lighter image on the film.
e. An increase in density will make a darker image on the film.
f. Both a and b
260
e - Less radiation hitting the film because of greater density will underexposes
the film making it darker. More radiation hitting the film because of less density
will expose the film making it lighter.
249. In the illustration, why does discontinuity B show up on the developed film?
a. It is the only one that is perpendicular to the radiation

source
b. It is the only one parallel to the radiation source
c. Because ‘A’ and ‘C’ are not flat enough to the
radiation source
d. Poor quality of film they should have all shown up
e. Both b and c
b - In order for the film to pick up the density

change, the radiation must be parallel with the
discontinuity.
261
250. Which discontinuity is less likely to be picked up with the RT process?
a. Slag
b. Porosity
c. Cracks
e. Both c and d
e - Slag and porosity will be easily picked up because they have a cross section
that is round and align with the beam in any direction. Planar type
discontinuities like cracks and incomplete fusion will be missed unless a
favorable alignment with the radiation source is made.
251. UT is a widely used method of conducting NDE with high-frequency sound waves. The sound
travels through the material and is reflected back at interfaces. These reflections (echoes) are
picked up on a screen and analyzed by a qualified technician to define the presence and
location of discontinuities. In relation to the sound wave, the interfaces should be ______ to
them to get the best signal.
a. parallel
b. perpendicular
c. sound will bounce make, angle does not matter
b - Sound striking the flat (perpendicular) surface will give the strongest signal
back.
262
252. The device used to input the sound into the weldment is called a transducer. The transducer
contains a “piezoelectric” device which turns mechanical energy into electrical energy and vice
versa. The illustration shows the transducer as a square box on top of the weldment being
inspected. This search unit must be ________ to the part.
a. coupled
b. held tightly
c. set loosely
d. as long as the sound gets in the part it does not matter
a - The transducer must be coupled to the part with a couplent. Air space
between the part and the transducer must be avoided, as sound does not travel
efficiently through the air.
253. The sound wave illustrated in question 254 is a longitudinal beam of sound and used for
testing plate materials. This would not work very well on welds in the as-welded-condition, so
other sound waves must be available, such as ______ beam sound waves.
a. straight
b. angle
c. shear
d. longitudinal
e. Both b and c
e - The angle and shear beams are the same thing and work well for weld
inspection because the sound comes in on an angle underneath the weld
reinforcement. Straight and longitudinal beams are the same thing and work
well determining thickness of plate, laminations and other type plate
discontinuities.
263
254. The illustrations show the angle or shear beam being used to inspect a weld. Note the pips on
the screen. They indicate the main sound going in (main bang) followed by the echo back on
the one showing a discontinuity. Which of the following accurately describes A and B?
a. A is the main bang and B is the discontinuity (slag like inclusion)

b. A is the discontinuity (slag like inclusion) and B is the main bang
c. Not enough information is provided to answer the question.
a - A indicates the main sound going in (main bang) followed by the echo back
on B, the one showing a discontinuity
255. Review the illustration of the ET examination of welded pipe. This is an example of a high
speed tube mill making pipe. The pipe is hot and moving at high speed. ET is a natural choice
for this type of application because the encircling coil ______ .
a. needs to move along with the pipe

b. needs a thick couplent
c. does not touch the pipe
d. needs a heat shield
c - Electromagnetic (Eddy current) examination (ET) uses small electrical

currents which are induced into a material. Any changes in the flow of these
264
currents in the material are picked up on a coil, without any contact with the
part being inspected, and the data is sent to an instrument for display.
256. ET can be affected by many variables that can cause eddy current signal misreadings. This, in
some cases, makes this method too sensitive for some welding applications.
a. True
b. False
a - Variables like permeability, conductivity, probe position, weld contour and

grain structures can adversely affect the readings.

Reports and Records
257. Which of the following best describes codes?
a. A document issued by a buyer to a seller to indicate types, quantities, and prices for
products or services the seller will provide to the buyer. It is considered a legal
document of an offer to buy products or services. The acceptance of this document by
a seller usually forms a contract between the buyer and seller, so no contract exists
until it is accepted. It is used to control the purchasing of products and services from
external suppliers.
c. Statutes or laws enacted by a governmental body.
d. An established norm or requirement about technical systems.
c – Codes are a body of laws, as of a nation, city, etc., arranged

systematically for easy reference
258. Which of the following best describes a contract?
a. A document including general conditions, special conditions, bill of quantities, technical

requirements, schedules, pricing schedules and insurances.
c. Documents of laws adopted by a state or nation.
d. An established norm or requirement about technical systems
265
a - Nothing should be started until the contract is accepted and signed by
all parties as stated. It carries legal implications.
259. Which of the following best describes drawings?
a. An explicit set of requirements to be satisfied by a material, product, or service.

b. Guidelines for methods, materials, or practices in order to give guidance to the user.
c. A form of visual instruction that shows shape, size, and welding symbols. They can be
produced in any number of mediums and are typically produced by the contractor,
supplier, manufacturer, subcontractor, or fabricator.
d. These documents are one of the most important pieces that will guarantee a successful
project. The following documents may form part of every project-general conditions,
special conditions, bill of quantities, technical requirements, schedules, pricing
schedules, and insurances.
c - Drawings can be detailed shop drawings showing great detail of

individual parts, simple hand sketched drawings or professionally
produced assembly drawings. An understanding of the various views,
dimensioning, tolerances and welding symbols are required by those
using the drawings.
260. Which of the following documents is used by a buyer and seller as a form of a contract?
c. Specifications
d. Standards
a - The PO covers the details of what is being provided and the cost.
261. Which of the following are guidelines, also known as “best practices”, for those who use
methods and/or materials?
c. Specifications
d. Standards
b - These are generally not considered as mandatory but function as guidelines

to assist with the proper execution of the job.
266
262. Which of the following is an explicit set of requirements established by the contractor to be
satisfied by a material, product or service?

b. Text Message
c. Specifications
d. Standards
c - Specifications are a detailed descriptions of the parts of a whole: statement

or enumeration of particulars as to actual or required size, quality, performance,
terms, etc…
263. Which of the following is an established norm or requirement issued by the federal, state or
local government about technical systems?

b. Standards
c. Specifications
b - A standard is established for use as a rule or basis of comparison in

measuring or judging capacity, quantity, content, extent, value, quality, etc…
264. Which of the following is a document that shows that a welder has been engaged in using the
welding process and that the welder is qualified to do so during a specific period of time?

