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Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT V +VI A A1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
331
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS  
5. The resultant of two vectors P and Q
1. The volume ‘V’ of water passing any  
point of a uniform tube during ‘t’ is R . If the magnitude of Q is doubled,
seconds is related to the cross the new resultant become
sectional area ‘A’ of the tube and 
pe rpendicular to P . Then the
velocity ‘u’ of water by the relation 
magnitude of R is
V  Aut which one of the following will
be true? 1) P + Q 2) Q
1)      2)      PQ
3) P 4)
3)      4)      2

2. If the time period ‘t’ of a drop of liquid 6. A body is thrown vertically up with a
of density ‘d’ radius ‘r’ vibrating under velocity ‘u’. It passes three points A, B
surface tension ‘s’ is given by the and C in its upward journey with

formula t  d a r bsc and if a =1, c= –1 u u u


velocities , and respectively. The
2 3 4
then ‘b’ is
ratio of separations between points A
1) 1 2) 2 and B, between points B and C is
3) 3 4) 4
 AB BC  is
3. If L, R, C and ‘V’ respectively represent
inductance, resistance, capacitance 1) 1 2) 2
and potenti al difference then the
3) 10 7 4) 20 7
L
dimensions of are the same as
RCV 7. A particle located at x = 0, at time
those of t = 0 starts moving along the positive
x-direction with a velocity ‘v’ that varies
1
as v  x . The displacement of the
1) Current 2) Current
particle varies with time as (where 
1 is a constant)
3) Charge 4) 1) t2 2) t
Charge

v 3) t 12 4) t3
4. A quantity ‘x’ is given by 0L where
t 8. The velocity of a particle is v=v0+gt+ft2.
0 is the permittivity of free space, L If its position is x=0 at t =0, then its
is a length, v is a potential difference displacement after unit time (t=1) is
(where v0, g and f are constants)
and t is a time inte rval. The
dimensional formula for ‘x’ is the same g f
as that of 1) v0+2g+3f 2) v 0  
2 3
1) Resistance 2) Charge
g
3) Voltage 4) Current 3) v0+g+f 4) v0  f
2
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9. A particle moving with uniform 12. A body ‘A’ thrown up vertically from the
acceleration has average velocities v1, ground with a velocity ‘v0’ and another
v2 and v3 over successive intervals of body ‘B’ is simultaneously dropped from
time t1, t2 and t3 respectively. The value a height H.
 v1  v2  They meet at H 2 if v0 is equal to
of  v2  v3  will be

1) 2gH 2) gH
 t1  t2 
1)  t2  t3  1 2g
3) gH 4)
2 H
 t1  t2 
2)  t2  t3  13. If ˆi, ˆjand k
ˆ are unit vectors along x, y
and z-axes respectively the angle '  '
 t1  t2  between the vector ˆi  ˆj  k
ˆ and vector
3)  t2  t3 
î is given by,
 t1  t2 
1)   cos 1 
1 
4)  t2  t3  
 3
10. The acceleration ‘a’ of a particle
starting from rest varies with time 2)   sin1  1 
according to relation, a  t   . Then  3
velocity of the particle after a time ‘t’
 3
will be (where  and  are constants) 1
3)   cos  
 2 
t 2 t 2
1)  2)  t
2 2  3
4)   sin1 
 2 
 
t t 2  
3) t 
2
4) 14. A swimmer can swim in still water
2 2
with a speed of 5 ms–1, while crossing
11. Figure shows two displacement time a river his average speed is 3 ms–1. If
graph of particles p 1 and p 2 , their he crosses the river in the shortest
relative velocity possible time, what is the speed of flow
of water?
1) 2 ms–1 2) 4 ms–1
3) 6 ms–1 4) 8 ms–1
15. A body projected with a certain kinetic
energy, has a horizontal range R. The
kinetic energy will be minimum at a
position of the projectile when its
1) zero horizontal displacement is
2) non-zero but constant
1) R 2) 3R 4
3) continuously decrease
4) continuously increase 3) R 2 4) R 4
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
16. A projectile attains a certain maximum 20. A smooth block is released at rest on
height when projected from earth. If a 45 o incline and the n slide s a
it is projected at the same angle and distance d. The time taken to slide is
with same initial speed from moon, by ‘n’ times as much to slide on a rough
what factor will the maximum height incline than on a smooth one. The co-
of the projectile increase? efficient of friction is

1) 3 2) 3 1 1
1) k  1  2) k  1 
n2 n2
3) 6 4) 6
1 1
17. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg are 3) s  1  4) s  1 
n2 n2
respectively are conne cted by a
massless spring as shown. A force of 21. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is
200N acts on 20kg mass at the instant resting on a frictionless plane. It is
when the 10 kg mass has an struck by a jet, releasing water at a
acceleration of 12 m/s2 towards right, rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/s.
then acceleration of 20kg mass is The initial acceleration of block is

10kg 20kg 1) 2.5 m/s2 2) 5 m/s2


200N
3) 10 m/s2 4) 15 m/s2
1) 2 m/s2 22. One end of a massless rope, which
passes over a massless and frictionless
2) 4 m/s2
pulley ‘p’ is tied to a hook ‘c’ while the
3) 10 m/s2 other end is free. Maximum tension
that rope can bear is 360 N. With what
4) 20 m/s2 value of minimum safe acceleration
can a man of mass 60 kg climb down
18. A body is projected with a velocity
the rope
v  3iˆ  4ˆjm /s . The maximum height
attained by the body is (take
g = 10 ms–2)

1) 0.8 m 2) 8 m

3) 80 m 4) 800 m

19. A body is projected from the ground 1) 16 m/s2 2) 6 m/s2


with a speed ‘u’ at an angle '  ' with
the horizontal. When the body is at the 3) 4 m/s2 4) 8 m/s2
highest point of the trajectory, its 23. A spiderman of mass 40 kg is climbing
2 times its speed when it a vertical wall at a constant speed. If
speed is 3 the coefficient of friction between his
is at half the maximum height. The palms and the pole is 0.8 and
value of '  ' is g = 10m/s2, the horizontal force that
he is applying on the pole is
1) 30o 2) 45o
1) 300 N 2) 400 N

3) 60o 4) sin 2 3
1
  3) 500 N 4) 600 N
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
24. A balloon has 8 gram of air. A small 28. A particle moves on a rough horizontal
hole is pierced in to it. The air escapes ground with some initial velocity say
at a uniform rate of 7 cms –1 . If the th
3
balloon shrinks in 5.6 seconds then v0. If of its kinetic energy is lost in
the average force acting on the balloon 4
is friction in time t0, then coefficient of
friction between the particle and the
1) 10–4 N 2) 10–2 dyne ground is

