Mock Clat-3: Directions (1-3) : Identify The Meanings of The Given Foreign Words

CP/16/C03
MOCK CLAT-3
SECTION I-ENGLISH
Directions(1-3): Identify the meanings of the given foreign words:
1. A posteriori
A. inductive reasoning B. Gourmet
C. Practitioner D. Doctor
2. Bon Vivant
A. A person who lives luxuriously B.chef
C. Proletariat D. impromptu
3. Ab initio
A. regimented B. from the beginning
C. urgent D. well mannered
Directions( 4 - 8): Identify the antonyms of the given words:
4. merit
A.hell B.disadvantage
C. honor D. attractive
5. hirsute
A.bald B. gain
C. town D.premium
6. optimist
A. love B.damage
C. pessimist D.elevation
7. ephemeral
A.repulsion B. translucent
C. thin D. permanent
8. ancestor
A.profane B.callous
C. progeny D.punish
Directions (9 - 18): In the given passage, some words are missing. Fill in the blanks with the
most appropriate choice:
The heat is on, so __9__ that the brain feels like it‘s __10__. Heat‘s latest side-effect is
scamnesia. A __11__ of selective amnesia, there is no __12__ from it even in the __13__
offices of the land. Actually President Mukherjee set the conversational ball __14__ on this
malady, by declaring that Bofors was only a ‗so-called‘ __15__. However called, it gave such a
__16__ to Congress that the party never managed to __17__ an absolute majority in the three
decades __18__ .
9. A. on B. intensified C. high D. soaring
10. A. boiling B. frying C. sweltering D. scorching
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11. A. category B. set C. section D. subset

12. A. escaping B. sheltering C. ignoring D. moving away
13. A. loftiest B. towering C. highest D. uppermost
14. A. moving B. rolling C. dribbling D. stirring
15. A. incident B. fraud C. scandal D. tittle-tattle
16. A. shock B. injury C. jolt D. nudge
17. A. re-establish B. recover C. reinstitute D. rebuild
18. A. therefore B. thereafter C. hence D. thence
Directions (19- 25): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow:
For nearly as long as the Taliban have been at war, Maulvi Abbas has been in the middle of it,
leading a small squad of insurgent fighters in Nangarhar Province and demonstrating a certain
talent for survival and success. But in May, he was captured by the Taliban‘s newest enemy, the
Islamic State, said residents in one of the districts where Maulvi Abbas often stayed.
Throughout the month, fighters claiming allegiance to the Islamic State‘s caliph had been
attacking veteran Taliban units south and east of Jalalabad, the provincial capital. In one district,
Islamic State loyalists have replaced the Taliban as the dominant insurgent power, and elsewhere
they have begun making inroads in Taliban territory, one tribal elder, Mohammad Siddiq
Mohmand, said in an interview.
In places where militants in Afghanistan have adopted the Islamic State creed of embracing
atrocity and ruling by fear, their strategy has been to aggressively attack the Taliban, just as in
Syria where the group early on picked fights with more established units affiliated with Al Qaeda.
And the evidence so far this spring suggests the influence of the Islamic State is growing.
Those places of influence remain few — still just a few remote villages after months of effort —
and the lightning-quick rise to power that the Islamic State enjoyed in Syria and Iraq has not come
to pass in Afghanistan. But already, the Islamic State-inspired militants have created a significant
shift: The Taliban insurgency, even as it advances against the Western-backed government, is
having to wrestle with an insurgent threat of its own.
After more than a decade of remaining remarkably unified around the elusive figure of Mullah
Muhammad Omar, the Taliban are splintering to a degree not seen before, as hundreds of
insurgents have shifted their loyalty to Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, the leader of the Islamic State and
self-declared caliph of the Muslim world.
More is at stake than just which militant Sunni faction controls remote villages. Should the
Islamic State, also known as ISIS or ISIL, make larger inroads within Taliban-controlled territory,
it could fundamentally change the insurgency. While the Taliban have carried out public
executions and embraced suicide bombings, the Islamic State‘s embrace of violence — and
penchant for publicizing it through videos and Internet social media — is extreme even by the
Taliban‘s standards.
Through their history, the Taliban have sought to convince Afghans and foreign leaders that their
ambitions are limited to Afghanistan, which the group governed for about five years before being
toppled in 2001. A central Taliban demand has always been the rule of Afghanistan by Afghans, a
platform that resonates well in a country shaped by a history of dogged resistance to foreign
invaders.

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Unlike the Islamic State, the Taliban have shown a willingness to negotiate with regional powers,
albeit in a limited way. Recently, the Taliban announced that they had sent a delegation to Iran —
which has long viewed the Taliban‘s brand of Sunni extremism with a wariness bordering on
hostility — as part of a broader series of diplomatic trips to several countries to ―discuss bilateral
issues, form, expand and strengthen ties.‖ The move comes at a time when the Iranian government
is directly helping the fight against Islamic State units in Syria and Iraq.
So far, the number of Islamic State-inspired militants in Afghanistan has remained low compared
with the Taliban‘s total force, and is far from posing an existential threat. ―Daesh has been
recruiting in Afghanistan since at least April 2014, without much success so far, considering how
long they‘ve been at it,‖ said Graeme Smith, a senior analyst for the International Crisis Group in
Kabul, using the Islamic State‘s Arabic acronym. ―We started tracking groups last fall, and they
usually number in the dozens. Some number in the hundreds, but none in the thousands.‖ Still, for
the Taliban, the new Islamic State offshoots clearly present the worry of larger-scale defections.
Although some of the Islamic State units are said to be bolstered by foreign fighters — in the
north, for example, bands of fighters allied with the Islamic Movement of Uzbekistan have
declared allegiance to the Islamic State — most are said to be led by former Taliban. Some had
been thrown out over ideological differences or for insubordination.
Perhaps seeking to keep from widening the phenomenon, the Taliban have so far dealt somewhat
gingerly with the Islamic State upstarts they find in their midst. In several places across the
country, they have sent delegations to Islamic State units with what often boils down to a cease
and desist message, local leaders say.
19. Where was Maulvi Abbas captured?

A. Afganistan B. Jalalabad
C. Syria D. None of the above
20. What is the threat to the Taliban insurgency?
A. Its own threat B. Western countries
C. ISIS D All of the above
21. Whose methods of popularisation is more extreme and brutal?
A. Taliban B. ISIS
C. Both are equal D. No degree of comparison
22. Which of the following is the origin point of Taliban?
A. Syria B. Entire Middle east
C. Afghanistan D. None of the above
23. Where has Taliban sent its delegation?
A. Syria B. Iran
C. Iraq D. Afghanistan
24. What is the meaning of the phrase ‗dealing gingerly‘?
A. Dealing practically B. Dealing cautiously
C. Dealing patiently D. Dealing casually
25. What is the source of the given passage?
A. An article in a newspaper.

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B. A documentary film on ISIS.