b. Standards
c. Specifications or specs.
a - These type reports are critical because a welder must be proficient in the use
of the welding process they are qualified on. If they have not used the process
they are qualified on in a specific amount of time their qualifications lapse and
they must be requalified. Which is time consuming and costly.
265. Which of the following is a job document that describes the shape and size of a weldment?
a. Standard
b. Code
c. Specification
d. Drawing
e. Recommended practice
267
d – A drawing is a form of visual instruction that shows shape, size and welding
symbols. They can be produced in any number of drawing mediums and are
typically produced by the contractor, supplier, manufacturer, subcontractor, or
fabricator.
266. Generally, in codes or standards, there are references to the welder being engaged in using
the welding processes for which they are qualified. A welder’s continuity report or log would
typically track this based on what time frame?
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Every 12 months
d. Every 6 months
e. When a welder produces too many discontinuities
d - The document shows evidence that the welder has been engaged in using
the welding process they are qualified on during a specific period of time,
usually six months.
267. Hold points need to be specified and deal with _____________.
a. a planned delay in fabrication to permit other activities to take place

b. the buzzer at the end of a work shift
c. where to hook a lifting cable
d. the opposite of a “pinch point”
a - The key is it should be a planned hold point for fabrication, and the
supervisor should plan around it to reduce or eliminate lost time.
268. The AWS Specifications that begin with the letter “A” and followed by the number “5”, as in
A-5.XX, refer to:
a. Structural welding code for buildings and off shore platforms

b. Structural welding code for bridges
c. Filler metals (electrodes)
d. Structural welding code for sheet metal
e. Aerospace welding code
c - This is the designation for all of AWS documents dealing with filler metals
and shielding gases. There are over 30 publications that provide great details
and the classification systems for all of them.
268
269. Positive Material Identification (PMI) is critical for proper weld quality control. The system
should:
a. be readily implemented
b. have checks and balances
c. not be based on first in-first out
d. be repeatable and consistent
e - A good material identification process would apply all of the listed answers.
270. You are involved with a welding project. The welding is being done to a recognized code or
standard. Concerns have arisen about how the welders are being qualified. Various questions
have been raised about what welding process they need to be qualified on. Which of the
following documents should you review to answer this question?

b. Code/Standard
c. Specifications
b - The essential variable covering welding processes that the welder is qualified
to use will be found in the code or standard that is specified in the contract
documents.
271. To ensure weld quality you must know what the base metal is that is being welded and what
filler metal will be used to weld it. Which of the following documents would cover the
material product form, heat number, chemistry and mechanical properties?
a. FOD
b. PMI
c. MTR
d. WPS
c - The material test report (MTR) must be kept on file for review. In some cases
the material must somehow be traceable back to the MTR or some form of PMI
must be used.
272. Entering a confined space without following all required procedures and having an effective
emergency rescue plan can result in serious injuries or death. Which of the following must be
properly filled out and displayed at the site where the confined space work is taking place?
a. Positive ventilation report

b. Flammability permit
c. Entry permit
d. No paper work required, just a standby rescue person
269
c - The entry permit must be signed by the entry supervisor, must be posted at
all entrances or otherwise made available to entrants before they enter a
permit space. The permit must verify that pre-entry preparations outlined in the
standard have been completed. The duration of entry permits must not exceed
the time required to complete an assignment.
273. A report outlines deviations from product, process, procedure or compliance specifications
such as:
• WPS travel speed is specified at 18-22 IPM. An oversized weld is observed the
welder’s travel speed is monitored and found to be 16.5 IPM
• Welding symbols do not specify weld size on the drawing
• The meters on the welding machines are not calibrated per the QC manual
What report is this?
a. PQR
b. NCR
c. CJP
d. PWHT
b - The non-conformance report (NCR) shall include who, what, where and
when related to a deviation. It should indicate the root cause of the issue or the
why. If properly staffed and managed, it should provide for resolution via a
CAPA (Corrective and Preventative Action) plan which would immediately
correct and prevent this non-conformance from occurring again or the how it
will be dealt with.
274. What is a “Weld Map/Log” and how is it used?
a. Typically an isometric drawing is made of the weldment showing the location and numerical
indications of each weld making up the construction of the structure or the piping system.
b. Much like a road map, so the welds can be located.
c. A spread sheet listing all the welds.
d. Each welder carries a log sheet which they maintain with where their welds were made, at
what time and date.
a - For tracking purposes, this is the best answer. It is required by certain

contract requirements where the criticality of the welds are paramount. Each
weld, as it is completed, will be labeled with the number from the weld
map/log, date completed, WPS used, and the welder or welding operator
identification number.
270
275. Which of the following definitions fits 'Work In Process - WIP'?
a. Material that has entered the production process but is not yet a finished product.
b. Materials and partly finished products that are at various stages of the production process.
c. Includes inventory of raw materials at the start of the production cycle and finished product
at the end of the production cycle.
d. Both a and b
d - Should only apply to active initial production work. Sub-assemblies would be

considered WIP. Many companies do not keep track of weld repairs during this
phase of production. However, the true cost of production cannot be
understood if this is not somehow monitored.
276. Which of the following describes a safety management tool that indicates the risks or hazards
of a specific job? In this document, the actual workplace situations are identified; measures to
eliminate them or control those hazards are determined and implemented. It is, specifically, a
job safety analysis which systematically evaluates certain jobs, tasks, processes or procedures.
a. RA
b. AHA
c. JSA
d. ALARP
c - Job Safety Analysis or JSA should be a straight forward document that is

communicated with the welders as part of pre-job and tool box safety meetings.
It also can be included with the worker’s job descriptions. Refining the safe work
procedures as discussed in the safety manual and or standard operating
procedures can all be built off of the JSA process. JSA can also be very helpful for
training new welders and welding operators.
277. Which of the following would be used to indicate the location of the welds, the size of the
welds, weld joint configuration, base metal call outs, NDE requirements and any post weld
processing requirements?
a. WPS
b. PQR
c. Drawing
d. Weld Details
d - This type of information is known as ‘Weld Details’ and may be a separate

document or the information can be found in various locations.
271
Duties and Responsibilities
278. A welder, if properly trained and having the proper tools, should be able to perform which of
the following duties and responsibilities?
a. Deposit sound weld metal in a safe manner

b. Build a product from a drawing including welding symbols
c. Cut and fit a weldment
d. Guarantee their own work
f. A, b and c only
e - All of the listed options fit into the welder’s duties and responsibilities. That a
welder should guarantee their own work should be considered in a company’s
quality manual as the welder and their direct supervisor are a critical part in
building quality into the weldment.
279. Which of the following is the welding inspector’s most important attribute?
a. Being an engineer (bachelor or higher degree)

b. Being a technician (associate degree welding or NDE)
c. Being a graduate of a welding program (hold welding credentials)
d. Professional attitude
e. Being able to pass the qualification test
d - A professional attitude is most important to perform ones best work. It

consists of pride, passion and belief in what you are doing. Before you go out to
do your inspections think about what you are looking for. Some people think
they are looking for defects. A more wholesome thought process is to look for
“quality”. Keeping in mind that quality needs to be a team concept from top to
bottom in a company. Building quality into a project is much more effective than
trying to inspect quality in a project.
280. A welding inspector should have which of the following knowledge sets?
a. Codes and standards

b. Welding procedures and welder qualifications
c. NDE
d. Welding processes and equipment
f. A, b and d only
272
e - As indicated in the body of knowledge all of the listed options are very
important for a well-rounded certified welding inspector.
281. Ethics can best be thought of as:
a. doing the right thing because you're afraid you'll get caught.
b. weighing the potential punishment against the potential gain then deciding what to do.
c. doing the right thing even when no one is watching.
d. doing the right thing simply because it's the right thing.
e. Both c and d
e - Ethics cannot be legislated, you either have a moral compass or you don’t.
Communicating with someone you trust is very easy, communicating with
someone you don’t trust is difficult at best and communication will suffer. We
trust people who demonstrate ethical behavior and we generally don’t trust
those people who demonstrate unethical behavior.
282. A welding supervisor needs to be directly involved with a welder qualification test.
a. True
b. False
b - The welders should not be directly qualified by someone directly involved

with production. There should be some separation between quality assurance
and production. This should be spelled out in the companies QC manual.
283. A supervisor is only concerned with production. Quality control and production cannot be
handled by the same people.
a. True
b. False
b - As can be seen in the body of knowledge, the supervisor has to be well

skilled in both productivity and quality issues. To build quality in a product the
welders and supervisors have to be working together.
284. Many companies mistakenly have their supervisors:
a. check quality of parts.