3) 56 dyne 4) 10–6 N v0 v0
1) 2gt 2) 4gt
0 0
25. A bridge is in the form of a semicircle
of radius 40m. The greatest speed with
3v0 v0
which a motor cycle can cross the 3) 4gt 4) gt
bridge without leaving the ground at 0 0

the highest point is


29. A constant power P is applied to a
1) 40 m/s 2) 20 m/s particle of mass ‘m’. The distance
travelled by the particle when its
3) 30 m/s 4) 15 m/s velocity increases from v 1 to v 2 is
(neglect friction)
26. A spring is compressed between two
3P 2
toy carts of masses m1 and m2. When
the toy carts are released the spring
1)
m
 v2  v12 
exerts on each toy cart equal and
opposite forces for the same time ‘t’. m
If the coefficients of friction  between 2)  v2  v1 
3P
the ground and the toy carts are equal,
then the displacement of the toy carts, m 3
3)
3P
 v2  v13 
s1 m2 s1 m1
1) s  m 2) s  m m 2
2 1 2 2
4)
3P
 v2  v12 
s1 m 
2
s1  m1 
2
30. Two wheels are connected by a belt.
3)   2  4)   The radius of larger wheel is three
s2  m1  s 2  m2 
times that of the smaller one. What is
the ratio of the rotational inertia of
27. A block of mass ‘m’ is pulled along a larger wheel to the smaller wheel,
horizontal surface by applying a force when both wheels have same angular
at an angle '  ' with the horizontal. If momentum? (Assume the belt does not
the block travels with a uniform slip)
velocity and has a displacement ‘d’ and
the coefficient of friction is  , then
the work done by the applied force is

mgd mdg cos 


1) 2)
cos    sin  cos    sin 

mgd sin  mgd cos  1) 3 2) 6


3) 4)
cos    sin  cos    sin  3)9 4) 12
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
31. A uniform metal disc of radius R is 33. A solid sphere of uniform density and
taken and out of it, a small disc of radius R applies a gravitational force
of attraction equal to F1 on a particle
radius R 2 is cut off as shown in the placed at P, distance 2R from the
figure. The centre of mass of the centre O of the sphere. A spherical
remaining part will be
cavi t y of r ad i u s R 2 is now made in
the sphere as shown in the figure. The
sphere with cavity now applies a
gravitational force F2 on same particle
F2
placed at P. The ratio F will be
1
1) R 4 from centre

2) R 3 from centre

3) R 5 from centre

4) R 6 from centre
1) 1 2 2) 7 9
32. A solid sphere of radius ‘R’ has moment
of inertia I about its geometrical axis. 3) 3 4) 7
It is melted into a disc of radius ‘r’ and
thickness ‘t’. If its MI about the 34. Imagine a new planet having the same
tangential axis (which is perpendicular density as that of earth but the radius
to the plane of the disc) is also equal is three times that of the earth. If the
to I, then the value of ‘r’ is equal to acceleration due to gravity on the
surface of earth is g and that on the
surface of new planet is g ' , then

1) g ' =3g

2) g ' =9g

g
3) g ' 
9

4) g ' =27g

2 35. Imagine a light planet revolving around


1) R a very massive star in a circular orbit
15
of radius R with a period of revolution
2 T. If the gravitational force of
2) R attraction between the planet and the
5
3
star is proportional to R 2 , then T2 is
3 proportional to
3) R
15
5
1) R3 2) R 2

3
4) R 3 7
15 3) R 2 4) R 2
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
36. The length of seconds pendulum is 1m 39. If the surfaces shown in figure are
on earth. If mass and diameter of frictionless, the ratio of T1 and T2 is
another planet is double that of earth,
then length of the seconds pendulum
in that planet becomes

1) 1m 2) 2m

3) 0.5 m 4) 4m
1) 3:2 2) 1: 3
37. A particle of mass m is projected with
a velocity v at an angle of 45o with the 3) 1 : 5 4) 5 : 1
horizontal. When the particle is at the
maximum height, its angular 40. The potential energy of a particle in
momentum abou t the point of  a b
projection is certain field has the form U   2
 ,
r r
where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are positive constants
1) Zero 2) 4 2mv3 g and ‘r’ is the distance from the centre
of the field. Find the value of ‘ r0 ’
3
2mv 3
mv corresponding to the equilibrium
3) 4) position of the particle
4g 4 2g

38. The magnitude of force (in N) acting 2a


1) , stable equilibrium
on a body varies with time t(in s ) as b
shown. AB, BC and CD are straight
line segments. The magnitude of total
2a
impulse of force on the body from t = 2) , unstable equilibrium
b
4s to t = 16s is

b
3) , neutral equilibrium
a

2b
4) , stable equilibrium
a

41. An  -particle of mass m suffers one


dimensional e lastic collision with
nucleus of unknown mass at rest. After
collision, the  -particle is scattered
1) 6 × 10–3Ns 8
directly backward losing of its KE.
9
2) 3 × 10–3 Ns
Then the mass of the nucleus is:

3) 5 × 10–3Ns 1) 2m 2) 3m

4) 4 × 10–3Ns 3) m 4) 4m
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
42. The moment of inertia of a thin 45. Three particles, each of mass M, are
uniform rod rotating about the placed at the three corners of an equi-
perpendicular axis passing through one lateral triangle of side l. What is the
end is ‘I’. The same rod is bent into a gravitational potential energy of this
ring and its moment of inertia about system of particles on another particle
I of mass m placed at the mid point of
t h e diam et er is ‘I 1’. The ratio any side?
I1 is:

4 8 2 1) 
2 GMm
3 l

1 2 3 
1) 2)
3 3

5 8 2 2) 
2 GMm
3 l

1 2 3 
3) 4)
3 5
43. The rod AB of length l and mass m can
rotate freely about A in a vertical plane. 3) 
2
3 GMm
l

1 2 3 
A point mass m is attached to the other
end of the rod and the system is
released from its horizontal position.
The initial angular acceleration is
4) 
2
3 GMm
l

1 2 3 
CHEMISTRY

46. At equilibrium the concentrations of


N2=3×10–3, O2=4×10–3 and NO=3×10–3
2g 4g in closed vessel at 800K. K C for the
1) 2) reaction N2(g)+O2(g)  2NO(g) is
3l l
1) 0.25 2) 0.75
9g 5g
3) 4)
8l 3l 3) 0.36 4) 1.25

44. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 47. For the re action 2NOCl(g)  2NO(g)  Cl2(g) ,
1 KC=4×10–6 at 1000K. KP for the reaction
of the acceleration due to gravity is (in bar)
6
on earth. If the ratio of densities of
1) 7.72×10–4 2) 1.56×10–3
earth  e  and moon  m  is
3) 2.21×102 4) 3.32×10–4
 e  5
   3 then radius of moon Rm in 48. KP for the reaction CO2 g  Cs  2CO g is 3
 m 
terms of Re will be: bar at 1000K. If initially PCO2  0.5 bar
only, the equilibrium partial pressure

1)
5
Re 2)
1
Re of CO is  33  5.74 
18 6
1) 0.32 bar 2) 0.16 bar
3 1
3) Re 4) Re 3) 0.68 bar 4) 0.98 bar
18 2 3
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

49. K C for the reaction 2A  B  C is 55. Name the compound


2×10 –3 . At a given time [A]=[B]=[C]
HOCH2(CH2)3CH2COCH3 is
=3×10–4M. The reaction
1) Attained equilibrium 1) 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one

2) Proceed in backward direction 2) 7-hydroxy 2-oxo-heptane


3) Proceed in forward direction 3) 7-oxo heptane-1-ol
4) Reaction qotient increases with time
and attain KC 4) 1-hydroxy heptane-6-one

50. Among the following, the one cannot 56. Correct order of atomic radii follows
acts as Lewis acid is
1) B<Al<Ga<In 2) B<Ga<Al<In
1) BCl3 2) H+
3) Al<Ga<In<B 4) B<Al<In<Ga
3) CCl4 4) SiCl4
51. pH of 1.0×10–8M solution of HCl is 57. Difference between boiling point and
melting poi nt is highest for the
1) 7.02 2) 6.02 element among the following
3) 6.98 4) 5.32
1) B 2) Ga
52. The pH of 0.1M monobasic acid HA is
4.5. Conc. of A– in the solution is 3) In 4) Tl

1) 9.26×10–5 2) 3.16×10–5
Hybridisation of Al in  Al(H2O)6 
3
58. is
3) 3.33×10–3 4) 6.32×10–6
53. Total number of H atoms in 1.2 mol 1) sp3 2) d2sp3
icosane is
3) sp3d 4) sp3d2
1) 40.8 NA 2) 60.2 NA
59. Liberation of H 2 gas is not observed
3) 42 NA 4) 50.4 NA during
54. IUPAC name of the compound
1) Action of NaBH4 on I2

NO2 2) BF3 reacts with NaH

3) B2H6 reacts with H2O

4) Heating B2H6 with NH3


Cl
60. Boron atoms in diborane is
CH3
1) Both sp3
1) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitro benzene
2) sp2 and sp3
2) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitro benzene
3) sp3, sp3d
3) 1-chloro-2-methyl-5-nitro benzene
4) 2-chloro-3-nitro toluene 4) Both sp2
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
61. During the production of silicones by 66. The best route for the preparation of
polymerisation, chain length of the BeF2 is
polymer can be controlled by adding
1) Reacting F 2 with Be O in inert
1) (CH3)2SiCl2 atmosphere

2) (CH3)3SiCl 2) Reacting BeCl2 with NaF

3) (CH3)SiCl3 3) Thermal decomposition of (NH4)2BeF4

4) (CH3)4Si 4) Action of BeCl2 on HBF4

62. B-F bond length in BF3 is 130 pm. B-F 67. 2L of an ideal gas at a pressure of
bond length in BF4 is expected to be 10atm e xpands isothe rmally i nto
vaccum until its total volume is 10L.
1) 143 pm 2) 132 pm Amount heat absorbed is

3) 128 pm 4) 114 pm 1) Zero 2) 22.2 J

63. Ionic mobility in aqueous solution 3) 4.16 J 4) 41.6J


follows the order
68. Molar e nthalpy change for
1) Li+<Cs+<Rb+<K+<Na+ vapourisation of 1 mol of water at
1 bar and 100oC is 41 kJ mol–1. The
2) Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+ change in internal energy is (assuming
water vapour is an ideal gas)
3) Li+<Na+<K+<Rb+<Cs+
1) 37.9 kJ mol–1 2) 43.2 kJ mol–1
4) Na+<K+<Rb+<Cs+<Li+
3) 42.7 kJ mol–1 4) 53.2 kJ mol–1
64. Oxidation state of K in KO2 is
69. Considering the stre ng th of
1) +4 2) +1 intermolecular interaction, standard
enthalpy of vapourisation expected to
1 follows the order
3)  4) +2
2
1) HCl>NH3>H2O>C6H6
65. Stability of carbonates increases in the 2) H2O>C6H6>NH3>HCl
order
3) NH3>HCl>H2O>C6H6
1) BeCO 3 , MgCO 3 , CaCO 3 , SrCO 3 ,
BaCO3 4) H2O>NH3>HCl>C6H6
2) BaCO 3 , SrCO 3 , CaCO 3 , MgCO 3 , 70. Standard enthalpy of combustion of
BeCO 3 C6H6(l), C(s) and H2(g) respectively –3267,
–393 and –286 kJ mol –1 . Standard
3) BeCO 3 , BaCO 3 , SrCO 3 , CaCO 3 , enthalpy formation of C6H6(l) is
MgCO3
1) –51 kJ mol–1 2) 32 kJ mol–1
4) MgCO 3 , CaCO 3 , SrCO 3 , BaCO 3 ,
BeCO 3 3) 256 kJ mol–1 4) 51 kJ mol–1
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
71. For oxidation of iron 76. To get 1000mL O2 at OoC and 1 atm
pressure minimum volume of 1.786M
4Fes  3O2 g  2Fe2O3s , entropy change is H2O2 needed is
–550 J K–1 mol –1 at 300 K. If  r H for 1) 20 mL 2) 25 mL
this reaction is –1648 kJ mol–1, STotal
for this reaction is 3) 50 mL 4) 73.6 mL

1) 3983 JK-1mol–1 2) 292 JK-1mol–1 77. D2O2 can be prepared by the action of
D2O with
3) –426 JK-1mol–1 4) 4943 JK-1mol–1
1) CaC2 2) Al4C3
72. A reaction A  B  C  D  heat is found to 3) SO3 4) K2S2O8
have a positive entropy change. The
reaction will be 78. Disproportionation of ClO2 can be better
1) Possible at high temperature represented as

