Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
PREFACE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
GENERAL INFORMATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
STATE LICENSING REQUIREMENTS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Eligibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Schedule. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Application Procedures and Deadlines . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Format. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Exam Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Specifications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Exam Preparation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
MINIMUM COMPETENCE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
SCORING PROCEDURES. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
EXAMINATION PROCEDURES AND INSTRUCTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Reference Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Exam Materials. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Starting and Completing the Exam . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
Special Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 29
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 73
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
PREFACE
Control Systems Engineering (CSE) was recognized by a vote of the National
Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) at its annual
meeting in Nashua, New Hampshire, on August 10, 1991. Recognition means
that an examination will be developed by NCEES, with help from a
professional society, and offered for use by boards for engineering licensing in
the United States.
By April 2010, forty-six state boards had agreed to offer the CSE exam. The
other boards (Alaska, Hawaii, New York and Rhode Island) have asked for a
showing of need and interest in their states before they will recognize CSE.
1
GENERAL INFORMATION
INTRODUCTION
This study guide is published by ISA – The International Society of
Automation, to assist candidates who are preparing for the Principles-and-
Practice of Engineering examination in Control Systems Engineering (CSE),
one of the requirements for licensure as a professional engineer.
To develop reliable and valid exams, NCEES employs procedures using the
guidelines established in the Standards for Educational and Psychological
Testing (1985), published by the American Psychological Association. These
procedures are intended to maximize the fairness and quality of the exams.
The procedures require the involvement of experienced testing specialists
having the necessary expertise to develop examinations using current testing
techniques.
3
Prior to 1998, most states did not have citizenship or residence requirements.
Now, as a result of the Welfare Reform Act passed by the US Congress in
1996, states cannot confer a “benefit” (including a professional or commercial
license) on a person who is not a US citizen or legal resident. However,
licenses can be issued to holders of certain types of visas for entry into the US.
Because the rules are complex, candidates affected by this regulation should
discuss their situation with one of the state boards.
Examination Schedule
The CSE exam is offered once per year, on the last weekend in October. Appli-
cation deadlines vary from state to state, but typically are about three or four
months ahead of the exam date.
Applicants for the CSE exam must have taken and passed the Fundamentals-
of-Engineering (FE) exam, also called the Engineer-in-Training (EIT) exam, or
have received a waiver of this exam. Many state boards will waive the FE/EIT
exam for persons with sufficient approved engineering experience, usually at
least eight years. This exam is given in April and October.
DESCRIPTION OF EXAMINATION
Exam Format
4
question has a correct answer and three incorrect answers. More than one
question may be based on a common stem.
All of the questions are compulsory; applicants are expected to answer all of
the questions. Each correct answer receives one point. If a question is omitted
or answered incorrectly, it will receive a score of zero. There is no penalty for
guessing.
Exam Content
The subject areas of the CSE exam are described by the exam specification
given in Appendix A.
EXAMINATION DEVELOPMENT
Exam Validity
Similar studies are performed for all of the disciplines in which NCEES
provides exams. The studies are repeated periodically to reflect changes in
technology. In 2002-3 and in 2009-11, following NCEEs policy, the CSE exam
specification was revised.
Exam Specifications
5
Exam Preparation
MINIMUM COMPETENCE
One of the most critical considerations in developing and administering
exams for professional engineering registration or licensing is establishment
of passing scores which reflect a standard of minimum competence.
Minimum competence, as measured by the exam component of the licensing
process, is defined by NCEES as follows:
SCORING PROCEDURES
Each question is worth 0 or 1 point, so the entire 8-hour exam has a maximum
score of 80 points.
However, candidates should understand that NCEES exams are NOT graded
“by the curve” so that pre-specified percentages of examinees will pass and
fail. Instead, they are graded by an “item-specific, criterion-referenced”
method, i.e., answers are evaluated in terms of what a minimally-competent
candidate is expected to know. With this procedure, each candidate is judged
separately and without regard to the performance of other examinees.
6
At a passing-score workshop, a panel of engineers who have not been
involved with preparation of the exams is asked to study the questions and
independently estimate the fraction of minimally-competent candidates who
would answer each question correctly. These estimates are averaged for the
panel and then summed to obtain a passing score.
Legal authority for licensing decisions rests with the individual registration
boards and not with NCEES or ISA. Consequently, each board has the
authority to fix its own passing score for the exam. NCEES provides each
board with a recommended passing score developed by the methods
described above; the recommended score is generally adopted by the boards.
Candidates may appeal a board decision, subject to rules established by the
board.
Note: In some states, licensing exams must — by law — have a passing score
of 70. For these states, NCEES scales the raw scores so the maximum score
becomes 100 and the passing score becomes 70. Where this occurs, scores are
not directly comparable from state to state, but the same group of applicants
will pass on either basis.
Writing tablets, unbound notes or tables, and devices that could compromise
the security of the exam are NOT permitted. In the exam booklets, questions
are printed on the right-hand pages; the left-hand pages are blank and can be
used for calculations or scratch work. Examinees are prohibited from copying
questions for future use.
State boards differ in their rules regarding references and calculators, so you
should contact your board for its specific instructions.
7
Exam Materials
Before each session, proctors will distribute exam booklets and answer sheets
to be used in responding to the questions.
The exam booklet should not be opened until you are instructed to do so by
the proctor. Read the instructions and information given on the front and back
covers. Enter your name in the upper right corner of the front cover. Listen
carefully to all instructions read by the proctor.
The answer sheets for the multiple-choice questions are machine scored. For
proper scoring, the answer spaces should be blackened completely. Use only
#2 pencils or mechanical pencils with HB lead. Marks in ink or felt-tip pens
may not be scanned accurately. If you decide to change an answer, the first
answer must be erased completely. Incomplete erasures and stray marks may
be read as intended answers.
One side of the answer sheet is used to collect identification and biographical
data. Proctors will guide you through this part of the answer sheet prior to
your taking the test. The process will take about 15 minutes.
Copies of the answer sheets described above are given in the following pages.
It will be wise to become familiar with them before the exam.
You are not to open the exam booklet until instructed to do so by the proctor.
Inside the front cover is additional important information. If you should
complete the exam with more than 30 minutes remaining, you are free to
leave. Within 30 minutes of the end of the exam, you are required to remain
until the end to avoid disrupting those still working and to permit orderly
collection of all exam materials.
