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1.

A rocket or liquid propellant which consist of combinations of fuels


and oxidizers which ignite spontaneously on contact with each
other.
A. Hypergolic Fuel
B. Industrial Baking and Drying –
C. Jumper
D. Occupancy

2. The industrial process of subjecting materials to heat for the


purpose of removing solvents or moisture from the same, and/or to
fuse certain chemical salts to form a uniform glazing the surface of
materials being treated.
A. Hypergolic Fuel
B. Industrial Baking and Drying
C. Jumper
D. Occupancy

3. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety


device in an electrical system.
A. Hypergolic Fuel
B. Industrial Baking and Drying
C. Jumper
D. Occupancy
4. The purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or
intended to be used.
A. Hypergolic Fuel
B. Industrial Baking and Drying
C. Jumper
D. Occupancy

5. Any person actually occupying and using a building or portions


thereof by virtue of a lease contract with the owner or administrator or
by permission or sufferance of the latter.
A. Occupant
B. Organic Peroxide
C. Overloading
D. Owner
6. A strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily.
It causes fire when in contact with combustible materials especially
under conditions of high temperature.
A. Occupant
B. Organic Peroxide
C. Overloading
D. Owner
7. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw
or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system.
A. Occupant
B. Organic Peroxide
C. Overloading

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D. Owner
8. The person who holds the legal right of possession or title to a
building or real property.
A. Occupant
B. Organic Peroxide
C. Overloading
D. Owner

9. A material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to


stimulate or support combustion.
A. Oxidizing Material
B. Pressurized Or Forced Draft Burning Equipment
C. Public Assembly Meeting
D. Public Way
10. Type or burner where the fuel is subjected to pressure prior to
discharge into the
combustion chamber and/or which includes fans or other provisions for
the introduction of air at above normal atmosphere pressure into the
same combustion chamber.
A. Oxidizing Material
B. Pressurized Or Forced Draft Burning Equipment
C. Public Assembly Meeting
D. Public Way

11. Any building or structure where fifty (50) or more people


congregate, gather, or assemble for any purpose.
A. Oxidizing Material
B. Pressurized Or Forced Draft Burning Equipment
C. Public Assembly Meeting
D. Public Way

12. Any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the
ground to the sky, deeded, dedicated or otherwise permanently
appropriated for public use.
A. Oxidizing Material
B. Pressurized Or Forced Draft Burning Equipment
C. Public Assembly Meeting
D. Public Way

13. Descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when


exposed to air.
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting

14. A process where impurities and/or deleterious materials are


removed from a mixture in order to produce a pure element of
compound.
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining

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C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting

15. Automatic closing doors that are designed to confine smoke and
heat and delay the spread of fire.
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting

16. Melting or fusing of metallic ores or compounds so as to separate


impurities from pure metals.
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Self-Closing Door
D. Smelting

17. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the
interior parts of a house or building.
A. Vestibule
B. Vertical Shaft
C. Smelting Fire
D. None of the above

18. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to


floor, as well as from the base to the top of the building.

A. Vestibule
B. Vertical Shaft
C. Smelting Fire
D. None of the above

19. The continued incandescent burning of a fire after the flame has
been extinguished.
A. Afterglow 
B. Alligator Blisters
C. Ampere
D. Arcing

20. A unit describing the rate of flow of an electric current.


A. Afterglow 
B. Alligator Blisters
C. Ampere
D. Arcing

21. Blisters on wood caused by a fire whose look and texture resembles
an alligator's skin.

A. Afterglow 
B. Alligator Blisters
C. Ampere
D. Arcing

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22. A material, usually a flammable to combustible liquid, which is used
to either initiate or hasten the spread of fire.
A. Accelerant
B. Afterglow
C. Ampere
D. Arcing

23. When pure electricity jumps across a gap in a circuit. The intense
heat at the arc may ignite any nearby combustible material or may
fuse the metal conductors.
A. Accelerant
B. Afterglow
C. Ampere
D. Arcing

24. A polarity of current which is reversed periodically, creating a


regular system of sine waves. Commonly known as AC current.
A. Alternating Current
B. Accelerant
C. Arcing
D. Area of Origin

25. The temperature of the surroundings.


A. Ambient Temperature
B. Ignition Temperature
C. Auto Ignition Temperature
D. None of the above

26. A term used to describe the effect heat has on the wire springs of a
chair, sofa, or vehicle seat. It causes the springs to flatten out and lose
their tension. Does not indicate a liquid accelerant was present. May be
the result of a rapid or smoldering fire.
A. Accelerant
B. Annealing
C. Area of Origin
D. Nome of the above

27. The localized area where a fire originated.


A. Area of Origin
B. Original Assemble
C. Assembly original
D. Land Area

28. A process whereby a globule forms on an electric wire during a fire


or from a short circuit. Laboratory analysis may be able to determine if
beading was the result of a fire or occurred prior to fire
commencement.
A. Beading
B. Accelerant
C. Annealing
D. Arcing

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29. Swelling caused by the expansion of gas inside a material while it is
still soft or liquid due to heat. Can occur on painted surfaces of
materials when heated.
A. Blistering
B. Annealing
C. Arcing
D. None of the above
30. The lowest temperature at which a combustible liquid or vapor can
ignite without the application of a flame or other means of ignition.
A. Auto ignition Temperature
B. Boiling Temperature
C. Boiling Point
D. None of the above

31. The path of travel from a fire's point of origin.


A. Burn Pattern
B. V-pattern
C. Alligatoring
D. None of the above

32. Characteristic cone-shaped pattern left by a fire on a wall or other


object at or near its point of origin. Also, one which has developed
because of a secondary fire.
A. Burn Pattern
B. V-pattern
C. Alligatoring
D. None of the above

33. The temperature point at which material produces enough vapours


so that when it is ignited, it will continue to bum.
A. Burning point
B. Burning Rate
C. Carbonaceous
D. Carbonization

34. The rate at which combustion proceeds across a fuel. A specialized


use of this term describes the rate at which the surface of a pool of
burning liquid recedes. For gasoline, this rate is reported to be
approximately 1/4 inch per minute.
A. Burning point
B. Burning Rate
C. Carbonaceous
D. Carbonization

35. A material made of or containing carbon. This encompasses


practically every combustible or flammable material.
A. Burning point
B. Burning Rate
C. Carbonaceous
D. Carbonization

36. Decomposition by heat of organic substance in a limited supply of


air, accompanied by a formation of carbon.
A. Burning point

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B. Burning Rate
C. Carbonaceous
D. Carbonization

37. Carbonaceous material formed by the incomplete combustion of


organic materials, commonly wood or cellulose based materials.
A. Char
B. Charcoal
C. Charring
D. Chimney effect

38. Residue from the destructive distillation of wood which results


when air is excluded. It contains carbon and inorganic matter.
A. Char
B. Charcoal
C. Charring
D. Chimney effect

39. The natural tendency of heat to flow upwards.


A. Char
B. Charcoal
C. Charring
D. Chimney effect

40. Safety device used to open a faulty or overloaded electrical circuit.


A. Circuit Breaker
B. Combustible Liquid
C. Combustion
D. Conduction

41. The ability of a material to transfer energy from one place to


another. Thermal conductivity describes a substance's ability to
transmit heat. Electrical conductivity describes a substance's ability to
transmit electrical current. Conductivity is the opposite of resistivity.
A. Conductivity
B. Continuity
C. Convection
D. Creosote

42. Maintaining continuous surveillance at a fire scene from the time of


the fire until such a time when the investigation is considered
complete. Also used in electrical descriptions such as the electrical
circuit was complete.
A. Conductivity
B. Continuity
C. Convection
D. Creosote

43. Transfer of heat by the movement of molecules in a gas or liquid,


with the less dense fluid rising. The majority of heat transfer in a fire is
by convection.
A. Conductivity
B. Continuity
C. Convection

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D. Creosote

44. Tawny brown or hard black internal deposits in a chimney produced


by burning wood.
A. Conductivity
B. Continuity
C. Convection
D. Creosote

45. Tempered glass that has broken into small squarish shaped
segments with rounded edges.
A. Crystallized
B. Current
C. Direct current
D. Downdraft

46. Measurement of electricity.


A. Crystallized
B. Current
C. Direct current
D. Downdraft

47. A continuous flow of current of the same polarity. Commonly


referred to as DC current.
A. Crystallized
B. Current
C. Direct current
D. Downdraft

48. When a column of air in the chimney reverses its direction.


A. Crystallized
B. Current
C. Direct current
D. Downdraft

49. Denotes the direction the fire is travelling in.


A. Direction of travel 
B. Downdraft
C. Drop Fire
D. Drying oil

50. When a column of air in the chimney reverses its direction.


A. Downdraft
B. Drop fire
C. Drying oil
D. None of the above

51. A fire started by flaming or glowing material failing from the wall or
ceiling to the floor area below.
A. Downdraft
B. Drop fire
C. Drying oil
D. None of the above

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52. An organic liquid which, when applied as a thin film, readily absorbs
oxygen from the air and polymerizes to form a tough elastic film.
A. Downdraft
B. Drop fire
C. Drying oil
D. None of the above

53. The first step to recognizing arson.


A. Exclusion of accidental causes 
B. Explosive Range
C. False Ceiling
D. False Front

54. The range of the percentage of vapour concentration by volume in


the air between the upper and lower flammability limits.
A. Exclusion of accidental causes 
B. Explosive Range
C. False Ceiling
D. False Front

55. A ceiling suspended some distance below the original.


A. Exclusion of accidental causes 
B. Explosive Range
C. False Ceiling
D. False Front

56. An additional facade on the front of a building applied after the


original construction.
A. Exclusion of accidental causes 
B. Explosive Range
C. False Ceiling
D. False Front

57. Building material made from felted wood and other fibres and a
suitable binder. A generic term.
A. Fibreboard
B. Fire behavior
C. Fire gas
D. Fire pattern

58. The manner in which fuel ignites, flames develop and heat and fire
spread.
A. Fibreboard
B. Fire behavior
C. Fire gas
D. Fire pattern

59. A gaseous product of combustion, such as carton monoxide, carbon


dioxide, hydrogen sulphide.
A. Fibreboard
B. Fire behavior
C. Fire gas
D. Fire pattern

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60. A structural element made in accordance to Building Code
requirements so that it will resist fire for a given period of time.
A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability

61. The development and travel of fire across a surface or area.


A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability

62. A solid wall of masonry, capable of resisting fire a specified period


of time.
A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability

63. The relative ease with which various fuels ignite and burn
regardless of the quantity of fuel involved.
A. Fire Separation
B. Fire Spread
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability

64. A liquid with a flash point below 38 degrees Celsius.


A. Flammable liquid
B. Gyproc
C. Hydrocarbons
D. Ignition

65. Generic term for a wall sheathing material made of gypsum


sandwiched between paper covering. Usually ½" or 5/8" thick.
Sheetrock.
A. Fire Separation
B. Gyproc
C. Fire Wall
D. Flammability

66. Petroleum products and natural gas are mixtures of several


hydrocarbons.
A. Hydrocarbons
B. Ignition
C. Inkblot Pattern
D. Kindling Temperature

67. The beginning of a flame propagation or burning. The start of a fire.


A. Hydrocarbons
B. Ignition
C. Inkblot Pattern
D. Kindling Temperature
68. Term used to describe a liquid accelerant bum pattern.

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A. Hydrocarbons
B. Ignition
C. Inkblot Pattern
D. Kindling Temperature

69. The ignition temperature of wood.


A. Hydrocarbons
B. Ignition
C. Inkblot Pattern
D. Kindling Temperature

70. A condition in which fire and heated gas rise to the uppermost
point inside a building or room and begin to build down laterally to
other areas.
A. Mushrooming
B. Open Flame
C. Overhauling
D. Petroleum products

71. A visual flame that is usually free burning.


A. Mushrooming
B. Open Flame
C. Overhauling
D. Petroleum products

72. A process involving the final extinguishment of embers after the


main body of a fire has been extinguished. Searching for any remaining
traces of fire and embers.
A. Mushrooming
B. Open Flame
C. Overhauling
D. Petroleum products

73. Oils made by distilling (heating) crude petroleum. It produces such


products as gasoline, kerosene and fuel oil.
A. Mushrooming
B. Open Flame
C. Overhauling
D. Petroleum products

74. A condition which takes place between electrical contacts when


they are loose and energized. It can cause the formation of copper
oxide, which can resist the flow of the current and cause overheating.
A. Pitting
B. Plastics
C. Primary Fire
D. Probable cause

75. A loose term used to designate a wide range of substances which


are capable of being moulded. Commonly made from petroleum
products.
A. Pitting
B. Plastics
C. Primary Fire

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D. Probable cause

76. The established point of origin of a fire.


A. Pitting
B. Plastics
C. Primary Fire
D. Probable cause

77. The most useful and efficient method of determining the origin and
cause of a fire.
A. Process of elimination 
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action

78. The spreading of fire from one point to another.


A. Process of elimination 
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action

79. When a spilled liquid accelerant flows to its lowest level due to
gravity, and then pools to form a puddle.
A. Process of elimination 
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action

80. The chemical decomposition of wood due to the continuous or


intermittent application of heat.
A. Process of elimination 
B. Propagation fire
C. Puddling effect
D. Pyrophoric Action

81. A carbonaceous composition of wood which is caused by the


continuous or intermittent application of heat. A form of charcoal.
A. Pyrophoric carbon 
B. Radiation feedback 
C. Resistance
D. Scorching

82. Heat from a fire that radiates back to the fuel causing increased
vapour production.
A. Pyrophoric carbon 
B. Radiation feedback 
C. Resistance
D. Scorching

83. The property of a material which makes it resist the flow of


electricity through it.
A. Pyrophoric carbon 
B. Radiation feedback 
C. Resistance

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D. Scorching

84. The early partial combustion of a surface, usually due to exposure


to a heat source.
A. Pyrophoric carbon 
B. Radiation feedback 
C. Resistance
D. Scorching

85. The area where the main body of the fire is located, as determined
by the outward movement of heat and gases; where the fire is deep-
seated.
A. Seat of the fire 
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering

86. A fire caused by a primary fire,a drop fire could cause a secondary
fire a considerable distance from the point of origin.
A. Seat of the fire 
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering

87. The convergence of two uninsulated wires of different potentials.


A. Seat of the fire 
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering

88. To burn and probably smoke without flame; to exist in a state of


suppressed activity. Can result in high heat release when oxygen is
plentiful.
A. Seat of the fire 
B. Secondary fire
C. Short Circuit
D. Smoldering

89. Destruction of a surface by frost, heat, corrosion, or mechanical


causes. Concrete exposed to intense heat may spall explosively
A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion

90. When a liquid accelerant is poured onto a floor and spatters or runs
in finger patterns.
A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion

91. The ignition and subsequent combustion of a flammable or


combustible liquid inadvertently released from a container.