b. expedite parts and push productivity.
c. provide safety tool box talk at shift start up.
d. practice the 5S system (sort, straighten, sweep, schedule and sustain).
e. support welder activities.
273
b - Everyone in the company should be servicing and supporting the welding
work centers. Pull through works much better than push. Productivity and
quality are byproducts of the other answer options.
285. When a welder and supervisor are evaluating the quality of a weld they should:
a. go with what looks good.

b. lean whichever way the welding inspector is leading them.
c. apply the acceptance criteria.
d. These people should not be inspecting welds.
e. put some extra paint on it to cover it up if the weld is bad.
c - If the work is being done to a code, standard or welding specification, there

should be acceptance criteria written down. A display board can also be used to
show acceptable and rejectable welds. Inspection and production need to be
using the same criteria. They both need to be able to guarantee their work!
286. Before welding can be done to an industrial welding standard, the supervisor needs to verify:
a. the quality metric.

b. the cost metric.
c. the safety metric.
d. that the welding procedure specifications and welder qualifications are in order.
e. the throughput metric.
d - All industrial codes and standards reference the requirement for having
qualified procedures. They need to be openly available and the welders need to
be trained on their proper use. The welders need to be qualified on those
procedures and their qualification must be current. The supervisor needs to do
this by verifying the welder’s continuity report.
274
Use the following information to answer questions 287 through 289.
Duties and Capabilities for a welding sales representative (CWSR) per AWS B5.14 Specification for the
Qualification of Welding Sales Representatives, QC14 Specification for the Certification of Welding
Sales Representatives
5.1 Duties
5.1.1 The WSR, as a minimum, shall be capable of demonstrating the use of welding equipment and
supplies, directing sales of welding supplies and equipment, practicing appropriate sales ethics,
determining customer needs, and providing customer support.
5.1.2 The Employer shall define the WSR’s specific duties. The Employer is responsible for verifying that
the WSR is qualified to perform the duties and tasks as assigned.
5.2 Capabilities. The WSR shall have: (1) Basic knowledge in the application of industrial gases for
welding and cutting processes including the safe handling and storage of industrial gases (2) Basic
knowledge and safe practices of welding processes such as gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW), gas
metal arc welding (GMAW), flux cored arc welding (FCAW), shielded metal arc welding (SMAW), and
submerged arc welding (SAW) (3) The technical knowledge to determine when a welding procedure is
required for a given application (4) The technical knowledge to assist in selecting the most appropriate
welding or cutting process for a given application (5) Basic knowledge of when the application or use
of hardfacing or corrosion resistant overlay is to be used (6) Basic knowledge and safe practices of
cutting processes, including mechanical and various thermal (oxyacetylene, plasma, etc.) processes
(7) Basic knowledge of brazing and soldering processes and their filler materials.
287. The welding sales representative does not need to know how to weld.
a. True
b. False
b - As stated in 5.1 Duties, and specifically in 5.1.1, a welding sales

representative “shall be capable of demonstrating the use of welding
equipment and supplies….”.
288. A welding sales representative is required to practice sales ethics.
a. True
b. False
a - As stated in 5.1 Duties, and specifically in 5.1.1, a welding sales

representative “shall be capable of….practicing appropriate sales ethics….””.
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289. Besides understanding welding processes, what other capabilities does a welding sales
representative need?
a. Making drawings
b. Perform inspection duties
c. Ability to understand if a welding procedure is required
d. Ability to understand weld microstructure and post weld heat treatment
c - As stated in 5.2 Capabilities (3), a welding sales representative shall have

“The technical knowledge to determine when a welding procedure is required
for a given application” All the rest are beyond the scope of this certification
process.
290. Who has the greatest opportunity to assure and control weld quality?
a. Welding Engineer
b. Supervisor
c. Welding Inspector
d. Welder/Welding Operator
e. Both b and d
e - The supervisor and welder/welding operator together are involved with

every inch of weld that is being deposited. If they are properly trained and have
all the correct tools, they are in the best position to provide the quality control.
291. What is the best way to get quality into a product?
a. Engineer it in
b. Build it in
c. Inspect it in
d. Quality is not a consideration in welding - make it cheap, sell it cheap
b - Build it in - everyone from top to bottom in a company needs to be involved.

It must be a team approach with everyone working toward meeting the contract
requirements in an efficient manner.
292. When an inspector is checking welds, she should look for:
a. defects.
b. quality.
c. only critical welds.
d. only the welds that are easy to get to.
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b - Inspection should be done with a proper frame of mind. If we are building
quality into the product with everyone trained, using the proper tools, and
knowing the weld requirements, everyone has the same end in mind. If we turn
it into cops and robbers it will not be a comfortable experience for anyone.
Properly done inspection adds value to the product and can be done in a team
approach.
293. Who is key in keeping the workplace safe?
a. Management
b. Safety director
c. Engineers
d. Welders
e. Everyone in the workplace
e - Everyone must be involved by taking personal responsibility for their own

safety and the safety of those working around them. This is evident when
mutual respect, caring and open communication is taking place. These all foster
a climate conducive to safety.

Safety
294. Which of the following are hazards that are encountered in the welding industry?
a. Flash burn
b. Inhalation of fumes and gases
c. Electrical shock
d. Radiation
f. Both b and c only
e - Eye injuries are very common in most cases because the safety rules are not
being followed. In any shop environment safety glasses are mandatory. For
welding, a welding hood with proper lens is required to eliminate ultraviolet and
infrared light as well as reduce the visible light spectrum. Fumes and gases
emanating from the welding process, base metal, and coating must be guarded
against. This is accomplished by the welder keeping their head out of the fume
plume, positive pressure welding helmet, ventilation or use of respirators. It
only takes approximately 0.006 amps to kill a person. While welding is typically
done at low voltage, good insulation is the best protection from electrical shock.
The welding arc and molten metal emits radiation which can burn your eyes or
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skin like a sunburn. Falling objects can injure the head and feet, so hard hats and
safety toe boots with metatarsal protection are generally required.
295. Which of the following is NOT part of the standards for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?
a. Welding gun
b. Gloves
c. Boots
d. Welding helmet
e. Safety glasses
f. Both a and c
a - As the name implies, PPE deals with just the personal protective equipment,
while the welding gun is part of the equipment and is not considered personal.
Some companies do issue a welder a gun which gives them a feeling of
ownership. This in turn will generally keep the gun and including safety issues
like insulation in better working order.
296. What welding lens shade number should be used for FCAW at 450 amps?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14
e - As indicated in the Lens Shade Selector Guide, welding lens shade number 14
should be used for FCAW at 450 amps.
297. When double eye protection is required while welding, eye glasses of any type must be worn
under the welding helmet.
a. True
b. False
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b - Eye protection requires safety glasses, not just any type of glasses. A typical
company policy might be “Double eye protection shall be worn when grinding,
welding, buffing, needle scaling, using a wire wheel, chop sawing, and handling
chemicals as required by the MSDS.
298. Burns can be caused by:
a. radiation
b. hot metal
c. sparks
d. All of the above
e. Both b and c only
d - Radiation, sparks, and spatter are present with the welding arc. Sparks and
hot metal are also produced from the cutting flame or plasma. Weldments and
equipment get hot. Burns can occur when radiation or these flying sparks, hot
metal, slag, spatter, hot weldments or hot equipment come in contact with
unprotected or under protected skin or eyes. Check out the free AWS Safety
and Health Fact Sheets at http://www.aws.org/technical/facts/
299. Normal pant and shirt material worn around welding should be of what material?
a. Polyester
b. Rayon
c. Cotton
d. Synthetics
e. Both c and d above.
c - Cotton and wool are generally recommended apparel around welding