C. An article in a women‘s magazine.
D. A book on religious practices across the world.
Directions ( 26 - 30): Identify the meaning of the given words:
26. Oracle
A. magical B. despair C. whimsical D. clairvoyant
27. Quiescent
A. active B. passive C. vigorous D. vicious
28. Preposterous
A. outstanding B. marvellous C. outrageous D. hazardous
29. Dour
A. merry B. gross C. grim D. ghastly
30. Hokum
A. hazard B. myth C. redundant D. astonishing
Directions (31-33):Read the given statements and arrange them into coherent paragraphs:
31.
A. And where judges or court personnel are suspected of breaching the public‘s trust, fair
measures must be in place to detect, investigate and sanction corrupt practices.
B. Indeed, judicial independence is founded on public trust and, to maintain it, judges must
uphold the highest standards of integrity and be held accountable to them.
C. But judicial independence does not mean that judges and court officials should have free rein
to behave as they please.
D. The judiciary needs to be independent of outside influence, particularly of political and
economic entities such as government agencies or industry associations.
A. ABCD B. BCDA C. DCBA D. DCAB
32.
A. Incorporating whistleblower protection or anti-corruption telephone hotlines as part of
judicial systems can help improve detection of corruption in the judiciary.
B. While judicial independence requires that judges have some limited measure of immunity and
that they should be protected from trivial or vexatious complaints,
C. mechanisms must be in place to ensure that corruption by judges or court personnel is
detected,investigated and properly sanctioned.
D. Judges are expected to take decisions about breaches of law by individuals, governments and
companies, but what happens if it is the judge who breaks the law?
A. ABCD B. DBCA C. CADB D. BCDA
33.
A. Transparency reform of judicial institutions may contribute, among other things, to generating
conditions for a greater judicial independence.
B. The open operation of justice systems, for example, generates an increased flow of
information from the Judiciary to society,

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C. Thus, the lifting of the veil of opacity that frequently covers court activities, compounded
with a greater social interest in the operation of the justice system generates a doubly positive
effect.
D. enabling the public to learn about its performance, become involved in the processes and
discussions related to cases of great institutional import, and even participate in different ways.
A. ABCD B. ABDC C. ACBD D. BDAC
Directions ( 34 - 35): Identify the correct summary of the given passage:
34. A foreclosure is basically a process of selling out any asset used as collateral by a borrower
who is unable to pay back the loan. The bank finds a way to recover its money by selling the
assets of the borrower. However, a pre-foreclosure is what precedes a foreclosure. If a borrower
is late with at least one payment he receives a notice about it. The property regarding which he
gets the notice is the pre-foreclosure. It is this stage before a property is legally foreclosed when
a buyer can jump in and discover the entire pool of opportunities. Buyers can make deals with
the owner or the lender.
Which of the following summarizes the paragraph?
A. There are various elements of foreclosure that any bank goes through while starting the
process of foreclosure.
B. There are many ways of recovering money by the bank in case of lending to homeowners for
property improvement.
C. The rudiments of transfer of property are intricate and need an expert to help the owner
walkthrough the process.
D. A foreclosure is the method of selling a property to recover money by the lender.
35. Well the ‗Hollow Earth‘ concept would help in clearing out a certain number of anomalies
regarding various theories that have been developed in our systems since time immemorial. In
connection with the newly discovered fact that our old Earth has been expanding since the
Jurassic age the newly evolving ‗expanding earth‘ discovery supports the continental drift
theory to a large extent.With the possible success of such a theory, one can establish that all the
continents once fitted together perfectly and covered only one-third part of the Earth that we
see today. And if that had happened then the dinosaurs would have found it easy to stroll across
from one continent to the other upon dry land because Africa, Europe and America would have
been placed in close proximity to each other.
Which of the following summarizes the paragraph?
A. The history of the earth is a long and boring one.
B. The geographical expansion of the Earth has taken a long time.
C. Hollow Earth theory is one that has helped in explaining the evolution of earth as it is today.
D. The study of Jurassic age talks about dinosaurs and their growth.
Directions (36-40): Read the following statements and identify the statements that are
incorrect.
36.
A. The slogan did not reflect the aggressiveness implied in it as much it did the sense of
contentment.
B. Another group said that it had even rehearsed the withdrawal on December 7.

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C. According to him, the mistake was that the work was executed to perfection.
D. Images of char bodies and burned homes have gone off television screens.
A. Only A B. Only B C. Only C D. A and D
37.
A. He said he had contained the threat of communal violence through minimum force.
B. Such studious inaction went all the way to the top of the Police.
C. Political guidance and support were available to help the Hindu Right‘s death squads
select their targets.
D. The local Noorani mosque was set on fire, and a saffron flag hoisted on its dome.
A. Only A B. Only B C. A, B and D D. None
38.
A. Had they testify in court, Savarkar would have been convicted.
B. The verdict of acquittal was sound in law.
C. He have assigned his best police officers for the investigation.
D. This is a brazen falsehood.
A. Only A B. A and B C. A and C D. A and D
39.
A. It has not yet convinced them, however, to earnestly push for a comprehensive end to a
conflict now seriously spinning out of control.
B. They too are motivated by their own narrow interests and not what is best for Syria or its
people.
C. Confusingly, both statements are currently equally valid.
D. I didn‘t knew Narayan was a writer till one day the postman delivered a magazine.
A. A and B B. B and C C. Only D D. None
40.
A. Mercifully, however, he never bothered about my performance at school for he had a
healthy contempt for formal academic education.
B. It is a very heavy heart that I am writing this poem.
C. The young man not yet acquired spectacles.
D. The photograph presented, on the whole, a rather grim character.
A. A and B B. B and C C. C and D D. D and A
SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41. Select one of the following processes leading to stable population structure:
A. Increasing birth rate and constant death rate
B. Decreasing birth rate and increasing death rate.
C. Constant birth and death rate
D. Constant birth rate and decreasing death rate.
42. Who has been appointed as Governor of Bihar?