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A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion

92. A term normally used to denote the chemical process of both


spontaneous heating and subsequent spontaneous ignition.
A. Spalling
B. Spatter Effect
C. Spill effect
D. Spontaneous Combustion

93. Ignition and fire due to the self-heating process encountered in


certain fires. The first onset of burning or fire in a combustible material
which has been heated without external heat.
A. Spontaneous ignition 
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Sublimation
D. Thermal column

94. The minimum temperature at which the self-heating properties of a


substance can lead to ignition. Variations can occur due to specimen
size, rate of heat loss, moisture content, etc.
A. Spontaneous ignition 
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Sublimation
D. Thermal column

95. A change of state in a material directly from a solid to a gas or


from a gas to a solid without passing through a liquid state concurrent
to a rise or fall-in temperature.
A. Spontaneous ignition 
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Sublimation
D. Thermal column

96. Column of smoke and gases given off by fires moving upwards
because heated gases expand and become lighter and rise. Chimney
effect.
A. Spontaneous ignition 
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Sublimation
D. Thermal column

97. A device used by an arsonist to allow a fire to start electrically or


mechanically at a given time. Electric timers, hair dryers, clocks, light
bulbs and other devices are typical.
A. Spontaneous ignition 
B. Spontaneous ignition temperature
C. Timing device
D. Thermal column

98. When there is one or more probable fire causes, but none are
conclusive.

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A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability

99. It was used by early humans to warm themselves, cook food, and
frighten away predators.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Conflagration
D. Inferno

100. The use of fire became widespread at about how many years ago?
A. 1,000 years ago
B. 100,000 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago
D. 300,000 years ago

101. Fire was essential in metal working, which developed after?


A. 4000 BC
B. 3000 BC
C. 2000 BC
D. 1000 BC

102. It was an ancient City that were destroyed several times by fire,
perhaps due to war, perhaps due to accident.
A. City of Toy
B. City of Troy
C. City of Tray
D. City of Toys

103. One of the world’s greatest losses was caused by a fire in the
great library of?
A. Alexander, Egypt
B. Alexandrio, Egypt
C. Alexandros, Egypt
D. Alexandria, Egypt

104. It is an adaptation of the bow and the drill. It consisted of a block


wood and a stick that was fixed in the looped string of a small, curved
bow.
A. Fire drill
B. Water drill
C. Air drill
D. Earth drill

105. This destroy plants and animals, and endanger community


settlements in a given settlements.
A. Heat fires
B. Hot fires
C. Flame
D. Fire

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106. Wild plants and trees are burned to clear patches of land for
cultivation to quickly enrich nutrient-poor tropical soils.
A. Slash-and-slash agriculture
B. Slash-and-burn agriculture
C. Slush-and-slush agriculture
D. Slush-and-burn agriculture

107. It can occur wherever fuel and oxygen are available including
office buildings, homes, vehicles, and forests.
A. Deforestation
B. Reforestation
C. Destructive fires
D. Kaingin

108. It causes the majority of house fires that turn deadly.


A. Fire
B. Cigarettes
C. Electricity
D. Cooking accidents

109. It occur in undeveloped areas of land and are fuelled by forest or


grassland vegetation.
A. Wild-land fires
B. Reforestation
C. Destructive fires
D. Kaingin

110. It results from a rapid chemical reaction between fuel and oxygen.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan

111. Is a heat and light from rapid combination of oxygen and other
materials.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan

112. It is burning, which is combustion, and a combustion is a type of


oxidation reaction.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan

113. It is the visible, gaseous part of a fire.


A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Burning
D. Vulcan

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114. It is an exothermic, self-sustaining, oxidizing chemical reaction
producing energy and glowing hot matter, of which a very small portion
is plasma.
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Enduthermic
D. Exuthermic

115. There are three components required for a fire which are?
A. Fuel, Ignition, Combustion
B. Fuel, Combustion, Oxidation
C. Fuel, Oxygen, Heat sources
D. Ignition, Oxygen,Combustion

116. It is the energy possessed by a material or substance due to


molecular activity.
A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Kinetic
D. Water

117. Chemist describe this reaction of chemical compound with oxygen


as?
A. Oxidation
B. Ignition
C. Heat
D. Combustion

118. There are four elements of fire tetrahedron such as?


A. Reducing agent, Heat, Chemical Reaction, and Oxidizing
Agent
B. Fire, Oxygen, Fuel, Heat
C. Fuel, oxygen, heat, ignition
D. Oxygen, fuel, heat, combustion

119. It is the substance or material that is being oxidized or burned in


the combustion process.
A. Reducing agent
B. Heat
C. Oxidizing Agent
D. Chemical Reaction

120. It is the energy component of a fire tetrahedron.


A. Reducing agent
B. Heat
C. Oxidizing Agent
D. Chemical Reaction

121. It is a complex reaction that requires a fuel, an oxidizer, and heat


energy to come together in a very specific way.
A. Reducing agent
B. Heat
C. Oxidizing Agent
D. Chemical Reaction

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122. It is material or substance that under proper conditions will
release gases, including oxygen.
A. Reducing agent
B. Heat
C. Oxidizing Agent
D. Chemical Reaction

123. This is the start of combustion.


A. Oxidation
B. Ignition
C. Heat
D. Combustion

124. What are the examples of combustible materials that begins as


solid?
A. Wood, wax and plastic
B. Paper, gas and lotion
C. Wood, wax and soap
D. Gelly, bubble gum and wax

125. This term has been used in the past to indicate potential severity
of a fire, and has been expressed in terms of btus or pound of fuel per
square foot or floor area.
A. Oxygen load
B. Fuel load
C. Fire load
D. Heat load

126. It is the energy released as heat when a compound undergoes


complete combustion with oxygen under standard conditions.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Ignition
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

127. It is a temperature to which a material must be heated in order for


it to burst into flame.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Ignition
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

128. This is the lowest temperature at which an oxidation reaction can


self-sustain itself to either flaming or glowing ignition, that is, the point
at which the reaction changes from endothermic as exothermic.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Ignition
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

129. It is the value assigned to the rate of chemical reaction.


A. Heat of combustion
B. Q10 Value
C. Ignition Temperature

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D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

130. It is the weight of a substance compared with an equal volume of


water; thus, water is equal to 1.0.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Specific Gravity
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

131. This occurs if the inherent characteristics of the materials involved


cause an exothermic-heat producing, chemical reaction to proceed
without any exposure to external source of spark or abnormal heat.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Spontaneous Combustion
C. Ignition Temperature
D. Auto-Ignition Temperature

132. These are the varied products of combustion.


A. Lights and Heats, Gases and Soot
B. Fuel, Oxygen and Heat
C. Heat, Light and Oxygen
D. Gases, Fuel and soot

133. Combustion or burning in which substances


combine chemically with oxygen from the air and typically give
out bright light, heat and smoke.
A. Flame  
B. Heat     
C. Fire
D. Smoke 

134. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by


something on fire.
A. Flame  
B. Heat 
C. Fire                                        
D. Smoke 

135. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.


A. Conflagration 
B. Burning 
C. Fire            
D. Combustion

136. Means on fire or very hot or bright.


A. Flame                  
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion

137. The rapid chemical combination of a substance


with oxygen involving the production of heat and light.
A. Flame                                                     
B.  Burning 

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C. Fire
D. Combustion

138. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for at least 5 seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flame                                                         
B. Heat  
C. Fire
D. Smoke

139. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame                                                       
B.  Heat  
C. Light
D. Smoke

140. Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other being


solid, liquid and gas.
A. Flame                                                      
B. Plasma  
C. Light
D. Smoke

141. The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a combustible liquid


can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point  
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point

142. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least
five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point                                    
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point

143. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which


draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of
the existing electrical system
A. Self-closing door
B. Jumper
C. Overloading
D. Oxidizing material

145. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor


to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. Sprinkle evidence
B. Vertical shaft
C. Flash point
D. Standpipe system
146. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a
fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with

19
sufficient structural stability to remain standing even if construction on
either side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood race
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap

147. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard


A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement

148. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant


permits and/or license by local governments or other government
agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fires alerting system
D. Fire service

149. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated
from the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two
hard surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching

150. Method of heat transfer by direct contact


A. Nuclear fission
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Radiation

151. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant


A. Hydrant key
B. Kilowatts
C. Key board
D. Bunch of key

152. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal 


     interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember

153. The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement
     of fluids
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above

20
154. It is the used to describe the magnitude, direction, and intensity
of fire spread.
A. Behavior of Fire
B. Chemistry of Fire
C. Suppression of Fire
D. None of the above

155. It refers to the fire-fighting tactics to suppress fires.


A. Behavior of Fire
B. Chemistry of Fire
C. Suppression of Fire
D. None of the above

156. The term describes the transfer of heat within solid material from
hotter to cooler part.
A. Conduction
B Convection
C. Radiation
D. None Of The Above

157. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum
in a similar way to light
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None Of The Above

158. The earliest phase of fire may or may not occur unnoticed.
A. Oxygen-Regulated Smoldering
B. Incipient
C. Free-Burning
D. Emergent Smoldering

159. It is the sudden involvement of a room or an area in flames from


floor to ceiling caused by thermal radiation feedback.
A. Backdraft
B. Free-Burning
C. Flashover
D. Oxygen-Regulated Smoldering

160. It is the phenomenon in which a fire that has consumed all


available oxygen suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made
available, typically because a door or window has been opened.
A. Backdraft
B. Free-Burning
C. Flashover
D. Oxygen-Regulated Smoldering
161. This is fire that involves cooking fats and oils.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire

21
162. This is fire that involves combustible metals, such as sodium,
magnesium and potassium.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire

163. This is fire that involves flammable gases, such as natural gas,
hydrogen, propane and butane.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire

164. This is fire that involves any materials found in Class A and B fires.
A. Class C Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class D Fire
D. Class F Fire

165. These are fires that involve flammable liquid or liquefied solids,
such as petron or gasoline, oils, paints some waxes and plastics, but
not involving cooking oils and fats.
A. Class A Fire
B. Class B Fire
C. Class C Fire
D. Class D Fire

166. It is defined as ordinary combustible like wood, fabric, paper,


trash and plastics.
A. Class A Fire
B. Class E Fire
C. Class C Fire
D. Class K Fire

167. It is intended to reduce sources of ignition, and is practically


focused on programs to educate people on starting fire.
A. Fire Safety
B. Fire Fighting
C. Fire Prevention
D. Fire Control

168. It is the act of extinguishing destructive fire.


A. Fire Safety
B. Fire Fighting
C. Fire Prevention
D. Fire Control

169. It is an integral component of the three components of structural


fire protect and fire safety in a building.
A. Passive Fire Protection
B. Active Fire Protection
C. Fire Safety Education
D. Fire Prevention

22
170. Is a group of systems that required some amount of action or
motion in order to work efficiently in the event of a fire.
A. Passive Fire Protection
B. Active Fire Protection
C. Fire Safety Education
D. Fire Prevention

171. A large, destructive fire that spread quickly over woodland or


brush.
A. House Fire
B. Wood-Land Fire
C. Work Place Fire
D. Building Fire

172. It is intended to reduce sources of ignition and partially focused


on programs to educate people on starting fire.
A. Fire Prevention
B. Fire Control
C. Fire Fighting
D. Fire Safety

173. It is the act of extinguishing destructive fires.


A. Fire Prevention
B. Fire Control
C. Fire Fighting
D. Fire safety

174. Refers to precautions that are taken to prevent or reduce the


likelihood of a fire that may
A. Fire Prevention
B. Fire Control
C. Fire Fighting
D. Fire Safety

175. Is the study and practice of mitigating the unwanted effects of


fires.
A. Fire prevention
B. Fire control
C. Fire fighting
D. Fire Protection

176. Buildings may also be equipped with detection systems that will
transmit an alarm.
A. Standpipe System
C. A And B
B. Sprinkler System
D. Alarm System
177. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be
heated in order to initiate or cause a self-contained combustion without
the addition of heat from outside sources.
A. Boiling point
B. Ignition temperature

23
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

178. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material


react with an oxidizing agent.
A. Thermal balance
B. Thermal imbalance
C. Combustion
D. Oxidation

179. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.