operations. Synthetics like polyester, rayon etc… are not recommended as they
melt, creating more of burn hazard.
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300. What is the exposure limits for highly toxic materials?
a. 1.0 milligram per cubic feet or less

b. 1.0 milligram per square meter
c. 1.0 milligram per cubic meter or less
d. Both a and c
c – The exposure limits for highly toxic materials is 1.0 milligram per cubic meter
or less, as indicated in the illustration on Highly Toxic Materials Exposure Limits.
301. Where would a welder find information about toxic materials on a job site?
a. ANSI Z49.1 on Welding Safety and Health

b. Contract documents
c. MSDS
c - Current and relevant information as found in the Material Safety Data Sheets
(MSDS) include information on toxic materials on the job site and are available
on the job site.
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302. All of the following locations would require a confined space analysis to determine if one is
working in a confined space, EXCEPT:
a. a large wide open expanse with a covered pit in the middle

b. a large room with one entrance and exit
c. anywhere where claustrophobia sets in
d. a location that has limited openings for entry and exit, with unfavorable natural ventilation
e. a pipe rack with open air all around with enough separation between the pipes to allow an
adult to crawl into position.
c – Only c is unacceptable to determine if a space is confined or not, while d is a

very good definition of what a confined space is.
303. When work must be done in a confined space, an entry permit must the filled out and signed
by:
a. AWS CWI
b. AWS CW
c. A qualified person in a position of responsibility
d. The senior welder on the job
c - The key is someone qualified with this unique safety situation. This requires a
great deal of training and experience to recognize all the possible hazardous
situations.
304. In which of the following situations is ventilation at issue?
a. Welding in a confined space.

b. Welding in a position where the welders head is in close relation to the fume plume
c. Welding with electrode or filler metal
d. Welding with base metal, coatings, paint or shielding gases involved
f. Both a and b only
e - Fumes and gases are a big concern in the welding industry. Welders should
keep their head out of the fume plume., If this is not possible then natural
ventilation or a positive air pressure inside of the welding helmet must be used.
The fumes could also be captured at or near the source, filtered and the air
returned clean to the environment. If all this fails, then the proper selection and
fitting of a respirator will be required.
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305. What is the minimum oxygen level for a confined space?
a. 14%
b. 16%
c. 19.5%
d. 23.5%
c – The minimum oxygen level for a confined space is 19.5% per the Oxygen
Scale.
306. An oxygen-enriched atmosphere above ____ percent will cause flammable materials, such as
clothing and hair, to burn violently when ignited and may cause some nonflammable
materials to ignite.
a. 14
b. 16
c. 19.5
d. 23.5
e. 98.6
d - Never use pure oxygen to ventilate a confined space. Ventilate with normal
air. Do not use the oxygen from a cutting torch to cool yourself off or directly
breathe from it.
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307. A welder is working in a confined space and just finished working with a torch. As long as the
torch is off, it is acceptable practice to keep the torch in the confined space.
a. True
b. False
a - Anything that is not in use or could adversely affect the contaminate level
within the confined space should be removed. Even if a torch is turned off a
leaky valve or hose could compromise the environment.
308. Which of the following does not burn?
a. Acetylene
b. Oxygen
c. Oil used for lubricants
d. Natural gas
e. Both c and d
b - Oxygen is one of the three elements required to make fire. The others are
heat and fuel. Oxygen will not burn on its own but add the other two elements
and you have fire. Burning is a chemical reaction where oxygen is combined
with the fuel.
309. Other than arc radiation, what other eye hazards may be present in a welding operation?
a. Grinding particles
b. Sparks
c. Spatter
d. Slag
e - Anything in the air that can get into the eyes can be considered a hazard.
Add velocity to the particles and some very serious injuries can occur.
310. Which of the following AWS documents covers safety issues?
a. A5.1
b. QC 1
c. D1.1
d. WJ (Welding Journal)
e – None of the answers covers safety issues. AWS Z49.1 is an American

National Standard and is titled Safety in Welding, Cutting and Allied Processes.
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Every shop and person working in the welding industry should be familiar with
it. It is available free of charge by downloading it from the AWS web site.
311. All of the following can be used to avoid inhaling welding fumes and gases EXCEPT:
a. cross ventilation
b. respirator
c. natural ventilation
d. remove all sources of contamination
e. positive clean air supplied welding helmet
f. Both c and d
f - Cross ventilation, a respirator or positive clean air supplied welding helmets

are most effective. Natural ventilation is not effective if it does not move the
fume plume away from the welders breathing zone. Removing all the sources of
contamination is not possible.
312. A welder is working in a very warm, high humidity area. He is welding on a large vessel in a
seated position. He is equipped with the proper fall protection and proper ventilation.
However, his PPE and clothing has been saturated with sweat. What is the safety concern and
what is the best method to guard against the hazard?
a. Moisture getting into the weld causing cracking; use dry rag to handle consumables
b. Moisture getting into the base metal causing corrosion and porosity; use dry rag when
touching weldment
c. Electrical hazard; use proper insulation between welder and weldment
d. Electrical hazard; get dry PPE and clothing
e. Both b and c
c - For electrical hazards insulation is the best guard. Working in wet conditions
lowers the resistance and makes the insulation less effect. Keep everything as
dry as possible if at all possible.
313. Compressed gas cylinders should be protected from:
a. excessive heat
b. arc strikes (do not allow them to become part of the electrical circuit)
c. mechanical shock
d. moving without safety caps in place
f. Both b and d only
e - All of these must be followed in order to handle gas cylinders in a safe

manner. The high pressure cylinders carry over 2200 pounds per square inch of
pressure. The muzzle blast from a 12 gauge shot gun is only 1800 pounds per
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square inch for comparison. So cylinders store a high amount of energy so
respect it and handle them carefully.

