MPL – AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

WRONG 1. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:

a.   The temperature of the hottest cylinder

b.   The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an
average reading
c.   The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d.   The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away
from each other divided by two

WRONG 2. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?

a.   To reduce wing bending at high speed

b.   To reduce wing twisting at low speed
c.   To reduce wing bending at low speed
d.  To reduce wing twist at high speed

WRONG 3. With an almost discharged battery there will be:

a.   A decrease of voltage with increasing load

b.   Increase of current with decrease of voltage
c.   Decrease of current with increasing load
d.   Increase of voltage with increasing load

4. What is a transistorised static inverter in a DC circuit

WRONG used for?

a.   Convert AC to DC
b.   Provide field excitation current
c.   Provide AC for instruments
d.   To supply power to the emergency lights

WRONG 5. A shuttle valve will:

a.   Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine

shut down
 b.   Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure
is reached
c.   Automatically switched to a more appropriate source
of hydraulic supply
d.   Operate on a rising pressure, higher than the Full
Flow relief valve

6. The flight deck warning on activation of an engine fire

WRONG detection system is:

a.   Warning bell

b.   Gear warning
c.   Warning light and warning bell
d.   Warning light

WRONG 7. A magneto is switched off by:

a.     Open circuiting the primary circuit

b.     Grounding the secondary circuit
c.     Open circuiting the secondary circuit
d.    Grounding the primary circuit

WRONG 8. With air in the hydraulic system, you would:

a.   Ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b.  Bleed the air out of the system
c.   Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d.   Expect it to operate faster

9. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will

WRONG indicate:

a.   Zero
b.  Climb
c.   Descent
d.   Reducing pressure

WRONG 10. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

 a.   Relieve excess pressure
b.  Store fluid under pressure
c.   Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d.   Remove air from the system

WRONG 11. A hand pump is usually fitted:

a.   For ground servicing purposes

b.   Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c.   Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d.   Retracting the gear after take-off

WRONG 12. The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a.   Oil or grease on the brake drums

b.   Worn stators
c.   The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d.  The brake pads overheating

WRONG 13. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a.   Pressurisation of the flight deck only

b.  The ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than
ambient pressure
c.   The passenger cabin on an airliner
d.   The ability to maintain a constant pressure differential
at all altitudes

WRONG 14. Maximum Differential pressure:

a.   Is the maximum authorized pressure difference

between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric
ambient pressure
b.   Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum
pump
c.   Is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d.   Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is
designed to carry
WRONG 15. A dump valve:

a.   Automatically opens when fuel is dumped

b.  Is controlled manually
c.   Is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
d.   Is controlled by the safety valve integrating line

WRONG 16. Negative differential is limited by:

a.   Dump valve

b.  Inward relief valve
c.   Outflow valve
d.   Safety valve

WRONG 17. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a.   The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure

regardless of aircraft height
b.   Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft
altimeter
c.   Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient
pressure
d.   Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to
MSL ISA conditions

18. With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should

WRONG be selected ‘ON’:

a.   Whenever the igniters are on

b.  Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air
contains visible moisture
c.   Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is
raining
d.   Whenever the ice detector system warning light
comes on

19. Which of the following instruments require inputs of

WRONG both pitot and static pressure?
 a.   Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed
indicator
b.   Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
c.   Airspeed indicator only
d.  Airspeed indicator and machmeter

20. An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a

WRONG 3° glidescope. What is its rate of descent?

a.   500 ft/min

b.   300 ft/min
c.   250 ft/min
d.   600 ft/min

WRONG 21. In what range is GPWS operative?

a.   2450 – 0 ft
b.   3000 – 50 ft
c.   2450 – 50 ft
d.   3000 – 0 ft

WRONG 22. The Altitude Alert system alerts the pilot:

a.   At decision height

b.   At the selected altitude
c.   When reference altitude equals the selected altitude
d.  When deviating from the selected altitude

WRONG 23. What controls cabin pressurisation?

a.   ECS pack mass flow controller

b.  Outflow valve
c.   Engine bleed valve
d.   Inflow valve
 24. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew
WRONG deck to wear an oxygen mask?

a.   25,000ft
b.   32,000ft
c.   37,000ft
d.  41,000ft

WRONG 25. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a.   Number of pressurisation cycles

b.   Number of explosive decompressions
c.   Number of landings only
d.   Number of cycles at maximum differential