Regardless of when you complete the exam, you are responsible for returning
the numbered exam booklet assigned to you. Cooperate with the proctors
collecting the exam materials. Nobody will be allowed to leave until the
proctor has verified that all materials have been collected.
Special Accommodations
8
TIPS ON TAKING PE EXAMINATIONS
Plan to arrive early at the exam site, allowing for delays in travel and
parking.
Before starting to answer any questions, read all of them. Rank them by
the apparent degree of difficulty for you. Tackle the easiest questions first,
then the next easiest, and so on, until you have answered all of the
questions in the morning or afternoon half of the exam. This approach will
leave more time for the tougher questions at the end of the session.
Because the morning and afternoon sessions are each four hours, you will
have approximately six minutes per question, not counting the time spent
reviewing the entire exam before starting.
If you finish the exam ahead of time, check your calculations or try
answering a question by an alternate method.
If you are running short of time or are uncertain about the correct
answer, try to eliminate clearly incorrect answers and make a guess
among the remaining answers (since there is no penalty for guessing).
9
REFERENCES FOR CSE EXAMINATION
The following pages list reference books that may be useful in preparing for
and taking the PE examination in CSE. The list has been organized into the
same topic areas as the exam. Where possible, several books have been listed
for each topic, and excerpts from the tables of contents are included to assist
candidates in comparing these books with other similar references.
It is NOT suggested that candidates should be familiar with or own all of the
following books, because there are substantial overlaps in coverage of the
exam content in the listed books. Instead, candidates should review these
books and other similar books, select a limited number of references covering
the major areas of the CSE exam, and study the selected references to learn
where particular topics are covered.
GENERAL REFERENCES
Author/Editor/
ISBN Title
Publisher
0-8493-1083-0 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, 4th Béla G. Lipták
Edition, Vol. 1: Process Measurement and
Analysis
0-8493-1081-4 Instrument Engineers’ Handbook, 4th Béla G. Lipták
Edition, Vol. 2: Process Control and
Optimization
11
0-87201-382-0 Applied Instrumentation in the Process W.G. Andrew & H.B.
Industries Volume I – 2nd Edition A Survey Williams
0-87201-047-3 Applied Instrumentation in the Process W.G. Andrew & H.B.
Industries Volume III – 3rd Edition Williams
Engineering Data & Resource Material
0-8019-6766-x Instrumentation for Process Measurement & Norman A. Anderson
Control – 3rd Edition
0-07-012445-0 Process/Industrial Instruments & Controls Douglas M. Considine
Handbook – 4th Edition
0-932276-31-8 EIT Review Manual -Professional Michael R. Lindeburg,
Publications, Inc. P.E. Professional
Engineering Institute
Flow of Fluids Through Valves, Fittings, & The Crane Company
Pipe – Technical Paper No. 410
Flow Meter Engineering Handbook – 5th C.F. Cusick –
Edition Honeywell
951-95409-9-7 Flow Control Manual Lasse Kamppari –
Neles-Jamesbury
Engineering Handbook For Neles-Jamesbury Neles-Jamesbury
Control Valves – Technical Bulletin T150-1
Engineering Data Gorman-Rupp Pumps
Programmable Controllers Practices & R.A. Gilbert & J.A.
Concepts Llewellyn
Control Valve Handbook – 2nd Edition Fisher Controls
Company http://
www.emersonprocess
.com/fisher/
products/
documentation.html
Cameron Hydraulic Data – 3rd Edition C.C. Heald – Ingersoll
Rand
978-1-55617- The Condensed Handbook of Measurement N.E. Battikha P.E.
995-2 and Control, Third Edition
Consolidated Safety Relief Valves SRV-1 Dresser Industrial
Valves
978-193756- Control Systems Engineering Study Guide – ISA
0034 5th Edition
The following references cover more than one of the areas included in the CSE
exam:
12
telemetry; distributed control systems; programmable controllers;
ergonomics, human factors and safety; applications; engineering
practices]
I. Measurement
13
G. K. McMillan, ADVANCED pH MEASUREMENT AND CONTROL
(3rd Ed.), ISA, 2005. [pH chemistry; titration curves; pH measurement;
mixing equipment; control valves; control systems; controller tuning;
checkout and troubleshooting.]
14
H. D. Baumann, CONTROL VALVE PRIMER (4th Ed.), ISA, 2009.
[Control valves and control loops; selection and sizing; fail safety; flow
characteristics; positioners; actuators; stem forces; installation;
materials; environmental concerns; electric vs. pneumatic actuators]
15
S. M. Herb, UNDERSTANDING DISTRIBUTED PROCESS SYSTEMS
FOR CONTROL, ISA, 1999. [Introduction; evolution of plant-wide
process control; computing devices; controller hardware and software
structures; controller redundancy; user interfaces; alarms; networks,
physical and logical structures; open communications standards; plant
information; continuous and batch processes; system security;
reliability, failures and faults; safety systems; control system
implementation, justification, specification, vendor selection, testing
and installation; importance of distributed control; future trends;
glossary of terms and acronyms]
V. Safety Systems
16
modes; on-line diagnostics; common cause; software reliability;
operational safety; design rules]
The following material lists codes and standards relevant to the practice of
CSE. The source, number and title of the codes or standards are given.
Because there are so many applicable codes and standards, it is not expected
that CSEs will memorize all their provisions, or bring copies of all of them to
the exam. When feasible, if exam problems call for details of a code or
standard, the needed information will be supplied as part of the problem
statement.
17
ANSI/ISA-12.00.01-2002 - ELECTRICAL APPARATUS FOR USE IN
CLASS I, ZONE 0, 1, & 2 HAZARDOUS (CLASSIFIED) LOCATIONS
18
ANSI/ASME PTC 19.2-1987 (R1998) - PRESSURE MEASUREMENT
INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS
ASME Section VIII SET 2010 - ASME BOILER & PRESSURE VESSEL
CODE - SECTION VIII - PRESSURE VESSELS
19
ASME B31.9 - EDITION: 11 BUILDING SERVICES PIPING
20
IEEE Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers
445 Hoes Lane
Piscataway, NJ 08854-1331 (732) 981-0060
21
APPENDIX A
23
NCEES Principles and Practice of Engineering Examination
CONTROL SYSTEMS Exam Specifications
• The exam uses both the International System of units (SI) and the US
Customary System (USCS).