Destructive Testing (DT)
314. In order for a weld to perform as intended in service, it must have certain mechanical
properties. The welder must follow a _________ to ensure the welding will meet the
mechanical requirements.
a. Procedure Qualification Record

b. Performance Qualification Record
c. Welding Procedure Specification
d. Welding Performance Qualification
c - Welding Procedure Specifications (WPS) have been qualified by various

means. If a welder follows the WPS and the welds are sound, you can have
confidence that the mechanical properties will be there.
315. Which of the following best describes the ability of a material to resist indentation?
a. Fatigue
b. Hardness
c. Impact
d. Tensile
b - Window glass is very hard, but can be scratched with a diamond, because the
diamond is harder than the glass. Or the diamond can indent the glass. However
the harder a material is, the less ductile and the more brittle the materials will
be.
316. Which of the following best describes the measurement of strength when tested and
monitored on a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material applying a stretching
force until it breaks?
a. Fatigue
b. Hardness
c. Impact
d. Tensile
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d –Tensile is the resistance to being pulled apart under a slowly applied load
until it breaks. The tensile test will also indicate yield strength and ductility.
317. Which of the following best describes the term yield strength?
a. A measurement using a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material stretching it
until it reaches a point where the material is no longer elastic but become plastic. This is
the point where permanent deformation takes place and the material will no longer return
to its original length if the pulling force is removed.
b. The calculation property of a material based on its percent in change of length, comparing
its original length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point of breaking. This
property is also calculated based on its percent in change of cross sectional area comparing
its original cross sectional area vs. its cross sectional area after it is broken.
c. This is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform without breaking.
d. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes
a Boston marathon runner would require. Any stress risers on this type of part can lead to
a - The maximum load that can be applied to a material before permanent

deformation will take place. Engineers use the yield strength in design
calculations not the tensile strength.
318. Which of the following best describes the term ductility?
a. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes a
b. A measurement using a machine that puts a slow gradual pull on the material stretching it
until it reaches a point where the material is no longer elastic but become plastic. This is the
point where permanent deformation takes place and the material will no longer return to its
original length if the pulling force is removed.
c. The calculation property of a material based on its percent in change of length, comparing its
original length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point of breaking. This property is
also calculated based on its percent in change of cross sectional area comparing its original
cross sectional area vs. its cross sectional area after it is broken.
d. This is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform without breaking.
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c - Ductility is an important feature of a material. It is opposite that of a
material being brittle.
319. Which of the following is the ability of a material to absorb energy and plastically deform
without breaking?
a. Fatigue
b. Toughness
c. Impact
d. Metallographic
b - Toughness is the amount of energy per volume that a material can absorb
before breaking or the resistance to breaking when loaded. This property
requires a balance of strength and ductility.
320. Which of the following terms applies when a weld is purposely tested for failure?
a. Bend
b. Break
c. Impact
d. Toughness
b -This type break tests is required in many codes and standards. As it is easily
applied and evaluated. Called a Nick Break test for groove and fillet welds or a
Fillet Weld Break test to determine the welds soundness. The amount of force
to make the weld fail is not the issue it is the cross sectional area of the broken
weld is what is being examined. It must have complete fusion, no porosity, slag
or other discontinuities that exceed specified amounts and distances in between
the discontinuities.
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321. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term fatigue?
a. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
c. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
d. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles.. Any stress risers on this
type of part can lead to premature failure. Endurance limit is an important factor when
dealing with this type of loading. If the load is kept below the endurance limit it should never
fail in this type loading.
d - This is much like the attributes of a Boston marathon runner. A flag pole in a
wind storm is a good example of fatigue property. As it is being whipped about the
base section of the pole is going from compression to tension and vice versa at each
flexing of the pole.
322. Which of the following best describes the term bend?
a. Testing a welder’s coupon with a method that forces the specimen between a plunger and a
die or wrapping it around a mandrill to determine the soundness of the weld and heat
affected zone.
c. The repeated loading of a part usually in excess of 250,000 cycles. Much like the attributes a
d. The weld and joint are cut through and a high polish is applied. Near a mirror finish. The
a –The procedure described in answer “a” Is an easily performed test both in

the field or in a shop. The specimen is being subjected to tension type forces on
the outside of the bend and compressive loading on the inside of the bend. The
purpose of the test is to determine soundness in the test piece. The test piece
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must be properly prepared and the weld and heat effected zone must be in the
bend area.
323. Which of the following is the term for when a weld and joint are cut through and a high polish
is applied, much like a mirror finish and an appropriate etching (acid) solution is applied,
where the etching solution eats into the material, exposing the different grain structure of the
base metal, the heat affected zone and the weld metal and exposes the microstructures which
shows the weld profile and any discontinuities that my exist on the surface being examined?
a. Hardness
b. Metallographic
c. Impact
d. Tensile
b - This method does an excellent job of exposing the weld cross sectional area. The
depth of fusion, fusion face, weld interface and heat affected zones can be viewed.
324. Which of the following is the rapid loading of a part generally at different temperature levels?
a. Hardness
b. Metallographic
c. Impact
d. Tensile
c - Test sample are taken from the weld metal zone, heat affected zone, and
base metal zone. The load to break is measured and is typically recorded in
foot/pounds of breaking energy.
325. Impact strength and notch toughness are synonymous.
a. True
b. False
a - Charpy V notch (CVN) is a very common impact test used in industry. It has a
specimen that has been purposely notched so that it fails at that specific point.
The specimen is highly machined and the notch angle, depth and radius at the
bottom of the notch is accurately and consistently controlled. The breaking
force, along with the percent of lateral expansion and broken surface, is
analyzed for the percent of shear which will determine if it is a brittle or ductile
failure.
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326. Which of the following tests can be used to determine the soundness of a weld?
a. Face bend
b. Fillet break
c. Root bend
d. Nick break
f. A, b and c only
e - They are all examining for soundness. The bend tests are not intended to
break. The root bend has the maximum forces acting on the root of the weld
and the face bend has the maximum forces acting on the face of the weld. The
nick and fillet are both intended to be break tests. So the broken surface is the
point of interest. If a fillet weld does not break but folds over on itself that is
considered a pass.
327. Which of the following are inversely related?
a. Strength and hardness

b. Thermal conductivity and strength
c. Thermal expansion and hardness
d. Strength and ductility
e. Tensile/yield and hardness
d - Tensile, yield and hardness go together at the expense of ductility and

toughness. So, as the strength goes up, ductility goes down and they are
inversely related.
328. Which of the following terms applies to a material’s ductility?
a. Toughness
b. Thickness, width and length
c. Yield and tensile strength
d. Percent elongation and percent reduction of area
e. Fatigue
d - Ductility is a measurement based on its percent in change of length,

comparing its original length vs. its length after it has been stretched to a point
of breaking. This property is also calculated based on its percent in change of
cross sectional area comparing its original cross sectional area vs. its cross
sectional area after it is broken. Indicator marks are placed on the specimen
generally 2 inches apart before being place in the tensile test machine. It is
gradually stretched until it breaks. The specimen is taken out and the broken
ends are brought together and the 2 inch marks are now further apart. This data
is put into a formula and the result is known as percent elongation, which is an
indication of ductility. If the tensile specimen is round, the cross sectional area is
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calculated prior to tensile testing and after testing the edge of the broken
specimens cross sectional area is calculated again. This data is put into a formula
and the result is known as percent reduction of area, which is an indication of
ductility.
329. Which of the following terms applies to the fracture toughness requirements?
a. Tensile strength
b. Endurance limits
c. Breaking energy
d. Percent elongation
e. Percent reduction of area
c - Fracture toughness is the rapid loading of a part, generally at different

temperature levels, to determine impact properties that will be encountered in
the environment. Test samples are taken from the weld metal zone, heat
affected zone and base metal zone. The breaking energy is measured and is
typically recorded in foot/pounds of energy. The CVN machine is used to
perform this type of testing.
330. Which of the following terms applies to a material being loaded cyclically and not failing?
a. Toughness
b. Fatigue strength
c. Hardness
d. Ductility
e. Tensile strength
b - Fatigue strength deals with the repeated loading of a part in excess of

250,000 cycles. Any stress risers on this type of part can lead to premature
failure. Endurance limit is an important factor when dealing with this type of
loading. If the load is kept below the endurance limit, it should never fail even
with an unlimited number of cyclic loads.
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331. Are the NDE methods capable of determining the mechanical properties of a weld, as it is
intended to perform in service?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, in some cases.
b - Mechanical properties can only be accurately determined by destructive

testing, such as tensile and impact testing machines. However, NDE does not
damage the part being inspected and does pick up soundness type
discontinuities.

