Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
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D. Owner
8. The person who holds the legal right of possession or title to a
building or real property.
A. Occupant
B. Organic Peroxide
C. Overloading
D. Owner
12. Any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the
ground to the sky, deeded, dedicated or otherwise permanently
appropriated for public use.
A. Oxidizing Material
B. Pressurized Or Forced Draft Burning Equipment
C. Public Assembly Meeting
D. Public Way
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C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting
15. Automatic closing doors that are designed to confine smoke and
heat and delay the spread of fire.
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting
17. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the
interior parts of a house or building.
A. Vestibule
B. Vertical Shaft
C. Smelting Fire
D. None of the above
A. Vestibule
B. Vertical Shaft
C. Smelting Fire
D. None of the above
19. The continued incandescent burning of a fire after the flame has
been extinguished.
A. Afterglow
B. Alligator Blisters
C. Ampere
D. Arcing
21. Blisters on wood caused by a fire whose look and texture resembles
an alligator's skin.
A. Afterglow
B. Alligator Blisters
C. Ampere
D. Arcing
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22. A material, usually a flammable to combustible liquid, which is used
to either initiate or hasten the spread of fire.
A. Accelerant
B. Afterglow
C. Ampere
D. Arcing
23. When pure electricity jumps across a gap in a circuit. The intense
heat at the arc may ignite any nearby combustible material or may
fuse the metal conductors.
A. Accelerant
B. Afterglow
C. Ampere
D. Arcing
26. A term used to describe the effect heat has on the wire springs of a
chair, sofa, or vehicle seat. It causes the springs to flatten out and lose
their tension. Does not indicate a liquid accelerant was present. May be
the result of a rapid or smoldering fire.
A. Accelerant
B. Annealing
C. Area of Origin
D. Nome of the above
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29. Swelling caused by the expansion of gas inside a material while it is
still soft or liquid due to heat. Can occur on painted surfaces of
materials when heated.
A. Blistering
B. Annealing
C. Arcing
D. None of the above
30. The lowest temperature at which a combustible liquid or vapor can
ignite without the application of a flame or other means of ignition.
A. Auto ignition Temperature
B. Boiling Temperature
C. Boiling Point
D. None of the above
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B. Burning Rate
C. Carbonaceous
D. Carbonization
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D. Creosote
45. Tempered glass that has broken into small squarish shaped
segments with rounded edges.
A. Crystallized
B. Current
C. Direct current
D. Downdraft
51. A fire started by flaming or glowing material failing from the wall or
ceiling to the floor area below.
A. Downdraft
B. Drop fire
C. Drying oil
D. None of the above
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52. An organic liquid which, when applied as a thin film, readily absorbs
oxygen from the air and polymerizes to form a tough elastic film.
A. Downdraft
B. Drop fire
C. Drying oil
D. None of the above
57. Building material made from felted wood and other fibres and a
suitable binder. A generic term.
A. Fibreboard
B. Fire behavior
C. Fire gas
D. Fire pattern
58. The manner in which fuel ignites, flames develop and heat and fire
spread.
A. Fibreboard
B. Fire behavior
C. Fire gas
D. Fire pattern
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60. A structural element made in accordance to Building Code
requirements so that it will resist fire for a given period of time.
A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability
63. The relative ease with which various fuels ignite and burn
regardless of the quantity of fuel involved.
A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability
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A. Hydrocarbons
B. Ignition
C. Inkblot Pattern
D. Kindling Temperature
70. A condition in which fire and heated gas rise to the uppermost
point inside a building or room and begin to build down laterally to
other areas.
A. Mushrooming
B. Open Flame
C. Overhauling
D. Petroleum products
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D. Probable cause
77. The most useful and efficient method of determining the origin and
cause of a fire.
A. Process of elimination
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action
79. When a spilled liquid accelerant flows to its lowest level due to
gravity, and then pools to form a puddle.
A. Process of elimination
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action
82. Heat from a fire that radiates back to the fuel causing increased
vapour production.
A. Pyrophoric carbon
B. Radiation feedback
C. Resistance
D. Scorching
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D. Scorching
85. The area where the main body of the fire is located, as determined
by the outward movement of heat and gases; where the fire is deep-
seated.
A. Seat of the fire
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering
86. A fire caused by a primary fire,a drop fire could cause a secondary
fire a considerable distance from the point of origin.
A. Seat of the fire
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering
90. When a liquid accelerant is poured onto a floor and spatters or runs
in finger patterns.
A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion
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A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion
96. Column of smoke and gases given off by fires moving upwards
because heated gases expand and become lighter and rise. Chimney
effect.
A. Spontaneous ignition
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Sublimation
D. Thermal column
98. When there is one or more probable fire causes, but none are
conclusive.
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A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability
99. It was used by early humans to warm themselves, cook food, and
frighten away predators.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Conflagration
D. Inferno
100. The use of fire became widespread at about how many years ago?
A. 1,000 years ago
B. 100,000 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago
D. 300,000 years ago
102. It was an ancient City that were destroyed several times by fire,
perhaps due to war, perhaps due to accident.
A. City of Toy
B. City of Troy
C. City of Tray
D. City of Toys
103. One of the world’s greatest losses was caused by a fire in the
great library of?
A. Alexander, Egypt
B. Alexandrio, Egypt
C. Alexandros, Egypt
D. Alexandria, Egypt
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106. Wild plants and trees are burned to clear patches of land for
cultivation to quickly enrich nutrient-poor tropical soils.
A. Slash-and-slash agriculture
B. Slash-and-burn agriculture
C. Slush-and-slush agriculture
D. Slush-and-burn agriculture
107. It can occur wherever fuel and oxygen are available including
office buildings, homes, vehicles, and forests.
A. Deforestation
B. Reforestation
C. Destructive fires
D. Kaingin
110. It results from a rapid chemical reaction between fuel and oxygen.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan
111. Is a heat and light from rapid combination of oxygen and other
materials.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan
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114. It is an exothermic, self-sustaining, oxidizing chemical reaction
producing energy and glowing hot matter, of which a very small portion
is plasma.
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Enduthermic
D. Exuthermic
115. There are three components required for a fire which are?
A. Fuel, Ignition, Combustion
B. Fuel, Combustion, Oxidation
C. Fuel, Oxygen, Heat sources
D. Ignition, Oxygen,Combustion
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122. It is material or substance that under proper conditions will
release gases, including oxygen.
A. Reducing agent
B. Heat
C. Oxidizing Agent
D. Chemical Reaction
125. This term has been used in the past to indicate potential severity
of a fire, and has been expressed in terms of btus or pound of fuel per
square foot or floor area.
A. Oxygen load
B. Fuel load
C. Fire load
D. Heat load
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D. Auto-Ignition Temperature
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C. Fire
D. Combustion
138. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for at least 5 seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
139. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
142. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least
five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
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sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on
either side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood race
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap
149. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated
from the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two
hard surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching
153. The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement
of fluids
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above
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154. It is the used to describe the magnitude, direction, and intensity
of fire spread.
A. Behavior of Fire
B. Chemistry of Fire
C. Suppression of Fire
D. None of the above
156. The term describes the transfer of heat within solid material from
hotter to cooler part.
A. Conduction
B Convection
C. Radiation
D. None Of The Above
157. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to light
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None Of The Above
158. The earliest phase of fire may or may not occur unnoticed.
A. Oxygen-Regulated Smoldering
B. Incipient
C. Free-Burning
D. Emergent Smoldering
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162. This is fire that involves combustible metals, such as sodium,
magnesium and potassium.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire
163. This is fire that involves flammable gases, such as natural gas,
hydrogen, propane and butane.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire
164. This is fire that involves any materials found in Class A and B fires.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire
165. These are fires that involve flammable liquid or liquefied solids,
such as petron or gasoline, oils, paints some waxes and plastics, but
not involving cooking oils and fats.
A. Class A Fire
B. Class B Fire
C. Class C Fire
D. Class D Fire
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170. Is a group of systems that required some amount of action or
motion in order to work efficiently in the event of a fire.