Approximate
Percentage of
Examination
20% I. Measurement
A. Sensor technologies applicable to the desired type of measurement
(e.g., flow, pressure, level, temperature, analytical, counters, motion,
vision)
B. Sensor characteristics (e.g., rangeability, accuracy and precision,
temperature effects, response times, reliability, repeatability)
C. Material compatibility
D. Calculations involved in pressure drop
E. Calculations involved in flow element sizing
F. Calculations involved in level, differential pressure
G. Calculations involved in unit conversions
H. Calculations involved in velocity
I. Calculations involved in linearization
J. Installation details (e.g., process, pneumatic, electrical, location)
24
4. Grounding, shielding, segregation, AC coupling
5. Basic signal circuit design (e.g., two-wire, four-wire, isolated
outputs, loop powering, buses)
6. Circuit calculations (voltage, current, impedance)
7. Unit conversion calculations
5% B. Transmission
1. Different communications systems architecture and protocols (e.g.,
fiber optics, coaxial cable, wireless, paired conductors, buses,
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol [TCP/IP], OPC)
2. Distance considerations versus transmission medium (e.g., data
rates, sample rates)
5% C. Networking (e.g., routers, bridges, switches, firewalls, gateways,
network loading, error checking, bandwidth, crosstalk, parity)
25
4. Pressure relieving device material selections based on process
characteristics
5. Pressure relieving valve installation practices (e.g., linking valves,
sparing the valves, accessibility for testing, car sealing inlet valves,
piping installation)
6. Rupture discs (e.g., types, characteristics, application, calculations)
5% C. Motor Controls
1. Types (e.g., motor starters, variable speed drives)
2. Applications (e.g., speed control, soft starters, valve actuators)
3. Calculations (e.g., sizing, tuning, location)
4. Accessories (e.g., encoders, positioners, relays, limit switches)
5. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
2.5% D. Other Final Control Elements
1. Solenoid valves (e.g., types, sizing)
2. On-off devices/relays (e.g., types, applications)
3. Self-regulating devices (e.g., types, sizing, pressure, temperature,
level, and flow regulators)
26
3. System comparisons and compatibilities (e.g., advantages and
disadvantages of system architecture, distributed architecture,
remote I/O, buses)
4. Installation requirements (e.g., shielding, constructability, input/
output termination, environmental, heat load calculations, power
load requirements, purging, lighting)
5. Network security (e.g., firewalls, routers, switches, protocols)
6. System testing (e.g., factory acceptance test, integrated system test,
site acceptance test)
7. Commissioning (e.g., performance tuning, loop checkout)
8. Troubleshooting (e.g., root cause failure analysis and correction)
27
APPENDIX B
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This is the fifth study guide published for the CSE exam. The following
questions have been assembled from various sources, including past exams in
CSE and other disciplines, and some have been written specifically for this
publication.
Candidates should understand that any one CSE exam can cover only some of
the areas of activity and knowledge listed in the exam specification. Thus, the
following questions do not necessarily deal with all of the possible sub-areas
of CSE activity or knowledge that may appear in future CSE exams.
Likewise, while an effort was made to match the level of difficulty of actual
exams, the match may not be exact. Variations in difficulty from exam to exam
are considered in setting the passing scores. For this reason, candidates
should view their ability to answer the sample questions as an indication of
where to focus their preparatory efforts, not as a prediction of their success on
the actual exams.
29
Morning Session
31
101. The flow rate of a clean, low-viscosity liquid is to be measured as the process input to a
flow control loop. The loop has a 4:1 turndown ratio, and the accuracy requirement is 2%.
The flow rate is best measured using a(n):
(A) Thermal
(B) Positive displacement meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) Orifice plate
102. On-line measurement of the 90% point of a gasoline blending component is best done
using a:
32
Morning Session
103. A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by
valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the
transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s process
tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
(A) 19.2
(B) 37.2
(C) 55.7
(D) 60.0
33
104. You must provide a tank gaging system for a liquified natural gas (LNG) tank. LNG is a
cryogenic liquid and is stored at near atmospheric pressure. Under certain conditions, the
LNG can stratify and potentially lead to unsafe conditions. The best choice to provide
reliable, safe operation of the LNG tank would be:
(A) Radar type with independent multi-point temperature indication that provides a
temperature profile of the tank
(B) Differential pressure with multiple temperature indicators located at low liquid
level around the diameter of the tank
(C) Servo-type that provides liquid level plus temperature and density profiles
(D) Float type with an independent multi-point temperature for tank temperature
profile and hydrostatic density indication
105. A liquid with an S.G. of 0.8 flows to a pump at 100 psig. The viscosity of the liquid is 3 cP,
the molecular weight is 94, and the temperature is 15°C. The pump supplies 100 ft of
head. Piping losses are insignificant. The pressure (psig) at the inlet to the control valve
will be most nearly:
(A) 35
(B) 44
(C) 135
(D) 154
106. TK-1 has a capacity of 30,000 barrels (US). It is required to fill TK-1 in 6 hours. FV-1 will
need to be sized for a flow rate (gpm) of most nearly:
(A) 3,500
(B) 5,000
(C) 7,143
(D) 21,000
34
Morning Session
107. Which of the following Gas Chromatograph (GC) detector types is most appropriate for
measuring low concentrations of sulfur in hydrocarbon fuels?
108. Which pair of devices listed below are most likely to be hazardous gas/gas environment
detectors?
109. A safety barrier limits the energy transfer to a hazardous location by limiting the
maximum current (using a fuse) and shunting any high-voltage faults in the safe area to a
safety ground (through Zener diodes).
Which of the following considerations does NOT apply to a shunt Zener Diode barrier?
110. A control loop of a DCS consists of an isolated 4–20 mA output and a grounded control
element. A remote indicating device must be installed between the DCS and the control
element. The indicating device has an input range of 1-5 V and is referenced to ground.
Which of the following components (I/I is a current-to-current converter) is/are required
to give a full-scale reading of the indicating device without affecting the control element?
35
111. Which of the following statements about wireless (radio) data transmission systems for
use in plantwide data collection and control applications is FALSE?
112. Which of the following practices is important in routing fiber optic cable?
(A) Laying cable in trays with high-horsepower motor wiring should be avoided
(B) Conduit fittings that required small-radius bends should be avoided
(C) Overhead runs on messenger wires should be limited to 75 feet
(D) Underground fiber optic runs must be covered with concrete
113. What is the principle advantage of a fieldbus installation over traditional 4–20 mA with
HART protocol?