A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. All of these

180. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.


A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. Oxidation

181. It consists of depriving a fire of fuel, reducing agent, oxygen,


oxidizing agent, heat or the chemical chain reaction that is necessary
to sustain or re kindle itself
A. Fire Prevention
B. Fire Control
C. Fire Fighting
D. Fire Safety

182. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless


and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Neon

183. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.


A. Fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Heat
D. None of the foregoing

184. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with motives.


A. Accidental fire
B. Providential fire
C. None of the foregoing
D. Intentional fire
185. Malicious and willful burning of a building defined in the case of
Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
A. Arson
B. Providential fire
C. Accidental fire

24
D. None of the foregoing

186. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials
A. Class a fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

187. In fire wherein the fuel is flammable liquid such as gasoline,


kerosene, alcohol and grease. Which among the foregoing may be used
to put out this fire.
A.Foam extinguisher
B.Water
C.Dry chemicals
D.Sand

188. The collection of debris at the origin of the fire should include all
_____ materials.
A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Porous
D. Non-porous

189. Blue flames usually indicates the presence of ______, in fire.


A. Gasoline
B. Kerosene
C. Alcohol
D. Petroleum

190. This usually indicates the intensity of fire.


A. Size of fire
B. Color of smoke
C. Size of flame
D. Color of flame

191. This would indicates the presence of petroleum in a fire.


A. Blue flames
B. Red flames
C. White smoke
D. Black smoke

192. Most common motive in arson cases.


A. Economic gain
B. Concealment of crime
C. Intimidation
D. Punitive measure
193. A rare fire usually occurring in manufacturing facilities wherein
the combustible materials are metals such as magnesium and
potassium.
A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

25
194. In handling class D fires, which among the following may not be
used?
A. Dry powder, ABC chemical
B. Baking soda
C. Water
D. Sand

195. Commonly referred to as an electrical fire.


A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

196. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C
fire?
A. CO₂
B. Sand
C. Water
D. Baking soda

197. Class A fire may be extinguished by:


A. CO₂
B. Sand
C. Water
D. Baking soda

198. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as :


A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

199. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called


_____?
A. Latent heat
B. Heat of combustion
C. Specific heat
D. Thermal heat

200. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:


A. Ignition temperature
B. Thermal heat
C. Heat of combustion
D. Specific heat

201. Instrument used to open/close the fire hydrants


A. Sprinkle
B. Fire pump
C. Fire hose
D. Hydrant key

202. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its


reaction with other elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of
the immediate surroundings.

26
A. Dust
B. Oxidizing materials
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

203. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors


are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion.
A. Ignition temperature
B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

204. The temperature at which a flammable liquid form vapor at air


mixture that ignites?
A. Ignition temperature
B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

205. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air mixture


must be heated in the order to initiate or cause a self-contain
combustion with out the addition of heat from outside resources
A. Boiling point ignition
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

206. An exothermic chemical in which a combustible material react


with oxidizing agent.
A. Thermal balance
B. Thermal imbalance
C. Combustion
D. Oxidation

207. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light .


A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. All of these

208. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat


A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. Oxidation

209. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the
material with unit temperature gradient.
A. Conduction
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Radiation
D. Oxidation

27
210. A mean of heat transfer trough space or materials as waves.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Fission
211. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
A. Providential fire
B. Accidental fire
C. Intentional fire
D. None of the foregoing

212. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless


and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Neon

213. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.


A. Fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Heat
D. None of the foregoing

214. Refers to gases liberated by heat.


A. Free radicals
B. Flash point
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

215. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire
gases within a building or structure under natural condition.
A. Free radical
B. Pyrolysis
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

216. In this place of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities is develop.
A. Initial phase
B. Incipient phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase

217. What does a burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates?


A. The fire triangle
B. The fingerprint of the fire
C. Flashover
D. Incipient phase of fire

28
218. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion
of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

219. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result


of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

220. Which among the following is the primary objective in


investigating fire?
A. To determine its cause
B. To prevent reoccurrence
C. To determine liable persons
D. All of these

221. Reason why fire investigation is unique.


A. It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
B. Unavailability of witnesses
C. Fire destroys evidence
D. All of the foregoing

222. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.


a. Providential
b. Accidental
c. Intentional
d. Incendiarism

223. A combination of the three elements namely: fuel, heat and


oxygen.
A. Fire
B. Origin of fire
C. Fire triangle
D. All of the foregoing

224. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. Gas

225. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium


either gas or a liquid.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Fission

29
226. It is amount of heat necessary to covert solid to liquid.
A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Heat of combustion
D. Heat of fusion

227. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural


cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air:
A. Carbon black
B. Lamp black
C. Soot
D. Black bone

228. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a


result of combustion.
A. Fire
B. Flame
C. Heat
D. Smoke

229. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
A. Backdraft
B. Flashover
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Falling debris

230. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates


the burning material of what material?
A. Rubber
B. Nitrogen products
C. Asphalt
D. Cotton

231. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant


materials?
A. Asbestos
B. Diamond
C. Asphalt
D. Cotton

232. A form of static electricity or an electrical current of great


magnitude producing tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most
common cause of providential fires.
A. Rays of the sun
B. Spontaneous heating
C. Arcing
D. Lightning

233. Most common cause of accidental fires is related to:


A. Smoking
B. Arcing
C. Speaking
D. Overloading

30
234. A device used by arsonist to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
235. Most common reason of arson cases.
A. Revenge
B. Profit
C. Competition
D. Anger

236. It is the result of slow oxidation of combustible material.


A. Spontaneous heating
B. Combustible gases
C. Combustible dust
D. None of these

237. Refers to the preparation and gatherings of materials to start a


fire.
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick

238. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.


A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation

239. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
A. Black bone
B. Used petroleum
C. Soot
D. Black iron

240. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume


electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing

241. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01 % of the


assessed value of the building:
A. Schools
B. Department store
C. Hospitals
D. Single family dwellings

31
242. An enclose vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as
well as from the base to the top of the building.
A. Stand pipe system
B. Sprinkler system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Flash point

243. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance


rating or not less than 4 hours with structural stability to remain
standing even if the adjacent construction collapses under fire
condition:
A. Post wall
B. Fire track
C. Fire wall
D. Firewood
244. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for
any particular establishment.
A. Fire service
B. Fire safety inspection
C. Fire drill
D. Fire protection assembly

245. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.


A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Fission

246. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light
of combustion.
A. Oxidation
B. Flash point
C. Smoldering
D. Fire

247. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Dust
B. Fire lane
C. Fire trap
D. Fire hazard
248. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes
place.
A. Endothermic reaction
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion

249. Product of incomplete combustion.


A. Soot
B. Charring
C. Ashes
D. All of these

32
250. Refer to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation
whereby the organic fuel is converted to water and carbon dioxide.
A. Heat of combustion
B. Calorific value
C. Fuel value
D. All of these

251. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it


changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
A. Calorie
B. Latent heat
C. Thermal heat
D. Specific heat

252. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are
called to normal temperature.
A. Fire gases
B. Combustion gases
C. Oxidation gases
D. Flame

253. Fire cause by human error and negligence.


A. Providential fires
B. Intentional fires
C. Accidental fires
D. Incendiarism

254. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern are
fingerprint of fire is developed.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase

255. Phase where by the fire can no longer support the flame and
carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase

256. Color of smoke produced when nitrogen products is combustible


materials being burned while bright red flame are visible.
A. Black smoke
B. Heavy brown smoke
C. White smoke
D. Greenish smoke

257. When this constitute most of combustible material in the fire it


produces a bright reddish yellow flame.
A. Petroleum products
B. Calcium
C. Asphalt singles

33
D. Potassium

258. When black smoke with red and blue green flames is visible in the
fire, it indicates that this material is burning.
A. Petroleum products
B. Chlorine of manganese
C. Asphalt singles
D. Potassium

259. When potassium is used as a combustible material what would be


the visible color of the flame.
A. Purple
B. Violet
C. Lavender
D. Any of the three

260. Any condition or act which increases or may cause increase in the
probability of the occurrence of fire or which may abstract, delay,
hinder or interfere with firefighting operations and the safe guarding of
life and property is called.
A. Duct system
B. Fire hazard
C. Hose reel system
D. Abatement

261. A passage hole or antechamber between the outer doors and


interior parts of a house or building.
A. Smelting
B. Refining
C. Distillation
D. Vestibule

262. Combustion is classified into flaming and glowing mode. Which


one of the following represents the flaming mode of combustion?
A. Fire tetrahedron
B. Fire triangle
C. Free radical
D. Elements of fire
263. A fire can exist in the presence of oxygen, fuel and heat. How
many percent of the oxygen is needed to sustain continuous
combustion?
A. Below 15%
B. At least 16%
C. Not higher than 21%
D. More than 35%

264. A fire started from the basement of a building. After 30 minutes,


the whole building had turned into ashes. Which among the following
was responsible for the spread of fire through the building?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Flame
C. Smoke and the fire gases
D. Carbon dioxide

34
265. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson.
A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with own hand
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and
positive not circumstantial
D. The presumption that the fire was accident in origin must be
overcome

266. If a fire breaks out simultaneously in different parts of the


building, it is most reasonable to think that the fire is the result
A. Explosive
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Carelessness
D. Incendiary fire

267. Probably one of the most definite clues to arson or attempted


arson is –
A. Intensity of the flame
B. Multiple fires
C. Odor of burning material
D. Difficult in extinguishment

268. You arrived first at an automobile fire. A short circuit caused a


small fire under the hood which has spread to the one which should be
performed first is
A. Cool the hood by applying the water
B. Apply ashes, sand or earth on the hood
C. Cut the ignition wiring using a knife
D. Disconnect the battery terminal connection

269. Because no fires are alike, it is impossible to lay down general


plans for fire fighting operations. This viewpoint is unacceptable
primarily because
A. The variety of techniques and methods available are
conductive to all levels of command
B. Proper utilization of forces at hand are independent of the
variable characteristics of fire situation
C. Elements of similarity are sufficient to establish tactics and
strategy applicable in a variety of situations
D. All of the above
270. You were on your way home late at night when you noticed smoke
pouring out on one of the windows in a house which several families
reside. Your first consideration under these circumstances should be to
A. Determine the cause of smoke
B. Arouse all the residents of the house
C. Carry out the safety any person overcome by the smoke
D. Summon fire apparatus to the scene of the fire
271. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire
resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient structural
stability to remain standing even if construction on either side
collapses under the fire conditions is called –

35
A. Firewood
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap

272. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called –
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching

273. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
that is burning, in order to be of value to the investigator, observation
should be made
A. During the fire
B. After the water has been poured
C. After the fire
D. During overhaul

274. The primary responsibility of a fire investigator in fire investigation


is to –
A. Determine the true cause of fire
B. Determine the origin of fire
C. Determine the fire setter
D. Determine the victim

275. The type of flame which do not deposit soot because it has
complete combustion is called –
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Laminar flame
C. Diffusion flame
D. Luminous flame

276. Smoke is usual color that changes to yellow or grayish yellow is


caused by the dangerous fire condition known as –
A. Back draft condition
B. Flashback condition
C. Flash over condition
D. Stack effect

277. What is the result of combining the necessary amount of fuel,


oxygen and heat?
A. Pyrolysis
B. Explosion
C. Fire
D. Radiation

278. Which of the following is commonly used to put out class C Fires?
A. CO2
B. Sand
C. Water
D. Baking Soda

36
279. A fire which uses a flammable liquid as fuel is classified as:
A. Class A fire
B. Class B Fire
C. Class C Fires
D. Class D fires

280. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called


______________.
A. Latent heat
B. Heat of combustion
C. Specific heat
D. Thermal heat

281. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:


A. Ignition temperature
B. Thermal heat
C. Heat of combustion
D. Specific heat

282. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its


reaction with other elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of
the immediate surroundings.
A. Dust
B. Oxidizing
C. Pyrolysis
D. Hydrant key

283. Instrument used to open/close fire hydrants.


A. Sprinkler
B. Fire pump
C. Fire hose
D. Hydrant key

284. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors


are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion.
A. Ignition temperature
B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point
285. The temperature at which a flammable liquid from vapor air
mixture that ignites.
A. Ignition temperature
B.Kindling temperature
C. Fire point
D. Flash point

286. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson


A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with his own
hands
B. The property not belong to the suspect of the crime
C. The evidence of incendiarsm must be direct and positive not
circumstantial

37
D.The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin
must be overcome

287. In trying to establish the fact of the incendiary origin of a fire by


direct evidence, which of the following would be considered as not
pertinent to that purpose
A. The arrangement of the furniture
B. The arrangement and the position of stock and materials
C. The size of the insurance policy
D. The number of separate and distinct fires on the premises at
the same time

288. If an investigator encounters a situation in of duty which is not


covered by the rule, he should
A. Used his on judgment on the matter
B. Confer with other investigator for their opinion
C. Refer the matter to his superior
D. Confer with local officials or a lawyer