2) Possible at low temperature 1) 2ClO2  ClO 3  Cl 

3) Possible at any temperature 2) 6ClO2  4ClO3  2Cl 


4) Possible at no temperature
3) 5ClO2  3ClO3  2Cl  OH
73. Among the following electron rich
hydride is 4) OH  4ClO2  3ClO3  Cl 

1) B2H6 2) H2O 79. NO 2 undergo disproportionation in


3) CH4 4) SnH4 alkaline medium to produce NO2 and
NO3 . The mole ratio of NO2 and NO3
74. Hydrides of the metal that retains the produced will be
lattice of the parent metal is
1) 1:1 2) 1:3
1) Ce 2) Ti
3) 2:1 4) 1:2
3) V 4) Mn
80. Indicator used in dichromatic titration
75. Cement clinker mixed with 2-3% by is
weight of gypsum to form cement.
Purpose of gypsum is 1) Phenolphthalein

1) To slow down the process of setting 2) Self indicator


of cement
3) Diphenylamine
2) To accelerate the process of setting
of cement 4) Gention violet

3) To hydrate readily to help ge l 81. F– can be oxidised to F2 by


formation
1) XeO24 2) NO3
4) Create reinforcement between
cement layers 3) S4O62 4) XeO64
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
82. Gaseous pollutants which leads to 87. Conductivity of 0.1M KCl solution is
stiffness of fl ower buds which found to be 1.29 Sm–1 in a particular
eventually fall off from plants is conductivity cell at 25 o C. The
conductivity of 0.01M KCl solution in
1) NO2 2) SO2 the same conductivity cell at the same
temperature is expected to be
3) Hydrocarbon 4) O3
1) 0.14 S m–1
83. Symptoms like weak eyesight,
nervousness, and cardiac vascular 2) 1.3 S m–1
disorder suggests
3) 1.40 S m–1
1) Heavy metal poisoning
4) 1.51 S m–1
2) Oxygen deficiency in blood

3) Vit. A deficiency 88. 0m value of NaCl = 126.4, HCl = 425.9,


4) Victim usually take water of higher NaOH=249.2 S cm2 mol–1. 0m value of
Cd content
H2O is
84. Sodium chlorate and sodium arsinite
comes under the class of 1) 597.3 S m–1

1) Insecticide 2) Pesticide 2) 456.2 S m–1

3) Herbicide 4) Fungicide 3) 548.7 S m–1

85. Yves Chauvin, Robert H. Grubbs and 4) 311.7 S m–1


Richard R . Schrock won Nobel prize
for 89. Electrolyte present in fully charged
lead storage battery is
1) Development of the metathesis
method in organic synthesis 1) 28% H2SO4

2) Explaining ozone hole formation over 2) 38% H2SO4


Antartica
3) 52% H2SO4
3) Synthesis of biodegradable polymers
4) 63% H2SO4
4) Production of organic compounds like
ethanal by one step oxidation of alkene 90. pH of the sol uti on remai ns same
by using Pd (II)/Cu(II) catalyst during the electrolysis of aqueous
solution of
86. Ecell of the reaction
1) Na2SO4
Mg Mg 2 (0.2M) Ag  (0.0001M) Ag will be
2) KCl
(Eo=3.17V)

1) 3.19V 2) 2.76V 3) CuSO4

3) 2.95V 4) 3.22V 4) CaCl2


FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
BIOLOGY 95. Which one of the following is not a
polymeric substance.
91. The check point in cell cycle plays an
important role in : 1) Proteins 2) Nucleic acid

1) Repairing DNA damage 3) Lipid 4) Cellulose

2) Formation of cell organelles 96. How many ATP are produced when
product of one Kreb’s cycle oxidised
3) Assessing DNA damage through ETS.

4) Spindle fibre formation 1) 22 2) 24


92. The translocation of sugar from source 3) 9 4) 11
to sink is defined as pressure flow
hypothesis because : 97. Temperature affect more in :
1) Translocation of solute is facilitated 1) Light reaction than dark reaction
through living phloem sieve tube cells
2) Dark reaction than light reaction
2) At source region the lose of solute
produce high water potential in phloem 3) Cyclic photophosphorylation than
non cyclic
3) At source region gain of solute
produce high water potential in phloem 4) Non cycl ic than cyclic
photophosphorylation
4) Both 1 and 3

93. C 4 plants have better productivity 98. Identify these Amino acids .........
because :
COOH
COOH
1) C 4 plants respond to high
temperature
H C NH2
2) C4 plant can absorb more light H C NH2
a) b)
3) RuBisCo is kept away from the
availability of O 2 . So no photo- H CH3
respiration. COOH
4) All of the above
H C NH2
94. The conversion of 1.3 bis-
phosphoglyceric acid to 3-phospho- c)
glyceric acid is an energy yielding step.
The energy is trapped in the form of : CH2OH
1) NADP
1) a) Glycine b) Alanine c) Serine
2) ATP
2) a) Glycine b) Luecine c) Serine
3) FADH2
3) a) Cysteine b) Alanine c) Isoluccine
4) GTP
4) a) Thyrosineb) Cysteinec) Serine
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

99. Match the following in correct 102. Choose the correct option, for the
sequence : chloroplast of bundle sheath from the
following :

Column I Column II Column III 1) They possess thylakoid and grana


1. Protein p) optimal activity at
organisation.
a) Lysosomes
synthesis Acidic pH
2) They have grana organization
2. Hydrolytic q) Testes, ovary and
b) Ribosome
activity sebaceous gland
3) They do not possess thylakoid
3. Formation of
c) Smooth ER r) Enriched with RNA
spindle
4) They do not show grana organisation
4. Steroid s) Basal body of cilia
d) Centriole
synthesis and flagella
103. In the conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate
to phosphoenolpyruvate which one of
the following happened :
1) a-1-p, b-3-r, c-4-q, d-3-s
1) H2O molecule and ATP are formed
2) a-3-r, b-2-p, c-1-q, d-4-s
2) H2O molecule only released
3) a-2-p, b-1-r, c-4-q, d-3-s
3) H2O molecule and NADH + H+ formed
4) a-4-s, b-2-r, c-1-q, d-3-q 4) H2O, ATP and NADH + H+ are formed

100. Which of the following statement is 104. Cell wall polysaccharide synthesis,
correct? aerosome formation and glycosidation
of proteins are the function of :
1) Centrosome undergo duplication
during interphase 1) Lysosome