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A. J.P. Rajkhowa B. Ram Nath Kovind

C. E. S. L. Narasimhan D. Vajubhai Vala
43. Which of the following is the second deepest and longest lake of the world?
A. Tanganyika lake B. Baikal lake
C. Superior lake D. Great bear lake
44. The headquarters of Small Industries Development Bank of India is situated in

A. Ahmadabad B. Chennai
C. Mumbai D. Lucknow
45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Titicaca lake—Bolivia—Peru B. Lake Urmia—Iran
C. Lake Reindeer —Russia D. Lake Athabaska—Canada
46. Who has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna?
A. Sania Mirza B. P. V. Sindhu
C. Virat Kohli D. Shubham Jaglan
47. The smallest independent country in the world is

A. Vatican B. Nauru
C. Palau D. Andorra
48. Which of the following geological systems of rocks contain rich reserve of iron ore in India?
A. Vindhyan System B. Cuddapah System
C. Gondwana System D. Dharwar System
49. As per census of 2011 which of the following states has experienced least population growth in the last
decade.
A. Mizoram B. Nagaland
C. Tamil Nadu D. Kerala
50. Which of the following rivers of India cuts across all the ranges of the Himalayas?
A. Ravi B. Satluj
C. Beas D. Chenab
51. Who became India's first woman to play in English league football?
A. Aditi Chauhan B. Anjana Saikia

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C. Sangita Basfore D. Sasmita Malik
52. ―Roof of the World‖ is the title given to

A. The Rockies B. The Andies
C. The Pamirs D. None of these
53. The longest peninsular river of India is.

A. Narmada B. Godavari
C. Mahanadi D. Krishna
54. How many medals India won in 20th Common Wealth Games 2014 held at Glasgow?
A. 70 B. 68
C. 67 D. 64
55. Match list—I with list—II and select the correct answer from the codes given below
List—I List—II
A. Jute 1. Assam
B. Tea 2. Kerala
C. Rubber 3. West Bengal
D. Sugarcane 4. Uttar Pradesh
Codes:
A B C D
A. 3 1 2 4
B. 4 3 1 2
C. 2 4 3 1
D. 1 2 3 4
56. Pakistan and _______ signed defence agreement that includes the sale of four Mi-35 helicopters.
A. Russia B. America
C. South Korea D. North Korea
57. Institute for Economics and Peace has released in June 2015, the ―Global Peace Index, 2015‖ what is the
rank of India in it?
A. 154th B. 144th
C. 84th D. 143rd
58. Bolometer is a device to measure

A. Pressure B. Growth in Plants

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C. Thermal Radiation D. Speed of Wind
59. Penguin is the only animal found in the

A. Antarctica B. Arctic region
C. African Desert D. None of these
60. Human sterility is caused mainly due to deficiency of

A. Fats B. Proteins
C. Folic Acid D. Vitamin E
61. Which of the following state of India has highest population density as per Census of India 2011?
A. Bihar B. Kerala
C. West Bengal D. Uttar Pradesh
62. Which city has been chosen to host 2022 Winter Olympics?
A. Tokyo B. Beijing
C. Delhi D. Kuala Lumpur
63. According to Census 2011, which of the following state of India has the highest sex ratio in India?
A. Tamil Nadu B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Chhattisgarh D. Kerala
64. Under article 267 of Indian constitution provision of which one of the following has been made?
A. Consolidated Fund B. Contingency Fund
C. Expenditure Fund D. President‘s Fund
65. Which freedom fighter died after 64 days of fasting in jail?

A. SN Sanyal B. BC Vohra
C. Ras Behari Bose D. Jatin Dass
66. Under which of the following articles of Constitution, National Emergency can be proclaimed by the
president of India?
A. Article – 352 B. Article - 356
C. Article – 358 D. Article - 360
67. Which of the following states in India has the largest scheduled caste population as per 2001 census?
A. West Bengal B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Punjab D. Maharashtra

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68. 8th BRICS Summit will be held in ______.

A. Brazil B. Russia
C. India D. China
69. In which of the following cities, ‗The Indian Institute of Ecology and Environment‘ is located?
A. New Delhi B. Thiruvananthpuram
C. Kolkata D. Jodhpur
70. The third Anglo-Maratha war is associated with?

A. Sir John Shore B. Lord Hastings
C. Lord Wellesley D. Lord Cornwallis
71. Second Buddhist Council was held at which place?

A. Rajgriha B. Vaishali
C. Pataliputra D. Kasha (Varanasi)
72. Heun Tsang was a famous visitor during the reign of

A. Chandragupta Maurya B. Ashoka
C. Samudragupta D. Harshvardhan
73. India‘s first railway-line built under PPP model inaugurated in which state?
A. Goa B. Maharashtra
C. Tripura D. Gujarat
74. Champa was the capital of which Maha Janapada?

A. Magadha B. Vajji
C. Koshal D. Anga
75. Who were the ―Karoris‖ during the Mughal Period?

A. Merchants B. Bankers (Money lenders)
C. Land Revenue Officials D. None of the above
76. India Patent Act came into Force in Year

A. 1970 B. 1971
C. 1972 D. 1973
77. ‗Modi – Incredible emergence of a star‖ in Chinese language written.

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A. Sanjaya Baru B. Prakash Karat

C. Tarun Vijay D. Pran Chopra
78. The world trade Organization (WTO) is located at

A. New York B. Geneva
C. Washington D. London
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Rulers) List-II (Buildings)
A. Aibak 1. Kilokhari
B. Iltutmish 2. Siri Fort
C. Balban 3. Adhai Din ka Jhopra
D. Alauddin Khilji 4. Sultan Garhi
Codes:
A B C D
A. 3 4 1 2
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 4 2 1
D. 1 2 3 4
80. Yellow revolution is related to

A. Pulse production B. Paddy Production
C. Fish Production D. Oil—seed production
81. Who has been appointed as India-A, Under-19 cricket team coach?
A. Rahul Dravid B. Sachin Tendulkar
C. V. V. S. Laxman D. Sourav Ganguly
82. Which Indian ruler in medieval times was known by the name ―Lakh Baksh‖ (the giver of lakhs)?
A. Qutbuddin Aibak B. Allaudin Khilji
C. Balban D. Akbar
83. Which one of the following states is highest pulse producing state?
A. Uttar Pradesh B. Bihar
C. Madhya Pradesh D. Punjab
84. First inscriptional reference of sati system has been found at

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A. Mandsor B. Junagarh
C. Eran D. Sanchi
85. Apex Bank in agriculture sector is

A. Punjab national Bank B. State Bank of India
C. NABARD D. Central bank of India
86. ―Unbelievable – Delhi to Islamabad‘ written by ________?

A. Bhim Singh B. Ravi Subramanian
C. Ashwin Sanghi D. Krishna Shastri
87. Who among the following has the legislative power to establish new states?
A. Lok Sabha B. Parliament
C. Political Parties D. Central Government
88. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A. Sovereign B. Socialist
C. Republic D. Federal
89. Within how many days the Council of states (Rajya Sabha) is required to make its recommendation on the
money bill?
A. 14 days B. 18 days
C. 21 days D. 30 days
90. Who has been appointed as BRICS Bank President?

A. Chanda Kochhar B. Deepak Parekh
C. K V Kamath D. Arundhati Bhattacharya
SECTION III-NUMERIC ABILITY

91: An increase of 25% in the price of onions results in a 5 Kg decrease in the quantity of Onions
that can be purchased for Rs 300. Find the original price of Onions per Kg before the increase?
a. Rs.12/Kg b. Rs.15/Kg c. Rs.20/Kg d. Rs.25/Kg
92: The price of a commodity increased by 10% in the first year and 5% in the subsequent year. If
the price after the 2nd increase is Rs 2310, find the initial price of the commodity?
a. Rs.2000 b. Rs.2100 c. Rs.2150.5 d. Rs.2175.5
93: The marked price of an article is 35% above the cost price. If the article is sold at a discount of
10%, find the overall profit or loss percentage?