I Ring
II Star
III Bus
IV Mesh
(A) I * IV
(B) I * II
(C) II * IV
(D) All of these
36
Morning Session
115. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
The valve coefficient Cv for the original service conditions is approximately equal to:
(A) 4.8
(B) 6.9
(C) 8.5
(D) 10.4
37
116. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A) At least 10-20 pipe diameters of straight run inlet piping should be provided
upstream of control valves.
(B) At least 3-5 pipe diameters of straight run piping should be provided
downstream of control valves.
(C) Diaphragm-actuated control valves must be installed with the stem in a vertical
(upward) position.
(D) Valves must be installed with the flow arrow in the correct direction.
117. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is false?
(A) If the material is not hazardous, vent lines are not needed for fluid trapped
between stop valves.
(B) Valves must be located where an operator can see indicators or gages needed for
manual control.
(C) Lines should be flushed or blown out before valve installation.
(D) Higher flow velocities are allowed in gas lines than in liquid or steam lines.
118. A suggestion is made that a rising stem globe valve should be replaced with a rotary stem
ball valve. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The ball valve Cv would likely be too large for the application.
(B) The piping would need to be changed because the ball valve will likely be longer
than the globe valve.
(C) Using a ball valve would not allow use of a diaphragm-type actuator.
(D) Ball valves are not used for modulating control.
119. The applicable ASME (American Society of Mechanical Engineers) code limits the
maximum superimposed constant backpressure on pressure relief devices to what value?
38
Morning Session
120. What is the maximum vessel pressure (in psig) allowed by ASME Code Section VIII
when only PSV-1 is in service and relieving?
FLARE HEADER
PSV PSV
1 2
PCV
CSO CSO
GAS FLOW
OUT
GAS FLOW
IN
NLL LC
10 FT.
4 FT.
LV
LIQUID OUT
Vessel Data:
Max Allowable Working Pressure (MAWP): 200 psig
Dimensions: 4’ OD, 10’ cylinder, elliptical heads
Normal liquid level: 3.5’
Operating pressure: 150 psig
Operating temperature: 100°F
Process Data:
Inlet gas flow: 80,000 lb/hr Liquid flow: 60 gpm
Molecular weight: 19 SG: 0.590
(A) 200
(B) 210
(C) 220
(D) 230
39
121. What is the most acceptable, cost-effective method for protecting a safety relief valve in
corrosive service?
40
Morning Session
122. How would you insert a DCS RUN/STOP using a single DO into a motor control which
uses a local momentary START/STOP where the local stop can shutdown the motor?
M
MX MX
RUN STOP
STATUS
M
MX MX
RUN/STOP
STATUS
RUN/STOP
STATUS
M
MX MX
STOP RUN
STATUS
41
123. An HVAC blower has a shutdown from a building fire detection/protection panel for
Confirmed Fire. Which of the following motor controls is the most correct?
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
A)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
EOL
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
B)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
C)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
EOL
STATUS
LCL HVAC
EMER EMER HOA PANEL FIRE
STOP STOP DETECTED
H RUN/STOP N
D)
LCL SIS OFF STOP
AUTO
M
HAND
MX
STATUS
42
Morning Session
124. According to ANSI/ISA-5.1-2009, which of the following is the symbol for a pressure-
reducing regulator with an external pressure tap:
125. The logic diagram on the next page depicts the control scheme for an acid injection pump
used to control the pH in a plant water system. The control of the pump in performed
exclusively by a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC). The “HOA” local hand switch is
spring return to “OFF” from the “HAND” position.
The combination of OR-gate “C” with AND-gate “D” is commonly referred to as:
43
44
Morning Session
126. Refer to the sketch shown below, where two liquid feed streams are combined for a
certain mixing operation to produce a single stream (product).
INPUT STREAM #1
PRODUCT OUT
INPUT STREAM #2
Based on the conservation requirements, what are the degrees of freedom of this system?
(A) One degree of freedom
(B) Two degrees of freedom
(C) Three degrees of freedom
(D) None of the above
45
127. The response of a system to a 1-unit step input is shown below.
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.7
46
Morning Session
128. Estimate the integral time for Integrated Absolute Error and the resulting damped cycle
period under integral control.
Variable
Motor Speed
Feeder
Variable
FC
Speed WT
Drive Flow Set Point
Weight
129. According to ISA-5.5-1985 concerning graphic symbols for use on Visual Display Units
(VDUs), the generic term for cathode-ray tube or solid-state display devices, which of the
following statements is true:
47
130. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
The maximum permissible level of H2S for an 8-hour (weighted average) exposure is 20
ppm (parts per million). A dose of 150 ppm or more for a short time can cause permanent
injury or possibly death. The human nose can detect 1 ppm levels but is desensitized
quickly with continuing exposure.
The range of the H2S analyzer is 0-20 ppm. The most appropriate setting for the alarm
point (in ppm) would be:
(A) 0 - 4.9
(B) 5.0 - 9.9
(C) 10.0 - 14.9
(D) 15.0 or higher
131. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently responded too slowly to load
disturbances because of a noise-free, but slow measurement device. An appropriate
action to accelerate the disturbance response would be to:
132. A poorly-tuned PID control loop has consistently overcompensated for low humidity
conditions in a humidity-controlled room by injecting too much steam into the air supply
duct. An appropriate action to reduce the overshoot problem would be to:
48
Morning Session
(A) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the availability requirements of a
safety instrumented function.
(B) A discrete number (one through four) used to define the performance
requirements of a safety instrumented function.
(C) A probability (between 0 and 1) used to define the likelihood of a dangerous
failure of a safety instrumented function.
(D) A percentage (between 0 and 100) used to define the ratio of the safe failure rate
and the total failure rate.
136. What are the best factors to base safety system test intervals on?
49
137. Which is the best reason for performing Management Of Change?
138. According to ISA-5.2-1976 (R1992)-Binary Logic Diagrams for Process Operations, which
of the following statements about this standard is FALSE?
(A) The symbols defined in this standard can be used to implement logic functions in
any type of hardware — electronic, electric, fluidic, pneumatic, mechanical, etc.
(B) Symbols from different standards cannot be used in the same logic diagram.
(C) The flow of intelligence in a logic diagram is normally left to right, top to bottom.
(D) The term “valve closed” is not the same as “valve not open.”