A. Passive Fire Protection
B. Active Fire Protection
C. Fire Safety Education
D. Fire Prevention
176. Buildings may also be equipped with detection systems that will
transmit an alarm.
A. Standpipe System
C. A And B
B. Sprinkler System
D. Alarm System
177. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be
heated in order to initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without
the addition of heat from outside sources.
A. Boiling point
B. Ignition temperature
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C. Fire point
D. Flash point
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D. None of the foregoing
186. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials
A. Class a fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire
188. The collection of debris at the origin of the fire should include all
_____ materials.
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Porous
D. Non-porous
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194. In handling class D fires, which among the following may not be
used?
A. Dry powder, ABC chemical
B. Baking soda
C. Water
D. Sand
196. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C
fire?
A. CO₂
B. Sand
C. Water
D. Baking soda
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A. Dust
B. Oxidizing materials
C. Fire point
D. Flash point
209. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the
material with unit temperature gradient.
A. Conduction
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Radiation
D. Oxidation
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210. A mean of heat transfer trough space or materials as waves.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Fission
211. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
A. Providential fire
B. Accidental fire
C. Intentional fire
D. None of the foregoing
215. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire
gases within a building or structure under natural condition.
A. Free radical
B. Pyrolysis
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance
216. In this place of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities is develop.
A. Initial phase
B. Incipient phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
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218. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion
of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance
224. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. Gas
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226. It is amount of heat necessary to covert solid to liquid.
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of combustion
D. Heat of fusion
229. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
A. Backdraft
B. Flashover
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Falling debris
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234. A device used by arsonist to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
235. Most common reason of arson cases.
A. Revenge
B. Profit
C. Competition
D. Anger
239. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
A. Black bone
B. Used petroleum
C. Soot
D. Black iron
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242. An enclose vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as
well as from the base to the top of the building.
A. Stand pipe system
B. Sprinkler system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Flash point
246. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light
of combustion.
A. Oxidation
B. Flash point
C. Smoldering
D. Fire
247. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Dust
B. Fire lane
C. Fire trap
D. Fire hazard
248. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes
place.
A. Endothermic reaction
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion
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250. Refer to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation
whereby the organic fuel is converted to water and carbon dioxide.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Calorific value
C. Fuel value
D. All of these
252. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are
called to normal temperature.
A. Fire gases
B. Combustion gases
C. Oxidation gases
D. Flame
254. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern are
fingerprint of fire is developed.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
255. Phase where by the fire can no longer support the flame and
carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
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D. Potassium
258. When black smoke with red and blue green flames is visible in the
fire, it indicates that this material is burning.
A. Petroleum products
B. Chlorine of manganese
C. Asphalt singles
D. Potassium
260. Any condition or act which increases or may cause increase in the
probability of the occurrence of fire or which may abstract, delay,
hinder or interfere with firefighting operations and the safe guarding of
life and property is called.
A. Duct system
B. Fire hazard
C. Hose reel system
D. Abatement
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265. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson.
A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with own hand
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and
positive not circumstantial
D. The presumption that the fire was accident in origin must be
overcome
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A. Firewood
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap
272. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called –
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching
273. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
that is burning, in order to be of value to the investigator, observation
should be made
A. During the fire
B. After the water has been poured
C. After the fire
D. During overhaul
275. The type of flame which do not deposit soot because it has
complete combustion is called –
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Laminar flame
C. Diffusion flame
D. Luminous flame
278. Which of the following is commonly used to put out class C Fires?
A. CO2
B. Sand
C. Water
D. Baking Soda
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279. A fire which uses a flammable liquid as fuel is classified as:
A. Class A fire
B. Class B Fire
C. Class C Fires
D. Class D fires
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D.The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin
must be overcome
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294. Probably one of the most frequent and definite clues to arson or
attempted arson is
A. Intensity of the flame
B. Multiple fires
C. Odor of burning materials
D. Difficulty in extinguishments
299. The spread o fire from floor to floor in the same building is
usually the result of
A. Fires burning through floors
B. Failure to look of fire doors
C. Open stairways of shafts
D. External exposures through windows
300. A tendency to call for help only after the force on hand has
definitely proved inadequate inexcusable. This view is
A. Correct, there are always sufficient number of people who
interested to give their hands
B. Not correct, calling for help before it is needed results
needles expenditures
C. Correct, by the time help comes, the fire maybe
extended beyond the control of the added force
D. Not correct, call for help only when needed
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301. You arrive first at an auto mobile fire. A short circuit causes a fire
under the hood which has spread to the dashboard and wires are also
smoldering; of the following acts, the one which should be performed
first is
A. Cool the hood by applying the water
B. Apply ashes, sand or earth on the hood
C. Cut the ignition wiring using a knife
D. Disconnect the battery terminal connections
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308. The public attitude towards fire prevention which is the most
difficult to overcome is
A. Maliciousness
B. Indifferences
C. Laziness
D. Obstinacy
314. Motives for arson can be divided into for broad classification, of
the following motives, the one that not apply is
A. Duress
B. Spite
C. Pyromania
D. Profit
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B. Spite
C. Jealousy
D. Profit
316. You were on your way home late at night when you noticed
smoke pouring out on one of the window in a house in which several
families reside. You first consideration under these circumstances
should be to
A. Determine the cause of smoke
B. Arouse all the residents of the house
C. Carry out the safety any person overcome by smoke
D. Summon fire apparatus to the scene of the fire
317. Of the following, the one which is perhaps the most important
element in fire prevention in residences is
A. Periodic inspection by the members of the fire department
B. Care in the operation of electrical appliances
C. Proper and regular disposal of combustible wastes
D. Radio announcement calling attention to fire hazards in the
house
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322. Which of the following is most likely to constitute a fire hazard
A. Sodium chloride
B. Chromium
C. Calcium chloride
D. Silicon dioxide
323. Exit doors in theatre should swing out in the direction of the
street mainly because
A. People should walk, not run, to the nearest exit
B. Exits are more readily seen
C. The doors may not catch fire
D. Audience can go out easier
325. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose, they usually
lean forward on the hose. The likely reason for taking this position is
that
A. The surrounding air is cool, making the firemen comfortable
B. The firemen can better see where the stream strikes
C. The stream projected farther
D. A backward force is developed which must be
counteracted
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C. Ashes
D. Burned plasters
330. After a fire, which of the following conditions that were noted
may not be a good? Indication that the fire is used to conceal another
crime?
A. Documents and records that were left purposely exposed
B. Metal file cabinets that were left opened
C. Windows forced open
D. Furniture that were deliberately rearrange
331. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
the is burning, in order to be of value to the investigation, observation
should be made
A. Before the fire
B. After the fire
C. After the water has been poured
D. During overhaul
333. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace
the fire to its origin because_.
A. The alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of
the surrounding areas
B. The checks of the charring process will be larger then the
surrounding areas
C. The pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller
and deeper than the rest of the areas
D. The point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas
335. The purpose of the opening of the doors and windows of adjacent
rooms of burning building is to _.
A. Extinguish the fire
B. Prevent back draft
C. Supply the oxygen of the area
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D. Serve as entrance of firemen
338. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the
same time is called_.
A. Separate burning
B. Non-related burning
C. Simultaneous burning
D. Related burning
341. When water comes in contact with fire, white smoke is produced.
But if it comes before the water from the fire hose hits the fire, the
burning substance could be_.
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Petroleum products
C. Humid or organic substance
D. Accelerants
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343. A toxic deadly gas produced during fire when there is insufficient
oxygen for the complete combustion of all the carbon in the burning
substance is known as_.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Hydrogen gas
344. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
is burning. In order to be of value to the investigator, observation
should be made_.
A. At the start of fire
B. During smoldering stage
C. After water from hose comes in contact with flame
D. Before water from hose made in contact with the fire
349. Among the statements below is the best protection against fire.
A. Performing good house keeping chores
B. Practicing fire prevention measures
C. Having adequate fire fighting facilities
D. Awareness of fire hazards
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B. Methods Of Extinguishing Fire
C. Most Suitable Extinguishing Agent
D. Flammability Of The Combustible
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359. The head of the BFP with the rank of Director shall have a
position title of?