289. In arson cases, it is necessary to introduce evidence to prove all


but one of the following. Indicate that one
A. That the fire actually occurred at specified time and within
the jurisdiction of the court
B. That the building was burned by a criminal design and
by a person who is criminally responsible
C. That the fire was applied by the hand of the defendant of the
case
D. None of the above statement is applicable

290. If a fire breaks out simultaneously in six different parts of the


building, it is most reasonable to think that fire is the result of
A. Explosive
B. Carelessness
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Arson

291. Which of the following is a necessary element of in the crime of


arson?
A. The building must be occupied
B. The fire must occur at night time
C. Financial gain must present
D. The burning must be malicious

292. Transmission of heat through a medium


A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Absorption
293. Ammonia is generally used by the arsonist to
A. Cause an explosion in the building
B. Render unnoticeable odor of the gasoline
C. Increase the possibility of complete combustion
D. Start the fire in several places at the same time

38
294. Probably one of the most frequent and definite clues to arson or
attempted arson is
A. Intensity of the flame
B. Multiple fires
C. Odor of burning materials
D. Difficulty in extinguishments

295. The most important factor of the building that should be


considered by fire officer in command in sizing up a fire is the
A. Construction
B. Height
C. Elevators
D. Occupancy

296. The outstanding fire hazard of apartment and boarding houses is


A. Heating defects
B. Incendiary
C. Misuse of electricity
D. Smoking and matches

297. The special extinguishing agent best adopted to larger surfaces


flammable liquid is
A. Steam
B. Foam
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Soda and acid

298. Which of the following usually is an indication of the presence of


considerable quantities of carbon monoxide at a fire
A. Almost lack of smoke
B. Much hot and bright fires
C. Presence of wisps and streamers of grayish blue smoke
D. Large quantities of dense and black smoke

299. The spread o fire from floor to floor in the same building is
usually the result of
A. Fires burning through floors
B. Failure to look of fire doors
C. Open stairways of shafts
D. External exposures through windows

300. A tendency to call for help only after the force on hand has
definitely proved inadequate inexcusable. This view is
A. Correct, there are always sufficient number of people who
interested to give their hands
B. Not correct, calling for help before it is needed results
needles expenditures
C. Correct, by the time help comes, the fire maybe
extended beyond the control of the added force
D. Not correct, call for help only when needed

39
301. You arrive first at an auto mobile fire. A short circuit causes a fire
under the hood which has spread to the dashboard and wires are also
smoldering; of the following acts, the one which should be performed
first is
A. Cool the hood by applying the water
B. Apply ashes, sand or earth on the hood
C. Cut the ignition wiring using a knife
D. Disconnect the battery terminal connections

302. Because no fires are alike, it is impossible to lay down general


plans for fire fighting operations. This viewpoint is unacceptable
primarily because
A. The variety of techniques and methods available are
conducive to all levels of command
B. Proper utilization of forces at hand are independent of the
variable characteristics of fire situations
C. Elements of similarity are sufficient to establish
tactics and strategy applicable in a variety of
situations

303. The first aid for a man overcome by smoke is


A. Induce vomiting
B. Give him stimulant
C. Give artificial respiration
D. Bathe his face in cold water

304. In treating for shock, it is most important to


A. Induce vomiting
B. Administer artificial respiration
C. Kept the patient as warm as possible
D. Keep the patient’s head higher than his body

305. Of the following occupancies, the whose duration of fires


produced by the contents is generally of the same orders as that for
churches is
A. Schools
B. Libraries
C. Assembly halls
D. Hospital wards

306. Which of the following is the accepted method of a combating a


fire involving escaping liquefied petroleum gas
A. Extinguishments by means of the fog nozzle method
B. Extinguishments by means of the solid stream method
C. Extinguishments by dry chemical powder
D. Control fire rather then extinguish it until the flow of
gas can be stopped or the supply has been exhausted

307. In the manufacture of goods from plastics and pyroxylin


materials, fires are mostly caused by
A. Static sparks during winding or unwinding
B. Sparks from machine tools
C. Careless use of flammable liquid during processing
D. Explosion of flammable vapors during processing

40
308. The public attitude towards fire prevention which is the most
difficult to overcome is
A. Maliciousness
B. Indifferences
C. Laziness
D. Obstinacy

309. Which of the following is the cause of the greatest number of


fires
A. Electrical wiring
B. Smoking and matches
C. Spontaneous ignition
D. Lighting

310. The first objective of all fire fighting prevention unit is


A. Preventing property damage
B. Reducing insurance rates
C. Confining fire to a limited area
D. Safeguarding life against fire

311. To establish the fact that a fire promoted by incendiary motive


an investigator will, in most cases, have to rely on
A. The plausibility of the suspect’s alibi
B. The statements or confession of the suspect
C. Evidence obtain by other law enforcement agencies
D. Circumstantial and physical evidence

312. It necessary to determine whether a fire started inside or outside


the building to
A. Study the technique of the person who started the fire
B. Provide data for statistical reports on how the fire started
C. Aids and placing responsibility and establishing
motives
D. Eliminates part of the suspect

313. When fire breaks out simultaneously in several different parts of


a large building, it is most reasonable to believe that the fire is the
result of
A. Carelessness
B. Explosives
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Arson

314. Motives for arson can be divided into for broad classification, of
the following motives, the one that not apply is
A. Duress
B. Spite
C. Pyromania
D. Profit

315. Perhaps no other motive is as frequently responsible for the


commission of arson as
A. Revenge

41
B. Spite
C. Jealousy
D. Profit

316. You were on your way home late at night when you noticed
smoke pouring out on one of the window in a house in which several
families reside. You first consideration under these circumstances
should be to
A. Determine the cause of smoke
B. Arouse all the residents of the house
C. Carry out the safety any person overcome by smoke
D. Summon fire apparatus to the scene of the fire

317. Of the following, the one which is perhaps the most important
element in fire prevention in residences is
A. Periodic inspection by the members of the fire department
B. Care in the operation of electrical appliances
C. Proper and regular disposal of combustible wastes
D. Radio announcement calling attention to fire hazards in the
house

318. After having extinguished the fire, effort should be made to


determine how the fire started. The primary reason for determining
the fire to its origin is to
A. Reduce the amount of damage cause by the fire
B. Determine how the fire has been fought
C. Eliminate cause of fire in the future
D. Improve salvage operations

319. A partially filled gasoline drum is a mere dangerous fire hazard


than a full one. “Of the following, the best justification for this
statement is that
A. Air is not combustible
B. Gasoline is difficult to ignite
C. Gasoline vapors are more explosive than gasoline
itself
D. A partially filled gasoline drum contains relatively little air

320. Fire drills should be held frequently in schools chiefly in order


A. To impress upon the pupils the necessity for discipline
B. To acquaint the pupils with the regulation of the fire
department
C. To lead pupils to respect the law
D. To train the pupils to leave the building quickly and
orderly manner

321. One of the following circumstances concerning a fire which


indicates most strongly the possibility of arson is that
A. There was heavy charring of wood around the point of origin
of the fire
B. The heat was intense that glasses in the building became
molten and fused
C. The fires apparently broke out simultaneously
D. The fire apparently started in all soaked rugs

42
322. Which of the following is most likely to constitute a fire hazard
A. Sodium chloride
B. Chromium
C. Calcium chloride
D. Silicon dioxide

323. Exit doors in theatre should swing out in the direction of the
street mainly because
A. People should walk, not run, to the nearest exit
B. Exits are more readily seen
C. The doors may not catch fire
D. Audience can go out easier

324. Spontaneous combustion may be the reason for a pile of oily


rage catching fire. Generally speaking, spontaneous is the direct
result of
A. Chemical reaction
B. Falling sparks
C. Intense sunlight
D. Application of flame

325. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose, they usually
lean forward on the hose. The likely reason for taking this position is
that
A. The surrounding air is cool, making the firemen comfortable
B. The firemen can better see where the stream strikes
C. The stream projected farther
D. A backward force is developed which must be
counteracted

326. The cause of majority of fire deaths is


A. Shock
B. Falling materials
C. Burn
D. Asphyxiation

327. The one which does not resist fire is


A. Asbestos
B. Phosphate of ammonia
C. Borax
D. Sulphur

328. An uncontrollable impulse to incendiarism


A. Kleptomaniac
B. Maniac depressive
C. Pedophilia
D. Arson

329. In case of insurance fraud, the evidence that must be gathered


from the fire debris to determine the type of antique wooden
furniture’s consumed by the fire is
A. Statement of witnesses
B. Hardware materials

43
C. Ashes
D. Burned plasters

330. After a fire, which of the following conditions that were noted
may not be a good? Indication that the fire is used to conceal another
crime?
A. Documents and records that were left purposely exposed
B. Metal file cabinets that were left opened
C. Windows forced open
D. Furniture that were deliberately rearrange

331. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
the is burning, in order to be of value to the investigation, observation
should be made
A. Before the fire
B. After the fire
C. After the water has been poured
D. During overhaul

332. In accordance with Sec. 6 of PD 1613, which of the following


circumstances does not constitute a prima facile evidence of arson?
A. The property was insured substantially more than its actual
value at the time if issuance of the policy.
B. Substantial amounts of flammable substances were stored
with the building not necessary in the business.
C. Doors and windows that were normally kept open in
the course of business were found closed during the
fire.
D. The fire started in more than one part of the building or
establishment.

333. After a fire in which arson is suspected, you may be able to trace
the fire to its origin because_.
A. The alligator pattern of charring is not as light absorbent of
the surrounding areas
B. The checks of the charring process will be larger then the
surrounding areas
C. The pattern of charring at the point of origin is smaller
and deeper than the rest of the areas
D. The point of origin will be darker than the rest of the areas

334. One of the following situations is a good indication of an


accidents fire.
A. Smell of ammonia
B. Intense heat
C. Fire of several origin
D. Fire of only one origin

335. The purpose of the opening of the doors and windows of adjacent
rooms of burning building is to _.
A. Extinguish the fire
B. Prevent back draft
C. Supply the oxygen of the area

44
D. Serve as entrance of firemen

336. An arsonist may rearrange materials or furniture in a room prior


to setting it on fire in order to_.
A. Mislead the investigators
B. Camouflage the odor of accelerants
C. Provide a quick burning situation
D. All of the above

337. If the fire is set by rationale motive, the important point to


establish is_.
A. Intensity of fire
B. Rapidity of spread
C. Size of fire
D. Origin of fire

338. The fire that started in almost all corners of the building at the
same time is called_.
A. Separate burning
B. Non-related burning
C. Simultaneous burning
D. Related burning

339. One of the following is the characteristics of the behavior of the


pyromaniac.
A. Aggressiveness in putting off the fire
B. Smiling while the building is on fire
C. Uncontrollable and excessive laughter
D. None of these

340. The lowest temperature at which a substance must be heated to


give of vapors that will burn without the application of sparked is
called_.
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Auto-ignition point
D. Explosive point

341. When water comes in contact with fire, white smoke is produced.
But if it comes before the water from the fire hose hits the fire, the
burning substance could be_.
A. Nitrocellulose
B. Petroleum products
C. Humid or organic substance
D. Accelerants

342. A building which is unsafe in case of fire because it lacks


adequate fire exit is said to be a-.
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire resistive
C. Fire trap
D. Fire unsafe

45
343. A toxic deadly gas produced during fire when there is insufficient
oxygen for the complete combustion of all the carbon in the burning
substance is known as_.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Hydrogen gas

344. Usually, the color of the smoke will indicate the type of material
is burning. In order to be of value to the investigator, observation
should be made_.
A. At the start of fire
B. During smoldering stage
C. After water from hose comes in contact with flame
D. Before water from hose made in contact with the fire

345. In arson cases, which of the following is not used in determining


if accelerants are used is starting the fire?
A. Heat and fire pattern
B. Early color of smoke
C. Condition of doors and windows
D. Presence of distinct odor

346. In cases where structure is completely burned to the ground, the


position of doors and windows during the fire whether opened or
closed may be ascertained by_.
A. Consulting the original structure blueprint on file
B. Interviewing spectators
C. Collecting broken pieces of window glasses
D. Locating the hardware used in the construction of such doors

347. Using electrical appliances, which draw electrical current beyond


the designed capacity of electrical circuit.
A. Over using
B. Over plugging
C. Over loading
D. Over capacity

348. Which of the following statement is not applicable with dry


chemicals as a fire fighting agent?
A. Effect is only temporary
B. Has a smothering effect
C. Has no cooling effect
D. No protection against re-flash

349. Among the statements below is the best protection against fire.
A. Performing good house keeping chores
B. Practicing fire prevention measures
C. Having adequate fire fighting facilities
D. Awareness of fire hazards

350. Fire is divided into four general classification to indicate the


following, except;
A. Nature Of The Combustible Or Fuel Involved

46
B. Methods Of Extinguishing Fire
C. Most Suitable Extinguishing Agent
D. Flammability Of The Combustible

351. Perhaps no other motive is so frequently responsible for the


commission of arson if not_.
A. Due to profit
B. Due to duress
C. Due to jealousy
D. Due to spite
352. Which of the following does not match?
A. Combustible metal-inorganic-hydrogen gas
B. Complete combustion – ashes – carbon dioxide
C. Incomplete combustion – carbon- carbon monoxide
D. Humid combustible – white smoke – hydrogen sulfide

353. The burning of combustible materials without external source.


A. An accidental fire
B. A providential fire
C. A spontaneous fire
D. An intentional fire

354. Trailers are devices used to_.


A. Spread the fire through out the structure
B. Accelerate the burning process
C. Ignite combustible materials
D. None of the foregoing

355. The primary responsibility of a fire investigator is_.


A. To determine the true cause of fire
B. To determine the origin of the fire
C. To identify the victims
D. To locate the perpetrator/s

356. What is the chemical reaction whereby energy or heat is


released?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Conduction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Pyrolysis

357. The vertical natural movement of smoke through the building


cause by the differences in the temperature between the inside and
the outside air is called_.
A. High effect
B. Smoke effect
C. Stock effect
D. Stack effect

358. The following statements indicate hazards of fire gases, except


A. Displaced the breathing air
B. Poisoning
C. Direct evidence
D. Carbon dioxide

47
359. The head of the BFP with the rank of Director shall have a
position title of?
A. BFP Director
B. Fire Marshal
C. Fire Chief
D. Chief Superintendent

360. Who is the appointing officer of the Fire Chief of the BFP?
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DILG
C. President of the Republic
D. PPSC

361. Criminologist, Nurses, Civil Eng’r, Mechanical Eng’r, Electrical


Eng’r, Chemical Eng’r, Chemist, Archetict, Dentist and CPA can be
appointed into the BFP via lateral entry with the rank of?
A. Sr. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector
C. Inspector
D. Lieutenant

362. The burning of one’s property or the property of another with


malicious intent?
A. Pyromaniac
B. Arson
C. Fire Alarm
D. Fire Investigation

363. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another?