140. Coal grinding areas in a coal-fired steam power plant would be classified under
hazardous area provisions of the National Electric Code (NEC) as:
50
Afternoon Session
51
Afternoon Session
501. A differential pressure transmitter LT-100 is used to monitor the level in a horizontal
storage vessel V-100. The vessel holds hot water which is manually filled and drained by
valves V-1 and V-2. The pressure taps on the vessel for LT-100 are 60 inches apart and the
transmitter is mounted 10 inches below the bottom process tap. The transmitter’s process
tubing is routed 10 feet horizontally before dropping vertically to the transmitter.
If LI-100 initially reads 50 percent and the pressure increases by 10 percent, the new
reading of LI-100 at steady-state conditions would be (in percent):
(A) 0
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 60
53
502. To avoid flooding a distillation column, a differential pressure measurement is required
across the top half of the column. The fluid entering the bottom of the column is similar
to heavy crude oil. Due to the corrosive nature of the fluid, the bottom half of the column
is clad with alloy steel. The bottom temperature is 1200°F. The product from the top of
the column is light hydrocarbons at 250°F.
503. The flow of water in a 4-inch steel pipe is measured with an orifice plate and a differential
pressure transmitter. At a flow rate of 120 gallons per minute (GPM), the differential
pressure is 27 inches of water. At a flow rate of 176 GPM, the differential pressure will be
most nearly equal to
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 39
(D) 58
504. For measuring the flow of raw sewage in a 4-inch steel pipe at a flow rate of 150 gpm,
which of the following sensing devices will provide the most reliable and maintenance-
free installation?
54
Afternoon Session
505. A tank level is measured using a differential pressure transmitter and a bubbler tube. The
tank is vented to the atmosphere. The bubbler tube bottom is 1 foot above the tank
bottom; the tank wall is 20 feet high. A 0-10 psi differential pressure gauge, accurate to
0.25 percent of full scale, is connected to the bubbler tube connection at the high-pressure
side of the transmitter. The low-pressure side of the transmitter is connected to the tank
top.
When the water level in the tank is 14 feet, the gauge reading in pounds per square inch
(psi) is most nearly equal to
(A) 5.6
(B) 6.1
(C) 6.5
(D) 13.0
507. For a gas-fired heater, the best choice for flame detection is a:
55
508. Consider the application of a hydrogen sulfide (H2S) analyzer that a plant is installing for
personnel protection.
Assuming no mechanical problems or other limitations at the site, where should a field
sensor be placed to provide the earliest possible warning of an excessive concentration of
H2S?
509. In an area of high electromagnetic disturbances, the computer data transmission medium
with the least noise pickup is:
511. Comparing unshielded twisted pairs (UTP) with shielded twisted pairs (STP) for data
transmission in a control system, which of the following statements is false?
56
Afternoon Session
512. According to IEEE Standard 802.3, CSMA/CD Networks, a data transmission medium
labeled “10BASE5” can be used up to:
57
515. A control valve, originally supplied for gaseous service, in now being considered for a
liquid service application.
In the new service, assuming the maximum Cv = 12, the maximum flow in gallons per
minute (gpm) is:
(A) 30.7
(B) 34.2
(C) 37.9
(D) 42.2
58
Afternoon Session
516. Consider a gas flow control loop in manual, with the initial process conditions (A =
upstream and B = downstream) as given in the figure below. All conditions remain
constant other than the changes specified in each question. Subscripts 1 and 2 refer to the
old and new conditions, respectively.
If only the open flow area (X) of the valve increased, which of the following best
describes how the mass flow (F) would change?
(A) F2 = F1(X1/X2)0.5
(B) F2 = F1(X2/X1)0.5
(C) F2 = F1(X2/X1)
(D) F2 = F1(X2/X1)2
517. Which of the following statements about control valve installation practices is FALSE?
59
518. You are to engineer a motor control system in a relay-based motor controller in the DCS
with the following requirements:
How are the I/O to be configured and wired into the motor control circuit?
H N
STOP STOP STOP STOP START
LCL SIS STARTER
M
STATUS- DI LATCHED MX
MX
START- DO MOMENTARY
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
B. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
STOP
DCS
STOP
LCL
START N
LCL SIS STARTER
M
STATUS- DI LATCHED MX
MX
START- DO LATCHED
STOP- DO MOMENTARY
STATUS
DCS
START
C. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
LCL
STOP
LCL
START
DCS
STOP
STARTER N
LCL SIS
M
STATUS-LATCHED
MX
START/STOP LATCHED MX
STATUS
DCS
START
D. H
EMER
STOP
EMER
STOP
HOA LCL
OFF STARTER N
LCL SIS
RUN
M
STATUS-LATCHED AUTO
START
START/STOP LATCHED STOP STATUS
60
Afternoon Session
519. A new pump was installed with the motor control, shown in the figure below, with a low
flow shutdown. the wiring and pump rotation was confirmed during checkout. When
operation went to place the pump in service, the pump will not start. What is the most
likely cause?
H
EMER EMER LCL DCS LCL LOW
STOP STOP STOP STOP START FLOW
LCL SIS SHUTDOWN
STARTER N
M
MX
MX
DCS
START
STATUS
(A) The low flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
(B) The flow switch needs a normally closed start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(C) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay off
relay.
(D) The low flow switch needs a normally open start-up bypass with a time delay on
relay.
61
521. Which of the following diagrams shows the best scheme for double-acting, fail-last-
position actuation of the process valve?
KEY:
I.A.
I.A. INSTRUMENT AIR
SOLENOID VALVE
C O PISTON ACTUATOR
PISTON ACTUATOR
(B)
(with spring return)
I.A.
FC FC
O C O VENT C O VENT
FC FC
62
Afternoon Session
522. According to ISA-5.1-1984(R1992), which of the following is the symbol for a discrete
instrument, not accessible to an operator, in an auxiliary location?
523. Which of the following Boolean statements (using the notation “+” means “OR” and “ • ”
means “AND”) describes the operation of the logic circuit shown in the following
diagram?
(A) M = A + (B • C • D)
(B) M = A + B + (C • D)
(C) M = A • (B + (C • D))
(D) M = A + (B • (C + D))
A
M
B D
63
524. A control system is described by the block diagram shown below.
Data List:
s+4
1. Gs(s) = system transfer function = -----------------------------
2
s + 6s + 13
K(s + 3)
2. Gc(s) = controller transfer function = --------------------
s(s + 1)
64
Afternoon Session
I The two data items obtained from a closed-loop test and used in tuning parameter
calculation are the period and amplitude of oscillation.