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a. 25% profit b. 30% profit c. 45% profit d. 21.5% profit
94: A vendor mixes y litres of water to 50 litres of milk and sells it at a mark-up of 10% in order to
make an overall profit of 32%. Find y?
a. 5 litres b. 10 litres c. 22 litres d. 11 litres
95: If the marks obtained by A is 8.33% less than the marks obtained by B, by what % is the marks
obtained by B more than the marks obtained by A?
a. 8.33% b. 10% c. 9.09% d. 7.71%
96: If the selling price of 10 items is same as the cost price of 12 items, find the percentage profit or
loss?
a. 20% profit b. 20% loss c. 16.66% profit d. None of these
97: If the amount after 5 years is Rs.3200 and the amount after 8 years is Rs.3800 both at simple
interest, find the rate of interest applicable?
a. 10% b. 9.09% c. 8.33% d. cannot be determined
98: Find the difference at the end of one year between the simple interest and the compound interest
payable half yearly if the rate of interest is 14% per annum and the principal is Rs 1000?
a. Rs.4 b. Rs.7.49 c. Rs.14.49 d. Rs.4.9
99: In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 13 m. By how many metres will B beat C in a 180
m race?
a. 5.4 b. 4.5 c. 5 d. 6
100: A started a business by investing Rs.50,000. After 6 months, B joined with a capital of
Rs.80000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs.24500. What was A‘s share in the profit?
a. Rs.9423 b. Rs.10250 c. Rs.10500 d. Rs.14000
101: A can do a piece of work in 36 days, B in 54 days and C in 72 days. All three began the work
together but A left 8 days and B left 12 days before the completion of the work. For how many days
in all did C work?
a. 24 days b. 28 days c.32 days d.36 days
102: A man works twice as fast as a woman. A woman works twice as fast as a child. If 16 men can
complete a job in 12 days, how many days would be required for 32 women and 64 boys together to
complete the same job?
a. 2 day b. 3 days c. 4 days d. 6 days
103: A can do a work alone in 20 days and with the help of B in 15 days. If C alone can do the work
in 30 days, in how many days can B and C do the work together?
a. 20 days b. 5 days c. 15 days d. 10 days
104: A man on a motorcycle is moving on a straight road at the speed of 54 kmph. Half a minute
later a car starts from the same point and moves in the same direction at a speed of 20 m/sec. How
far from the start will the man on the motorcycle reach before he is overtaken by the car?
a. 1800 m b. 1500 m c. 1200 m d. 1000 m

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105: The speed of a boat in still water is 5 kmph while the speed of the stream is x kmph. A person
on the boat can see a log of wood at a distance of 12 km floating towards the boat. In how much time
will the boat reach the log of wood?
a. 2 hrs 40 minutes b. 2 hrs 24 minutes c. 3 hrs d. cannot be determined
106: A number N when divided by 5 gives a remainder of 3. Find the remainder when N5 is divided
by 5.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. cannot be determined
107: The difference of a two digit number and the number formed by interchanging its digits is 54.
How many such numbers exist?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. none of these
108: What is the angle between the 2 hands of a clock at 5.15 pm?
a. 67.5 deg b. 70 deg c. 72.5 deg d. 75 deg
109: How many times in 12 hours do the two hands of a clock make an angle of 90 degrees with
each other?
a. 12 b. 24 c. 23 d. 22
110: Find the day of the week on 27th January 1980?

a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Thursday d. Sunday
SECTION IV-LEGAL APTITUDE

Question 111-113 are based on following principles:
Principle 1: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion has
been provided to all citizens of India subject to public order, morality and health.
Principle 2: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are
specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any
particular religion or religious denomination.
111. Question: Who will be allowed to enter into a government bank in India?
a) Bakaruddin Owaisi, a Muslim with a howitzer.
b) Gurmeet Popular Raheem, A Sikh with a razor-sharp kirpan.
c) Aadhe Maa, A Hindu with a sword.
d) None of the above.
112. Situation: Amitabh, who is a Hindu and husband of Hema, coverts himself into Islam which
allows multiple marriages, and marries with Joya without giving a divorce to Hema.
Select the correct answer.
a) Amitabh is not liable because conversion is his right to religion.
b) Amitabh is not liable because Muslim Law allows multiple marriages.
c) Amitabh is liable of bigamy.
d) None of the above.

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113. Statement: A sadhu charges 111111 Rupees for performing Mahamritunjay Jaap.
Select the correct answer.
a) He can quote his own fee.
b) He can be made liable for charging this much amount.
c) He can be made liable for playing with the faith of Hindus.
d) B and C both.
114. Which is the largest minority religion in India?

a) Hindu
b) Muslim
c) Christian
d) Sikh
115. Principle: A person is liable for all the direct consequences of his act which could have been
reasonably foreseen as naturally flowing from his act.
Facts: A went camping in a forest and lit a camp fire for cooking food. He left the fire burning
when he left which resulted in a forest fire, destroying property worth lakhs.
Which of the derivations is correct?
a) A is liable as he was negligent
b) A is liable for accident as he lit fire in a forest
c) A is not liable as this was an exceptional case
d) None of these
116. Principle: A person who lawfully brings on his land something which though harmless, but
will do mischief if it escapes, must keep at it his peril, and if he does not, he is answerable for all
the damage.
Facts: A was a social worker and helped street dogs. He lived in a housing society and left food for
street dogs in front of his house. As a result many dogs started dwelling in the society. One day a
pack of dogs attacked and killed a child in the housing society.
Which of the derivations is most appropriate?
a) A is liable
b) A is not liable as he didn‘t bring the dogs to the society
c) A is not liable as he was not negligent.
d) A is liable as it was his responsibility to take all precautions
Principle for questions 117 and 118: Duty is but one element in the tort of negligence, for it must
be shown that not only was the defendant under duty towards the claimant to be careful, but also
that he failed to achieve the required standard of care that caused the failure and damage and also
that the damage was not too remote to the consequence of the act.