A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Sun rays

364. A device used by the arsonist to spread the fire within the room
or throughout the structure?
A. Accelerant
B. Trailer
C. Smoke
D. Pyromaniac

365. Any act or condition that would removed or neutralized a fire


hazard?
A. Fire Hydrant
B. Abatement
C. Fire
D. Arson

366. Republic Act no._________ otherwise known as the Fire Code of


the Philippines?
A. R.A. 9514
B. R.A. 9263
C. R.A. 8187

48
D. R.A.6975

367. Any act or condition which may increases the cause or


probability of the occurrence of fire or which may obstruct, delay or
hinder the firefighting operation?
A. Fire hazard
B. Fire wall
C. Fire alarm
D. Abatement

368. Mr. Arso Nista had an incendiary material capable to burn the
house of his enemy. While he was in front of the gate of his house he,
he was caught by the authorities. Being the best investigator, what
should you do?
A. Charge him with frustrated arson
B. Charge w/ illegal possession of incendiary
C. Charge him with attempted arson
D. Nothing to be charge

369. The commercial building of Mr. Co Tong was on fire. The best
place to put a command center/operation at the fire scene should be
in?
A. At the back of the building
B. At the left corner of the building
C. At the front center of the building
D. At the opposite corner of the building

370. The active principle of burning characterized by heat and light of


combustion?
A. Chemistry of fire
B. Classes of fire
C. Fire
D. Fire alarm

371. Mr. Arso Nista intentionally burned the house of Mr. Patulog
Tulog which unfortunately, only the sala was burned. What is the
criminal liability of Mr. Arso Nista was done?
A. Frustrated arson
B. Malicious mischief
C. Attempted arson
D. Consummated arson

372. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a


safety device in an electrical system?
A. Short circuit
B. Overloading
C. Jumper
D. Jump off

373. A fire involving ordinary combustible materials?


A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

49
374. A fire involving energized electrical equipment?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

375. A form of energy which is produced when substance undergoes a


change from higher state of energy to lower one?
A. Heat
B. Fire
C. Combustible
D. Oxidation

376. The minimum temperature at which a material gives off vapor in


sufficient amount to form an ignitable mixture?
A. Flashpoint
B. Fire point
C. Back draft
D. Flame over

377. A heat transfer by heat rays through intervening space?


A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Direct contact

378. The act or process of preventing the fire from spreading or


minimizing further damage?
A. Fire control
B. Fire extinguishing
C. Fire suppression
D. Cooling

379. Estimating the situation at the fire scene and formulating tactics
on how to fight the fire?
A. Size up
B. Rescue
C. Ventilation
D. Salvage

380. Removing of persons or properties from dangered area and


bring them to a safety place?
A. Overhauling
B. Rescue
C. Salvage
D. Ventilation

381. A planned and systematic release or removal of heated air,


smoke & gases from a building and the placement of a cooler air?
A. Ventilation
B. Salvage
C. Overhauling

50
D. Rescue

382. A fire resistive door prescribed for openings in fire separation


walls or partitions.
A. Fire Door
B. Glass door
C. Entrance door
D. Exit door

383. Descriptive of materials that are easily set on fire.


A. Combustible, Flammable or Inflammable
B. Abatement
C. Combustible Fiber
D. Blasting Agent

384. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or


because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.
A. Fire trap
B. Abatement
C. Combustible Fiber
D. Blasting Agent

385. Any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degree Celsius or
100 Fahrenheit
A. Combustible Liquid
B. Abatement
C. Combustible Fiber
D. Blasting Agent

386. It can provide information on the economic health of the industry


in general and the arson target in particular?
A. Business competitors
B. Employees
C. Firefighters
D. Insurance and financial personnel

387. It is the commercial enterprise possess potentially useful


information, which will be divulged if they are interviewed properly?
A. Person who discovered the fire
B. Firefighters
C. Employees
D. Owner or manager of the structure

388. It can report on which part of the building was ablaze when first
noticed?
A. Fire fighters
B. Owner or manager of the structure
C. Person who discovered the fire
D. Employees
389. There are able to point the origin of structure fire, in contrast to
forest or grass fires, almost 50 percent of the time?
A. Owner or manager of the structure
B. Firefighter

51
C. Employees
D. Person who discovered the fire

390. It is defined as the malicious, willful, intentional and felonies


destruction of property by fire.
A. Arson
B. Fire
C. Water
D. Oxidation
391. It can undoubtedly benefit a surviving firm when its competitor is
forced out of business by arson?
A. Insurance fraud
B. Financial gain
C. Moving and resettlement allowance
D. Elimination of competition

392. The threat of arson has caused individuals to fear for their safety?
A. Threatened economic loss
B. Chance of policy
C. Fear for safety
D. Intimidation

393. It is defined as an irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire


or something on fire?
A. Recognition as a hero
B. Pyromania
C. Emotional reasons
D. Intimidation

394. It is the some arsonists will set a fire in order to discover it and
then save the inhabitants or contents?
A. Vandalism
B. Recognition as a hero
C. Pyromania
D. Concealment of other crime

395. The human olfactory nerve can be sensitive?


A. Detecting by scent
B. Dye color test
C. Visual observations.
D. Instrumental devices

396. It is over a dozen instruments are available for the detection of


accelerant?
A. Visual objections
B. Dye color test
C. Instrumental devices
D. Detecting by scent

397. The first step of recognizing the problem is after the fire has
occurred?
A. Recognition the problem
B. Defining the problem
C. Collecting data

52
D. Analyzing data

398. It includes documentation of the fire scene with photographs,


reports and collection of physical evidence?
A. Defining the problem
B. Collecting data
C. Analyzing data
D. Developing hypothesis
399. It is the stage which the investigator may express his or her
opinion about the origin, cause and responsibility of the fire incident?
A. Collecting data
B. Analyzing data
C. Developing hypothesis
D. Recognizing the problem

400. It is the basic chemical process of combustion?


A. Depth of char
B. Spalling
C. Oxidation
D. Calcination

401. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster
or gypsum wall surfaces?
A. Calcination
B. Line or area of demarcation
C. Spalling
D. Glass as an indication.

402. This refers to the half-moon shapes that are sometimes seen on
the surface of glass items?
A. Heat shadowing
B. Checkering
C. Light bulbs
D. Protected area

403. It is the similar in appearance to heat shadowing is what is


commonly referred to as a protected area?
A. Light bulbs
B. Heat shadowing
C. Crazed and fractured glass
D. Protected area

404. It is the lowest temperature at which a substances gives off vapor


that burns momentarily when flame or spark is applied.
A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Fuel
D. Auto- ignition

405. It is the industrial process of subjecting materials to heat for the


purpose of removing solvents?
A. Hypergolic fuel
B. Occupancy
C. Industrial baking and dying

53
D. Organic peroxide

406. The fire consumes the host solid part of the fuel?
A. Pyrolysis
B. Biomass
C. Fire
D. Fuel

407. It is under the classification of gases based of source that used to


heal building cook food and provide energy for industries?
A. Natural
B. Manufactured
C. Industrial
D. Coal

408. It is violent effect of criminal reaction when combustion process is


confined?
A. Detonation
B. Explosion
C. Heat
D. Temperature

409. It is under the common causes of fire except?


A. Electrical short circuit
B. Electrical over heating
C. Spontaneous ignition
D. Sparking

410. Fatal condition that take place when the fire resists
extinguishment operation.
A. Flashover
B. Flash fire
C. Backdraft
D. Bite back

411. Sudden and a rapid burning of heated gasses in a confined area.


A. Flashover
B. Flash fire
C. Backdraft
D. Bite back

412. This may happen when a metal post that is completely covered
with dust is going to be hit by a lighting?
A. Flash over
B. Flash over
C. Backdraft
D. Lightning

413. It is the under fire triangle except?


A. Full knowledge
B. Heat
C. Deliberate
D. Grave matter

54
414. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property?
A. Flame
B. Conflagration
C. Burning
D. Combustion

415. Should have the rank of chief inspector?


A. City fire marshal
B. District fire marshal
C. Deputy chief for administration
D. Chief of the fire bureau

416. It is a method of locating object where measurements are taken


from two fixed points at scene to the object you desire to locate?
A. Triangulation
B. Heat
C. Fuel
D. Oxygen

417. A process where impurities and or deleterious materials are


removed from a mixture in order to produce a pure element of
compound?
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Smelting
D. Self-closing doors

418. A process where impurities and or deleterious materials are


removed from a mixture in order to produce a pure element of
compound?
A. Pyrophoric
B. Refining
C. Smelting
D. Self-closing doors

419. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be


attached on each floors, including a system by which water is made
available to the outlet as needed?
A. Vestibule
B. Standpipe system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Sprinkler system

420. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be


attached on each floors, including a system by which water is made
available to the outlet as needed?
A. Vestibule
B. Standpipe system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Sprinkler system

421. A passage hall of ante chamber between the outer doors and the
interior parts of a house or building?
A. Vestibule

55
B. Standpipe system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Sprinkler system

422. An enclosed vertical space of passage that’s extends from floor to


floor as well as from the base to the top of the building?
A. Vestibule
B. Standpipe
C. Vertical shaft
D. Sprinkler system

423. Known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into law
1997, repealed by RA no. 9514?
A. RA no. 9263
B. RA no. 9514
C. RA no. 9325
D. RA no. 1185

424. Any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the
ground to the sky, dedicated for public use?
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading

425. The person who holds the legal right of possession or tittle to a
building or real property.
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading

426. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which


draw or consume electrical current beyond the design capacity of the
existing electrical system?
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading

427. A material that readily yield oxygen in quantities sufficient to


stimulate or support combustion?
A. Owner
B. Oxidizing material
C. Public way
D. Overloading

428. A strong oxidizing organic compound which release oxygen


readily?
A. Organic peroxide
B. Occupancy
C. Jumper
D. Occupant

56
429. The purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or
intended to be used?
A. Organic peroxide
B. Occupancy
C. Jumper
D. Occupant

430. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor use to bypass a safety


device in an electrical system?
A. Organic peroxide
B. Occupancy
C. Jumper
D. Occupant

431. Any person actually occupying and using a building or portions


thereof by virtue of a lease contract with the owner or administrator or
by permission or sufferance of the latter?
A. Organic peroxide
B. Occupancy
C. Jumper
D. Occupant

432. A cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire hose is


connected?
A. Hose reel
B. Hose box
C. Hypergolic fuel
D. Horizontal exit

433. A box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment are
stored and arranged for firefighting?
A. Fulminate
B. Forcing
C. Hose box
D. Flash point

434. Refers to design and installations of walls, barriers, doors,


windows, vents, means of egress and etc.?
A. Fire safety constructions
B. Fire lane
C. Fire door
D. Fulminate

435. A kind of stable explosive compound which explode by


percussion?
A. Fire hazards
B. Fulminate
C. Fire truck
D. Finishes

436. Any visual or audible signal produce by a device or system to


warn the occupants of the building or the fighting element of the
presence or danger of fire to enable them to undertake immediate
action to save life and property and to suppress the fire?