Cutting
332. Which of the following is a term for a process that uses an upper blade and a lower blade that
are forced past one other, where, typically, one of the blades remains stationary?
a. Chipping
b. Drilling
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
d - A good example would be scissors or as hair dressers call them shears.

Shearing is when two blades moving in close proximity to each other and
parting the material between them.
333. Which of the following is a term for a process that uses a blade with a series of teeth on its
edge to cut a narrow opening in a workpiece?
a. Chipping
b. Sawing
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
b - The teeth on the saw cut a narrow kerf the width of the saw blade. It is
mechanical not thermal, so little heat is induced into the part being cut so
distortion is minimal.
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334. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term milling?
a. Uses a cutting tool that is rotating and the work is stationary or combined with rotational
motion around a center that is not in line with the rotating cutter. It cuts material by moving
it with relation to the rotating cutting head. It is used in metal fabrication to form parts.
b. Uses an abrasive cutting process that uses a wheel or disk made up of grains of abrasives
each acting as a single point cutting edge. It is used in metal fabrication to separate the
workpiece into two pieces, reduce material for proper fit up, to shape weld profiles, and
remove defects.
c. Uses rotational forces to rotate the work about a center while the tool is stationary. The tool
can advance along the center or advances toward the center (approximately) to deepen the
cut. It is used in metal fabrication to square and bevel pipe ends for groove welds, shape
round members, cut threads, and separate the workpiece into two pieces.
a - There are vertical and horizontal milling machines. These are very versatile
machines and can perform many part shaping functions.
335. Which of the following descriptions best defines the term grinding?
parts.
b. A process that uses a wheel or disk made up of grains of abrasives each acting as a single
point cutting edge. It is used in metal fabrication to separate the workpiece into two pieces,
reduce material for proper fit up, to shape weld profiles, and remove defects.
two pieces.
b - There are many different shapes for grinding materials, such as disks, wheels,
blades, etc…; some made up with extremely fine grains for delicate high polish
work; or coarse grained particles for rapid material removal.
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336. Which of the following is used in metal fabrication to square and bevel pipe ends for groove
welds, shape round members, cut threads and separate the workpiece into two pieces?
a. Turning
b. Grinding
c. Shaping
d. Planning
a - A lath is a good example of a turning machine. They are very accurate and
work angles and diameters to fractions of a thousand of an inch or fractions of a
degree.
337. Which of the following terms is applied to a process that is carried out by a machine that can
shrink, stretch, dome, edge turn, bead, offset or virtually produce any form that is needed?
a. Turning
b. Grinding
c. Shaping
d. Planning
c – Shaping is taking a flat piece of sheet metal and making it into anything you
need with power (planishing) hammers, an English wheel or beading machines.
These machines can produce virtually any form that is needed.
338. Which of the following descriptions best define the term drilling?
a. A process that uses a plunging motion while the tool is rotating and work is held stationary. It
is used in metal fabrication for making holes in various workpieces.
b. A process that uses a cutting tool that is rotating and the work is stationary or combined with
parts.
two pieces.
a - A drill motor can be as simple as a battery powered portable unit and as

complex as an industrial type multiple spindle machines. Some heavy duty
portable drill presses utilized electro magnets to hold them to the structure
being drilled.
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339. Which of the following descriptions best define the term planning?
parts.
b. A process that uses rotational forces to rotate the work about a center while the tool is
two pieces.
c. Taking a flat piece of sheet metal and making it into anything you need with power
d. A process that uses a machine tool that has a linear motion in relation to the workpiece. The
linear toolpath has a single point cutting tool mounted to it. It is used in metal fabrication to
make large flat surface and cutting slots as in keyways.
d - Planning machines are seldom used today due to it only having a single
point cutting tool. They have been replaced by milling machines with multi point
cutting tools that do similar type work much more efficiently.
340. Which of the following uses chisel shaped tools with hammer type blows in metal fabrication
to remove excess metal and slag?
a. Chipping
b. Drilling
c. Grinding
d. Shearing
a - A slag hammer or chipping hammer would be a good example for this. The
chisel shaped tool can be incorporated with a handle much like a hammer or be
a pneumatic hammer with a chisel type tool attached. This type set up is often
referred to as a jitter bug.
341. Which of the following uses a torch with a non-consumable electrode, a plasma arc and inert
gas to cut virtually any conductor?
a. Air Carbon Arc Cutting (CAC-A)

b. Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC)
c. Plasma Arc Cutting (PAC)
d. Laser Beam Cutting (LBC)
c - This process uses a plasma arc and an inert gas or in some cases reactive
gases even compressed air for cutting. The gas or air is forced at high speed out
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of a nozzle while the tremendous heat of the arc plasma melts the material and
a cut is produced. It is used in metal fabrication to primarily cut straight or
curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special nozzles; be used
for gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
342. Which of the following best describes the Air Carbon Arc Cutting Process?
reaction process and can only cut certain materials. It is used in metal fabrication to primarily
cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special tips; be used for
gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
b - The Air Carbon Arc Cutting Process uses an arc as the heating source. The
electrode is made of carbon and the molten metal is blown away by a blast of
air. It is excellent for gouging and for removing weld metal to find defects.
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343. Which of the following best describes the Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC) Process?
reaction process and so can only cut certain materials. It is used in metal fabrication to
primarily cut straight or curved lines, bevels and pierce holes. It can also; with special tips; be
used for gouging for the removal of metal or joint preparation.
c - The Oxyfuel Gas Cutting (OFC) Process uses a fuel gas and oxygen as a heat
source. Once the material reaches its kindling temperature (“cherry red color”)
the cutting lever is depressed and a pure blast of oxygen rapidly oxidizes the cut
area. Only materials that rapidly oxidize can be effectively cut with this process.
344. Which of the following processes uses an electrode and an arc plasma to cut?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
d. LBC
e. Both a and c
e - Oxy fuel and laser do not create a plasma and are not electrical conductors
so no plasma is produced.
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345. Which of the following processes utilizes a consumable electrode?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
d. LBC
e. Both a and c
c - The only two processes that use electricity and an electrode are Carbon Arc
Cutting-Air and Plasma Arc Cutting and only the CAC-A electrode is consumed
during use.
346. Which of the following thermal cutting processes can only effectively cut carbon steel?
a. CAC-A
b. OFC
c. PAC
b - OFC is a chemical reaction process and only metal, like carbon steel, that
rust (rapidly oxidize) can be easily cut.
347. What thermal cutting process can cut all metals?
a. OFW
b. PAC
c. CAC-A
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
e - Since PAC and CAC-A are both arc plasma processes, if the material is a
conductor and creates a molten pool, the gas will be able to blow it away. This
is unlike OFC, which is a chemical reaction process.
348. Kerf best describes:
a. depth of cut
b. gap left by cut
c. depth of gouge
d. width of gouge
e. Both b and d only
b – Kerf Is the material that was removed by the cutting action. The gap or
width of cut are commonly described with the term kerf.
298
349. Which of the following is the residue left on the back side of a cut made with one of the
thermal cutting processes?
a. Slag
b. Spatter
c. Arc wash
d. Dross
e. Splatter
d - Since the residue is metallic, it is dross. Many people incorrectly consider it

as slag. Slag is nonmetallic.