A. BFP Director
B. Fire Marshal
C. Fire Chief
D. Chief Superintendent
360. Who is the appointing officer of the Fire Chief of the BFP?
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DILG
C. President of the Republic
D. PPSC
364. A device used by the arsonist to spread the fire within the room
or throughout the structure?
A. Accelerant
B. Trailer
C. Smoke
D. Pyromaniac
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D. R.A.6975
368. Mr. Arso Nista had an incendiary material capable to burn the
house of his enemy. While he was in front of the gate of his house he,
he was caught by the authorities. Being the best investigator, what
should you do?
A. Charge him with frustrated arson
B. Charge w/ illegal possession of incendiary
C. Charge him with attempted arson
D. Nothing to be charge
369. The commercial building of Mr. Co Tong was on fire. The best
place to put a command center/operation at the fire scene should be
in?
A. At the back of the building
B. At the left corner of the building
C. At the front center of the building
D. At the opposite corner of the building
371. Mr. Arso Nista intentionally burned the house of Mr. Patulog
Tulog which unfortunately, only the sala was burned. What is the
criminal liability of Mr. Arso Nista was done?
A. Frustrated arson
B. Malicious mischief
C. Attempted arson
D. Consummated arson
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374. A fire involving energized electrical equipment?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
379. Estimating the situation at the fire scene and formulating tactics
on how to fight the fire?
A. Size up
B. Rescue
C. Ventilation
D. Salvage
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D. Rescue
385. Any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degree Celsius or
100 Fahrenheit
A. Combustible Liquid
B. Abatement
C. Combustible Fiber
D. Blasting Agent
388. It can report on which part of the building was ablaze when first
noticed?
A. Fire fighters
B. Owner or manager of the structure
C. Person who discovered the fire
D. Employees
389. There are able to point the origin of structure fire, in contrast to
forest or grass fires, almost 50 percent of the time?
A. Owner or manager of the structure
B. Firefighter
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C. Employees
D. Person who discovered the fire
392. The threat of arson has caused individuals to fear for their safety?
A. Threatened economic loss
B. Chance of policy
C. Fear for safety
D. Intimidation
394. It is the some arsonists will set a fire in order to discover it and
then save the inhabitants or contents?
A. Vandalism
B. Recognition as a hero
C. Pyromania
D. Concealment of other crime
397. The first step of recognizing the problem is after the fire has
occurred?
A. Recognition the problem
B. Defining the problem
C. Collecting data
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D. Analyzing data
401. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster
or gypsum wall surfaces?
A. Calcination
B. Line or area of demarcation
C. Spalling
D. Glass as an indication.
402. This refers to the half-moon shapes that are sometimes seen on
the surface of glass items?
A. Heat shadowing
B. Checkering
C. Light bulbs
D. Protected area
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D. Organic peroxide
406. The fire consumes the host solid part of the fuel?
A. Pyrolysis
B. Biomass
C. Fire
D. Fuel
410. Fatal condition that take place when the fire resists
extinguishment operation.
A. Flashover
B. Flash fire
C. Backdraft
D. Bite back
412. This may happen when a metal post that is completely covered
with dust is going to be hit by a lighting?
A. Flash over
B. Flash over
C. Backdraft
D. Lightning
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414. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property?
A. Flame
B. Conflagration
C. Burning
D. Combustion
421. A passage hall of ante chamber between the outer doors and the
interior parts of a house or building?
A. Vestibule
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B. Standpipe system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Sprinkler system
423. Known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into law
1997, repealed by RA no. 9514?
A. RA no. 9263
B. RA no. 9514
C. RA no. 9325
D. RA no. 1185
424. Any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the
ground to the sky, dedicated for public use?
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading
425. The person who holds the legal right of possession or tittle to a
building or real property.
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading
56
429. The purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or
intended to be used?
A. Organic peroxide
B. Occupancy
C. Jumper
D. Occupant
433. A box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment are
stored and arranged for firefighting?
A. Fulminate
B. Forcing
C. Hose box
D. Flash point
57
A. Fire alarm
B. Fire truck
C. Fire door
D. Fire lane
437. A normally open device installed inside an air duct system which
automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. Curtain board
B. Distillation
C. Dust
D. Damper
438. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burn and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames?
A. Fire
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Ember
D. Electrical arc
439. Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter
or with certain chemicals?
A. Combustible liquid
B. Combustible fiver
C. Corrosive liquid
D. Blasting agent
443. Commonly recognized type of fire and occurs with gaseous fuel
sources only.
A. Flaming combustion
B. Explosive combustion
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Glowing combustion
58
444. The mechanism in which fire can spread from its origin to other
sources of fuel?
A. Heat release rate
B. Ignition or auto ignition
C. Heat transfer
D. Fire point or flame point
445. Can occur when vapors, dust of gases, premix with appropriate
amount of air are ignited?
A. Explosive combustion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Flaming combustion
D. Glowing combustion
446. Which are not included to the three fold aim of criminal
investigation?
A. Identifying the perpetrator
B. Locate the perpetrator
C. Provide evidence
D. Locate evidence
448. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster
or gypsum wall surfaces.
A. Calcination
B. Heat indicators
C. Glass as an indication
D. Depth of char
450. It is the stage at which the investigator may express his or her
opinion about the origin, which cause and responsibility of the fire
incident.
A. Developing hypothesis
B. Analyzing data
C. Collecting data
D. Defining the problem
59
452. If sprinkled over a suspected area, dyes soluble only in organic
solvents can changes to red or another, depending on the dye.
A. Visual observation
B. Detecting by scent
C. Dye color test
D. Instrumental devices
453. Well over a dozen instruments are available for the detection of
accelerant.
A. Visual observation
B. Detecting by devices
C. Dye color test
D. Instrumental devices
459. This domestic quarrel and feuds between neighbours are often
marked by arson.
A. Jealousy
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B. Spite
C. Revenge
D. Hatred
461. It is the threat of arson has caused individuals to fear for their
safety.
A. Change of policy
B. Fear for safety
C. Threatened economic loss
D. Intimidation
462. This arson has been used tom press for a change in governmental
policy.
A. Change of policy
B. Fear for safety
C. Threatened economic loss
D. Intimidation
464. People who do not live below the poverty line cannot know the
hardships endured by those who live on the edge.
A. Financial gain
B. Insurance fraud
C. Elimination of competition
D. Moving and resettlement allowance
465. Refers for resident fires that occur during normal sleeping hours,
occupants will generally be found out on the street.
A. Neighbours and tenants
B. Spectators of the scene
C. News media camera technicians
D. Fortuitous witnesses
61
467. It refers water and foam fire extinguishers extinguish the fire by
taking away the heat element of the fire triangle.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water and foam
C. Dry chemical
D. Wet chemical
472. It is the fire engine may have several methods of pumping water
into the fire.
A. Turntable ladder
B. Quint and quad
C. Fire engine
D. Fire-aircraft
474. This buildings may also be equipped with detection systems that
will transmit an alarm.
A. Sprinkler system
B. Standpipe system
C. Alarm system
D. None of the above
62
475. This building and fire inspectors check on appliances of a building
under construction with the building code.
A. Fire protection
B. Fire safety
C. Active fire protection
D. Law enforcement
478. In Greek mythology he is the God of fire and metalwork, and who
is the son of the God Zeus and the Goddess Hera, or sometimes the
son of Hera alone.
A. Aphrodite
B. Prometheus
C. Hephaestus
D. Hestia
479. It is a species a few man who lived from about 1.8 million to about
30,000 years ago, was the first to use fire on a regular basis.
A. Homo sapiens
B. Homo erectus
C. Homo habilis
D. None of the above
482. Any readily ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton, rugs,
waste paper and other similar materials commonly used in commerce.
A. Abatement
63
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic
490. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound
of water one degree F.
64
A. Backdraft
B. Boiling point
C. British Thermal Unit
D. None of the above
491. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram
of water one degree Centigrade.