2) Golgi complex
2) Each centrosomes radiates out
microtubules called mitotic apparatus. 3) Peroxisome

3) Two mitotic apparatus together with 4) Endoplasmic reticulum


spindle fibres form asters
105. In whi ch stage of meiosis I the
4) All are correct homologous chromosomes separate
except at the site of crossovers.
101. If the external solution balances the
1) Pachytene 2) Anaphase I
osmotic pressure of the cytoplasm. It
is said to be : 3) Diplotene 4) Zygotene

1) Hypertonic 106. The terminal accepter of electron in


noncyclic transport of electron during
2) Hypotonic light reaction is :

3) Isotonic 1) PS I 2) Oxygen

3) Ferredoxin 4) NADP+
4) Either 1 or 3
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

107. In anaerobic respiration acetaldehyde 110. The hydrogen carrier that remove
is reduced to form alcohol by utilising proton from stroma to luman while
NADH2 obtained from : transporting an electron from PS II to
PS I.
1) Terminal oxydation
2) Glycolysis 1) Plastocyanin 2) NADP+

3) Kreb cycle 3) PQB 4) Ferredoxin


4) Link reaction 111. Protoplasmic respiration cannot be
108. The correct statements are : continued for long because :
a) Ions are absorbed from the soil by 1) It depletes protoplasm of structural
both passive and active transport. and functional proteins
b) Some ions move in to the epidermal
2) It liberates toxic ammonia
cells passively through the uptake of
water by osmosis. 3) Proteins hydrolysed to form organic
c) The active uptake of ion is partially acids
responsible for the water potential
gradient in root, that is why water take 4) Both 1 and 2
up through osmosis.
112. Which is not correct re garding
d) Soil solution has high osmotic Anaerobic respiration :
pressure and low water potential
A) The me chanism of anae robi c
1) All are correct respi ration is similar to common
2) a, b, d are correct pathway of aerobic respiration up to
glycolysis
3) a, c, d are correct
B) The type of organism or tissue
4) a, b and c only correct
involved is not a matter in the product
formation of anaerobic respiration

C) During the re du ction of ethyl


alcohol by alcohol dehydroge nase
hydroge n is obtained from wate r
109. present in it

D) Accumulation of alcohol beyond a


certain limit kill microbe so higher
The above graph explains concentration of alcohol in beverage
is achieved through distillation
1) Effect of temperature on velocity of
reaction 1) A and C
2) Effect of pH on velocity of reaction 2) B and C
3) Effect of product concentration in
velocity of reaction 3) A and D

4) Effect of substrate concentration on 4) B and D


velocity of reaction
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

113. The mobile carrier of electron, that 118. Identify 1, 2, 3, 4 respectively


transfer electron between complex III
and IV is :

1) Cytochrome - b

2) Cytochrome - f

3) Cytochrome - c

4) Cytochrome - a
1) Vmax, 1/2Vmax, Km, S
114. During the conversion of fumarate to
mal ate with the help of e nzyme 2) 1/2Vmax, Vmax, Km, S
fumarase one molecule of :
3) S, Vmax, 1/2Vmax, Km
1) Co-A is added
4) Km, 1/2Vmax, Vmax, S
2) H2O is added
119. Find the wrong statement from the
3) H2O is removed
following :
4) NH3 is added
1) Cellulose, starch and glycogen are
115. Site of link reaction is : homopolymers of glucose

1) Cytoplasm 2) Starch consist of a mixture of


amylose and amylopectin
2) F1 part of oxysome
3) Chitin is present in the exoskeleton
3) Inner mitochondrial membrane of arthropods and fungal cell wall
4) Mitochondrial matrix
4) Cellulose has helical secondary
116. If the RQ value is more than one. The structure therefore can hold iodine
respiratory substrate is :
120. Breaking of seed coat during seed
1) Organic acid 2) Carbohydrate germination is due to :

3) Lipid 4) Proteins 1) Osmotic pressure

117. Match the following : 2) Respiration

a) Insulin 1. Transporting protein 3) Imbibition


b) Antibody 2. Enzyme 4) Transpiration pull
c) Trypsin 3. Protective protein 121. When photosynthesis, takesplace the
d) GLUT-4 4. Regulatory protein luman of grana thylakoid is in :

1) Acidic pH
abcd abcd
1) 2) 2) Alkaline pH
3421 4321
3) Slightly alkaline
abcd abcd
3) 4)
2134 4312 4) Neutral
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

122. How many of the following statements 126. Which i s correct about the new
are true : daughter cell that are formed after
meiosis I :
A) Rate of transpiration is faster in blue
light than red light 1) Same amount of DNA and
chromosome as in parental cell
B) Cytokinin can induce opening of 2) Same the amount of DNA and double
stomata the number of chromosome of a haploid
gamete
C) The rate of transpiration decreases
with increase in root shoot ratio 3) Twice the amount of DNA and same
the number of chromosome of a haploid
D) Stomata opens at low CO 2 gamete
concentration
4) Four times the amount of DNA of a
1) Two 2) Three haploid gamete
127. In an enzyme bottle, it is labelled as
3) Four 4) One
low Km and high turn over. What does
123. Lecithin is rich in which one of the it mean :
organic compound : 1) Less efficient enzyme, more sub-
strate required
1) Glycolipid
2) Highly efficient enzyme
2) Glycoprotein
3) Cheap enzyme
3) Phospholipid 4) Can be used for various substrate
4) Phosphoprotein 128. Two chambers A and B separated by
semipermeable membrane. Chamber A
124. Non membranous nucleoplasmic contain sucrose solution and chamber
structures in nucleus are the site for B contain NaCl solution the movement
the active synthesis of : of H2O is from :

1) Protein 1) Chamber A to B
2) Chamber B to A
2) mRNA
3) First from A to B then B to A
3) tRNA
4) No net movement of H2O
4) rRNA 129. A Scientist cultured cladophora in a
suspension of Azotobacter and
125. A cell organelle which is abundantly
luminated the culture by splitting light
present in secretory cells :
through a prism. He observed that
1) Lysosome bacteria accumulated mainly in the
region of :
2) Mitochondria 1) Red and Violet
3) Golgi complex 2) Blue and Red

4) Endoplasmic reticulum 3) Violet and Green


4) Green and Blue
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

130. Which of the following are true 133. The enzyme recombinase is required
statements. in which stage of meiosis :

A) In chloroplast LHC comprises


1) Diplotene
antenna and core pigments

B) Bacterial chlorophyll contain more 2) Diakinesis


hydrogen than chlorophyll a
3) Pachytene
C) Carotenoids are more stable than
chlorophylls
4) Zygotene and Leptotene
D) NADP reductase found in the
membrane of both grana and stroma 134. During which phase(s) of cell cycle,
lamellae amount of DNA in a cell remain 4C
level if the initial amount of DNA is
1) All except B 2C.