Brazing and Soldering
350. ________ is a metal-joining process that melts the filler metal which flow out and between
several closely fitting joints. Capillary action takes place and draws the molten filler metal into
the joint. The base metal does not reach its melting point. Flux is used to break down surface
tension and allows the molten filler metal to more effective flow and wet out.
a. Fusion Welding
b. Braze Welding
c. Brazing
d. Soldering
e. Both c and d
e - This description would apply to both brazing and soldering. Both use capillary
action to draw the filler metal into the joint. Braze welding is where a brazing
filler metal is applied into a joint designed for fusion welding. The filler metal
fills the joint but capillary action is not required. A braze welding joint can be no
stronger than the filler metal used.
351. What is the melting point differential between brazing and soldering?
a. 7000 F
b. 7400 F
c. 8000 F
d. 8400 F
e. 9000 F
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d - Filler metals that melt above 8400 F are considered brazing alloys and those
that melt below 8400 F are considered soldering alloys.
352. Which of the following describes the Torch Brazing (TB) heating source?
a. Heating of ferrous materials is accomplished by inserting them into a coil. This then induces a
very high current level into them. It is also typically done at very high frequencies so that
d - A torch functions as a handle that directs the gases and flame to the joint
being brazed. It also can turn the flame on and off and make other flame
adjustments as needed.
353. Which of the following describes the Induction Brazing (IB) heating source?
a. Heating of ferrous materials is accomplished by inserting them into a coil. This then induces
a very high current level into them. It is also typically done at very high frequencies so that
b. Large volumes of joints are typically heated using either electric, gas or oil depending on
the type of equipment used and application.
a - The heating source is due to the resistance of the part to some extremely
high current flowing in it. If the current is induced at high frequency there is also
friction heating taking place due to the flip flop of the magnetic domains.
354. Large volumes of joints are typically heated using electric, gas or oil depending on the type of
equipment and application used. Which of the following processes apply to this process?
a. Dip (DB)
b. Furnace (FB)
c. Infrared (IRB)
d. Resistance (RB)
b - The heat source is a refractory enclosure being heated with some type of
energy source similar to an electric or fuel gas oven on a kitchen stove.
300
355. The workpieces are heated locally by large amounts of current flowing through them. Once at
temperature, the filler metal that is placed between the workpieces melts by the heat
generated from the flow of electric current through the electrodes and the work. Which of the
following terms apply to this process?
a. Dip (DB)
b. Furnace (FB)
c. Infrared (IRB)
d. Resistance (RB)
d - Large amounts of current flowing through the part creates the heat source in
the form of electrical resistance, similar to the heating coils in and electric
toaster or the heating coils on an electric range top.
356. Which of the following describe the Dip Brazing (DB) heating source?
c. This method is especially suited for brazing aluminum due to the air being excluded which
c - The parts to be brazed are dipped into a bath or slurry which is the effective
heat source.
357. Which of the following describe the Infrared Brazing (IRB) heating source?
c. T his method is especially suited for brazing aluminum due to the air being excluded which
301
a - Just like the infrared light from the sun warms your skin on a hot summer
day, the same effect can be amplified with the proper placement and focus of
high intensity quartz bulbs.
358. Which of the following statements is true about the advantages of brazing and soldering?
a. They can join materials with different metallurgical properties.

b. Heavy joint sections are easily joined.
c. Thin joint sections are easily joined.
d. Poor fit up is not an issue.
e. Cleanliness is not an issue because of the flux.
a - Since the base materials are not melted, it is relatively easy to join dissimilar
metals and even non-metals like ceramics. As to the other answer options, they
must be properly controlled for the joints to be fit for purpose.
359. Joints for brazing and soldering must be:
a. designed to have a large surface area of contact.

b. heated with a heat source even including matches.
c. properly fluxed to remove the contaminants.
d. fit up with large gaps to allow the filler metal to easily flow through the joint via gravity.
a - Fusion welding joints are not designed for brazing and soldering. Large
surface areas of contact in close proximity to one another are required to get
the strength levels required.
302
360. The brazing alloy designation is RBCuZn. What alloy would it contain?
a. Silicon
b. Gold
c. Copper
d. Zinc
e. Both c and d
e - As indicated in the AWS brazing filler metal classification illustration. The ‘B’
stands for Brazing and the one ‘R’ indicates a Rod. Always use the proper
brazing alloy as specified.
361. Discontinuities encountered on brazed and soldered joints are easily detected.
a. True
b. False
b - Voids and unbonded areas are possible with both of these processes. Since
the alloy is drawn into the joint by capillary action it is difficult to determine
visually if an acceptable joint was made.
362. After brazing or soldering the flux residue needs to be removed because it is:
a. hard and brittle

b. not paintable
c. corrosive
d. a fire hazard
e. weakens the joint
c - The chemicals required in the flux can be very corrosive. Some joint and
structures like pipe and tubing are difficult to properly clean, as the flux can flow
inside these closed structures and so cannot be properly removed.
303
363. An application calls for joining two materials using an alloy specified as BAg, which has a
melting point of 14500 F. Which of the following could not be used in this process?
a. Brazing
b. Silver Brazing
c. Silver Soldering
d. Braze Welding
e. Both c and d
c - The melting point of the filler metal is well above the soldering maximum of
8400 F. Braze welding is acceptable if capillary action is not used to pull the alloy
into the joint. Since the joint design was not specified braze welding is ok.
304
10 Test Preparation Tips
1. Start Studying 3 Months Before The Test - You have a lot of information to review to get prepared.
Give yourself enough time to study all of it in a relaxed state of mind. Trying to cram your study in a
month or a few weeks before the test will just create anxiety and even panic which is not conducive
to learning.
2. Outline a Study Schedule and Stick to It- You first need to find out what subjects the test covers,
then break them down into a study outline. An outline of the material will give you a birds-eye-view
of what you have to cover and allow you to plan to actually study it. Include review days throughout
the schedule where you review material you studied the month or two before. Include practice test
sessions in your schedule as well. Once you have a study schedule established, commit to it and be
disciplined. It will only help you, and give you the benefit of comprehensive study, if you actually
follow it.
3. Study Every Day for at Least One Hour - Getting prepared for a professional certification exam takes
commitment. To maintain this commitment, it is best to make it part of your regular schedule. Plan
an hour a day to study the material you have scheduled for the day.
4. Obtain a Good Study Guide - A good study guide is very important. It will give you the substance
you need to know for the test.
5. Use Flashcards - Flashcards are easy to use and can interject some fun into the study process.
Flashcards that give you a question on one side and an answer on the other are the most effective.
Use them regularly throughout your study schedule.
6. Take Untimed Practice Tests Periodically to Assess Your Knowledge of the Material - Use the
Tests.com Practice Test to find out how well you know the material. For the first couple times, do
not time yourself, but use the test simply to determine your strengths and weaknesses. Focus your
study on the areas of the exam where you had the most trouble.
7. Take a Timed Practice Test Periodically to Practice Test Taking Skills - Take the Tests.com Practice
Test using a timer setting. Determine how many questions are on your state exam and complete
that amount of questions in the allotted time. This exercise will allow you to get a sense of how fast
you need to work under time pressure.
8. Tab and Highlight your Reference Books - Depending on the test, some jurisdictions have open
book tests, allowing you to use a reference book while you take the test. Most testing rules do not
allow notes in the reference book you use, but many allow highlighting and tabbing. When you use
a reference book during a test, it is important to use it in such a way that allows you to work
305
efficiently and not slow you down. Place colored tabs on the pages of the book referencing the
sections, so you can turn to them quickly and not have look up page numbers in the Table of
Contents. Highlight those sections which you believe to be important and that will be subject to
testing.
9. Meet with Friends who are Studying for the Test and have a Group Discussion - Your friends and
colleagues who are studying for the test will have different strength and weaknesses than you. You
can benefit each other by sharing information, discussing issues and asking each other questions
about the information subject to testing.
10. Don’t Study the Day or Night Before the Test - You have prepared for months. Even though you
may feel a bit anxious the day before the test, it is important that you give your brain a rest. During
the test, you must be clear of mind and able to nimbly move from question to question. If your
brain is tired and your eyes are having trouble focusing, you will put yourself at a great
disadvantage. Do not study late into the night. You know the material more than you realize. Take
the day off, go for a walk, a bike ride or see a movie.
10 Test Taking Tips