A. Calorie
B. Centigrade
C. Chemical Heat Energy
D. Heat of Combustion
492. On the Centigrade scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water.
A. Calorie
B. Centigrade
C. Chemical Heat Energy
D. Heat of Combustion
65
D. Class K fires
66
C. Heat from Arcing
D. Heat generated by lightning
67
513. The temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce vapors
sufficient to support combustion once ignited. The fire point is usually
a few degrees above the flash point.
A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Exothermic Heat Reaction
C. Fahrenheit
D. Fire point
520. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for atleast 5 seconds after ignition by an open
flame.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
68
D. Smoke
521. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
526. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor
to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. Sprinkle evidence
B. Vertical shaft
C. Flash point
D. Standpipe system
69
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement
530. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated
from the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two
hard surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching
534. The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement
of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above
70
536. An instance of a fire spreading very rapidly across a gap because
of intense heat. Occurs when a room or other area becomes heated to
the point where flames flash over the entire surface or area.
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit
B. Flashover
C. Flashpoint
D. Fuel
71
D. Heating
72
D. Friction Sparks
551. The heat generated in the form of sparks from solid objects
striking each other. Most often at least one of the objects is metal.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Frictional Heat
D. Friction Sparks
555. These are materials that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases
during the course of a chemical reaction.
A. Heat of Compression
B. Nuclear Fission and Fusion
C. Oxidation
D. Oxidizing Agents
73
D. Blanketing
561. It administers and enforces the fire code of the Philippines. This
shall have the power to investigate all causes of fires and, if necessary,
file the proper complaints with the city or provincial prosecutor who
has jurisdiction over the case.
A. Bureau of Fire Protection
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Philippine National Police
D. Armed Forces of the Philippines
564. Method of extinguishing fire cooling the fuel with water to a point
where it does not produce sufficient vapor to burn.
A. Specific Gravity
B. Spontaneous Heating
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density
74
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density
567. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember
569. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burned, and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames.
A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember
75
presence or danger of fire to enable them to undertake immediate
action to save life and property and to suppress the fire.
A. Finishes
B. Fire
C. Fire Trap
D. Fire alarm
76
B. Fulminate
C. Hazardous Operation/Process
D. Horizontal Exit
583. A box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment
are stored and arranged for firefighting.
A. Hose Box
B. Hose Reel
C. Hypergolic Fuel
D. Industrial Baking and Drying
77
A. It does not conform with the regular investigative procedure
B. Unavailability of witness
C. Fires destroys evidence
D. All of the foregoing
592. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities are developed.
A. Initial phase
B. Incipient phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
595. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
78
A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. Gas
596. When this constitutes most of the combustible materials in the fire
is produces a bright reddish yellow flames.
A. Petroleum products
B. Calcium
C. Asphalt shingles
D. Potassium
597. When black smoke with red and blue-green flames is visible in the
fire, it indicate that this material is burning.
A. Petroleum products
B. Chlorine manganese
C. Asphalt shingles
D. Potassium
599. This is one of the technique that can be used to determine the fire
origin.
A. Laboratory Analysis of Evidence
B. Fire Pattern Analysis
C. Background and Financial Investigation
D. Physical and Trace Analysis
601. The arsonist employ this to delay the start of a fire and allow them
to establish an alibi.
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire
602. A simple but effective ignition and timing device involve the use of
what?
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire
79
603. These are used to extend the fire from plant or set to other parts
of the structure.
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire
607. This are like electrical engineers and metallurgist are critical
during fire investigations.
A. Fire testing
B. Scan electron microscope
C. Material experts
D. Hydrocarbon electron
608. They utilize arc mapping in order to determine electrical arcs or
faults that may have occurred during a fire.
A. Metallurgists
B. Electrical engineers
C. Fire tester
D. Material experts
609. These are useful in mapping out the point of origin and showing
how a fire is initiated.
A. Fire vectoring and modelling
B. Modelling career
C. Fire vender
D. Fire engine
700. Even photos obtained by this are helpful in showing the condition
of a building, the fuel load and type of roof structure prior to a fire.
A. Google images
B. Instagram Images
C. Facebook Images
D. Gallery Images
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701. Other arsonist light fires for monetary reasons. These people may
start a fire to fraudulently collect on an insurance claim.
A. Economic type
B. Political type
C. Government type
D. Behavioural Type
703. This arson refers to one, two, or three fires being set in different
locations with no cooling-off period in between.
A. Single, single, double and double type
B. Single, double or triple type
C. Single and double type
D. Single type
706. Any persons who burns or sets fire to the property of another shall
be punished by?
A. Prision Mayor
B. Arresto Menor
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. Lifetime imprisonment
81
709. The highest percentage of concentration by volume of flammable
vapour mixed with air which will bum with a flame.
A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability
717. The mechanism on the end of the fly ladder that locks to the bed
ladder.
A. Halyard
B. Pawi
82
C. Rung
D. Top
719. Used to hook over a roof peak, sills, or walls where the heel done
not rest on a foundation.
A. Hooks
B. Stops
C. Guides
D. None of the above
723. What is the best general cooling agent for firefighter purposes.
A. Water
B. Fire Extinguisher
C. Capricorn
D. None of the above
724. Endothermic reaction release or give off energy thus they produce
substances with less energy than the reactants.
A. The statement is true
B. The statement is false
C. Either true or false
D. None of the above
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726. Luminous flame is a bluish in color.
A. The statement is false
B. Either true or false
C. The statement is true
D. None of the above
728. It is known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into
law 1977, repealed by RA no. 9514.
A. PD. 1185
B. RA 9514
C. RA 9263
D. None of the above
729. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008 (Dec. 19, 2008).
A. PD. 1185
B. RA 9514
C. RA 9263
D. None of the above
730. A tool used to stop the flow of water in a fire hose without shutting
off the entire source of water supply.
A. Hose clamp
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder
732. Are used to open and close fire hydrants and to remove hydrant
caps.
A. Hose clamp
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder
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734. It is defined as an irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire
or something on fire.
A. Pyromaniac
B. Pyromania
C. Recidivist
D. None of the above
85
742. It is the heat and light came from the rapid combination of oxygen
and other materials.
A. Flame
B. Light
C. Burn
D. Fire
743. It is the visible, gaseous part of a fire.
A. Flame
B. Light
C. Burn
D. Fire
744. It is the unburnable solid remains of a combustible material left
after a fire.
A. Soot
B. Clinker
C. Wood
D. None of the above
745. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to
set off explosive.
A. Blasing agent
B. Blasé agent
C. Blasting agent
D. None of the above
746. Any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degree Celsius or
100 Fahrenheit.
A. Combustible solid
B. Combustible liquid
C. Combustible gas
D. Corrosive liquid
747. Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter
or with certain chemical.
A. Combustible solid
B. Combustible liquid
C. Combustible gas
D. Corrosive liquid
748. It is the heat came from the fire in the open rises as a column of
hot gases
A. Flame
B. Flume
C. Plume
D. Plame
749. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and
light of combustion.
A. Flame
B. Fire
86
C. Smoke
D. Soot
750. This is the process of removing the heat from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
751. This is the process of removing the oxygen from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
752. This is the process of removing the fuel from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
753. This agent interrupts the combustion reaction and stop flaming.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
754. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the heat element of the fire extinguisher.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
755. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the oxygen element of the fire extinguisher.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
756. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the heat element of the fire extinguisher and prevent re-ignition by
creating a barrier between oxygen and fuel elements.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
757. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire primarily by
interrupting the chemical reaction of the fire triangle.
A. Class A
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B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
758. It is the product of incomplete combustion?
A. Heat
B. Flame
C. Smoke
D. Soot
759. It is an active fire protection device use to extinguish or control
small fire, often emergency situations.
A. Fire Truck
B. Fire Extinguish
C. Fire Extinguisher
D. Fire Fightin
760. It is an integrated system of underground and overhead piping,
designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards, and
connected to one or more automatic water supplies.
A. Sprinkler System
B. Standpipe system
C. Alarm System
D. Fire Safety
761. The type of flame which do not deposit soot because it has
complete combustion is called –
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Laminar flame
C. Diffusion flame
D. Luminous flame
762. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing
763. Refers to the preparation and gatherings of materials to start a
fire.