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117. Facts: Mike is a lawyer and Rachel is his client. Mike took the case despite the fact that
opposite counsel was Hervey, who was Mike‘s senior. Mike couldn‘t argue well before the court
and as a result Rachel lost the case.

a) Mike is liable for negligence
b) Mike is not liable as he did argue Rachel‘s case
c) Mike is liable because Rachel lost the case
d) None of these
118. Facts: Medant is a doctor and while treating his patient for cold he administers him vaccine
for polio. As a result the patient‘s condition worsens.

a) Medant is not liable for negligence
b) Medant is not liable as he was just incompetent not negligent
c) Medant is liable because he has duty of care
d) None of these
119. Principle: : Two or more person are said to be joint tortfeasors when the wrongful act, which
has resulted in a single damage, was done by them, not independently of one another , but in
furtherance of a common design. Both are liable for act of one.
Facts: A and B are partners in a partnership. The aim of the partnership is export illicit drugs like
cocaine and also vegetables. A handles the export of vegetables, while B exports the illicit drugs.
a) A and B are joint tortfeasors because they acted with common intention
b) Only B is liable
c) A and B are not joint tortfeasors as they are separately liable
d) None of these
Principle for question 120 and 121: A minor has a right to sue like an adult with the only
procedural difference that he cannot sue on his own but has to sue through his next best friend.
A child of seven years or above could be sued for trespass like a person of full age. However, if
the tort is such as requires a special mental element like deceit, malicious prosecution or
conspiracy, a child cannot be held liable for the same unless sufficient maturity for committing
that tort can be proved in his case.

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120. Facts: A, B and C are 5, 11 and 15 years old and they are booked for running a gang of chain
robbers.

a) A, B and C are liable for theft
b) B and C are liable for theft
c) They are not liable as they are minors
d) None of those
121. Facts: A is 6 years old and a child of extraordinary intelligence. His relatives try to take away
his inheritance from him. He sues them on his own.

a) The suit is not maintainable for want of capacity to sue
b) The suit is maintainable as A has mind of an adult
c) The suit is not maintainable as it is illegal
d) None of these
122. Principle: In case of torts committed by servants of the state in discharge of obligations
imposed by law and in exercise of sovereign functions, the state is exempt from any liability.
Facts: Black Widow is principal of a government school. She is ordered by government to do

flag hoisting on Independence Day. She directs students to pay 100 rupees each to get funds for
the ceremony. When children refuse to pay she punishes them and forces them to pay up.
a) Black Widow is not liable for any tort as she was performing function of state
b) Black Widow is liable as her means for following government order was illegal
c) Black Widow is not liable as collecting money from students is an accepted practice
d) None of these
Principle for question 123 and 124: Vicarious liability is the liability of one person for the act done
by another person. The principle applicable is ―Qui facit per alium facit per se‖, which means that

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anything which a person commits through another person is the act of the person himself. For
vicarious liability to be there a relationship between the two persons is necessary. For acts done is
ordinary course of business a principal is liable for torts of his agent, all the partners in a firm are
vicariously liable and a master is responsible for torts of his servant.
123. Facts: Batman hires Robin to drive his car to a hotel. Batman knows Robin is drunk. Robin
runs over a pedestrian due to his negligence.
a) Batman is liable as Robin is his agent
b) Batman is not liable as he was not driving
c) Batman and Robin both are liable
d) None of these
124. Facts: Sunar, a salesman of a shop, sells 10 bars of gold plated chocolate bars to Lobhi
saying they are gold bars.

a) The owner of shop is liable as Sunar is his agent
b) Only Sunar is liable as he acted on his own
c) Lobhi can only sue Sunar
d) None of these
Principle for questions 125 and 126: The law permits the use of reasonable force to protect
one‘s person or property. If the defendant uses the force which is necessary for self defence, he
will not be liable for harm caused thereby. There should be eminent threat to the personal
safety or property.
125. Facts: A and B are getting married. During wedding ceremony B gets to know that A has
been cheating on her. B hits A with a baseball bat to avoid getting married to him.

a) This is unreasonable use of force as baseball bat is dangerous
b) This is unreasonable use of force as wedding is not a threat
c) This is unreasonable use of force
d) None of these

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126. Facts: A is a film star and he is being chased by a group of 100 fans. They surround him and
A fears that he will get trampled under their feet. He takes out his gun and fires a round in air.

a) This is unreasonable use of force as someone could have died
b) This is unreasonable use of force as fans are not a threat
c) This is reasonable use of force as A was under influence of fear
d) This is reasonable use of force as there was threat to A
Principle for question 127 and 128: An act of God may be defined as an extraordinary
occurrence of circumstance caused by a force of nature, without any human intervention and
which could not have been avoided by any amount of care or foresight.
127. Facts: A sweet shop is located near a mining site. Due to blasts in mine the shop is
constantly shaking. One day while the shop is shaking, an old fan falls on a customer in the shop.

a) This is act of god as shaking of shop was normal
b) This is not an act of God as mining is a human activity
c) This is act of God as fan was old
d) This is not an act of God as it was foreseeable
128. Facts: One day it was raining heavily. Water from a dam had to be released and a result the
town got flooded. Town folks claimed it wasn‘t an act of God and demanded insurance money
for their damaged property.
a) This is an act of God as water was made by God

b) This is not an act of God as dam is man made
c) This is act of God as water had to be released due to rain
d)This is not act of God because God doesn‘t exist
129. Principle: When the completion of contract is dependent on an uncertain event which may or
may not happen, then such contracts are called contingent contracts.
Facts: A agrees to take B to Taj Mahal if sun rises on 15th August 2015.
Which of the following derivations are correct?
a) Contract is void
b) Contract is contingent
c) Contract is normal and valid
d) None of these

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130. Principle: Whosoever by force compels, or by any deceitful means induces, any person to go
from any place, is said to abduct that person.
Facts: A invites a girl to his house for dinner. He intends to sell this girl to C, a human trafficker.
While they are having lunch C calls A and refuses to buy the girl. The girl goes back to her home
after dinner, unharmed.
a) This is abduction
b) This is not abduction because no illegal act was done
c) This is kidnapping
d) None of these
131. Principle: Nothing is an offense which is done by accident or misfortune and without any
criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means
and with proper care and caution.
Facts: A is a florist and he sells various kinds of flowers. Once during a transaction he sells a
bunch of rose in which an unidentified poisonous variety of flower which looks like rose is also
there.
a) It was an accident
b) The florist is liable for attempt to murder
c) Had the flower been an identified variety florist would be liable
d) None of these
132. Principle: Whoever, delivers to any other person as genuine any counterfeit currency which
he knows to be counterfeit, but did not know to be counterfeit at the time when he received it is
guilty of an offence.
Facts: A goes to buy a bottle of water. The shopkeeper gives him a fake 100 rupee note while
returning change. A notices this but takes the money and later buys a packet of chips from it.
a) A is guilty
b) A is not guilty
c) A is not guilty as he was not caught

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d) None of these
133. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, is by
reason of intoxication, incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is
either wrong or contrary to law, provided the thing which caused intoxication was administered
to him against his will.
Facts: A, a cabinet minister, who had a lot to drink, abuses the prime minister during a party.
a) A is guilty of treason
b) A is not guilty
c) A is not guilty as he did drank alcohol out of need
d) None of these
134. Principle: Whosoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death or
with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge
that he is likely, by such act to cause death, commits the offense of culpable homicide.
Facts: A throws a knife at B hoping that B would catch it. The knife strikes B in the heart and he
dies.
a) This is culpable homicide
b) This is not culpable homicide
c) This is murder
d) None of these
135. Principle: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession
of any person without that persons consent, moves that property in order to such taking is said to
commit theft.
Facts: A is B‘s servant. B asks A to go fetch a 10 rupee biscuit packet for him but forgets to pay
him for the biscuits. When A is leaving B‘s house he picks up 10 rupee note lying on table
without telling anyone.
a) A is guilty of theft.
b) A is not guilty of theft as he didn't intend to steal.
c) A is not guilty of theft as money was rightly his