2) All except D
1) G1 and S
3) All except B & D
2) In G2 only
4) All except C & D

131. Arrange the following events of meiosis 3) In G2 and M only


in correct sequence :
4) In G0 and M only
a) Crossing over
135. In root apoplastic pathway of water
b) Synapsis
transport is through :
c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
1) Cell wall only
d) Disappearance of nucleolus
2) Intercellular space only
1) b, a, d, c

2) b, a, c, d 3) Through plasmodesmata

3) a, c, d, b 4) Through cell wall and intercellular


space
4) b, d, a, c

132. Root pressure developed due to : 136. In photorespiration glycine passes from:

1) High osmotic pressure of soil solution 1) Mitochondria to peroxisome


2) Active absorption of nutrient ions
2) Peroxisome to chloroplast
3) Passive absorption nutrient ions
3) Peroxisome to Mitochondria
4) Increase in transpiration
4) Chloroplast to Mitochondria
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
137. The reducing power generated during 141. Which of the following statement is
light reaction is used during the correct?
formation of : 1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle
is impermeable to water
1) 3-PGA from RuBP
2) The descending limb of loop of Henle
2) 3-PGAL from RuBP is impermeable to water
3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle
3) 3-PGAL from 3-PGA is permeable to water
4) The descending limb of loop Henle
4) RuBP from 3-PGAL is permeable to electrolytes.
138. Che miosmotic hy pothesis of ATP 142. Which of the following causes an
synthesis in chloroplast is based on : increase in sodium reabsorption in the
distal convoluted tubule?
1) Accumulation of electron in luman 1) Increase in aldosterone levels
2) Increase in Atrial Natriuretic Factor
2) Development of proton gradient
level
3) Low pH of luman 3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone
4) Permeability of membrane except CF0 levels
- CF1 region
143. Figure shows human urinary system
with structures labelled A-D. Select
139. O nly step in Kreb’s cycle where
option, which correctly identifies them
oxidative decarboxylation occurs is in
and gives their characteristics and/ of
the conversion of :
functions.
1) Isocitrate  oxalosuccinic acid
2)   ketoglutaric acid  succinyl Co. A

3) Pyruvate  Acetyl Co.A

4) Oxalosuccinic acid 

  ketoglutaric acid

140. Which of the following respiratory 1) A - Adrenal gland -located at the


substrate requires highest number of anterior part of kidne y. Secre te
O2 molecule for its complete oxidation: catecholamines, which stimulate
glycogen break down.
1) Tripalmitin 2) B - Pelvis -broad funnel shaped space
inner to hilum, directly connected to
2) Oxalic acid loops of Henle

3) Glucose 3) C - Medulla -inner zone of kidney


and contains complete nephron
4) Tartaric acid 4) D - Cortex-outer part of kidney and
do not contain any part of nephrons
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 19 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
144. The maximum amount of electrolytes 147. A person who is on a long hunger strike
and water (70-80%) from the and is surviving only on water, will
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in have
which part of the nephron?
1) more glucose in his urine
1) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
2) less amino acids in his urine
2) Distal convoluted tubule

3) Proximal convoluted tubule 3) more glucose in his blood

4) Descending limb of loop of Henle 4) less urea in his urine


145. Which one of the following correctly 148. If Henle’s loop we re absent from
explains the function of a specific part
mammalian nephron, which of the
of a human nephron?
following is to be expected?

1) The urine will be more concentrated


Most reabsorption of
Henle's the major 2) The urine will be more dilute
1
loop substances from the
glomerular filtrate 3) There will be no urine formation

4) There will be hardly any change in


Distal Reabsorption of ions
the quality and quantity of uri ne
2 convolute into the surrounding formed
d tubule blood capillaries
149. The ability of the vertebrates to produce
concentrated (hyperosmotic) urine
Carries the blood
usually depends upon the
Afferent away
3
arteriole from the glomerulus
1) area of Bowman’s capsule epithelium
towards renal vein
2) length of Henle’s loop
Create minute
spaces 3) length of the proximal convoluted
(slit pores) for the tubule
4 Podocytes
filtration of blood
into the Bowman's 4) capillary network forming
capsule glomerulus

150. Glucose is taken back from glomerular


146. Uri cotelic mode of passing out filtrate through
nitrogenous wastes is found in
1) active transport
1) birds and annelids
2) passive transport
2) amphibians and reptiles

3) insects and amphibians 3) osmosis

4) reptiles and birds 4) diffusion


FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
151. Most reabsorption of useful substances 155. Which statement is correct for muscle
from glomerular filtrate occurs in contraction?
1) collecting tube
1) Length of H-zone decreases
2) loop of Henle
3) Proximal convoluted tubule 2) Length of I-band remains constant
4) distal convoluted tubule
3) Length of I-band increases
152. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only
‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option 4) Length of two Z-line increases
that correctly represents values of X
and Y and provides their explanation. 156. Lack of relaxation between successive
stimuli in sustained muscle
contraction is known as
1) X =12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral 1) fatigue
column and ventrally to
the sternum.
2) tetany
2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral
3) tonus
column and sternum on
the two ends.
4) spasm
3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
dorsally to vertebral
157. Which of the following is not a function
column but are free on
ventral side.
of the skeletal system?
4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
1) Production of erythrocytes
attached to vertebral
column, but are free on
ventral side. 2) Storage of minerals

3) Production of body heat


153. Name the ion respo nsible for
unmasking of active sites for myosin 4) locomotion
for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction 158. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre
is due to
1) Calcium
2) Magnesium 1) the absence of myofibrils in the
3) Sodium central portion of A-band

4) Potassium 2) the central gap between myosin


154. Which of the following joints would filaments in the A-band
allow no movement?
3) the central gap between actin
1) Fibrous joint
filaments extending through myosin
2) Catilaginous joint filaments in the A-band
3) Synovial joint
4) extension of myosin filaments in the
4) Ball and socket joint central portion of the A-band
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 21 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
159. Which among the following statements 162. The nerve centres which control the
about myofilaments is true? body temperature and the urge for
eating are contained in
1) Two filamentous actins wound to
each other to form the back bone of 1) hypothalamus
thick filament.

