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11/12/2010 CCNA v4 - E3 - Final | Cisco CCNA Expl…

CCNA v4 - E3 - Final

1. Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts
on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to
configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was
connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1


(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1


(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

2. Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
store-and-forward

3. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.


The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
The switch has failed POST.
The switch has passed POST and is working properly.

4. Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

hop count as a metric


classless routing
use split horizon
maximum hop count is 15
broadcast updates
no authentication

5. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN
2?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2


(config-if)# switchport mode access
(config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2


(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

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(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2


(config-if)# vlan 2

6. What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure


provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem
provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging
provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers

7. Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF
routes from the other routers. based on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
–output omitted–
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

duplicate IP address
mismatched OSPF process IDs
mismatched OSPF timers
mismatched clock rates

8. Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies


eliminates logical loops in network topologies
can only be used in networks where routers are installed
can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design
can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used

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9. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes


when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces

10. Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP
tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network
administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value


change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value
change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value

11. One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is
true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system
number.

The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.

12. Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if
OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0


B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1


B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99


B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1


B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

13. How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

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by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to received updates
by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports

14. Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04


Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

15. Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the
routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following
commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1


B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1


B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1


B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

B(config)# router eigrp 1


B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0

16. Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch
bridge
router
active hub

17. A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its
addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support
supernetting? (Choose two.)

a classless routing protocol


a classful routing protocol
OSPF
IGRP
RIP v1

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18. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added
network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly
activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and
advertised.
A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

19. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant
entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

20. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication
between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

interface fastethernet 0/0


no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0


mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

21. Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

to prevent routing information from being falsified


to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead
to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

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to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing
to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source

22. Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

The switch is sending and receiving frames.


The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.
The switch is participating in an election process.
The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.

23. Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the
directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not
contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes
from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.


One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.
VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.

24. Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex


show vlan id
show vlan brief
show running-config

25. Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge
in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address


highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
lowest priority number
lowest path cost

26. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the
following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the
switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.


The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.

27. Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

They can support multiple routed protocols.


They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.

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28. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the
following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous
system number.
Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.
Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.
No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.

29. Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company
that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users


200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users


200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users


200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users


200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

30. Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco
Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface vlan 1


(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan


(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1

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(config-if)# no shutdown

31. What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1
has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the
same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access
channel
interVLAN
intraVLAN
trunk

32. A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the
Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which
command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP
address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5


line vty 0 4
telnet
telnet Corporate
telnet 172.16.15.5

33. When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can
be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

the network number


subnet mask
wildcard mask
process number
area ID
autonomous system number

34. A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network
currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs


replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment

35. Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic
from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0


ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0


ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0


ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0

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ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

36. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch


use a router to locate a default gateway
elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

37. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers
attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed.
Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of
the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical
data link
core
access
network
distribution

38. The following command was added to a router’s configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0
172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.


A static route will be created.
Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static
route exists.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.
The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.

39. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.


Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

40. Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links
between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30


192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30
192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30
192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30
192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30

41. The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection.
The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the
administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

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Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.
Set the management VLAN password.
Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.
Establish host connectivity to Switch2.

42. Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host


requires a minimum of two wires
reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains

43. Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is
the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0


RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1
RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0

44. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access
backbone
distribution
core

45. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates
VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.


VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.

46. Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using
OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.


RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

47. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco
switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design
model do these switches operate?

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physical
distribution
data link
***access
core

48. A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the
switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.


It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.
It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.
It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.
It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.

49. Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the
root bridge?

SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given

50. A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a
maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use
of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192
192.168.3.209
192.168.3.223
192.168.3.225
192.168.3.235

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