1. Get Good Rest the Night before the Test - All the study in the world will not save you if you can’t
focus your eyes and your mind is cloudy due to staying up late at night to study before the test.
Test taking is an art and you must have a clear, well rested mind to do well. An important tip, and
the first in this list for a reason, is to get a good night’s rest the day before the test.
2. Eat a Good Meal before Leaving for the Test - Tests usually last a couple of hours. They take much
concentration and mental energy. You don’t want to have your blood sugar level affect your ability
to concentrate. Eat a good meal before leaving to take the test. Stay away from foods that would
make you tired.
3. Get to the Testing Location on Time and Mentally Prepare Yourself - You do not want to get lost on
your way to the testing location or leave too late such that you miss the beginning of the exam or
even have to rush to get to your seat. You want to arrive in enough time to sit for 10 or 15 minutes
prior to the test to collect your thoughts and clear your mind. Make sure you have the address to
the testing location the day before the test, ensure you have the right directions or use a GPS
system and find out beforehand how much time it will take to get there so you know when to leave.
4. Read the Question and Understand What it is Asking - A cardinal rule of test taking is “Do not read
into the question and Answer only What is Asked.” Before you read the answers, make sure you
306
understand what the question is asking. Do not let yourself insert qualifications into the questions
or assume additional fact patterns.
5. Form an Answer in Your Mind before Reading the Answer Options - If an answer comes to you
before you read the answer options, and the answer that came to you matches an answer option,
odds are that the answer option corresponding to the answer that popped into your head is the
correct answer. You know more than you realize. This is how preparation benefits you.
6. Read all of the Answers - Even though the first answer option looks right, read all of the answer
options all of the time. One of the answers is the correct choice. All the information to answer the
question is there. Read all the answer options to understand what options are available. You will
find, while one of the first top selections seems right some of the time, a bottom option will
occasionally be the right selection because it qualifies the answer in the correct way. If you just take
the first answer that seems right without reading the other answer options, you will not get the
benefit of all the information in the answer options.
7. Eliminate Obviously Wrong Answers - Some of the answer options will obviously be wrong. You
can increase the odds you will select the right answer and work more efficiently by first eliminating
obviously wrong answers.
8. Don’t get Stuck on Difficult Questions - Some questions will have difficult or complex fact patterns
that require some thought or calculation. If you find yourself getting lost in the facts or numbers, or
stuck on the answer options, such that you start feeling anxious that you are wasting time, take the
following steps: guess and register an answer, mark the question with some notation that will tell
you it was a guess, and come back to it at the end of the test, after you finished all other questions.
9. Pace Yourself - Don’t Work too Fast; Don’t Work too Slow - Time is a very important element of
test taking. Aside from the subject matter, it is the factor that most causes pressure and stress. To
obtain a good score, it is important that you have the time to read and answer all of the questions.
Tests only allow a certain amount of time per questions. Determine what that time per question is
by dividing the time by the number of questions. Pace yourself when taking the test so that you
allow yourself enough time to reasonably be able to read and answer all questions. You don’t want
to work too fast or too slow.
10. Maintain a Good Attitude during the Test - It is important to keep your composure during the test.
Having a good attitude will allow you to get through the challenging parts of an exam and avoid
becoming down or defeatist, which could slow you down or stop you altogether from finishing the
exam. Hang in there and have confidence. If you prepare for the exam following the preparation
and test taking tips discussed here, you can have confidence that you will succeed.
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Answer Bubble Sheet
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Copyright © 2013 Tests.com LLC, Test Tips

About the Author

Table of Alloying Elements and Lens Shade Guide ..................................................................................... 5

Weld Symbols ............................................................................................................................................... 7

Section 1 – Arc Welding Processes ................................................................................................. 8

Section 2 – Heat Control and Metallurgy...................................................................................... 18

Section 3 – Weld Examination ...................................................................................................... 25

Section 4 – Welding Performance................................................................................................. 37

Section 5 – Welding Definitions and Terminology ........................................................................ 49

Section 6 – Symbols - Welding and NDE ....................................................................................... 63

Section 7 – Test Methods - NDE.................................................................................................... 77

Section 8 – Reports and Records .................................................................................................. 88

Section 9 – Duties and Responsibilities......................................................................................... 93

Section 10 – Safety ........................................................................................................................ 96

Section 11 – Destructive Testing (DT) ......................................................................................... 101

Section 12 – Cutting .................................................................................................................... 105

Section 13 – Brazing and Soldering ............................................................................................. 112

Practice Test Answers ............................................................................................................................. 116

Questions with Answers.......................................................................................................................... 154

Test Preparation and Test Taking Tips ................................................................................................... 305

Bubble Sheet ............................................................................................................................................ 308

The welding industry is a critical component of manufacturing worldwide. It has

Welding is the joining together of two pieces of metal by heating to a temperature

My Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test is designed to be used as a study

Test Taking Tips

Best of luck in your career as a welder.

Symbol Element Effect

1. The following schematic represents which welding process?

a. ductility and fatigue

5. Arc voltage is when ______________.

7. A long welding arc ______.

a. the welding machine

a. Acts as a scavenger, removes oxides, and impurities

11. Which of the following is NOT a low hydrogen electrode?

12. The following schematic represents which welding process?

a. hold the tungsten

a. High arc voltage for more heat

16. Square wave refers to the ____________.

a. shape of the filler metal

a. shielding gas; electrode

20. A 1.5% lanthanum electrode would be color coded ________ .

22. The following schematic represents which welding process?

a. Nothing unless the work cable is properly attached to the work.

a. heat and distortion

a. Wire feed speed on the feeder

a. A filler rod for the GTAW or Tig process

33. The following schematic represents which welding process?

37. The following schematic represents which welding process?

Fundamentals of Welding Practice Test – Section 2

41. What two elements are used in the making of steel?

a. Granite and coke

a. With the grain (X)

45. Porosity means _________.

a. how dense a material is

a. Carbon, silicon, manganese

50. Distortion in weldments can occur in which direction?

a. Sequencing the welds

55. Which of the following occurs if the tempering temperature is increased?

56. Decreasing the base metals temperature will:

a. ____Torsion – A turning or twisting action.

a. b. c. d.