WRONG 26. To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a.   The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the

rudder moves to the left
b.  The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the right
c.   The left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the left
d.   The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the
rudder moves to the left

27. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid

WRONG braking system is:

a.   Inoperative
b.   Operative
c.   Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d.   Operative only on the main wheel brakes

28. When would the negative differential limits be

WRONG reached/exceeded?

a.   Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin

altitude
b.   During ground pressure testing
c.   Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d.   When changing to manual operation
WRONG 29. In conditions of clear air turbulence:

a.   The standard VSI is more sensitive

b.  The IVSI is more sensitive
c.   Both type will react the same
d.   The vertical acceleration pump will not be affected

WRONG 30. Auto brakes are disengaged:

a.   When the ground spoilers are retracted

b.   When the speed falls below 20kts
c.   On the landing roll when the autopilot is disengaged
d.  By the pilot

WRONG 31. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:

a.   To control the cooling air shutters

b.   To monitor the oil temperature
c.   To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d.   To indicate cylinder head temperature

32. Hydraulic pressure typically used in the system of

WRONG large transport aircrafts is:

a.   2000 – 3000 psi

b.  3000 – 4000 psi
c.   1000 – 2000 psi
d.   4000 – 5000 psi

WRONG 33. How do aircraft spoilers work?

a.   Lower surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical

operation
b.   Lower surfaces only, symmetrical operation
c.   Upper surfaces only, symmetrical and asymmetrical
operation
d.   Upper surfaces only, symmetrical operation
WRONG 34. How do you control power in a jet engine?

a.   By controlling the mixture ratio

b.  By controlling the fuel flow
c.   By controlling the airflow
d.   By controlling the bleed valves

WRONG 35. Cabin compressors:

a.   Increase their flow in cruise conditions

b.   Decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c.   Increase their flow in proportion to increases of
altitude differential pressure and reduction in engine
RPM in order to maintain the mass flow

d.   Deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit

36. What does the white arc on a temperature scale

WRONG indicate?

a.   Never exceed

b.   Maximum start and acceleration temperature
c.   Normal operating procedure
d.   Minimum temperature

WRONG 37. CAS is IAS corrected for:

a.   Position and instrument error

b.   Instrument, pressure, and density error
c.   Relative density only
d.   Compressibility

38. On a turn and slip indicator, needle to the left and

WRONG ball to the right indicates:

a.   Turn to the right, not enough bank

b.   Turn to the left, too much bank
c.   Turn to the left, not enough bank
d.   Turn to the right, too much bank
 39. What will be the TAS if cruising altitude is 39,000 ft.,
WRONG temperature is ISA +5 and CAS 200 kt?

a.   388 kt
b.  380 kt
c.   364 kt
d.   370 kt

40. What type of autoland system would be required for

the landing to continue following a single failure below
WRONG alert height?

a.   Fail soft

b.   Fail passive
c.   Fail operational or fail active
d.   Land 2 system

NAV

WRONG 1. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m?

a.   UHF
b.  LF
c.   HF
d.   MF

2. What is the theoretical maximum range that an

aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a VOR beacon
WRONG situated at 900 feet above mean sea level?

a.   274nm
b.   255nm
c.   112nm
d.   224nm

3. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is

WRONG not zero:

a.   Are magnetic

b.   Are compass
c.   Are relative
 d.   Must have deviation applied before being used

4. The visual and aural indications obtained when

WRONG overflying an ILS middle marker are:

a.   Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized

blue light
b.   Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized
amber light
c.   Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber
light
d.   One letter in Morse with synchronized white light

WRONG 5. On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to:

a.   Initiate the required maneuver immediately

b.   Make a note of the details
c.   Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
d.   Do nothing until a TA is received

6. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses

WRONG received from radars other than DME because:

a.   Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate

b.   DME transmit and receives on different frequencies
c.   It will only accept the unique twin DME pulses
d.   DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators

7. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking

WRONG information from:

a.   Twin DME

 b.  VOR/DME
c.   Twin VOR
d.   Any of the above

WRONG 8. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

a.   On take-off
b.   At TOC
c.   At TOD
d.   On final approach

9. Which of the following are all errors associated with

WRONG ADF?