57
A. Fire alarm
B. Fire truck
C. Fire door
D. Fire lane
437. A normally open device installed inside an air duct system which
automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. Curtain board
B. Distillation
C. Dust
D. Damper

438. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burn and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames?
A. Fire
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Ember
D. Electrical arc

439. Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter
or with certain chemicals?
A. Combustible liquid
B. Combustible fiver
C. Corrosive liquid
D. Blasting agent

440. Descriptive of any material which by its nature or as a result of its


reaction with other elements produces a rapidly drop in temperature of
the immediate surroundings.
A. Cryogenic
B. Distillation
C. Spalling
D. Rekindle

441. The circumstances or agencies that bring a fuel and an ignition


source together with proper air or oxygen.
A. Fire analysis
B. Fire cause
C. Fire spread
D. Flash fire

442. Chipping or pitting of concrete or masonry surfaces.


A. Spalling
B. Abatement
C. Fuel load
D. Combustible fiber

443. Commonly recognized type of fire and occurs with gaseous fuel
sources only.
A. Flaming combustion
B. Explosive combustion
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Glowing combustion

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444. The mechanism in which fire can spread from its origin to other
sources of fuel?
A. Heat release rate
B. Ignition or auto ignition
C. Heat transfer
D. Fire point or flame point

445. Can occur when vapors, dust of gases, premix with appropriate
amount of air are ignited?
A. Explosive combustion
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Flaming combustion
D. Glowing combustion

446. Which are not included to the three fold aim of criminal
investigation?
A. Identifying the perpetrator
B. Locate the perpetrator
C. Provide evidence
D. Locate evidence

447. This refers to the cracking of glass into smaller segments or


subdivision in an irregular pattern?
A. Checkering
B. Crazing
C. Shadowing
D. Spalling

448. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster
or gypsum wall surfaces.
A. Calcination
B. Heat indicators
C. Glass as an indication
D. Depth of char

449. It is the carbonization of a fuel by the action of heat or burning.


A. Oxidation
B. Spalling
C. Depth of char
D. Calcination

450. It is the stage at which the investigator may express his or her
opinion about the origin, which cause and responsibility of the fire
incident.
A. Developing hypothesis
B. Analyzing data
C. Collecting data
D. Defining the problem

451. It is the human olfactory nerve can be sensitive.


A. Visual observation
B. Detecting by scent
C. Dye color test
D. Instrumental devices

59
452. If sprinkled over a suspected area, dyes soluble only in organic
solvents can changes to red or another, depending on the dye.
A. Visual observation
B. Detecting by scent
C. Dye color test
D. Instrumental devices

453. Well over a dozen instruments are available for the detection of
accelerant.
A. Visual observation
B. Detecting by devices
C. Dye color test
D. Instrumental devices

454. It is defined as an irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire


or something on fire.
A. Vandalism
B. Pyromania
C. Intimidation
D. Concealment of other fire

455. Run down or vacant buildings in deteriorating neighborhoods can


become the target of adolescent gangs looking to vent anger or simply
to relieve monotony.
A. Vandalism
B. Pyromania
C. Intimidation
D. Concealment of other fire

456. It is sound business practice requires that an inventory count be


taken regularly to ferret out theft.
A. Homicide
B. Robbery
C. Fraud
D. Other crimes

457. It attempts have been made to conceal criminal homicide by


making it appear that a person fell asleep while smoking and then died.
A. Homicide
B. Robbery
C. Fraud
D. Other crimes

458. It can cause a jilted sexual partner to resort to arson, by setting


the property of the former lover or new lover on fire.
A. Jealousy
B. Spite
C. Revenge
D. Hatred

459. This domestic quarrel and feuds between neighbours are often
marked by arson.
A. Jealousy

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B. Spite
C. Revenge
D. Hatred

460. It is another strong emotion that is sometimes relieved through


arson.
A. Jealousy
B. Emotional reasons
C. Revenge
D. Hatred

461. It is the threat of arson has caused individuals to fear for their
safety.
A. Change of policy
B. Fear for safety
C. Threatened economic loss
D. Intimidation

462. This arson has been used tom press for a change in governmental
policy.
A. Change of policy
B. Fear for safety
C. Threatened economic loss
D. Intimidation

463. It is a strategically-timed fire can undoubtedly benefit a surviving


firm when its competitor is forced out of business by arson.
A. Financial gain
B. Insurance fraud
C. Elimination of competition
D. Moving and resettlement allowance

464. People who do not live below the poverty line cannot know the
hardships endured by those who live on the edge.
A. Financial gain
B. Insurance fraud
C. Elimination of competition
D. Moving and resettlement allowance

465. Refers for resident fires that occur during normal sleeping hours,
occupants will generally be found out on the street.
A. Neighbours and tenants
B. Spectators of the scene
C. News media camera technicians
D. Fortuitous witnesses

466. It can provide information on the economic health of the industry


in general and the arson target in particular.
A. Business competitors
B. Other possible witnesses
C. Employees
D. Insurance and financial personnel

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467. It refers water and foam fire extinguishers extinguish the fire by
taking away the heat element of the fire triangle.
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water and foam
C. Dry chemical
D. Wet chemical

468. It is the fire primarily by interacting the chemical reaction of the


fire triangle.
A. Clean agent
B. Cartage operated dry chemical
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Dry chemical

469. It is a fire engine designed for use as aerodromes and airports in


air craft accidents.
A. Command and control
B. Wild-land fire appliances
C. Logistical support appliances
D. Airport crash tender

470. Many fire departments operate a number of vehicles in


specialized logistical functions.
A. Rescue engine and rescue pumper
B. Logistical support appliances
C. Hazardous materials appliances
D. Fire boat

471. Which can also be known as a water tender or water bowser.


A. Tanker truck
B. Heavy rescue vehicle
C. Hydraulic platform
D. Turntable ladder

472. It is the fire engine may have several methods of pumping water
into the fire.
A. Turntable ladder
B. Quint and quad
C. Fire engine
D. Fire-aircraft

473. This first way of extinguishing a fire is by cooling.


A. Smothering or blanketing
B. Cooling or quenching
C. Starving or cutting-off
D. Chemical inhibition or flame interaction

474. This buildings may also be equipped with detection systems that
will transmit an alarm.
A. Sprinkler system
B. Standpipe system
C. Alarm system
D. None of the above

62
475. This building and fire inspectors check on appliances of a building
under construction with the building code.
A. Fire protection
B. Fire safety
C. Active fire protection
D. Law enforcement

476. It is the study and practice of mitigating the unwanted effects of


fire.
A. Fire protection
B. Fire safety
C. Active fire protection
D. Law enforcement

477. It consist of depriving of fire of fuel-reducing agent, oxygen-


oxidizing agent, heat or the chemical chain reaction that are necessary
to sustain or re-kindle itself.
A. Fire control
B. Fire prevention
C. Firefighting
D. Fire safety

478. In Greek mythology he is the God of fire and metalwork, and who
is the son of the God Zeus and the Goddess Hera, or sometimes the
son of Hera alone.
A. Aphrodite
B. Prometheus
C. Hephaestus
D. Hestia

479. It is a species a few man who lived from about 1.8 million to about
30,000 years ago, was the first to use fire on a regular basis.
A. Homo sapiens
B. Homo erectus
C. Homo habilis
D. None of the above

480. He represented as having stolen the precious flame from Mount


Olympus.
A. Phoebus
B. Epimetheus
C. Titan Prometheus
D. Heraclitus of Ephesus

481. In Greek mythology he is one of the Titans, known as the friend


and benefactor of humanity.
A. Phoebus
B. Epimetheus
C. Prometheus
D. Heraclitus of Ephesus

482. Any readily ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton, rugs,
waste paper and other similar materials commonly used in commerce.
A. Abatement

63
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic

483. Any plastic substance, materials or compound having cellulose


nitrate as base.
A. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic-Pyroxylin
B. Abatement
C. Combustible Fiber
D. Blasting Agent

484. Descriptive of any material which by its nature or as a result of its


reaction with other element produces a rapid drop in temperature of
the immediate surroundings.
A. Abatement
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic

485. A continuous passage way for the transmission of air.


A. Dust system
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic

486. What are the three (3) state of matter?


A. Solid, Gas, Oxygen
B. Solid, Liquid, Gas
C. A and B
D. None of the above

487. Which of the following are not heat energy?


A. Chemical Heat Energy
B. Mechanical Heat Energy
C. Solid Heat Energy
D. None of the above

488. This is a phenomenon in which a fire that has consumed all


available oxygen suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made
available, typically because a door or window has been opened.
A. Backdraft
B. Boiling point
C. British Thermal Unit
D. None of the above

489. The temperature of a substance where the rate of evaporation


exceeds the rate of condensation.
A. Backdraft
B. Boiling point
C. British Thermal Unit
D. None of the above

490. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound
of water one degree F.

64
A. Backdraft
B. Boiling point
C. British Thermal Unit
D. None of the above

491. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram
of water one degree Centigrade.
A. Calorie
B. Centigrade
C. Chemical Heat Energy
D. Heat of Combustion

492. On the Centigrade scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water.
A. Calorie
B. Centigrade
C. Chemical Heat Energy
D. Heat of Combustion

493. The amount of heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)


process.
A. Calorie
B. Centigrade
C. Chemical Heat Energy
D. Heat of Combustion

494. The release of heat from decomposing compounds.  These


compounds may be unstable and release their heat very quickly or
they may detonate.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Spontaneous heating
D. None of the above

495. The heat released by the mixture of matter in a liquid.  Some


acids, when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose exposure
problems to nearby combustibles.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Spontaneous heating
D. None of the above

496. The heating of an organic substance without the addition of


external heat.  Spontaneous heating occurs most frequently where
sufficient air is not present to dissipate the heat produced.  
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Spontaneous heating
None of the above
497. Fires involving ordinary combustible materials, such as wood,
cloth, paper, rubber and many plastics.
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires

65
D. Class K fires

498. Fires involving flammable liquids, greases and gases.


A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class D fires

499. Fires involving energized electrical equipment.


A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class K fires

500. Fires involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium,


zirconium, sodium and potassium.
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class D fires
D. Class K fires

501. New classification of fire and of 1998 and involves fires in


combustible cooking fuels such as vegetable or animal fats.
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class K fires
D. Class D fires

502. It is the self-sustaining process of rapid oxidation of a fuel being


reduced by an oxidizing agent along with the evolution of heat and
light.
A. Combustion
B. Dry Chemical and Halons
C. Heat from Arcing
D. Heat generated by lightning

503. Is a method of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame producing


chemical reaction, resulting in rapid extinguishment.
A. Combustion
B. Dry Chemical and Halons
C. Heat from Arcing
D. Heat generated by lightning

504. Heat released either as a high-temperature arc or as molten


material from the conductor.
A. Combustion
B. Dry Chemical and Halons
C. Heat from Arcing
D. Heat generated by lightning

505. The heat generated by the discharged of thousands of volts from


either earth to cloud, cloud to cloud or from cloud to ground.
A. Combustion
B. Dry Chemical and Halons

66
C. Heat from Arcing
D. Heat generated by lightning

506. The heating of materials resulting from an alternating current flow


causing a magnetic field influence.
A. Induction heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Static Electricity Heating

507. The heat resulting from imperfect or improperly insulated


electrical materials.  This is particularly evident where the insulation is
required to handle high voltage or loads near maximum capacity.
A. Induction heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Static Electricity Heating

508. The heat generated by passing an electrical force through a


conductor such as a wire or an appliance.
A. Induction heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Static Electricity Heating

509. Heat released as an arc between oppositely charged surfaces. It


can be generated by the contact and separation of charged surfaces or
by fluids flowing through pipes.
A. Induction heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Static Electricity Heating

510.A chemical reaction where a substance absorbs heat energy.


A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Exothermic Heat Reaction
C. Fahrenheit
D. Fire point

511. A chemical reaction where a substance gives off heat energy.


A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Exothermic Heat Reaction
C. Fahrenheit
D. Fire point

512. On the Fahrenheit scale, 32 degrees is the melting point of ice;


212 degrees is the boiling point of water.
A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Exothermic Heat Reaction
C. Fahrenheit
D. Fire point

67
513. The temperature at which a liquid fuel will produce vapors
sufficient to support combustion once ignited.  The fire point is usually
a few degrees above the flash point.
A. Endothermic Heat Reaction
B. Exothermic Heat Reaction
C. Fahrenheit
D. Fire point

514. Fire Triangle is consist of the following except;


A. Oxygen
B. Gas
C. Heat
D. Fuel

515. Combustion or burning in which substances combine chemically


with oxygen from the air and typically give out bright light, heat
and smoke.
      A. Flame                                                        
      B. Heat    
    C. Fire
      D. Smoke 

516. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by


something on fire.
A. Flame                                                 
B. Heat   
C. Fire
D. Smoke

517. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.