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick
764. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation
88
765. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
A. Black bone
B. Used petroleum
C. Soot
D. Black iron
766. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials
A. Class a fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire
767. This usually indicates the intensity of fire.
A. Size of fire
B. Color of smoke
C. Size of flame
D. Color of flame
768. Most common motive in arson cases.
A. Economic gain
B. Concealment of crime
C. Intimidation
D. Punitive measure
769. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called
_____?
A. Latent heat
B. Heat of combustion
C. Specific heat
D. Thermal heat
770. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light .
A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. All of these
771. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
A. Providential fire
B. Accidental fire
C. Intentional fire
D. None of the foregoing
772. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result
of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance
773. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
89
A. Providential
B. Accidental
C. Intentional
D. Incendiarism
774. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a
result of combustion.
A. Fire
B. Flame
C. Heat
D. Smoke
775. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates
the burning material of what material?
A. Rubber
B. Nitrogen products
C. Asphalt
D. Cotton
776. A device used by arsonist to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
777. Most common reason of arson cases.
A. Revenge
B. Profit
C. Competition
D. Anger
778. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation
779. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing
780. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for
any particular establishment.
A. Fire service
B. Fire safety inspection
C. Fire drill
D. Fire protection assembly
90
781. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Dust
B. Fire lane
C. Fire trap
D. Fire hazard
782. Probably one of the most definite clues to arson or attempted
arson is –
A. Intensity of the flame
B. Multiple fires
C. Odor of burning material
D. Difficult in extinguishment
783. A fire can exist in the presence of oxygen, fuel and heat. How
many percent of the oxygen is needed to sustain continuous
combustion?
A. Below 15%
B. At least 16%
C. Not higher than 21%
D. More than 35%
784. A passage hole or antechamber between the outer doors and
interior parts of a house or building.
A. Smelting
B. Refining
C. Distillation
D. Vestibule
785. Color of smoke produced when nitrogen products is combustible
materials being burned while bright red flame are visible.
A. Black smoke
B. Heavy brown smoke
C. White smoke
D. Greenish smoke
786. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern are
fingerprint of fire is developed.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
787. Fire cause by human error and negligence.
A. Providential fires
B. Intentional fires
C. Accidental fires
D. Incendiarism
788. Color of luminous flame.
A. Orange-red
B. Blue
91
C. Yellow
D. Red
789. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it
changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
a. Calorie
b. Latent heat
c. Thermal heat
d. Specific heat
790. Refers to the preparation and gatherings of materials to start a
fire.
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick
791. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium
either gas or a liquid.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
792. It is amount of heat necessary to covert solid to liquid.
a. Specific heat
b. Latent heat
c. Heat of combustion
d. Heat of fusion
793. Which among the following is the primary objective in
investigating fire?
a. To determine its cause
b. To prevent reoccurrence
c. To determine liable persons
d. All of these
794. In this place of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities is develop.
a. Initial phase
b. Incipient phase
c. Free burning phase
d. Smoldering phase
795. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion
of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
796. Known as ignition heat, it is refer to any contrivance to start a fire.
92
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. None of the foregoing
797. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire
gases within a building or structure under natural condition.
a. Free radical
b. Pyrolysis
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
798. Known as ignition heat, it is refer to any contrivance to start a fire.
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. None of the foregoing
799. A means of heat transfer trough space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
800. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors
are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion.
a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
801. Instrument used to open/close the fire hydrants
a. Sprinkle
b. Fire pump
c. Fire hose
d. Hydrant key
802. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C
fire?
a. CO2
b. Sand
c. Water
d. Baking soda
803. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as :
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
804. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air mixture
must be heated in the order to initiate or cause a self-contain
combustion without the addition of heat from outside resources
93
a. Boiling point ignition
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
805. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
d. Oxidation
806. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless
and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Neon
807. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light
of combustion.
a. Oxidation
b. Flash point
c. Smoldering
d. Fire
808. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes
place.
a. Endothermic reaction
b. Exothermic reaction
c. Oxidation
d. Combustion
809. A phenomenon in which a fire that has consumed all available
oxygen suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made available,
typically
because a door or window has been opened?
A. Boiling point
B. Backdraft
C. Calorie
D. Centigrade
810. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound
of water one degree F?
A. British thermal units
B. Calorie
C. Centigrade
D. Boiling point
811. The temperature of a substance where the rate of evaporation
exceeds the rate of condensation?
A. Boiling point
B. Backdraft
94
C. Calorie
D. Centigrade
812. On the Centigrade scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water?
A. British thermal units
B. Calorie
C. Centigrade
D. Boiling point
813. The amount of heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)
process?
A. Heat of Combustion
B. Heat of Decomposition
C. Heat of Solution
D. Spontaneous Heating
814. The heat released by the mixture of matter in a liquid?
A. Heat of Combustion
B. Heat of Decomposition
C. Heat of Solution
D. Spontaneous Heating
815. The heating of an organic substance without the addition of
external heat. Spontaneous heating occurs most frequently where
sufficient air is not present to dissipate the heat produced?
a. Heat of Combustion
b. Heat of Decomposition
c. Heat of Solution
d. Spontaneous Heating
816. The release of heat from decomposing compounds?
a. Heat of Combustion
b. Heat of Decomposition
c. Heat of Solution
d. Spontaneous Heating
817. Fires involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium,
zirconium, sodium and potassium?
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
818. Fires involving energized electrical equipment?
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
819. It is a new classification of fire as of 1998 and involves fires in
combustible cooking fuels such as vegetable or animal fats?
95
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
820. Refers to method of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid extinguishment?
A. Electrical heat energy
B. Dielectric Heating
C. Combustion
D. Heat from Arcing
821. Heat released either as a high-temperature arc or as molten
material from the conductor?
A. Electrical heat energy
B. Dielectric Heating
C. Combustion
D. Heat from Arcing
822. The heating that results from the action of either pulsating direct
current, or alternating current at high frequency on a non-conductive
material?
A. Induction Heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Dielectric Heating
823. Refers to method of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid extinguishment?
A. Heat Generated by Lightning
B. Dry Chemicals and Halons
C. Resistance Heating
D. Leakage Current Heating
824. Heat released as an arc between oppositely charged surfaces?
A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Static Electricity Heating
C. Exothermic Heat Reaction
D. Heat Generated by Lightning
825. On the Fahrenheit scale, 32 degrees is the melting point of ice;
212 degrees is the boiling point of water?
A. Fahrenheit
B. Fire point
C. Fire Triangle
D. Flame
96
B. Fire National Training Institute
C. Flash Point
D. Flash Over
827. The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated in
order to start self-sustained combustion independent of the heating
source?
A. Ignition Temperature
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heating
D. Heat Transfer
828. It is transfer of energy, from a hotter body to a colder one, other
than by work or transfer of matter?
A. Heat
B. Heating
C. Fuel
D. Fuel Removal
829. Three elements necessary to create/produced fire in equal
proportion?
A. Fire tetrahedron theory
B. Fire triangle theory
C. Life cycle of fire theory
D. None of the above
830. The fourth element of fire known as the “chemical chain
reaction”?
a. Fire tetrahedron theory
b. Fire triangle theory
c. Life cycle of fire theory
d. None of the above
831. This stages/steps wherein fire is created?
a. Fire tetrahedron theory
b. fire triangle theory
c. life cycle of fire theory
d. None of the above
832. Material/substance being burned in the combustion process?
A. Oxidizing
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
833. Refers the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
834. A series of events that occur in sequence with the results of each
individual reaction being added to the rest?
97
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
835. Material/substance that yield oxygen or oxidizing gases during the
process of a chemical reaction?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical
836. The movement two surfaces against each other?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
837. This heat is generated when a gas is compressed in a container or
cylinder?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
838. An energy possessed by a moving object?
A. Energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
839. An energy possessed by an object that be released in the future?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
840. It is the form of heat transfer that take place within a solids when
one portion of one object is heated?