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d) A is not guilty of theft

136. Principle: Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or deliver anything for
another person, not intending to do so gratuitously and such another person enjoys the benefit
thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in the respect, or to restore the
things so done or delivered.
Facts: A goes to a restaurant. There he met C. After they finish food C says that he forgot his
wallet. A pays for C‘s food.
a) C is liable to compensate A for the food as its moral
b) C is liable to compensate A for the food
c) C is not liable to compensate A for the food
d) None of these
137. Principle: The occupier of premises owes a duty of care to all his visitors.
Facts: A visits his friend B. A makes B sleep on a bed which contains bugs. B gets bug bites all
over his body.
a) A is liable as it is his duty to keep the guest safe.
b) A is not liable as B didn‘t check the bed.
c) A is liable as he was mischievous
d) A is not liable as it is his private property.
138. Principle: Nothing is said to be done or believed in ―good faith‖ which is done or believed
without due care and attention.
Facts: A, a police officer sees that B has a child similar to the one which was kidnapped some
months ago. A charges B of kidnapping and arrests him.
a) This is genuine mistake of fact by a public officer
b) This is an act not done in good faith.
c) This is case of harassment.
d) None of these.
139. Principle: Whosoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act not
amounting to culpable homicide, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to two years or with fine or both.
Facts: A lets his 4 year old drive his car. The car crashes and two of A‘s servant die.
a) A is not liable for the deaths as he was driving on his private property
b) A is liable as he did a negligent act
c) A is not liable as a minor driving
d) None of these
140. Forgery is an offence related to:

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a) Property
b) Documents
c) Cash
d) All of the above
141. For trespass, the remedy is

a) Civil suit
b) Criminal Prosecution
c) A and B both
d) None of the above
142. Superman intentionally throws into a river, a ring belonging to Emma thereby causing
wrongful loss to Emma. Superman has committed:
a) Theft
b) Extortion
c) Robbery
d) Mischief
143. Shekhar pretends to be a civil servant and receives loan from Anju. He has committed:
a) Cheating
b) Civil breach of trust
c) Civil breach of trust and misappropriation
d) Civil breach of trust and cheating
144. The essence of the offence of cheating is

a) Dishonest concealment of facts
b) Trick or sham
c) Deception
d) All of the above
145. Which of the following factors separate robbery from dacoity?

a) Time
b) Place
c) Property
d) Number
146. Atul robs the shop of Rolla Rappa. On the same night, Atul repents and returns the robbed
amount to Rolla Rappa. Atul has committed:
a) Robbery
b) Attempt of robbery
c) Abetment
d) No offence

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147. The offence of extortion can be committed against

a) Immovable property
b) Movable property
c) Valuable goods
d) All of the above
148. Offence of theft is limited to

a) Movable property
b) Immovable property
c) Immovable property as soon as it is severed from the earth
d) Both a and c
149. ‗Illicit intercourse‘ implies:

a) Sexual intercourse between two persons not united by marriage
b) Prostitution
c) Rape
d) A and B both
150. The term ‗illegal‘ means

a) Is prohibited by law
b) Furnishes ground for a criminal action
c) Is an offence
d) All of the above
151. Softwares in India are protected under:

a) Patents
b) Trademark
c) Copyright
d) All of the above
152. If a person files an RTI at Reliance Communications, who will have to reply him within
thirty days:
a) Head of Reliance Communications
b) Any authorized representative of Reliance
c) Ministry of Communication
d) None of the above
153. If a person doesn‘t know the specific department where he wants to file an RTI, he can:
a) File it with the District Magistrate
b) File it with the Superintendant of Police
c) File it with the Municipal Commissioner

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d) All of the above
154. Any patent in India is valid for:

a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 25 years
155. A Copyright in India is valid for:

a) Upto 20 Years after the death of the author
b) Upto 40 Years after the death of the author
c) Upto 60 Years after the death of the author
d) Copyright is a perpetual right
156. Which of the following can be a registered non profitable organization in India.
a) A society
b) A charitable trust
c) A not for profit company
d) All of the above
157. Indian Muslim‘s personal laws are based upon:

a) Quran
b) Sharia
c) Ijma
d) All of the above
158. Which case put an end to jury trials in India?

a) A. K. Gopalan v State of Madras
b) Keshvanandan Bharti v Union of India
c) K. M. Nanavati v State of Maharashtra
d) Vishakha v State of Rajasthan
159. Who was the first finance minister of India?

a) John Mathai
b) Liyakat Ali Khan
c) Morarji Desai
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
160. Upto when India remained a dominion of the crown?

a) 26 January 1950
b) 15 August 1947
c) 29 November 1949

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d) 26 November 1949
SECTION IV-LOGICAL REASONING
Directions for questions 161 to 165: Each of the following questions consists two or three main
statement followed by four conclusions. Choose the option which of the given conclusion
logically follow(s) from the given statement.
161. No killer is serial killer. No cereal eater is a serial killer. Some cereal eaters are rapscallions.
I. Some rapscallions are serial killers.

II. Some rapscallions are not serial killers.
III. No killer is a cereal eater.
IV Some cereal eater are killers.
(a) Either I or II and III follow. (b) Either III or IV and II follow
(c) Either II or Ill follow (d) Either I or II either II or IV follow.
162. Some charts are darts. All darts are carts. Some carts are smarts.
I. Some charts are carts.

II. Some carts are darts
III. Some darts are smarts.
IV. Some smarts are charts.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow

(c) I and III follow (d) I, III and IV follow
163. Some singers are rockers. All rockers are westerners.
I. Some rockers are singers.

II. Some westerners are rockers.
III. Some singers are westerners.
IV. Some singers are not westerners.
(a) I, II and III follow (b) I, II and IV follow

(c) II, III and IV follow (d) I, III and IV follow

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164. Some big are small. No small is large. Some large are tiny.
I. Some large are not big.

II. No big is large.
III. Some small are not tiny
IV. Some big are not large.
(a) Only I follow (b) Only II follow

(c) Only III follow (d) Only IV follow.
165. No Indian is an Asian. Some American are Indians.
I. Some Indians are not Asians.

II. Some Asians are not Americans.
III. Some Americans are not Asians.
IV. All Americans are Asians.
(a) Either III or IV follow (b) Either I or II follow

(c) I and III follow (d) Either II or III follow.
Directions for questions 166 to 170: Consider the following questions and arguments. Choose
the option which indicates a valid strong argument. Give answer
a) only argument I is strong.
b) only argument II is strong.
c) neither I nor II is strong.
d) both I and II are strong.
166. Given the ban on cow slaughter, should non-vegetarian food be totally banned in our country?
I. Yes. It is against ancient Indian ethos to eat living things.
II. No. Nothing should be banned in a democratic country.