a.   Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

b.   Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
c.   Mountain effect, station interference, static
interference
d.   Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal
error

10. Which of the following would give the best indication

WRONG of speed?

a.   A VOR on the flight plan route

b.   A VOR off the flight plan route
c.   A DME on the flight plan route
d.   A DME off the flight plan route

11. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This

WRONG indicates that:

a.   The DME is unserviceable

b.  The DME is trying to lock onto range
c.   The DME is trying to lock onto frequency\
d.   The DME is receiving no response from the ground
station
 12. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS
WRONG approach is:

a.   White, blue, amber

b.   Blue, white, amber
c.   Blue, amber, white
d.   Amber, blue, white

WRONG 13. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:

a.   UHF
b.   VHF
c.   SHF
d.   VLF

WRONG 14. The airborne weather radar cannot detect:

a.   Snow
b.   Moderate rain
c.   Dry hail
d.   Wet hail

15. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within

WRONG the Promulgated Range (DOC) is:

a.   ± 3°
b.  ± 5°
c.   ± 6°
d.   ± 10°

16. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is

_____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of
WRONG rotation of the bearing signal is ______.

a.   AM, FM, anti-clockwise

 b.   AM, FM, clockwise
c.   FM, AM, anti-clockwise
d.   FM, AM, clockwise

17. The range indicated by DME is considered to be

WRONG accurate within:

a.   3% of range
b.   1.25% of range
c.   0.5nm
d.  ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

WRONG 18. DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

a.   The same receiver can be used for both aids

b.   The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the
required DME frequency
c.   Cockpit workload is reduced
d.   Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the
same site if required

19. The FMC navigational database can be accessed

WRONG by the pilots:

a.   To update the database

b.  To read information only
c.   To change information between the 28 day updates
d.   To change the information to meet the sector
requirements
 20. The correct format for the input of position 50N
WRONG 00527E to the CDU is:

a.   5000.0N00527.0E
b.   N50E00527
c.   N5000.0E00527.0
d.   N5000E00527

WRONG 21. A typical DME frequency is:

a.   1000 MHz

b.   1300 MHz
c.   1000 kHz
d.   1575 MHz

22. The ILS glidescope transmitter generates false

WRONG glidepaths because of:

a.   Ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter

b.   Back scattering of the signals
c.   Multiple lobes in the radiation pattern
d.   Reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the
transmitter

23. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

WRONG

a.   SSR
b.   DME
c.   GPS
d.  AWR

24. What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?

WRONG

a.   0°
b.  90°
c.   180°
d.   64°
WRONG 25. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

a.   Can be used in inhospitable terrain

b.   Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
c.   Has a selective access ability
d.   Is not affected by heavy precipitation

26. An aircraft at FL360 is 10nm plan range from a

WRONG DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:

a.   8nm
b.  11.7nm
c.   10nm
d.   13.6nm

27. At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error

WRONG of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?

a.   3.5nm
b.   1.75nm
c.   7nm
d.   1nm

WRONG 28. The IRS position can be updated:

a.   On the ground only

b.   At designated positions en-route and on the ground
c.   On the ground and overhead VOR/DME
d.   At selected waypoints and on the ground

29. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance

WRONG Systems:
 a.   RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance
confirmed by ATC
b.   RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of
the other aircraft’s proximity
c.   RAs must never be disregarded
d.  RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary

30. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance

Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that:
WRONG

a.   TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and

Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide
Traffic Advisories
b.   TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which
carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be
fitted to any aircraft.
c.   TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry
transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be
fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either
Mode C or Mode S.
d.   TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped
with EFIS

31. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a

VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to:
WRONG

a.   064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO

indication
b.  244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO
indication
c.   064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM
indication
d.   244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM
indication
 32. An aircraft is tracking away from an NDB on a track
of 023°(T). If the drift is 8° port and variation 10° west,
which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the correct
WRONG indications?

33. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station

at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated
2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude
WRONG at which contact is likely to be made?

a.   190ft
b.   1,378ft
 c.   36,100ft
d.   84,100ft

34. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at

60nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to
2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, at what
WRONG altitude are the tops of the cloud?

a.   6,000ft
b.  31,000ft
c.   43,000ft
d.   49,000ft

35. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are

correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both
are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the
WRONG RMI indicates:

a.   That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

b.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

c.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB
d.  That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°
radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

Fill the tables below.