2) Each troponin subunit possess a 2) pons


binding site for myosin
3) cerebellum
3) Tropomyosin has a binding site for
Ca++ 4) thalamus

4) Head and short arm of meromyo- 163. Which one of the following is the
sins projects outward at regular dis- correct difference between rod cells
tance and angle to form cross arms. and cone cells of our retina?

160. A diagram showing axon terminal and


synapse is given. Identify correctly at Rod cells Cone Cells
least two of A-D 1 Visual acuity High Low

Visual
2 pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin
contained

Colour
vision and
Overall Vision in poor
3 detailed
function light
vision in
brigth light

More Evenly
1) A- Receptor, C- Synaptic vesicles concentrated distributed
4 Distribution
in centre of all over
2) B- Synaptic connection, D- K+ retina retina

3) A - Neurotransmitter, B-Synaptic
cleft 164. Which one of the following statements
4) C-Neurotransmitter, D- Ca2+ is correct?

161. When a neuron is in resting state, i.e., 1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity,
not conducting any impulse , the axonal but not vice versa
membrane is
2) Endocrine glands regulate neural
1) equally permeable to both Na+ and activity and nervous system regulates
K+ ions endocrine glands
2) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
3) neither hormones control neural
3) Comparatively more permeable to K+ activity nor the neurons control
ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ endocrine activity.
ions
4) Endocrine glands regulate neural
4) comparatively more permeable to Na+ activity, but not vice versa.
ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 22 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
165. Parkinson’s disease (characterised by 169. Select the incorrect statement-
tremors and progressive rigidity of
limbs) is caused by degeneration of 1) Endolymph is present in scala
brain neurons that are involved in media of cochlea.
movement control and make use of
neurotransmitter 2) Organ of Corti’ has a sensory
tectorial membrane.
1) acetylcholine
3) Tympanum is the site of conver-
2) norepinephrine sion of sound waves into mechanical
energy.
3) dopamine
4) The rods are totally absent in blind
4) GABA spot and macula lutea.

170. The only coloured visual portion of eye


166. Function of iris is to
is :-

1) move lens forward and backward 1) Choroid layer

2) refract light rays 2) Sclera

3) bring about movements of eyelids 3) Iris

4) alter the size of pupil 4) Retina

167. The organ of corti is located within the 171. Which one of the following hormones
is a modified amino acid?
1) Middle ear 1) Epinephrine

2) Cochlea 2) Progesterone

3) Eustachian tube 3) Prostaglandin

4) Semicircular canal 4) Oestrogen

172. The hormone which regulates the


168. Which part of the ear has endolymph?
basal metabolism in our body is
secreted from
1) Semicircular canal
1) pituitary
2) Cochlear canal
2) thyroid
3) Vestibular canal
3) adrenal cortex
4) Scala tympani.
4) pancreas
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 23 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
173. According to the accepted concept of 177. Which of the following is not a function
hormone action, if receptor molecules of Parathyroid hormone?
are removed from target organs, then
the target organ will 1) Increases the resorption of Ca and
phosphate ions from Bones
1) not respond to the hormone
2) Increases the reabsorption of
phosphate and calcium ions from
2) continue to respond to hormone
Kidney
without any difference
3) Increases the absorption of calcium
3) continue to respond to the hormone and phosphate ions from G.I. tract
but in the opposite way
4) Increases the urinary release of
4) continue to respond to the hormone phosphate
but will require higher concentration
178. Adrenaline and nor adre naline
174. Which of the following endocrine gland prepares our body to tide o ver
stores its secretion in the extracellular emergency conditions by
space before discharging into the
blood? 1) Increasing gluconeogenesis
2) Decreasing pumping action of heart
1) Parathyroid and increasing respiratory rate
2) Thymus 3) Decreasing oxygen consumption and
increasing glycogenesis
3) Pancreas
4) Increasing gluconeogenesis,
4) Thyroid pumping action of heart and respiratory
rate
175. Which hormone possess anti-insulin
effect? 179. Increase in the excitability of muscles
leading to sustained contraction of the
1) Cortisol muscles of larynx, face, hand and feet
(carpo-pedal spasms) is due to:
2) Calcitonin
1) Hyperactivity of thyroid
3) Oxytocin
2) Hyperactivity of parathyroid
4) Aldosterone
3) Hypoactivity of thyroid
176. Somatostatin secreted by Delta cells
4) Hypoactivity of parathyroid
of pancreas will
180. Which of the following gland is derived
1) Inhibits the secretion of insulin from the mesoderm ?
2) Stimulates the secretion of Glucagon 1) Gonads
3) Inhibits the secretion of Both insulin 2) Pituitary gland
and glucagon
3) Pancreas
4) Stimulates the secretion of both
insulin and glucagon 4) Thymus
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

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PHYSICS

 L3  L2  LT 1   T    L2 T  ; 2    3 ;     0



1. 2

; T   ML3   MT 
a b c
2. 3 t  d
a
2
r
b
2
s
c
2
2
L  2 2 2
solving b = 3

3. 2 RC has the dimensions of time (T) v has the dimensions of emf which has the
dI
dimensions L
dt

0 A  v   c    v  Q
4. 4 c Hence   0L   c ;   0L t    t   t   I (Q=cv)
d

5. 2

6. 4

2
 u 3u2
   u2
 2g  AO  ; AO 
8g
2

2
U u2
At B,    u2
 2g  OB  , BO 
18g
3

2 2
 u 15u
At C ,    u  2g  OC  ; OC 
2

4 32g

AB 20
AB=OB-OA; BC = OC-OB 
BC 7

dx dx
7. 1 v   x ; dt   x ; x  dt

x t
dx

0 x 0
 dt ; xt 2
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

8. 2 v=v0+gt+ft2

dx g f
 v 0  gt  ft 2 ; dx=(v0+gt+ft2)dt; x   dx ; x  v0  
dt 2 3

9. 4 u1=u+at1
u2=u+a(t1+t2)
u3=u+a(t1+t2+t3)

u  u1 1 u  u2 1
v1   u  at1 ; v 2  1  u  at1  at2
2 2 2 2

u2  u3 1 1
v3   u  at1  at 2  at3 ; v1  v2   a(t1  t2 )
2 2 2

1
v2  v3   a  t 2  t3 
2

dv t 2
10. 2 a  t   ;
dt
 t   ;  dv  tdt   dt ; v  2
 t

11. 2

H 1 2 H 1
12. 2  gt ;  v0t  gt 2 ; v0t  gt 2 ; t  v 0 ;
2 2 2 2 g

H 1 v2
 g  02 ; v 0  gH
2 2 g

cos  
ˆi  ˆj  kˆ   ˆi 
1
13. 1
i  12  12 
1
2 2
1 3

14. 2

vs2  v2  v2w ; v w  4m /s

15. 3

u2 sin2  1
16. 4 h ; h
2g g
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