167. Given the ceasefire violation by Pakistan, should India go in for cutting off diplomatic ties with
it?

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I. No. Cutting off diplomatic ties may well make matters worse than they are.
II. Yes. There is no point in diplomacy with Pakistan.

168. Should columns of only meritorious authors be published?

I. Yes. It will save a lot of paper and help the environment..
II. No. It is not possible to distinguish between meritorious and unmeritorious authors.

169. Should Modi Sarkaar open well-equipped hospitals for every Tehsil of every district?
I. Yes. Health and well-being of every citizen is a primary constitutional responsibility of the
government.
II. No. It can never happen and the money allocated for such a project will vanish in yet another
scam.

170. Is paying ransom to kidnappers or negotiating with Terrorists for hostages an ethical course of
action?
I. Yes. The victims must be saved at all cost.
II. No. Doing so amounts to promoting such acts and promotion of criminal acts cannot be ethical.

Directions (Q. 171 to 175 ): In each question a statement is given followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to
consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is

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implicit in the statement.
171. Statement: The Government has recently hiked the prices of diesel and petrol to reduce the oil
pool deficit.
Assumptions:
I. The amount earned by this increase may be substantial enough to reduce the deficit.
II. There may be wide-spread protests against the price hike.
(A) only assumption I is implicit.

(B) only assumption II is implicit.
(C) neither I nor II is implicit.
(D) both I and II are implicit.
172. Statement: The Tesla car company announced a festive reduction in the prices of their E-cars.
Assumptions:
I. There may be an increase in the sale of E-cars.
II. Petrol/diesel Car manufactures will reduce their prices to compete.

173. Statement: A foreign film Director tweeted an apology for ‗inadvertently misrepresenting‘ an
Indian mythological hero in his latest movie.
Assumptions:
I. Indians are very sensitive to such things.
II. Accidentally inaccurate portrayal of mythological protagonists is possible.

174. Statement: Rajender‘s father told him to take a cab back home if it starts raining heavily.
Assumptions:
I. Rajender is incapable of deciding suitable modes of transports in adverse weather for himself.
II. Cabs may be plying even if it rains heavily.


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175. Statement: The Government of India has decided to attempt a track II dialogue with China to
reduce tension in the border area.
Assumptions:
1. China may agree to participate in the track II dialogue.
II. The people involved in track II dialogue may be able to positively influence their respective
Governments.

176. PM Narendra Modi remains popular in most parts of the world, although his job approval rating
in India has declined since he first took office.
Which of the following helps explain the above seeming paradox?
a. Narendra Modi‘s performance as a PM has made him unpopular.
b. Narendra Modi‘s foreign policy has been widely criticized abroad.
c. Narendra Modi‘s‘ domestic policies in dealing with the internal recession has been widely
acclaimed by people in most parts of the world.
d. Narendra Modi‘s foreign policy is perceived to be far better than his domestic policy.
177. The year 2015 is turning out to be the warmest ever in recorded history, with the first four
months reporting an average temperature of 13.3 degrees Celsius which is 0.69 degrees above the
20th century average. The combined global land and ocean surface temperatures for the period
between January and April were the warmest on record, and April was the warmest individual month
ever with 14.5 degrees Celsius, America‘s climate agency has said in its latest report.
Which of the following must be true if the above has to be true?
a. The 20th century average for ocean surface temperature is 16.4 and the average for global land
temperature is 8.82 degrees Celsius.
b. The combined April global land and ocean average surface temperature was 13.5 degrees Celsius.
c. The 20th century average for ocean surface temperature is 16 and the average for global land
temperature is 8 degrees Celsius.
d. The combined April global land and ocean average surface temperature was 1.2 degrees above the
20th century average for April.
178. Fertility clinics in India are booming. The services on offer have been referred to as the
country‘s ‗rent-a-womb‘ industry. The number of foreigners going to India for fertility treatments,
especially surrogacy, has dramatically increased in recent years. At present there are no laws
governing industry practices and while a new bill has been presented to the government, there are
growing fears about the commercialization of surrogacy in India.
Which of the following is the most likely fallout of the above?
a. Laws governing the ‗surrogacy industry‘ in India will be made stricter.
b. ‗Surrogacy industry‘ in India is likely to be greatly commercialized.

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c. India‘s ‗surrogacy industry‘ faces regulation.

d. The Indian government is likely to close down the ‗rent-a-womb‘ industry.
179. The Nazis did not kill the Jews because they wanted their territory—the Jews had none; or
because the Jews were followers of a rival religious faith—the Nazis and their henchmen were
atheists and enemies of all religion. Even less did the Nazis kill Jews because of their ideological
differences—Jews had no peculiarly ―Jewish‖ ideology. Nor did the Nazis exterminate the Jews in
order to take their property—most Jews were poor, and those who owned anything probably would
have given it up gladly in order to save themselves.
Which of the following conclusions follows from the above?
a. Nazis‘ extermination of Jews had only one motive—hatred.
b. No known motives can be attributed to the Nazis‘ extermination of Jews.
c. The Nazis exterminated the Jews because of the Nazis perceived Jews as a threat.
d. The Nazis‘ extermination of Jews lacks the usual motives found in other massacres.
180. ―Be careful what you post on Facebook,‖ US President Barack Obama warned American high
school students this past September. ―Whatever you do, it will be pulled up again later somewhere in
your life.‖ In fact, we all are coming to learn that lesson the hard way: digital information almost
never goes away, even if we wish that it would. The result is the permanence of the past in the
present. This fact is one of the biggest challenges that society will face as computers and the Internet
become more a part of everyday life.
Which of the following best strengthens the above argument?
a. We tend to retain our rough drafts, years of e-mail traffic, and thousands of digital snapshots in our
computers.
b. We have much to gain individually and as a society from sharing information with each other.
c. We are increasingly confronted with outdated information taken out of context, from stories we
had long ago forgotten.
d. We tend to take actually much more time and effort to shed data than to keep it.
Directions for Q.181-185 The passage below is followed by several inferences which can be drawn
from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference in the context of the
passage and decide upon its degree of truth and falsity:
Passage:In a sensational seizure, customs sleuths recovered 184 gold biscuits concealed in the dry-
ice food trolley from a Frankfurt-Delhi flight at IGI Airport. The massive gold-haul valued at over 10
crore has had all the trappings of a Bollywood thriller wherein the two passengers, alleged to be the
kingpins of the illegal enactment, were trapped at the customs counter immediately after the gold
was recovered from the Delhi-bound Lufthansa flight at around 1.05 a.m. Customs authorities have
arrested six persons including two loaders of the private agency involved in supplying food inside
the plane. According to the customs officials, more arrests were likely to be made. The gold biscuits
have the mark of the United bank of Switzerland.
181. The customs authorities suspect the involvement of many more persons in the smuggling.
a)Definitely true b) probably true c) probably false d) Definitely false

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182. The loaders were of Swiss origin.
183. The United bank of Frankfurt manufactures these biscuits.