Fuel
Fuel Flow Time
Used
1 h 20 187
140 litres/hr
min litres
2120 kg/hr 16 min 570 kg

3 h 25 400 Imp
117 Imp Gall
min Gall

2 h 15 19.6 US
8.7 US Gall/hr
min Gall
5 h 20 52,267
9800 lb/hr
min lb
2 h 33
165 kg/hr 420 kg
min
1 h 47
603 lb/hr 420 kg
min

Pressur
SAT
CAS (knots) e
(°C)
Altitude
140 10000 -10
175 5000 5
220 15000 -22
300 30000 -40
180 12500 -25
165 9000 7
163 11000 10
295 31000 -53
WRONG 1. On receipt of a TCAS RA, your action is to:

a.   Initiate the required maneuver immediately

b.   Make a note of the details
c.   Request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
d.   Do nothing until a TA is received

2. Which of the following are all errors associated with

WRONG ADF?

a.   Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect

b.   Night effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
c.   Mountain effect, station interference, static
interference
d.   Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal
error

3. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS

WRONG approach is:

a.   White, blue, amber

b.   Blue, white, amber
c.   Blue, amber, white
d.   Amber, blue, white

4. The range indicated by DME is considered to be

WRONG accurate within:

a.   3% of range
b.   1.25% of range
c.   0.5nm
d.  ±0.25nm ±1.25% of range

5. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by

WRONG the pilots:

a.   To update the database

b.  To read information only
c.   To change information between the 28 day updates
d.   To change the information to meet the sector
requirements
WRONG 6. A typical DME frequency is:

a.   1000 MHz

b.   1300 MHz
c.   1000 kHz
d.   1575 MHz

WRONG 7. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

a.   SSR
b.   DME
c.   GPS
d.  AWR

WRONG 8. The IRS position can be updated:

a.   On the ground only

b.   At designated positions en-route and on the ground
c.   On the ground and overhead VOR/DME
d.   At selected waypoints and on the ground

WRONG 9. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200m?

a.   UHF
b.  LF
c.   HF
d.   MF

WRONG 10. DME and VOR are “frequency paired” because:

a.   The same receiver can be used for both aids

b.   The VOR transmitter is easily converted to the
required DME frequency
c.   Cockpit workload is reduced
d.   Both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the
same site if required
 11. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is
_____, the bearing signal is ______ and the direction of
WRONG rotation of the bearing signal is ______.

a.   AM, FM, anti-clockwise

b.   AM, FM, clockwise
c.   FM, AM, anti-clockwise
d.   FM, AM, clockwise

WRONG 12. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:

a.   UHF
b.   VHF
c.   SHF
d.   VLF

13. Which of the following would give the best indication

WRONG of speed?

a.   A VOR on the flight plan route

b.   A VOR off the flight plan route
c.   A DME on the flight plan route
d.   A DME off the flight plan route

14. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking

WRONG information from:

a.   Twin DME

b.  VOR/DME
c.   Twin VOR
d.   Any of the above

15. The visual and aural indications obtained when

WRONG overflying an ILS middle marker are:

a.   Continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized

blue light
b.   Continuous high pitched dots with synchronized
amber light
c.   Alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber
light
d.   One letter in Morse with synchronized white light
 16. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is
WRONG not zero:

a.   Are magnetic

b.   Are compass
c.   Are relative
d.   Must have deviation applied before being used

WRONG 17. At the magnetic equator:

a.   Dip is zero

b.   Variation is zero
c.   Deviation is zero
d.   The isogonal is an agonic line

18. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on

the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on the
WRONG OBS and the CDI indications are:

a.   285, TO
b.   105, TO
c.   285, FROM
d.   105, FROM

19. An aircraft heading 017° (T) has a small island

showing on the AWR at 45nm range on the 60° left
azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you
WRONG should plot:

a.   Range 45nm and QTE 060 from the center of the
island
b.   Range 45nm and QTE 240 from the center of the
island
c.   Range 45nm and QTE 317 from the center of the
island
d.  Range 45nm and QTE 137 from the center of the
island

20. An aircraft wishes to track a VOR along the 274

radial. If variation is 10° W, what should be set on the
WRONG OBS?