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. None of the above
841. Proper ventilation is simplifies and expedites rescue by removing
smoke and gases that will possibly endanger the life of the life of the
trapped occupants?
A. Fire attack and extinguishment
B. Fire spread control
C. Rescue operation
D. Reduction of flashover potential
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842. It is once the sufficient heat will confine in area the degree of heat
of the combustible materials rise to their ignition point?
A. Reduction of backdraft potential
B. Fire spread control
C. Rescue operation
D. Reduction of flashover potential
843. This field of firefighting operation is fire different from the word
overhaul in an auto mechanic operation?
A. Salvage
B. Overhaul
C. Technical staff
D. Inspection
844. During the firefighting personnel is not only tried to suppress?
A. Inspection requirement
B. Salvage
C. Overhaul
D. Technical staff
845. In case of willful failure to correct the deficiency or abate the fire
hazard as provided in the preceding subsection?
A. Punitive
B. Administrative fine
C. Administrative
D. Penalties
846. Refers to contractures conforming to the requirements of this
code?
A. Center lines of streets
B. Temporary buildings
C. Moved building
D. Fire zones defined
847. This use of fire extinguisher?
A. Sound the alarm
B. Advise fire department
C. Fight fire
D. Evacuate
848. Refers to mental evaluation by the ground commander which
enables him to determine his course of action and to accomplish his
mission?
A. Pre-fire planning
B. Cover exposure
C. Rescue
D. Sizing up
849. Act or process of lowering down the intensity of heat?
A. Fire control
B. Fire suppression
C. Fire rescue
99
D. None of the above
850. If the fire involves a large area and confined by locating the
hottest portion and applying a stream over hottest portion?
A. Direct attack
B. Indirect attack
C. Combination attack
D. None of the above
851. To prevent the fire from extending to the other portion of the
burning building?
A. Confinement
B. Ventilation
C. Extinguishment
D. Salvage
852. Is the process of finding the cause of fire and extent of damage
thereof for the purpose of determining if the perpetrator is guilty or not
of the crime of arson?
A. Arson
B. Fire
C. Fire investigation
D. Arson investigation
853. Refers to conduct a critique of what was done during the fire
operation?
A. Post fire analysis
B. Overhauling
C. Cover exposure
D. Pre-fire planning
854. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to
set off explosives?
A. Abatement
B. Administrator
C. Blasting agent
D. Cellulose nitrate
855. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air?
A. Combustible fiber
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Curtain board
D. Duck system
856. It is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system
which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. Distillation
B. Dust
C. Electrical arc
D. Damper
857. It is a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burned, and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames?
100
A. Ember
B. Combustible liquid
C. Finishes
D. Jumper
858. Any device intended for the protection of buildings?
A. Fire safety constructions
B. Fire safety device
C. Fire lane
D. Fire door
859. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a
wall in approximately the same floor level?
A. Hazardous operation/process
B. Drying
C. Horizontal exit
D. Hypergolic fuel
860. Any building or structure where (50) or more people congregate,
gather, or assemble for any purpose?
A. Public assembly building
B. Burning equipment
C. Public way
D. Self-closing doors
861. This shall apply to all persons and all private and public buildings,
facilities or structures erected or constructed before and after its
effectivity?
A. Applicability of the code
B. Responsibility for the enforcement of this code
C. Revised fire code of the Philippines
D. None of the above
862. It is the movement two surfaces against each other?
A. Heat of compression
B. Heat of friction
C. Potential energy
D. Kinetic energy
863. It is a gas which can be fatal after only a few breaths, is produced
fires involving chloride-containing plastic?
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Hydrogen chloride
D. None of the above
864. It is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hopper and
less luminous when mixed with more oxygen?
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Flame
C. Laminar flame
D. Turbulent flame
101
865. When a particle follows a smooth path through a gaseous flame?
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Luminous flame
C. Remixed flame
D. Laminar flame
866. It is the nation of the wait of a solid or substance to the weight of
an equal volume of water?
A. Specific gravity
B. Vapor density
C. Diffusion flame
D. None of the above
867. It is a visible product of incomplete combustion, a mixture of
oxygen, nitrogen, CO, CO2 and finely divided particles released from
the burning material?
A. Life cycle of fire theory
B. Boiling point temperature
C. Oxidation
D. Smoke
868. It is the ratio of the weight of a solid or substance to the way of an
equal volume of water?
A. Specific gravity
B. Vapor density
C. Ignition temperature
D. Temperature
869. This are changes whereby energy (heat) is absorbed or is added
before the reaction takes place?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion or flame
870. Refers to reactions or changes that release or give off energy
(heat) thus they produce substances with less energy than the
reactants?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion or flame
871. It is the second phase of burning in which materials or structures
are burning in the present of adequate oxygen?
A. Free-burning phase
B. Incipient or beginning phase
C. Ignition temperature or kindling temperature
D. Smouldering phase
872. These liquefied gases are most effective in interrupting the chain
reaction but they also have slight smothering and cooling effects?
102
A. Foam
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Halons
D. Dry chemicals
873. This used for fires involving lithium and lithium alloys?
A. Powdered copper metal
B. Graphite-based powders
C. Sodium carbonate
D. None of the above
874. Known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into law
1977, repealed by RA no. 9514?
A. PD. 1185
B. PD. 1186
C. PD. 1187
D. PD. 1188
875. Bureau of fire protection and bureau of jail management and
penology professionalization act of 2004?
A. RA no. 9262
B. RA no. 9263
C. RA no. 9264
D. RA no. 9265
876. The heat generated by either the splitting or combining of atoms?
A. Nuclear fission and fusion
B. Mechanical heat energy
C. Products of combustion
D. None of the above
877. The 3rd highest officer in the BFP. Rank is chief superintendent?
A. Chief of the bureau
B. Deputy chief for administration of the fire bureau
C. Deputy chief for operation of the fire bureau
D. Chief of the directorial staff of the fire bureau
878. The BFP shall establish, operate and maintain their respective
regional offices in each of the administrative regions of the country?
A. Directors of the directorates in the respective national
headquarters office
B. Regional director for fire protection
C. Assistant regional director for fire protection
D. District fire marshall
879. At least one in every provincial capital, city and municipality?
A. Chief of municipal/city fire station
B. Municipal fire marshall
C. Fire station
D. Local government unit
880. This act shall be known as the fire code of the Philippines of 2008?
103
A. RA 9511
B. RA 9512
C. RA 9513
D. RA 9514
881. This are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chemical chain reaction?
A. Triangle of fire
B. Fire tetrahedron
C. Oxidizing agent
D. None of the above
882. Any material used to initiate or promote the spread of a fire?
A. Area of origin
B. Accelerant
C. Arson trail
D. Adiabatic flame temperature
883. A self-propagating chemical reaction in which activation on one
molecule leads molecule leads successfully to the activation of many
others?
A. Chain reaction
B. Combustion
C. Compound
D. Catalyst
884. A mixture of two or more compounds that have a constant
boiling point?
A. Atomize
B. Asbestos
C. Azeotrope
D. Arson
885. The ability of a material to transfer energy from one place to
another?
A. Conductivity thermal
B. Combustion
C. Conductivity
D. Compound
886. The visible path of fire on a surface or surfaces?
A. Boiling point
B. Burn pattern
C. Burning rate
D. Butane
887. Refers to burn with intense heat and light?
A. Control zones
B. Deflagrate
C. Evaporation
D. Explosives
888. A component of gasoline but also a major breakdown product of
pyrolysis released when certain polymers are heated?
104
A. Ethyl-benzene
B. Evaporation rate
C. Explosion
D. Explosion limit
889. Refers to amount of material that can burn?
A. Fire point
B. Fire load
C. Flame
D. Fire
890. The range of gas or vapor concentrate that will burn or explode
if an ignition source is present?
A. Flammable liquid
B. Flammable vapor
C. Flammable explosive range
D. Flammable
891. The movement of a flame to a fuel source, typically occurs via
the vapor of a highly volatile liquids or through combustible sources?