II The tuning parameters obtained from a closed-loop test are likely to be more accurate
than those determined from an open-loop test.
III It is necessary to observe the process for many cycles (say, 10 or more) to be sure that
the oscillation is neither decaying nor increasing.
IV The engineer conducting a closed-loop test has no control over the amplitude of the
oscillation.
(A) I and III
(B) I, II and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV
65
526. Compared to a control loop with no dead time (pure time delay), a control loop with an
appreciable dead time tends to require:
528. Which of the following tuning criteria would be most appropriate for designing a
controller to regulate the temperature in the room where you are now sitting?
66
Afternoon Session
529. A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) is used to start a motor using the circuit shown
below.
OUT 1
IN 1 IN 2 IN 3
M M
MOTOR
IN 4 STARTER
Which of the following logic statements will cause the motor to start running and
continue running after the start contact closes and then reopens?
67
530. What effect does timer “A” have on the pump control?
68
Afternoon Session
531. Which ISA standard gives requirements for the specification, design, installation,
operation and maintenance of safety instrumented systems?
(A) 5.1
(B) 50
(C) 84
(D) 88
532. What is the objective of factory acceptance testing of a safety instrumented system?
(A) To test that the hardware and software satisfy the requirements defined in the
safety requirements specification.
(B) To test and document that the facility fabricating the system is qualified to
perform the required work.
(C) To test that field devices are operational before placing them in service.
(D) To create test procedures that will be used during the life of the system to verify
functionality.
533. The fundamental goal of any Safety Integrity Level selection study is to ensure that
69
534. A control system employs three sensors, each having a failure probability of 0.02 in six
months of operation. The system can function properly when any two or more of the
sensors are working, but it must shut down if two or three of the sensors fail.
The probability that the system can operate for six months without a shutdown is most
nearly equal to:
(A) 0.9412
(B) 0.9600
(C) 0.9800
(D) 0.9988
(A) The logic solver shall be separated from the Basic Process Control Systems except
where some applications have combined control and safety functions in one logic
solver.
(B) The sensors for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the sensors
for the Basic Process Control System.
(C) The final elements for Safety Instrumented Systems shall be separated from the
final elements for the Basic Process Control System.
(D) Changes for the Safety Instrumented System shall not be allowed from the SIS
operator interface.
536. What is the primary reason for visually inspecting safety systems?
70
Afternoon Session
538. The OSHA Process Safety Management Directive, 29CFR, Part 1910, addresses all of the
following EXCEPT:
The system design shall upgrade the burner management functions on a 50,000,000 btu/
hr, two-burner, gas-fired boiler to current NFPA standards. Igniters will be interrupted
(turned off) when the timed trial for ignition of the main burner has expired. PLC inputs
and outputs will de-energize to shut off (trip) fuel to the boiler.
540. Loop drawings for a petrochemical process plant should be signed by:
71
APPENDIX C
ANSWERS TO SAMPLE QUESTIONS
This appendix contains solutions and/or answers to the questions contained
in Appendix B.
Comments about the questions and answers will be appreciated. They should
be sent to the Director of Credentialing Services, ISA, P.O. Box 12277,
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709 for forwarding to the CSE examination
committee.
73
ANSWERS
QUESTION
QUESTION
QUESTION
QUESTION
CORRECT
CORRECT
CORRECT
CORRECT
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
ANSWER
101 D 121 C 501 C 521 D
102 C 122 B 502 D 522 A
103 C 123 A 503 D 523 D
104 C 124 B 504 B 524 A
105 D 125 C 505 A 525 D
106 A 126 B 506 D 526 A
107 C 127 B 507 D 527 C
108 C 128 D 508 A 528 D
109 C 129 C 509 A 529 B
110 D 130 B 510 D 530 B
111 A 131 D 511 C 531 C
112 B 132 A 512 C 532 A
113 D 133 B 513 D 533 C
114 A 134 D 514 B 534 D
115 D 135 D 515 D 535 C
116 C 136 B 516 C 536 C
117 A 137 D 517 B 537 B
118 A 138 B 518 A 538 A
119 A 139 D 519 C 539 D
120 C 140 D 520 D 540 B
74
Answers - Morning Session
101. For this control application, the best choice is an orifice plate.
102. The “90% point” is a boiling characteristic of a hydrocarbon liquid. Thus, the only
suitable analyzer is a boiling point analyzer. The other instruments measure different
characteristics of materials.
3
57.941#/ft
S.G. = ----------------------------- = 0.929
3
62.364 #/ft
109. The correct answer is (C). Zener diode barriers are inexpensive and easy to use.
75
110. The correct answer is (D).
CONTROL
DCS
ELEMENT
I/I
250 ohm
INDIC.
111. The correct answer is (A). Wireless systems with a large number of links or channels in a
limited radio frequency spectrum can interfere with each other; there is no limit on the
possible number of wired or cable channels.
(B) is True. Wireless systems do not require conduit or cable trays to be routed through
the plant in order to connect a multitude of inputs to controllers and central processors;
many functions are built into the wireless system components.
(C) is True. Sensors and controllers in a wireless system still need power to perform their
functions.
(D) is True. By means of channel hopping, encryption, resending data packets, etc.,
wireless systems can be given a high degree of immunity to electrical noise.
112. The correct answer is (B) since the fiber can be broken by a small-radius bend.
76
Answers - Morning Session
116. The correct answer is (C); putting valve stems in a vertical position is a common practice
but is not an absolute requirement for all situations. (See J.W. Hutchison, ISA Handbook
of Control Valves, 2nd Ed., 1976, p. 353.)
117. The correct answer is (A); vent lines should be provided so that personnel or equipment
will not be inadvertently sprayed, even with harmless material, when a vent valve is
opened. (See J. W. Hutchison, pp. 336-337.)
118. (A) is the correct answer. Ball valves usually have larger Cv for the same size body than
globe valves.
(B) – Piping might need to be revised, but ball valves are usually shorter than the same
size globe valve.
(C) – Ball valves often use piston actuators, but can use diaphragm-type actuators as well.
(D) – Ball valves are often used for on/off control, but are also used for modulating
control.
119. The correct answer is (A). AMSE Section VIII – Division 1, UG-134, Pressure Setting of
Pressure Relief Devices, (d) says: The pressure at which any device is set to operate shall
include the effects of static head and constant back pressure.
120. The correct answer is (C). The maximum vessel pressure with one valve in service is 110
percent of MAWP (10 percent accumulation) or 1.1 * 200 = 220 psig.