17. 2

18. 1 v  32  42  5ms 1

tan   4 , sin  = 4
3 5

u2 sin2 
h
2g

u2 sin2 
19. 2 hmax 
2g

At the highest point, speed is v x  ucos ; v 2x  u2 cos2 

hmax
The speed of the body at half of maximum height is v  u  2g   u2  ghmax
2 2

Given that v x  v  2
3

2  2 u2 sin2  
u2 cos 2   u  
3 2 

3cos 2   2  sin2 

1 1
sin2   ; sin   ;
2   45
o
2

2d
20. 1 t
g sin 

2d
nt 
g  sin   uk cos  

d dm
21. 1 Ma   mv  ; Ma  v
dt dt

dm
v
a dt  5  1  2.5m /s 2
M 2

22. 3 ma  mg  T
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

23. 3

mg
N  mg; p  mg; p 

dm
24. 1 Fu l; 1N=105 dyns
dt

25. 2 v  rg

w=KE; g  x  p
2
26. 3
2m

–ve indicates friction decreases KE

2
1 s m 
s  2 ; 1   2 
m s2  m1 

27. 2

N  F sin   mg ; N  mg  F sin 

f  N  (mg  Fsin)  Fcos 

mg  F sin   F cos 

mg  F  cos    sin  

mg
F ;
cos    sin  w  Fd cos 

28. 1 a  g ; v=u+at

v0 v0
 v 0  gt 0 ;  
2 2gt0
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

29. 3 P=FV=mav;

P dv P P
a ; V  ; V dv  ds ;
2

mv ds mv m

v2
 v3  P v3  v13 P
 3   m s; 2  s
  v1 3 m

m 3
s  v 2  v13 
3p 

30. 1 L  I =constant; vA=vC

vA=vC; IA A  I12

rA A  rc C ; rc  3rA

31. 4 m1r1=m2r2

mR 3m
 r2  0 ; r2  R
4 2 4 6

2 3
32. 1 mR 2  mr2
5 2

M
G   m
GMm 8
   2
GMm
F1  F2 
 
33. 2 2 ;
 2R 
2
(2R) 3R
2

GM 4 R 3 4
34. 1 g  G   GR
R2 3 R2 3

2
GMm  2  4 2 5 2
35. 2 3
 mR2  mR    ; T 
2 5
R ; T2  R 2
R 2  T  GN

l GM R 2l
36. 3 T  2 ;g  2 ; T  2
g R GM

Angular momentum L   m cos 450  h



37. 4

 2 sin 2 45  m   2 sin 2 45 m 3
Where h  ; L    
2g  2 2g 4 2g
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

38. 3 Impulse =  Fdt  Area under graph

 Total impulse from 4s to 16s = Area ABCD = 5 × 10–3 Ns

T1 5
39. 4 T1 = (12 + 3) a = 15a ; T2 = 3a  
T2 1

40. 1
41. 1
42. 2
43. 3
44. 1
45. 2
CHEMISTRY

32
46. 2 KC   0.75
34

47. 4 KP= 4×10–6×0.0831×1000=3.32×10–4

3  33
48. 1 Solving 4p2=1.5 – 3P; P 
8

49. 2 QC>KC
50. 3 No vacant d-orbital
51. 3 Very close to 7

52. 2 [H+] = antilog 5.5   A  

53. 4 Icosane is IUPAC name of C20H42


54. 1 Refer NCERT
55. 1 Refer NCERT
56. 2 Refer NCERT
57. 2 That is why Ga used in high temperature thermometer
58. 4 That is why Ga used in high temperature thermometer
59. 2 Refer NCERT
60. 1 Refer NCERT
61. 2 Refer NCERT
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
62. 1 In BF3 there B-F double bond character due to back bonding
63. 3 Smaller the size higher the hydration
64. 2 Refer NCERT
65. 1 Down the group thermal stability increases
66. 3 Refer NCERT
67. 1 Refer NCERT
68. 1 Refer NCERT
69. 4 Refer NCERT

70. 4 Use Hess’s law Hr  H(R)  H(P)


(comb) comb

1648  103
71. 4 Stot  550 
300

72. 3 S   ve; H  ve

73. 2 Refer NCERT


74. 1 Refer NCERT
75. 1 Refer NCERT
76. 3 1.786×11.2=volume strength
77. 4 Refer NCERT
78. 2 Refer NCERT
79. 1 Refer NCERT
80. 3 Refer NCERT Diphenylamine
81. 4 Refer NCERT
82. 2 Refer NCERT
83. 2 Refer NCERT
84. 3 Refer NCERT
85. 1 Refer NCERT
86. 3 E=3.17–0.0295×7.3
87. 1 Refer NCERT
88. 3 Refer NCERT
89. 2 Refer NCERT
90. 1 Refer NCERT
FT20G/MOD/NEET/PCB/[A1] 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

BIOLOGY

91. 3 106. 4 121. 1 136. 3 151. 3 166. 4


92. 1 107. 2 122. 2 137. 3 152. 1 167. 2
93. 4 108. 4 123. 3 138. 2 153. 1 168. 1,2
94. 2 109. 4 124. 4 139. 2 154. 1 169. 2
95. 3 110. 3 125. 3 140. 1 155. 1 170. 3
96. 4 111. 4 126. 3 141. 1 156. 2 171. 1
97. 2 112. 2 127. 2 142. 1 157. 3 172. 2
98. 1 113. 3 128. 1 143. 1 158. 3 173. 1
99. 3 114. 2 129. 2 144. 3 159. 4 174. 4
100. 1 115. 4 130. 2 145. 4 160. 1 175. 1
101. 3 116. 1 131. 2 146. 4 161. 3 176. 3
102. 4 117. 2 132. 2 147. 4 162. 1 177. 2
103. 2 118. 1 133. 3 148. 2 163. 3 178. 4
104. 2 119. 4 134. 3 149. 2 164. 2 179. 4
105. 3 120. 3 135. 4 150. 1 165. 3 180. 1

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