A. Flash
B. Flash point
C. Flash fire
D. Flashback
892. An enclosed laboratory cabinet with a movable sash or fixed
access port on the front, connected to a ventilating system that may
incorporate air scrubbing or filtering?
A. Fume
B. Fume hood
C. Gas
D. Gasoline
893. A physical state of matter that has low density and viscosity, can
expand and contract greatly in response to changes in temperature
and pressure and readily and uniformly distributes itself throughout
any container?
A. Fume
B. Fume hood
C. Gas
D. Gasoline
894. It is a separation technique involving passage of a gas as the
mobile phase, moving through a column containing a fixed adsorbent
material?
A. Gas chromatograph
B. Gas chromatography
C. Headspace concentration
D. High explosive
895. It is a technique for concentration of all or most of the
flammable or combustible liquid vapors in a sample on to a tube of
charcoal?
105
A. Gas chromatograph
B. Gas chromatography
C. Headspace concentration
D. High explosive
896. It is the area immediately surrounding a chemical hazard
incident?
A. Hot zone
B. Ignition
C. Ignition temperature
D. Ignition source
897. An atom, molecule or radical that has lost or gained one or more
electrons thus, acquiring an electric charge, positively charge ions
are cautions?
A. Incendiaries
B. Incendiary fire
C. Ion
D. Kelvin
898. This fire intentionally set by human hands often involving the
use of an accelerant to increase and spread the rate and intensity of
burning?
A. Incendiaries
B. Incendiary fire
C. Ion
D. Kelvin
899. The smallest particle into which a substance can be divided
without changing its chemical properties?
A. Low explosive
B. Magnesium
C. Molecule
D. Origin determination
900. Refers to explosives having a detonation lest violent than high
explosives and that produce a subsonic pressure wave?
A. Low explosive
B. Magnesium
C. Molecule
D. Origin determination
901. An ignition device that ignites the first fuel or assist the initial
flame to build in intensity, it may include a timing mechanism?
A. Pentane
B. Plant
C. Propane
D. Pyrolysis
902. An irresistible impulse or impulsion to start a fire or set
something on fire?
A. Pyromania
106
B. Pyrophoric distillation
C. Polarity
D. Propane
903. Also known as spontaneous combustion, initially a slow
exothermic reaction at ambient temperatures?
A. Serial arson
B. Spontaneous heating
C. Trailer
D. Turpentine
904. Fast burning materials used by arsonist as fuses to rapidly
spread fire throughout a structure or area?
A. Serial arson
B. Spontaneous heating
C. Trailer
D. Turpentine
905. The weight of given volume of a vapor or a gas compare to the
weight of an equal volume of dry air, both measured at the same
temperature and pressure?
A. Vapor density
B. V-shape pattern
C. Vapor pressure
D. Vaporization
906. The physical change of going from a solid or a liquid into a
gaseous status?
A. Vapor density
B. V-shape pattern
C. Vapor pressure
D. Vaporization
907. It is a lobby, entrance hall, or passage between the entrance and
the interior of a building?
A. Volatile
B. Vestibule
C. Vermiculite
D. Vaporization
908. It is a micaceous hydrated silicate mineral used as a planting
medium and as insulation?
A. Volatile
B. Vestibule
C. Vermiculite
D. Vaporization
909. How many Fire Exit Drills are required in an Educational Type
Occupancy?
A. Regularly
B. Atleast four (4) fire exit drills a year
C. At least twice (2) fire exit drills a year
107
D. At least twice (2) fire exit drills a month
910. The following fees collected by the LGU such as Mayor’s permit
fee, sanitary, environmental, garbage, electrical inspection fee and
others are included in the computation of?
A. 2% premium tax
B. 0.10% construction tax
C. 10% fire safety inspection fee
D. 2% fire code proceed tax
911. Authority of the Chief, Bureau of Fire Protection is provided in?
A. Rule 4 of RA 9514
B. Rule 1 of the IIR of RA 9514
C. Rule 2 of the IIR of RA 9514
D. Rule 3 of the IIR of RA 9514
912. All business establishments employing at least fifty (50) persons
shall have a?
A. Fire Volunteer
B. Floor Marshall
C. Fire Chief
D. Fire Brigade
913. How many Fire Safety Enforcers do we have in the IIR of RA 9514?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
914. This is issued to fire volunteers, members of fire brigades and fire
safety practitioners, after completion of the mandatory training and
competency evaluations conducted by the BFP.
A. Certificate of Competency
B. Fire Safety Clearance
C. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
D. Fire Safety Checklist
915. He shall review and evaluate building plans and specifications
including fire protection system; Conduct site verification and
inspection on building under construction.
A. Fire Safety Inspector
B. Fire Safety Officer
C. Plan Evaluator
D. Fire Officer
916. Endorsement from the building official (BO) is a documentary
requirement in the issuance of Fire Safety Inspection Certificate (FSIC)
for?
A. Occupancy Permit
B. Conveyance Permit
C. Mayors Permit
D. Business Permit
108
917. Endorsement from the business Permit Licensing Office (BPLO) is
a documentary requirement in the issuance of Fire Safety Inspection
Certificate (FSIC) for?
A. Occupancy Permit
B. Conveyance Permit
C. Mayors Permit
D. Business Permit
918. During the first inspection conducted and a violation was noted
this shall be issued stating therein the period of compliance.
A. NTCV
B. Notice to comply
C. Fire Safety Clearance
D. Stoppage/Closure Order
919. What particular clearance is secured from the BFP by the
applicant/contractor as pre requisite prior to the issuance of Building
Permit by the Building Officials.
A. FSEC
B. FSC
C. FSIC
D. NTC
920. Fire Safety Clearance for Hot Works shall be secure from the BFP
on a per activity schedule of work?
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
921. If the building cannot withstand for the installation of an additional
dead load such as a sprinkler system the owner/administrator proceed
to the application of?
A. Fire Safety/Remedial Measure
B. Certificate of Competency
C. Fire Safety Clearance
D. Certificate of Exemption
922. If an initial compliance had been affected by the
owner/administrator of the noted violation, this shall be executed
thereof stating therein the schedule of work and the period of
compliance.
A. Affidavit of Exemption
B. Affidavit of Undertaking
C. Affidavit of Compliance
D. Affidavit of Willingness
923. The 2% Fire Code Proceed Tax are collected for the services
rendered by him or her from the Insurance Company.
A. Adjuster
B. LGU
C. BPLO
109
D. Insurance Companies
924. If the building had been found to have no secondary exit for the
fast escape and evacuation of the occupant said building shall be
declared as?
A. Public Enemy
B. Public Disturbance
C. Public Nuisance
D. Public Problem
925. The 10% Fire Safety Inspection Fee shall include all fees collected
by the LGU and other government agency.
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
926. Fine exceeding Php 30,000 but not more than 40,000 the
jurisdiction shall be imposed by the?
A. C/MFM
B. Regional Director
C. PFM/DFM
D. Both C/MFM & P/DFM
927. Failure on the part of the violator to pay the administrative fine
within the period fixed in the notice shall constitute a ground for the
issuance of an Order for Stoppage of Operation
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
928. A residential, Healthcare, & Assembly establishment shall be
declared imminent danger if at least violations are committed such
as Insufficient Exit width, Obstructed/ Padlocked Fire Exit.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
929. This refers to the part of a document that typically contains the
name of the office, the subject, date, and issue being addressed.
A. Body
B. Attention line
C. Caption
D. Salutation
930. This is a word or phrase serving as the prefatory greetings in a
letter or speech, as Dear Sir in a letter or Ladies and Gentlemen in a
speech.
A. Details
B. Reference
110
C. Subject
D. Closing
931. This is the part of the body of a memorandum that grants a right
to the signatory to settle any issue on a particular matter of concern.
A. Details
B. Reference
C. Subject
D. Closing
932. A report made by the Fire Safety Inspection (FSI) after conducting
Inspection in an establishment from an issued Inspection Order (IO).
A. Affidavit of Undertaking
B. Notice to Correct Violation
C. Affidavit of Loss
D. After Inspection Report
933. TO shall be used to address an addressee who has the same rank
than the signatory.