122. The correct answer is (B). A single maintained contact is to be placed between the
Emergency STOP SIS and the local STOP and after the local START.
123. The correct answer is (A). The typical fire detection/protection panel outputs are
normally closed and supervised. See NFPA-74. Therefore, motor control A is the only
correct answer.
124. The correct answer is (B). (A) is a pressure-reducing regulator, self-contained; (C) is a
back-pressure regulator, self-contained, and (D) is a back-pressure regulator with an
external tap.
77
125. The correct answer is (C).
*Material balance: F3 = F1 + F2
Any two of the flows can be specified; the third flow must satisfy the material balance.
0.5815 – 0.500
127. The overshoot is ------------------------------------ × 100 = 16.3%
0.500
From standard response curves, the damping ratio is approximately 0.5, one-half of
critical damping. Alternately, the damping ratio (ξ) can be calculated from the equation
2
– πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ
16.3 = 100e
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ 100
e = ---------- = 6.135
16.3
2
πξ ⁄ 1 – ξ = ln 6.135 = 1.814
2 2 2 2
π ξ = 3.29 ( 1 – ξ ) ; ξ ( 9.87 + 3.29 ) = 3.29;
2
ξ = 0.25 ; ξ = 0.5
Kp = 28/20 = 1.4
129. The correct answer is (C); statements II and III are true. Statement I is false because flows
can be in any direction; recycle flows will be right-to-left if the main flows are left-to-
right, and some flows are vertical, up or down. Statement IV is a common but not
universal convention; the convention can vary from company to company or industry to
industry.
78
Answers - Morning Session
130. The alarm point should be set above the noise or background level, perhaps caused by
small, intermittent releases of H2S, and well below the prescribed maximum permissible
level. Of the choices given, the best is 5-9.9 ppm. The correct answer is (B).
131. The correct answer is (D) since derivative action in a relatively noise-free system allows
the controller to anticipate the effects of a load disturbance and take pre-emptive action.
Action I might also work, but there is nothing to indicate that action III is required as
well.
132. The correct answer is (A) since all of the other tuning objective would required overshoot
which is stated to be undesirable. This question deals with important tuning criteria other
than the classical ¼-wave decay criteria favored by Ziegler and Nichols.
133. The correct answer is (B). Based on clause 3.2.74 of ISA 84.
134. The correct answer is (D). Based on clauses 3.2.74, 9.2.2, 10.3.1 (and more) of ISA 84.
135. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 3.2.76 of ISA 84.
136. The correct answer is (B). Based on clauses 16.3.1.3 and 11.9.2 of ISA 84.
137. The correct answer is (D). Based on clause 17.1.1 of ISA 84.
138. The correct answer is (B), which is a false statement. Symbols from different standards
can be used in the same diagram IF they are clearly defined.
139. Because water hoses may be used for house cleaning purposes, watertight (NEMA 4)
enclosures are desirable. General-purpose (1), drip tight (2), weatherproof (3), and dust
tight (5) enclosures are not indicated. The correct answer is (D).
140. Class II, Group F is for areas where coal dust is present. The correct answer is (D).
79
Answers - Afternoon Session
501. Since the differential pressure measurement provides for pressure fluctuation and water
is an incompressible fluid, the level measurement remains unchanged.
502. If a single differential pressure transmitter was used, mounted at one of the platforms,
the connecting lines would be significantly different in length. Extraneous effects, e.g.,
temperature or gravity head, could adversely affect the accuracy. Therefore, two pressure
transmitters should be used.
2
ΔP 2 F 2
---------- = ------
ΔP 1 F 1
176 2
or ΔP 2 = ( 27 ) --------- = 58.1 in. of H 2 O
120
504. For a stream containing solids, the best choice is a flow sensor that offers a minimum
obstruction to the flowing stream, i.e., a magnetic flowmeter.
62.4
505. The pressure reading is ( 14 – 1 ) ---------- = 5.6 psi
144
The correct answer is (A).
81
506. The correct answer is (D). All of the listed factors influence the accuracy of measurements
made with orifice-type elements.
508. Hydrogen sulfide (MW = 44) is heavier than air (MW ≅ 29), therefore its concentration is
highest close to the ground. For early detection, the field sensor (analyzer inlet) should be
as close to the ground as possible, i.e., one foot.
509. Fiber optic data transmissions is immune to electromagnetic disturbances. The other
media listed are electrical and, therefore, subject in varying degrees to electromagnetic
disturbances.
511. Answer (C) is false and is, therefore, the correct answer. Some LAN vendors insist on
STP.
512. According to IEEE 802.3, the designation “10BASE5” refers to millions of bits per second
and distances in hundreds of meters.
82
Answers - Afternoon Session
515. For the new service conditions, using the maximum CV = 12, the maximum flow can be
calculated using the equation (Eq. 1, ANSI/ISA-75.01.01-1985):
q G
C V = ------------- ------f-
N 1 F p Δp
Δp
q = C V -------
Gf
10
= 12 ----------
0.81
= 42.2 gpm
X 2
516. F 2 = F 1 -------
X 1
The mass flow is directly proportional to open area of valve.
83
517. The correct answer is (B). In some cases, the best action is to hold the previous position, at
least in the short term.
518. The correct answer is (A). Upon loss of power, the MX contact opens and the motor will
remain off until either the local or DCS start is activated and the motor starter pulls in
sealing in the circuit.
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Off Delay
ON
POWER
OFF
CLOSED
NO
OPEN
CLOSED
NC
OPEN
TIMER
Flow Switch
Bypass active
POWER ON
84
Answers - Afternoon Session
The start-up bypass could be either an On Delay Relay with a Normally Open contact or
an Off Delay Relay with a Normally Closed contact. The Off Delay Relay with Normally
Closed contact is not fail safe as the normally closed contact will bypass the Low Flow
shutdown. Where the On Delay Relay requires a typically 0.5 sec power pulse to start the
timer which in turn energizes the relay and the contacts change state, i.e., the normally
open contact close. Therefore, the On Delay Relay is fail safe design and the only solution.
520. The correct answer is (D). A double-acting actuator must be given power to open and
again to shut. “Fail safe” means that a device, if not already so, will, on its own, go to a
safe mode upon loss of signal/control power.
521. The correct answer is (D). Blocks in the pressure on solenoid failure. If momentarily
actuated, is immune to loss of instrument air as well.