A. Conflagration                                              
B. Burning 
C. Fire
D. Combustion

518. Means on fire or very hot or bright.


a. Flame                                                         
b. Burning
c. Fire
d. Combustion

519. The rapid chemical combination of a substance with


oxygen involving the production of heat and light.
A. Flame                                                       
B. Burning 
C. Fire
D. Combustion

520. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for atleast 5 seconds after ignition by an open 
    flame.
A. Flame                                                         
B. Heat  
C. Fire

68
D. Smoke

521. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame                                                       
B. Heat  
C. Light
D. Smoke

522. The lowest temperature which the vapor of a combustible liquid


can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point                                             
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point

523. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at


least five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point                                          
B. Ignition temperature 
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point

524. A gas-phased combustion.


A. Fire
B. Flame
C. Combustion
D. Fire point

525. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which


draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of
the existing electrical system
A. Self-closing door
B. JumpeR
C. Overloading
D. Oxidizing material

526. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor
to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. Sprinkle evidence
B. Vertical shaft
C. Flash point
D. Standpipe system

527. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a


fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient 
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap

528. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard


A. Allotment

69
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement

529. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant


permits and/or license by local governments or other government
agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire alerting system
D. Fire service

530. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated
from the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two
hard surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. Static electricity
B. Overheating of machine
C. Friction heat
D. Heat from arching

531. Method of heat transfer by direct contact


A. Nuclear fission
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Radiation

532. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant


A. Hydrant key
B. Kilowatts
C. Key board
D. Bunch of key

533. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal 


     interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember

534. The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement
     of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above

535. The percentage of a substance in air that will burn once it is


ignited.  Most substances have an upper (too rich) and a lower (too
lean) flammable limit.
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit
B. Flashover
C. Flashpoint
D. Fuel

70
536. An instance of a fire spreading very rapidly across a gap because
of intense heat. Occurs when a room or other area becomes heated to
the point where flames flash over the entire surface or area.
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit
B. Flashover
C. Flashpoint
D. Fuel

537. The minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off


sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the
surface.  At this temperature, the ignited vapors will flash, but
will not continue to burn.
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit
B. Flashover
C. Flashpoint
D. Fuel

538. It is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the


combustion process. Material such as coal, gas, or oil that is burned
to produce heat or power.
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit
B. Flashover
C. Flashpoint
D. Fuel

539. A method of fire extinguishment, fire is effectively extinguished by


removing the fuel source.  This may be accomplished by stopping the
flow of liquid or gaseous fuel or by removing solid fuel in the path of
the fire or allow the fire to burn until all fuel
is consumed.
A. Fuel Removal
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heat
D. Heating

540. A condensed phased combustion.


A. Fuel Removal
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heat
D. Heating

541. It is the quality of being hot; high temperature. A form of energy


arising from the random motion of the molecules of bodies, which may
be transferred by conduction, convection, or radiation.
A. Fuel Removal
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heat
D. Heating

542. It is the transfer of energy from a hotter body to a colder one,


other than by work or transfer of matter.
A. Fuel Removal
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heat

71
D. Heating

543. It is the transfer of energy through matter from particle to


particle. Heat may be conducted from one body to another by direct
contact of the two bodies or by an intervening heat-conducting
medium.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of the above

544. It is the transfer of heat by the actual movement of the warmed


matter. Transfer of heat by the movement of air or liquid.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of the above

545. Electromagnetic waves that directly transport energy through


space.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of the above

546. The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated in


order to start self-sustained combustion independent of the heating
source.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Ignition Temperature

547. The form of energy that raises temperature.  Heat is measured


by the amount of work it does.
A. Heat
B. Light
C. Flame
D. Ignition Temperature

548. The release of heat from decomposing compounds. These


compounds may be unstable and release their heat very quickly or
they may detonate.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Frictional Heat
D. Friction Sparks

549. The heat released by the mixture of matter in a liquid.  Some


acids, when dissolved, give off sufficient heat to pose exposure
problems to nearby combustibles.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Frictional Heat

72
D. Friction Sparks

550. The heat generated by the movement between two objects in


contact with each other.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Frictional Heat
D. Friction Sparks

551. The heat generated in the form of sparks from solid objects
striking each other.  Most often at least one of the objects is metal.
A. Heat of Decomposition
B. Heat of Solution
C. Frictional Heat
D. Friction Sparks

552. The heat generated by the forced reduction of a gaseous volume.


Diesel engines ignite fuel vapor without a spark plug by the use of this
principle.
A. Heat of Compression
B. Nuclear Fission and Fusion
C. Oxidation
D. Oxidizing Agents

553. The heat generated by either the splitting or combining of atoms.


A. Heat of Compression
B. Nuclear Fission and Fusion
C. Oxidation
D. Oxidizing Agents

554. The complex chemical reaction of organic material with oxygen or


other oxidizing agents in the formation of more stable compounds.
A. Heat of Compression
B. Nuclear Fission and Fusion
C. Oxidation
D. Oxidizing Agents

555. These are materials that yield oxygen or other oxidizing gases
during the course of a chemical reaction.
A. Heat of Compression
B. Nuclear Fission and Fusion
C. Oxidation
D. Oxidizing Agents

556. It is the reduction of the oxygen concentration to the fire area.


A. Oxygen Dilution
B. Pyrolysis
C. Fire
D. Flame

557. The following are phases of fire except:


A. Incipient Phase (Growth Stage)
B. Free-Burning Phase (Fully Developed Stage)
C. Smoldering Phase (Decay Stage)

73
D. Blanketing

558. The following are products of fire except:


A. Water
B. Flame
C. Smoke
D. Heat

559. It is also known as thermalde composition and defined as the


chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.
A. Pyrolysis
B. Fire
C. Flame
D. None of the above

560. An act created the BFP.


A. RA 6975
B. RA 7795
C. RA 9675
D. RA 5768

561. It administers and enforces the fire code of the Philippines. This
shall have the power to investigate all causes of fires and, if necessary,
file the proper complaints with the city or provincial prosecutor who
has jurisdiction over the case.
A. Bureau of Fire Protection
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Philippine National Police
D. Armed Forces of the Philippines

562. The density of liquids in relation to water.


A. Specific Gravity
B. Spontaneous Heating
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density
563. The heating of an organic substance without the addition of
external heat.  Spontaneous heating occurs most frequently where
sufficient air is not present to dissipate the heat produced.
A. Specific Gravity
B. Spontaneous Heating
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density

564. Method of extinguishing fire cooling the fuel with water to a point
where it does not produce sufficient vapor to burn.
A. Specific Gravity
B. Spontaneous Heating
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density

565. The density of a particular gas or vapor relative to that of


hydrogen at the same pressure and temperature.
A. Specific Gravity
B. Spontaneous Heating

74
C. Temperature Reduction
D. Vapor Density

566. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air.


A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember

567. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember

568. An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by passage of an


electric current across a space between two conductors or terminals
due to the incandescence of the conducting vapor.
A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember

569. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burned, and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames.
A. Duct System
B. Dust
C. Electrical Arc
D. Ember

570. Materials used as final coating of a surface for ornamental or


protective purposes.
A. Finishes
B. Fire
C. Fire Trap
D. Fire alarm

571. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and


light of combustion.
A. Finishes
B. Fire
C. Fire Trap
D. Fire alarm

572. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or


because it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.
A. Finishes
B. Fire
C. Fire Trap
D. Fire alarm

573. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to


warm the occupants of the building or firefighting elements of the

75
presence or danger of fire to enable them to undertake immediate
action to save life and property and to suppress the fire.
A. Finishes
B. Fire
C. Fire Trap
D. Fire alarm

574. A fire resistive door prescribed for openings in fire separation


walls or partitions.
A. Fire door
B. Fire Hazard
C. Fire Lane
D. Fire protective and Fire Safety Device

575. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in


the probability of the occurrence of fire, or which may obstruct, delay,
hinder or interfere with fire fighting operations and the safeguarding of
life and property.
A. Fire door
B. Fire Hazard
C. Fire Lane
D. Fire protective and Fire Safety Device

576. The portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept


opened and unobstructed at all times for the expedient operation of
firefighting units.
A. Fire door
B. Fire Hazard
C. Fire Lane
D. Fire protective and Fire Safety Device

577. The portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept


opened and unobstructed at all times for the expedient operation of
firefighting units.
A. Fire door
B. Fire Hazard
C. Fire Lane
D. Fire protective and Fire Safety Device

578. Any device intended for the protection of buildings or persons to


include but not limited to built-in protection system such as sprinklers
and other automatic extinguishing system, detectors for heat, smoke
and combustion products and other warning system components,
personal protective equipment such as fire blankets, helmets, fire suits,
gloves and other garments that may be put on or worn by persons to
protect themselves during fire.
A. Fire door
B. Fire Hazard
C. Fire Lane
D. Fire protective and Fire Safety Device

579. A process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its


shape or dimensions.
A. Forcing

76
B. Fulminate
C. Hazardous Operation/Process
D. Horizontal Exit

580. A kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by


percussion.
A. Forcing
B. Fulminate
C. Hazardous Operation/Process
D. Horizontal Exit

581. Any act of manufacturing, fabrication, conversion, etc., that uses


or produces materials which are likely to cause fires or explosion.
A. Forcing
B. Fulminate
C. Hazardous Operation/Process
D. Horizontal Exit

582. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a


wall in approximately the same floor level.
A. Forcing
B. Fulminate
C. Hazardous Operation/Process
D. Horizontal Exit

583. A box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment
are stored and arranged for firefighting.
A. Hose Box
B. Hose Reel
C. Hypergolic Fuel
D. Industrial Baking and Drying

584. A cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire hose is


wound and connected.
A. Hose Box
B. Hose Reel
C. Hypergolic Fuel
D. Industrial Baking and Drying

585. Refers to gasses liberated by heat


A. Free radicals
B. Flash point
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

586. An occurrence which the heat has brought the combustible


portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized
by a sudden burst or shooting light and flames.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

587. Reason why fire investigation is unique.

77
A. It does not conform with the regular investigative procedure
B. Unavailability of witness
C. Fires destroys evidence
D. All of the foregoing

588. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God or by a natural


phenomenon.
A. Providential
B. Accidental
C. Intentional
D. Incendiarism

589. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result


of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

590. Which among the following is the primary objective in


investigating fires?
A. To determine its cause
B. To prevent recurrence
C. To identify liable persons
D. All of these

591. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.


A. The fire triangle
B. The fingerprint of fire
C. Flashover
D. Incipient phase of the fire

592. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities are developed.
A. Initial phase
B. Incipient phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase

593. An occurrence which the heat has brought the combustible


portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized
by a sudden burst or shooting light and flames.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance

594. A combination of three elements namely fuel, heat and oxygen.


A. Fire
B. Origin of fire
C. Fire triangle
D. All of the foregoing

595. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.

78
A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. Gas

596. When this constitutes most of the combustible materials in the fire
is produces a bright reddish yellow flames.
A. Petroleum products
B. Calcium
C. Asphalt shingles
D. Potassium

597. When black smoke with red and blue-green flames is visible in the
fire, it indicate that this material is burning.
A. Petroleum products
B. Chlorine manganese
C. Asphalt shingles
D. Potassium

598. When potassium is used as a combustible material what would be


the visible color of the flame?
A. Purple
B. Violet
C. Lavender
D. Any of the three

599. This is one of the technique that can be used to determine the fire
origin.
A. Laboratory Analysis of Evidence
B. Fire Pattern Analysis
C. Background and Financial Investigation
D. Physical and Trace Analysis

600. In conducting this, it helps the investigators determine the


possible motive for setting the fire.
A. Laboratory Analysis of Evidence
B. Fire Pattern Analysis
C. Background and Financial Investigation
D. Physical and Trace Analysis

601. The arsonist employ this to delay the start of a fire and allow them
to establish an alibi.
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire
602. A simple but effective ignition and timing device involve the use of
what?
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire

79
603. These are used to extend the fire from plant or set to other parts
of the structure.
A. Matches, Candles, Cigarettes and others
B. Timing devices
C. Trailers
D. Fire

604. One method used at the fire test laboratory is?


A. Fire testing
B. Scan electron microscope
C. Material experts
D. Hydrocarbon electron

605. This can detect accelerants including gasoline, kerosene or diesel


fuel.
A. Hydrocarbon electron and canine detection dog
B. Accelerant detector
C. Gasoline detector
D. Fire accelerant detector

606. This is a non-destructive tool used to discern material types and


diagnosed component failure.
A. Fire testing
B. Scan electron microscope
C. Material experts
D. Hydrocarbon electron

607. This are like electrical engineers and metallurgist are critical
during fire investigations.
A. Fire testing
B. Scan electron microscope
C. Material experts
D. Hydrocarbon electron
608. They utilize arc mapping in order to determine electrical arcs or
faults that may have occurred during a fire.
A. Metallurgists
B. Electrical engineers
C. Fire tester
D. Material experts

609. These are useful in mapping out the point of origin and showing
how a fire is initiated.
A. Fire vectoring and modelling
B. Modelling career
C. Fire vender
D. Fire engine

700. Even photos obtained by this are helpful in showing the condition
of a building, the fuel load and type of roof structure prior to a fire.
A. Google images
B. Instagram Images
C. Facebook Images
D. Gallery Images

80
701. Other arsonist light fires for monetary reasons. These people may
start a fire to fraudulently collect on an insurance claim.
A. Economic type
B. Political type
C. Government type
D. Behavioural Type

702. Some arson is perpetrated by a person operating on an impulse.


A. Economic type
B. Political type
C. Government type
D. Behavioural Type

703. This arson refers to one, two, or three fires being set in different
locations with no cooling-off period in between.
A. Single, single, double and double type
B. Single, double or triple type
C. Single and double type
D. Single type

704. Refers to three or more incidents of arson taking place in different


locations with a cooling-off period in between.
A. Economic type
B. Political type
C. Serial type
D. Behavioural Type

705. This report should be submitted to the intermediate fire office as


soon as possible.
A. Final report
B. Preliminary report
C. Fire report
D. Report sheet

706. Any persons who burns or sets fire to the property of another shall
be punished by?
A. Prision Mayor
B. Arresto Menor
C. Reclusion Perpetua
D. Lifetime imprisonment

707. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.