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
934. This is used to address a particular office, department or persons
(2 spaces below the last line of the inside address)
A. Subject Line
B. Attention Line
C. Salutation
D. Greetings
935. The part of the inspection report that contain the data of the
height area and features of the building inspected.
A. Salutation
B. Closing
C. Authority
D. Sectional Details
936. That part of the Inspection Order that indicates the consent of the
owner/administrator/occupant allowing the conduct of an inspection.
A. Salutation
B. Closing
C. Authority
D. Acknowledgement
937. What kind of letter often used by the BFP when responding to a
complaint inquiry, request and another matter of concern to another
government and private agency.
A. Subject-to-latter
B. Civilian letter
C. Memorandum
D. Blocked and semi blocked
111
938. That part of the inspection report that indicating the noted
deficiencies together with the corresponding sections of the provisions
of the fire code violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
939. That part of the inspection report that explains how the provisions
of fire code are being violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
940. This part of the inspection report indicating the fire safety
measure to be compiled with in accordance with the provisions of the
fire code violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
941. How many lines shall be maintained from one paragraph to the
next paragraph.
A. Double lines
B. 1 line
C. Three lines
D. 1.5 lines
942. Is endorsement and indorsement denotes the same meaning used
in elevating a particular document?
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
943. For shall be used to address an addressee who has a higher rank
than the signatory
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
944. This is any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
945. This is any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages
the use of a building for the latter.
112
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
946. This is an airport, a defined area on land or water (including any
building, installation and equipment) intended to be used wholly or in
part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircrafts.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
947. This is person who undertakes, whether directly or indirectly, by
lease or any arrangements, to engage in air transportation services or
air commerce.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
948. This is any engine used, or intended to be used, for the propulsion
of an aircraft and includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories
thereof other than propellers.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
949. This is any area used or intended or intended for used for the
packing, taxiing, takeoff, landing or other ground-based aircraft
activity.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
950. This is any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere
from the reactions of the air other than reactions of the air against the
earth’s surface.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
951. That portion of an airport where flammable liquids are stored or
dispensed and shall include all facilities essential thereto, such as but
not limited to, underground tanks from which aircraft fuel and
lubricants may be drawn through dispensing devices.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
113
952. Any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or
commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of
aircraft and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the
roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set
apart for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircrafts
capable of descending or climbing vertically.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
953. A medical gas used as anesthetic agents for surgical procedures
that could either be flammable or non-flammable.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
954. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
955. A stage or platform that opens on at least three (3) sides to
audience seating. It may be with or without overhead scene handling
facilities.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
956. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both
connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium and designed
in accordance with fire protection engineering standards which, when
actuated by its automatic detecting device, suppress fires within the
area protected.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
957. That portion of property where liquids used as motor fuels are
stored and dispensed from fixed equipment into the fuel tanks of motor
vehicles and shall include any facilities available for the sale and
service of tires, batteries and accessories, and for minor automotive
maintenance work.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
958. This is a non-liquid tight transverse partition in a cargo tank.
114
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
959. This is a large bundle or package of hay or a raw material such as
cotton, tightly bound with string or wire to keep it in shape during
transportation or storage.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
960. This is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer
used to set off explosives.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
961. A sudden release of oil and gas from a well.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
962. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid equals
the surrounding atmospheric pressure.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
963. The expulsion of crude oil (or certain other liquids) from a burning
tank in which the light fractions of the crude oil burn off producing a
heat wave in the residue, which on reaching a water strata may result
in the explosion of the portion of the contents of the tank in the form of
a froth.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
964. A land covered with a dense undergrowth of small trees and
brushes.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
965. It is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen storage
containers, pressure regulators, safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds,
and interconnecting piping, that has a storage capacity of more than
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five hundred sixty six cubic meters (566 m3) of oxygen including
unconnected reserves on hand at the site.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
966. That portion of a property where liquids are received by tank
vessels, pipelines, tank cars or tank vehicle, and are stored or blended
in bulk for the purpose of distributing such liquids by tank vessels,
pipeline, tank car, tank vehicle, portable tank or container.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
967. This is a liquid-tight closure between compartments of a cargo
tank.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
968. This is any tank having a liquid capacity more than four hundred
fifty liters (450L) used for carrying flammable combustible liquids and
mounted permanently or otherwise upon a tank vehicle. This term does
not apply to any container used solely for the purpose of supplying fuel
for the propulsion of the tank vehicle upon which it is mounted.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
969. This is a highly combustible and explosive compound produced by
the reaction of nitric acid with a cellulose material.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
970. This is any plastic substance, material or compound having
cellulose nitrate (nitro cellulose) as base.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
971. The duly designated head of the City or Municipal Fire Station
including those designated as “Officer-in-Charge” or in an “Acting”
capacity. This shall also apply to highly urbanized Cities and Stations
where by its approved organization, the head is the District Fire
Marshal or Station Commander as the case maybe.
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A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
972. This is large integrated plant or that portion of such plant other
than a refinery or distillery where flammable or combustible liquids are
produced by chemical reactions or used in chemical reactions.
A. Chemical Plant
B. Closed Containers
C. Collecting officers
D. Combination Standpipe
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C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
978. This is any liquid having a flash point at or above thirty seven and
eight tenths degrees Celsius (37.8C)
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers
C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
979. This is also known as loose waste material, are those generated
by an establishment, or process and, being salvageable, are retained
for scrap or reprocessing on the premises where generated.
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers
C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
980. A group of fire fighters performing fire suppression activities
within a specified jurisdiction.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
981. This is one that exist solely in the gaseous state under pressure in
range of two hundred seventy three kilopascal (273 KPa) to twenty four
thousand nine hundred twenty three kilopascal (24,023 KPa) at all
normal atmospheric temperature ranging from twenty degrees Celsius
(20 C) inside its container.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
982. A pressure container designated to hold compressed gases at
pressures greater than one atmosphere at twenty degrees Celsius (20
C)
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
983. This is a mixture of two or more compressed gases contained in a
single packaging, the hazard properties of which are represented by
the properties of the mixture as a whole.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
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984. This is an assembly of components, such as containers, reactors,
pumps, compressors and connecting piping and tubing, designated to
contain, distribute or transport compressed gases.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
985. This is any vessel less than two hundred twenty seven liters
(227L) capacity used for transporting or storing liquids.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
986. This is any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic
matter or with certain chemicals.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
987. This is any naturally-occurring, unrefined petroleum liquid.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
988. This is descriptive of any material which, by its nature or as a
result of its reaction with other elements, produces a rapid drop in
temperature of the immediate surroundings.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
989. This is pressure or low-pressure or atmospheric container of any
size designed or used for transportation, handling or storage of a
cryogenic fluid, and which utilizes venting, insulation, refrigeration or a
combination thereof to maintain the pressure within the design
parameters for such container and to keep the contents in a liquid
state.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
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B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
991. This is a container in which the maximum liquid level is below the
normal surrounding grade and is constructed of natural materials, such
as earth and rock and pendent upon the freezing of water-saturated
earth materials for its tightness or impervious nature.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
992. This is a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive
materials attached to and extending below the bottom chord of the
roof trusses to divide and underside of the roof into separate
compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a
roof vent.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
993. This is an organic member of the Bureau of Fire Protection who is
tasked to attend to the immediate needs and concerns of a customer,
applicant or any taxpayer transacting business in a unit/station/office.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
994. This is normally open device installed inside air duct systems
which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
995. This is a frame work that is constructed over a mine or oil well for
the purpose of boring or lowering pipes.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
996. This is a process for rapidly removing excess wet coating material
from a dipped or coated object or material by passing it through an
electrostatic field.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation
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997. This is a tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid
in which articles or materials are immersed for purposes of coating,
finishing, treating, or similar processes.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation
998. This is an equipment used to deliver petroleum products such as
gasoline, diesel and kerosene: installed in a fore court/curve area
within the retail outlet. Dispensing device can either be a self-
contained or with a remote/submersible pump.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation
999. The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more
volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing
the resulting vapour so as to produce a nearly purified substance.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation
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