Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
National Capital Region
DIVISION OF TAGUIG AND PATEROS
PRE- TEST IN MATHEMATICS GRADE 10
SY 2019 – 2020

Name: Gr. & Sec.: Date: Score:

Directions: Read and analyze the following questions. Solve if necessary. Write the letter that corresponds to the correct
answer before the number. If the answer is NOT found in the choices, write N. USE CAPITAL LETTER ONLY.

_____ 1. What is the next term in the sequence 3, 9, 27, 81, __, …?
A. 243 B. 262 C. 274 D. 340

______2. It is a sequence in which the next terms are obtained by adding a constant?
A. Arithmetic Sequence C. Geometric Sequence
B. Fibonacci Sequence D. Harmonic Sequence

_____ 3. If three arithmetic means are inserted between 11 and 39, find the second arithmetic mean.
A. 7 B. 18 C. 20 D. 25

_____ 4. . What is the sum of all the odd integers between 8 and 14?
A. 33 B. 44 C. 55 D. 77

_____ 5. What is the next term of the geometric sequence 100 , 50 ,25 , …?
A. – 25 B. 0 C. 6.75 D. 12.5

_____ 6. If an Arithmetic Sequence is obtained by adding a constant called common difference. The
Geometric Sequence is obtained by multiplying the preceding term by a non- zero called________.
A. Common ratio C. Common denominator
B. Common factor D. Common sense

_____ 7. Find the Geometric Mean between 3 & 243.

A. 9 B. 15 C. 27 D. 48

_____ 8. What is the sum of the first 6 th terms of the sequence 2, 6, 18,…?
A. 240 B. 242 C. 310 D. 359

_____ 9. What is the next terms in the Fibonacci sequence 1,1,2,3,5,8,…?

A. 13 B. 16 C. 19 D. 20

_____ 10. What is the quotient when x 2−25 is divided by x−5?

A. x−5 B. x−25 C. x +5 D. x +25

_____ 11. What is the remainder when 5 x 100 +5 is divided by x−1?

A. -5 B. 0 C. 5 D. 10

_____12. Which of the following is the factored form of x 3 - 3x2 – x +3?

A. (x – 1)(x – 1)(x + 3) B. (x – 1)(x + 1)(x – 3) C. (x + 1)(x + 1)(x - 3) D. (x + 1)(x – 1)(x + 3)

_____ 13. List the zeros of f(x) = (x – 1)3 (x + 2)2 (x + 1) and their multiplicities.
A. 1 mult. 2, 2 mult. 2, -1 C. 1 mult. 3, -2 mult. 2, 1
B. 1 mult. 3, 2 mult. 2, 1 D. 1 mult. 3, -2 mult. 2, -1

_____ 14. Which of the following defines a polynomial function?

x+ 2
A. P(x) =3 x B. P(x) = C. P(x) = √ 2 x 2−3 D. P(x) = x3 + 5
x−1

_____ 15. What are the end behaviors of the graph of f(x) = -2x + x 3 + 3x5 – 4 ?
A. rises to the left and falls to the right C. rises to both directions
B. falls to the left and rises to the right D. falls to both directions

_____ 16. The distance d (in mm)of a certain amoeba from the its original position t minutes after moving is given by the
polynomial function d ( t ) =t 3 −4 t . Find the distance of the amoeba from its original position after 5 minutes?
A. 5 mm B. 25 mm C. 100 mm D. 105 mm
_____ 17 . Given the figure of ʘS at the right, which symbol represents a chord?
A. ÁI B. ÁI C. ŚI ´
D. SN

_____ 18. Given the figure of ʘM, what is m∠ ATH ?

A. 25 ° B. 30 ° C. 40 ° D. 80 °

_____ 19. In the figure, SY and EY are secants. If SY = 15 cm, TY = 6 cm and LY = 8 cm. What is the length of EY ?
s
A. 6.75 cm T
B. 11.25 cm Y
C. 12 cm . L
D. 20 cm E

_____ 20. . What is the length of ZK in the figure below?

A. 2.86 units
5 B. 6 units
4 C. 8 units
Z
.
K D. 8.75 units
7

_____ 21 A circle has a circumference of 48π, what is the radius of the circle?
A. 2 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48

_____ 22. Which of the following is the formula for finding the distance between two points?
A. d= ( x 2−x 1)2 +¿ ¿
√ C. d= ( x 2−x 1)2−¿ ¿
√
2 2
B. d= √ ( x + x ) +¿ ¿
2 1
D.d= √ ( x + x ) −¿ ¿
2 1

_____ 23. Find the perimeter of a triangle whose vertices are at (0,0), (4,0) and (4,3).
A. 6 units B. 7.5 units C. 12 units D. 16 units

_____ 24. What is the coordinate of the center of a circle having an equation of ( x−3 )2 + ( y + 4 )2=16 ?
A. (−3 ,−4 ) B. (−3 , 4 ) C. ( 3 , 4 ) D. ( 3 ,−4 )