Distracters:
(A) – Fails closed.
(B) – Fails closed if solenoid fails. Unpredictable on loss of air. Also, will not actuate in
both directions.
(C) – Almost works, but it may move when failed if the process exerts force on the valve.
523. The correct answer is (D). This Boolean statement means that M is activated when A or (B
and (C or D)) are closed. This is correct.
85
524. To check the stability of a system having the characteristic function
s4 1 19 + K 12K
s3 7 13 + 7K
s2 a b 7 ( 19 + K ) – ( 13 + 7K )
a = -------------------------------------------------------
7
133 + 7K – 13 – 7K
= ------------------------------------------------
7
120
= ---------
7
s1 c b = 12K
0
s d a ( 13 + 7K ) – 7b
c = ----------------------------------------
a
7
= 13 + 7K – 7 ( 12K ) ---------
120
= 13 + 7K – 4.9K
= 13 + 2.1K
d = b = 12K
The first column will be positive when c > 0 and d > 0. The first condition requires
K > – 6.2; the second requires K > 0.
525.
I False - The parameters are the period of the oscillation and the gain needed to
produce the oscillation.
II True
III False-3 or 4 cycles are sufficient.
IV True
86
Answers - Afternoon Session
Pure time delay requires a reduction in both proportional gain and integral action.
[See D. R. Coughanowr and L.B. Koppel, Process Systems Analysis and Control, McGraw-
Hill, 1965, pp. 312–314, where the Cohen-Coon tuning formulas are discussed. The
equations show Kc varying inversely with dead time, which means that the integral
action decreases with dead time.]
528. The correct answer is (D) since a room’s temperature is to be maintained in spite of load
disturbances. This question deals with the difference between tuning for setpoint
tracking or disturbance rejection.
530. The correct answer is (B). Note that the “NOT” element at the input to the following
“AND” element.
533. The correct answer is (C). Based on clauses 3.4 and 3.5 of Part 3 of ANSI/ISA-84.00.01
(IEC 61511-3 Mod).
87
535. The correct answer is (C). ANSI/ISA-84.01-1996, Section 7.4.3.1 only mandates separate
valves for SIL 3 (Safety Integrity Level 3).
537. The correct answer is (B). Based on OSHA PSM regulation (29 CFR 1910.119), not
specifically referenced in ISA-84.
538. The correct answer is (A). Transportation of hazardous chemicals is covered by 49CFR,
Parts 100-185, and is a concern of the Department of Transportation (DOT), not OSHA.
Distracters:
(B), (C) and (D) are covered by 29CFR, Part 1910, and are concerns of OSHA.
539. The correct answer is (D). This is required by NFPA Standard 85C and precludes the
selection of (A), (B) or (C). Also, most PLC manufacturers recommend an external master
relay to remove all power from field devices in an emergency.
540. The correct answer is (B); the over-riding principle in this area is that the person
responsible for engineering designs should sign the drawings. Signatures by other people
won’t hurt, but they are not required.
88
APPENDIX D
SAMPLE EXAMINATION MATERIALS
89
SERIAL
NAME:_________________________________
Last First Middle
Initial
DISCIPLINE
Control Systems
91
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING AND SURVEYING
YOU ARE PROHIBITED FROM COPYING THE PROBLEMS FOR FUTURE REFERENCE;
93
NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EXAMINERS FOR ENGINEERING & SURVEYING
TEST DATE 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
Month Day Year
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
LOCATION 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
City State
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
3 LAST NAME 4 DATE OF BIRTH 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
First 5 letters MONTH DAY 19 YEAR 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Jan 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Feb 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
Mar 0 0 0 0
A A A A A Apr 1 1 1 1
B B B B B May 2 2 2 2 5 I am taking 6 Board from which
C C C C C Jun 3 3 3 3 the test in the registration is sought
D D D D D Jul 4 4 4 4 following discipline:
E E E E E Aug 5 5 5 5 (mark one) Ala. La. Ohio
F F F F F Sep 6 6 6 6 Combined Alaska Maine Okla.
G G G G G Oct 7 7 7 7 Chemical Ariz. Mass. Oreg.
H H H H H Nov 8 8 8 8 Civil Ark. Md. Pa.
I I I I I Dec 9 9 9 9 Electrical Calif. Mich. P.R.
J J J J J Mechanical Colo. Minn. R.I.
K K K K K Sanitary Conn. Miss. S.C.
L L L L L 7 If you are a graduate of Structural D.C. Mo. S. Dak
M M M M M an engineering or science Del. Mont. Tenn.
related curriculum Aeronautical/
N N N N N Fla. MP Tex.
O O O O O Aerospace
19 Ga. N.C. Utah
P P P P P Indicate Agricultural Guam N. Dak Va.
Q Q Q Q Q
0 0 the last Control Systems Hawaii Nebr. V.I.
1 1 2 digits
R R R R R Fire Protection Idaho Nev. Vt.
of the
S S S S S 2 2 Industrial
year you Illinois N.H. Wash.
T T T T T 3 3 graduated Manufacturing Ind. N.J. W. Va
U U U U U 4 4 Metallurgical Iowa N. Mex. Wis.
V V V V V 5 5 Mining Kans. N.Y. Wyo.
W W W W W 6 6 Nuclear Ky.
X X X X X 7 7 Petroleum
Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 Special Struct. 1
Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 Other
8 Blacken the circle that best describes 9 I am taking the 10 PRINT INSIDE BOXED AREA
your Baccalaureate Degree test for the:
I AM A GRADUATE OF:
4 year Engineering First time
(ABET accredited) TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NUMBER
(from top right corner of book)
4 year Engineering Technology
(ABET accredited) Second time
USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY
4 year Engineering
(not accredited) Third time
PRINCIPLES & PRACTICE
4 year Engineering Technology OF ENGINEERING
(not accredited)
Fourth time EXAMINATION ANSWER SHEET
(or more)
None of the above
Do not know
08-1695-078
95
Founded in 1945, the International Society of Automation (www.isa.org) is a leading,
global, nonprofit organization that is setting the standard for automation by helping
over 30,000 worldwide Members and other professionals solve difficult technical
problems, while enhancing their leadership and personal career capabilities. Based
in Research Triangle Park, North Carolina, ISA develops standards, certifies industry
professionals, provides education and training, publishes books and technical articles,
and hosts conferences and exhibitions for automation professionals. ISA is the
founding sponsor of the Automation Federation (www.automationfederation.org).
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