a.   274
b.   264
c.   094
 d.   084

21. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the

064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right with a TO
indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows
a range of 45nm. Where is the aircraft in relation to the
WRONG required track?

a.   6nm right of track

b.   3nm right of track
c.   6nm left of track
d.   3nm left of track

22. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are

correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both
are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the
WRONG RMI indicates:

a.   That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

b.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

c.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

d.  That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°

radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB
 23. An aircraft bears 175°(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft
OBS is set to 002 and its heading is 359°(M), which
diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation
indicator? (Assume 1 dot = 2°)
WRONG

24. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This

indicates that:

a.   The DME is unserviceable

b.  The DME is trying to lock onto range
c.   The DME is trying to lock onto frequency
d.   The DME is receiving no response from the ground
station

WRONG 25. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

a.   On take-off
b.   At TOC
c.   At TOD
d.   On final approach

26. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance

WRONG Systems:

a.   RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually

identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance
confirmed by ATC
b.   RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of
the other aircraft’s proximity
c.   RAs must never be disregarded
 d.  RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually
identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides
that no deviation is necessary

27. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance

Systems, the difference between TCAS I and II is that:
WRONG

a.   TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and

Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide
Traffic Advisories
b.   TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircrafts which
carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS I can be
fitted to any aircraft.
c.   TCAS I can be fitted aircrafts which carry
transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II can be
fitted to aircrafts whose transponders include either
Mode C or Mode S.
d.   TCAS II can only be to aircraft which are equipped
with EFIS

28. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to

achieve a lock on a DME at MSL at a range of 210nm.
WRONG The reason for this is:

a.   The beacon is saturated

b.   The aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for
DME
c.   The aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d.   The aircraft signal is too weak at the range to trigger
a response

29. The radar in an aircraft at FL370 detects a cloud at

60nm. The cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to
2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, at what
WRONG altitude are the tops of the cloud?

a.   6,000ft
b.  31,000ft
c.   43,000ft
d.   49,000ft

30. At a range of 200nm from a VOR, if there is an error

WRONG of 1°, how far off the centreline is the aircraft?
 a.   3.5nm
b.   1.75nm
c.   7nm
d.   1nm

31. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are

correctly tuned and identified. The indications from both
are shown on the RMI illustrated. The information on the
WRONG RMI indicates:

a.   That the aircraft is heading 033° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

b.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 310°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

c.   That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°

radial from the VOR, and bears 050° (M) from the NDB

d.  That the aircraft is heading 330° (M), is on the 130°

radial from the VOR, and bears 230° (M) from the NDB

32. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a

VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS should be set to:
WRONG

a.   064 to get the correct needle sense and a TO

indication
b.  244 to get the correct needle sense and a TO
indication
c.   064 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM
indication
 d.   244 to get the correct needle sense and a FROM
indication

WRONG 33. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

a.   Can be used in inhospitable terrain

b.   Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
c.   Has a selective access ability
d.   Is not affected by heavy precipitation

34. The correct format for the input of position 50N

WRONG 00527E to the CDU is:

a.   5000.0N00527.0E
b.   N50E00527
c.   N5000.0E00527.0
d.   N5000E00527

35. An aircraft has to communicate with a VHF station

at a range of 300nm, if the ground station is situated
2,500ft amsl, which of the following is the lowest altitude
WRONG at which contact is likely to be made?

a.   190ft
b.   1,378ft
c.   36,100ft
d.   84,100ft

Fill the tables below.

Fuel
Fuel Flow Time
Used
1 h 20 187
140 litres/hr
min litres
2120 kg/hr 16 min 570 kg
 3 h 25 400 Imp
117 Imp Gall
min Gall

2 h 15 19.6 US
8.7 US Gall/hr
min Gall
5 h 20 52,267
9800 lb/hr
min lb
2 h 33
165 kg/hr 420 kg
min
1 h 47
603 lb/hr 420 kg
min

Pressur
SAT
CAS (knots) e
(°C)
Altitude
140 10000 -10
175 5000 5
220 15000 -22
300 30000 -40
180 12500 -25
165 9000 7
163 11000 10
295 31000 -53
TAS

162
200
273
472
212
193
199
465
TAS

162
200
273
472
212
193
199
465