_____ 25. What is the center of the circle?

A. (0, 0) C. (0,5) ●
B. (5,0) D. (5, 5)

_____ 26. It is an arrangement of objects without repetition where order is important.

A. Combination B. Permutation C. Probability D. None of these

_____ 27. If P(9, r) = 3 024, what is r?

A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

_____ 28. A caterer offers 3 kinds of soup, 7 kinds of main dish, 4 kinds of vegetable dish, and 4 kinds of dessert. In how many
possible ways can a caterer form a meal consisting of 1 soup, 1 main dish, 1 vegetable dish and 1 dessert?
A. 4 B. 18 C. 84 D. 336

_____ 29. Find the number of distinguishable permutations of the letters of the word PASS.
A. 4 B. 12 C. 36 D. 144

_____ 30. It is an arrangement of objects without repetition where order is NOT important.
 A. Combination B. Permutation C. Probability D. None of these

_____ 31. Which of the following situations illustrates combination?

A. Arranging 8 people in a row for a picture taking
B. Selecting a car if there are 2 choices of engine and 3 choices of colors
C. Arranging 4 couples to be seated in a round table
D. Forming a committee with 4 members out of 10 teachers.

_____ 32. Which of the following is the formula for finding the combinations of n objects taken r at a time where r ≤ n?
n! n! n! n!
A. B. C. D.
r! (n−r )! ( n−r ) ! r ! p ! × q ! ×r !

_____ 33. In how many ways can a committee of 5 students be chosen from 6 juniors and 7 seniors if there must be 3 seniors in
the committee?
A. 50 B. 240 C. 525 D. 630

_____ 34. If P(event) is the probability that an event will occur, which of the following is NOT true?
A. P(event )=2  B. P(event )=1 C. P ( event )=0 D. P(event) = ½

For numbers 35-36, refer to the figure below.

Some students were asked what contest/s they had joined in the last MATH Got Talent. The Venn diagram below shows the
results.
Jingle Q-Bee

______ 35. How many students were asked? 8 5 7

A. 30 C. 50 4
B. 40 D. 60 3 6

5
_______ 36. How many students joined the Q-Bee? 2
A. 5 C. 15 Mind Games
B. 7 D. 22

_____ 37. A box contains strips of paper numbered 1 to 10 and a strip is drawn at random.
Which of the following shows that events X and Y are mutually exclusive?
A. X is the event that it is a number less than 8 and Y is the event that it is a number greater than 5.
B. X is the event that it is an even number and Y is the event that it is an odd number.
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B

_____38. A group of scientists consists of 7 chemists, 4 biologists and 5 physicists. If a scientist is

randomly chosen, what is the probability that the scientist is a biologist?
1 1 1 1
A. B. C. D.
4 5 7 16

_____ 39. What measures of position is equal to the median?

A. 75th percentile B. 5th decile C. 3rd decile D. 1st quartile

_____ 40. . It is a measure of position where the distribution is divided into hundred equal parts.
A. decile B. median C. percentile D. quartile

_____ 41. These are the score points which divide a distribution into four equal parts.
A. Decile B. Quartile C. Median D. Percentile

Use the given data below to answer numbers 42 – 44.

Scores: 5, 6, 12, 13, 15, 18, 22

_____ 42. What is the median of the given data?

A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15

_____ 43. Using Mendenhall and Sincich method, what is the position of Q 1?
A. 1st B. 2nd C. 3rd D. 4th

_____ 44. Using Mendenhall and Sincich method, what is the value of Q 3?
A. 13 B. 15 C. 18 D. 22
_____ 45. . If your score in this test is equivalent to P 90 in your section, what percent of your classmates gets higher than you?
A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 90%

_____ 46. Lambert used the Mendenhall and Sincich method to find Q 3 in an ungrouped data. She computed the position of Q 3
and got 12.5. Which value did she get?
A. the value at 11th position C. the value at 13th position
th
B. the value at 12 position D. none of these

_____ 47. There are 60 students in the class including Noemi. They took a test and Noemi got a score that is equivalent to P 80.
How many students got a score lower than the score of Noemi?
A. score ≤ 20 B. score ≤ 30 C. score ≤ 36 D. score ≤ 48

Use the given table to answer nos. 48 to 50.

A 2-hour, 100-item mastery test in Mathematics was given to 40 students. The table below shows the result.
Class Interval Frequency
Less Than Cumulative Frequency (<cf)
(Scores) (f)
91-100 4 40
81-90 8 36
71-80 10 28
61-70 6 18
51-60 7 12
41-50 5 5

_____ 48. What is the class size or interval from the given data?
A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

_____ 49. What is the Q1 class?

A. 51-60 B. 61-70 C. 71-80 D. 81-90

_____ 50. What is the value of Q1?

A. 53.64 B. 55. 64 C. 57.64 D. 59.64

END…
GOD BLESS!!!