184. Most Bollywood thrillers feature smugglers, the police and custom officers as characters.
185. The flight was going to Frankfurt.
Directions for questions 186-189: 5 boys Nitish, Vikas, Amit, Shashwat and Sudhanshu were
friends with 5 girls Alpana, Bhawana, Apra, Shruti and Mannat such that each boy was friend with
one or more girl. Further it was found that two boys were friend with two girls each, one boy was
friend with one girl, one boy was friend with three girls while one boy was friend with four
girls.Further information is as follows:
1. Nitish was friend with Apra only. Also, there was no other boy who was friend with Apra.
2. Vikas was friends with more number of girls as compared to three other boys.
3. Shruti was friend with Amit, Vikas and Shashwat only.
4. Shashwat was the most popular and was friend with the maximum number of girls.
5. Vikas and Amit were not friends with Mannat.
6. Amit and Sudhanshu did not have any common friend.
186: Who among the following was friend with exactly 2 girls?
a. Sudhanshu b. Nitish c. Vikas d. None of these
187: How many girls were friend with exactly 3 boys?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
188: Who among the following were friends with Amit?

a. Shruti and Alpana
b. Shruti and Bhawana
c. Bhawana and Alpana
d. cannot be determined
189: Who among the following is not friends with Alpana?

a. Amit b. Sudhanshu c. Vikas d. cannot be determined
Directions for questions 190-193:5 extra classes were to be arranged for the students of
B.Tech as a part of their placement drive. The extra classes will be in the areas of C Prog, Java,
OS, Software Engineering and DBMS in no particular order and would be conducted one on
each day from Monday to Saturday with a day of rest in between. Further information is as
follows:
1. C Programming has to be conducted on Thursday.
2. There is a gap of exactly two days between Java and OS.

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3. DBMS cannot be the last class to be conducted among the 5 classes. Also, the rest day can
neither be on Monday nor on Saturday.
4. The class on DBMS is scheduled immediately before the Java class but not on the first day
of the week.
5. The Java class has to be scheduled before the class on OS.
190: When is the rest day scheduled?

a. Tuesday b. Wednesday c. Thursday d. Friday
191: Which is the first class to be scheduled?

a. Java b. Software Engg. c. OS d. C Prog.
192: If Monday is the first day, on which day is OS scheduled?

a. 3rd b. 4th c. 5th d. 6th
193: In how many different ways can the classes be scheduled?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
Directions for questions 194-197: There are 8 classrooms located on both sides of a corridor in a
college. Each of the classroom is allotted to exactly one of the 8 courses B.Tech, MCA, MBA, BBA,
BCA, B.Com, BSc. and Fashion Design. There are 4 classrooms on one side and 4 classrooms on the
other side of the corridor.Further instructions are as follows:
1. The MBA and BBA classrooms are not on the same side of the corridor.
2. B.Com is allotted the 3rd classroom from the entrance.
3. The BSc classroom is the last classroom on one side and is farthest from the MCA classroom on
the other side.
4. The MBA classroom is the first classroom on the same side as the B.Com classroom.
5. Fashion Design and BCA have been allotted alternate classrooms.
6. The B.Tech classroom is opposite the BCA classroom.
194: Which classroom is farthest from the MBA classroom on the same side?
a. BBA b. BCA c. Fashion Design d. cannot be determined
195: The B.Tech classroom is alternate to which classroom?

a. B.Sc b. B.Com c. MBA d. cannot be determined
196: If we count from the farthest end of the corridor, BCA classroom is at what position?
a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th
197: Which classroom is opposite to the Fashion Design classroom?

a. B.Com b. BCA c. BSc. d. cannot be determined
198: If TRUCK is coded as LDVSU in a certain language, how will CLOCK be coded in the same
language?
a. LDPMD b. LDMPD c. LPDMD d. none of these

laws of India.
CP/16/C03
199: There are 17 identical things. All of them are of the same weight except one which is heavier
than the others. Using a pan balance, find the minimum number of weighings to identify the heavier
one?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 3 d. 4
200: If Ramesh is the only son of the daughter of Govind‘s mother-in-law, how is
Ramesh related to the daughter of Govind‘s wife?
a. brother b. cousin c. nephew d. cannot be determined

laws of India.

Mock Clat-3: Directions (1-3) : Identify The Meanings of The Given Foreign Words

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CP/16/C03

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11. A. category B. set C. section D. subset

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19. Where was Maulvi Abbas captured?

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B. A documentary film on ISIS.

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SECTION II-GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

42. Who has been appointed as Governor of Bihar?

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A. J.P. Rajkhowa B. Ram Nath Kovind

44. The headquarters of Small Industries Development Bank of India is situated in

45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

47. The smallest independent country in the world is

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C. Sangita Basfore D. Sasmita Malik

52. ―Roof of the World‖ is the title given to

53. The longest peninsular river of India is.

58. Bolometer is a device to measure

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C. Thermal Radiation D. Speed of Wind

59. Penguin is the only animal found in the

60. Human sterility is caused mainly due to deficiency of

65. Which freedom fighter died after 64 days of fasting in jail?

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68. 8th BRICS Summit will be held in ______.

70. The third Anglo-Maratha war is associated with?

71. Second Buddhist Council was held at which place?

72. Heun Tsang was a famous visitor during the reign of

74. Champa was the capital of which Maha Janapada?

75. Who were the ―Karoris‖ during the Mughal Period?

76. India Patent Act came into Force in Year

77. ‗Modi – Incredible emergence of a star‖ in Chinese language written.

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A. Sanjaya Baru B. Prakash Karat

78. The world trade Organization (WTO) is located at

80. Yellow revolution is related to

84. First inscriptional reference of sati system has been found at

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85. Apex Bank in agriculture sector is

86. ―Unbelievable – Delhi to Islamabad‘ written by ________?

90. Who has been appointed as BRICS Bank President?

SECTION III-NUMERIC ABILITY

a. Rs.2000 b. Rs.2100 c. Rs.2150.5 d. Rs.2175.5

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a. 25% profit b. 30% profit c. 45% profit d. 21.5% profit

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110: Find the day of the week on 27th January 1980?

SECTION IV-LEGAL APTITUDE

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114. Which is the largest minority religion in India?

b) A is liable for accident as he lit fire in a forest

c) A is not liable as this was an exceptional case

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Which of the derivations is correct?

b) Mike is not liable as he did argue Rachel‘s case

c) Mike is liable because Rachel lost the case

Which of the derivations is correct?

b) Medant is not liable as he was just incompetent not negligent

c) Medant is liable because he has duty of care

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