A. Abatement
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic
708. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to
set off explosives.
A. Abatement
B. Combustible Fiber
C. Blasting Agent
D. Cryogenic

81
709. The highest percentage of concentration by volume of flammable
vapour mixed with air which will bum with a flame.
A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability

710. A fire set by an individual to gain recognition, such as a watchman


looking for a promotion.
A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability

711. Liquid which has a tendency to vaporize and evaporate.


A. Undetermined
B. Vanity fire
C. Volatile liquid
D. Upper limit of flammability

712. The lowest section of an extension ladder.


A. Bed ladder
B. Fly section
C. Butt
D. Heel

713. The top section of an extension ladder.


A. Bed ladder
B. Fly section
C. Butt
D. Heel

714. The bottom end of a ladder


A. Bed ladder
B. Fly section
C. Butt
D. Heel

715. The part of the ladder that touches the ground.


A. Bed ladder
B. Fly section
C. Butt
D. Heel

716. A rope or cable use to raise the fly ladder.


A. Halyard
B. Pawi
C. Rung
D. Top

717. The mechanism on the end of the fly ladder that locks to the bed
ladder.
A. Halyard
B. Pawi

82
C. Rung
D. Top

718. The cross member used in climbing.


A. Halyard
B. Pawi
C. Rung
D. Top or Tip

719. Used to hook over a roof peak, sills, or walls where the heel done
not rest on a foundation.
A. Hooks
B. Stops
C. Guides
D. None of the above

720. The top of a ladder.


A. Halyard
B. Pawi
C. Rung
D. Top or Tip

721. Wood or metal blocks used to prevent the fly of an extension


ladder form extending out further from the ladder.
A. Hooks
B. Stops
C. Guides
D. None of the above
722. Light metal strips of an extension ladder while it is being raised or
lowered.
A. Hooks
B. Stops
C. Guides
D. None of the above

723. What is the best general cooling agent for firefighter purposes.
A. Water
B. Fire Extinguisher
C. Capricorn
D. None of the above

724. Endothermic reaction release or give off energy thus they produce
substances with less energy than the reactants.
A. The statement is true
B. The statement is false
C. Either true or false
D. None of the above

725. Oxidation is a chemical change in which combustible material and


an oxidizing agent reacts.
A. The statement is true
B. The statement is false
C. Either true or false
D. None of the above

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726. Luminous flame is a bluish in color.
A. The statement is false
B. Either true or false
C. The statement is true
D. None of the above

727. Non luminous flame is orange in color.


A. The statement is false
B. Either true or false
C. The statement is true
D. None of the above

728. It is known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into
law 1977, repealed by RA no. 9514.
A. PD. 1185 
B. RA 9514
C. RA 9263
D. None of the above

729. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008 (Dec. 19, 2008).
A. PD. 1185 
B. RA 9514
C. RA 9263
D. None of the above

730. A tool used to stop the flow of water in a fire hose without shutting
off the entire source of water supply.
A. Hose clamp
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder

731. It is used to tighten leaking connections and to loosen connections


that are too tight “break” with hands alone.
A. Hose clamp
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder

732. Are used to open and close fire hydrants and to remove hydrant
caps.
A. Hose clamp
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder

733. Consist of a bed and one or more ladder.


A. Straight ladder
B. Spanner Wrench
C. Hydrant Wrench
D. Ground ladder

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734. It is defined as an irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire
or something on fire.
A. Pyromaniac
B. Pyromania
C. Recidivist
D. None of the above

735. It is the carbonization of fuel by the action of heat or burning.


A. Char
B. Spalling
C. Oxidation
D. None of the above
736. It is the basic chemical process of combustion.
A. Char
B. Spalling
C. Oxidation
D. None of the above

737. It is the result of chemical forces in the material, particularly


between the surface of the concrete and the underlying substrate
aggregate.
A. Char
B. Spalling
C. Oxidation
D. None of the above
738. This act is known as “Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of
2008”.
A. RA 9154
B. RA 9415
C. RA 9541
D. RA 9540
739. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Abaitment
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
740. Any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages the use
of the buiding for him.
A. Administer
B. Administration
C. Administrator
D. None of the above
741. It is the Latin word of flame.
A. Flammy
B. Flammey
C. Flamma
D. Flamne

85
742. It is the heat and light came from the rapid combination of oxygen
and other materials.
A. Flame
B. Light
C. Burn
D. Fire
743. It is the visible, gaseous part of a fire.
A. Flame
B. Light
C. Burn
D. Fire
744. It is the unburnable solid remains of a combustible material left
after a fire.
A. Soot
B. Clinker
C. Wood
D. None of the above
745. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to
set off explosive.
A. Blasing agent
B. Blasé agent
C. Blasting agent
D. None of the above
746. Any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degree Celsius or
100 Fahrenheit.
A. Combustible solid
B. Combustible liquid
C. Combustible gas
D. Corrosive liquid
747. Any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter
or with certain chemical.
A. Combustible solid
B. Combustible liquid
C. Combustible gas
D. Corrosive liquid
748. It is the heat came from the fire in the open rises as a column of
hot gases
A. Flame
B. Flume
C. Plume
D. Plame
749. The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat and
light of combustion.
A. Flame
B. Fire

86
C. Smoke
D. Soot
750. This is the process of removing the heat from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
751. This is the process of removing the oxygen from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
752. This is the process of removing the fuel from the fire.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
753. This agent interrupts the combustion reaction and stop flaming.
A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Starving
D. Chemical Inhibition
754. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the heat element of the fire extinguisher.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
755. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the oxygen element of the fire extinguisher.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
756. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire by taking away
the heat element of the fire extinguisher and prevent re-ignition by
creating a barrier between oxygen and fuel elements.
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
757. This class of fire extinguisher extinguish the fire primarily by
interrupting the chemical reaction of the fire triangle.
A. Class A

87
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
758. It is the product of incomplete combustion?
A. Heat
B. Flame
C. Smoke
D. Soot
759. It is an active fire protection device use to extinguish or control
small fire, often emergency situations.
A. Fire Truck
B. Fire Extinguish
C. Fire Extinguisher
D. Fire Fightin
760. It is an integrated system of underground and overhead piping,
designed in accordance with fire protection engineering standards, and
connected to one or more automatic water supplies.
A. Sprinkler System
B. Standpipe system
C. Alarm System
D. Fire Safety
761. The type of flame which do not deposit soot because it has
complete combustion is called –
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Laminar flame
C. Diffusion flame
D. Luminous flame
762. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing
763. Refers to the preparation and gatherings of materials to start a
fire.
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick
764. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation

88
765. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
A. Black bone
B. Used petroleum
C. Soot
D. Black iron
766. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials
A. Class a fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire
767. This usually indicates the intensity of fire.
A. Size of fire
B. Color of smoke
C. Size of flame
D. Color of flame
768. Most common motive in arson cases.
A. Economic gain
B. Concealment of crime
C. Intimidation
D. Punitive measure
769. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called
_____?
A. Latent heat
B. Heat of combustion
C. Specific heat
D. Thermal heat
770. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light .
A. Pyrolysis
B. Combustion
C. Detonation
D. All of these
771. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
A. Providential fire
B. Accidental fire
C. Intentional fire
D. None of the foregoing
772. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result
of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
A. Flashover
B. Backdraft
C. Thermal balance
D. Thermal imbalance
773. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.

89
A. Providential
B. Accidental
C. Intentional
D. Incendiarism
774. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a
result of combustion.
A. Fire
B. Flame
C. Heat
D. Smoke
775. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates
the burning material of what material?
A. Rubber
B. Nitrogen products
C. Asphalt
D. Cotton
776. A device used by arsonist to spread the fire within the room or
throughout the structure.
A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
777. Most common reason of arson cases.
A. Revenge
B. Profit
C. Competition
D. Anger
778. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation
779. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.
A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing
780. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for
any particular establishment.
A. Fire service
B. Fire safety inspection
C. Fire drill
D. Fire protection assembly

90
781. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the
proper proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
A. Dust
B. Fire lane
C. Fire trap
D. Fire hazard
782. Probably one of the most definite clues to arson or attempted
arson is –
A. Intensity of the flame
B. Multiple fires
C. Odor of burning material
D. Difficult in extinguishment
783. A fire can exist in the presence of oxygen, fuel and heat. How
many percent of the oxygen is needed to sustain continuous
combustion?
A. Below 15%
B. At least 16%
C. Not higher than 21%
D. More than 35%
784. A passage hole or antechamber between the outer doors and
interior parts of a house or building.
A. Smelting
B. Refining
C. Distillation
D. Vestibule
785. Color of smoke produced when nitrogen products is combustible
materials being burned while bright red flame are visible.
A. Black smoke
B. Heavy brown smoke
C. White smoke
D. Greenish smoke
786. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern are
fingerprint of fire is developed.
A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
787. Fire cause by human error and negligence.
A. Providential fires
B. Intentional fires
C. Accidental fires
D. Incendiarism
788. Color of luminous flame.
A. Orange-red
B. Blue

91
C. Yellow
D. Red
789. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it
changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
a. Calorie
b. Latent heat
c. Thermal heat
d. Specific heat
790. Refers to the preparation and gatherings of materials to start a
fire.
A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick
791. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium
either gas or a liquid.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
792. It is amount of heat necessary to covert solid to liquid.
a. Specific heat
b. Latent heat
c. Heat of combustion
d. Heat of fusion
793. Which among the following is the primary objective in
investigating fire?
a. To determine its cause
b. To prevent reoccurrence
c. To determine liable persons
d. All of these
794. In this place of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive
capabilities is develop.
a. Initial phase
b. Incipient phase
c. Free burning phase
d. Smoldering phase
795. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion
of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover
b. Backdraft
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
796. Known as ignition heat, it is refer to any contrivance to start a fire.

92
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. None of the foregoing
797. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire
gases within a building or structure under natural condition.
a. Free radical
b. Pyrolysis
c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
798. Known as ignition heat, it is refer to any contrivance to start a fire.
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. None of the foregoing
799. A means of heat transfer trough space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Fission
800. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors
are evolved fast enough to support continuous combustion.
a. Ignition temperature
b. Kindling temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
801. Instrument used to open/close the fire hydrants
a. Sprinkle
b. Fire pump
c. Fire hose
d. Hydrant key
802. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C
fire?
a. CO2
b. Sand
c. Water
d. Baking soda
803. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as :
a. Class A fire
b. Class B fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
804. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air mixture
must be heated in the order to initiate or cause a self-contain
combustion without the addition of heat from outside resources

93
a. Boiling point ignition
b. Ignition temperature
c. Fire point
d. Flash point
805. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat
a. Pyrolysis
b. Combustion
c. Detonation
d. Oxidation
806. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless
and odorless gas which supports life and fire.
a. Nitrogen
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Neon
807. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light
of combustion.
a. Oxidation
b. Flash point
c. Smoldering
d. Fire
808. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes
place.
a. Endothermic reaction
b. Exothermic reaction
c. Oxidation
d. Combustion
809. A phenomenon in which a fire that has consumed all available
oxygen suddenly explodes when more oxygen is made available,
typically
because a door or window has been opened?
A. Boiling point
B. Backdraft
C. Calorie
D. Centigrade
810. The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound
of water one degree F?
A. British thermal units
B. Calorie
C. Centigrade
D. Boiling point
811. The temperature of a substance where the rate of evaporation
exceeds the rate of condensation?
A. Boiling point
B. Backdraft

94
C. Calorie
D. Centigrade
812. On the Centigrade scale, zero is the melting point of ice; 100
degrees is the boiling point of water?
A. British thermal units
B. Calorie
C. Centigrade
D. Boiling point
813. The amount of heat generated by the combustion (oxidation)
process?
A. Heat of Combustion
B. Heat of Decomposition
C. Heat of Solution
D. Spontaneous Heating
814. The heat released by the mixture of matter in a liquid?
A. Heat of Combustion
B. Heat of Decomposition
C. Heat of Solution
D. Spontaneous Heating
815. The heating of an organic substance without the addition of
external heat.  Spontaneous heating occurs most frequently where
sufficient air is not present to dissipate the heat produced?
a. Heat of Combustion
b. Heat of Decomposition
c. Heat of Solution
d. Spontaneous Heating
816. The release of heat from decomposing compounds?
a. Heat of Combustion
b. Heat of Decomposition
c. Heat of Solution
d. Spontaneous Heating
817. Fires involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium,
zirconium, sodium and potassium?
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
818. Fires involving energized electrical equipment?
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
819. It is a new classification of fire as of 1998 and involves fires in
combustible cooking fuels such as vegetable or animal fats?

95
A. Class K Fires
B. Class D Fires
C. Class C Fires
D. Class B Fires
820. Refers to method of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid extinguishment?
A. Electrical heat energy
B. Dielectric Heating
C. Combustion
D. Heat from Arcing
821. Heat released either as a high-temperature arc or as molten
material from the conductor?
A. Electrical heat energy
B. Dielectric Heating
C. Combustion
D. Heat from Arcing

822. The heating that results from the action of either pulsating direct
current, or alternating current at high frequency on a non-conductive
material?
A. Induction Heating
B. Leakage Current Heating
C. Resistance Heating
D. Dielectric Heating
823. Refers to method of fire extinguishment, interrupt the flame
producing chemical reaction, resulting in rapid extinguishment?
A. Heat Generated by Lightning
B. Dry Chemicals and Halons 
C. Resistance Heating
D. Leakage Current Heating
824. Heat released as an arc between oppositely charged surfaces?
A. Endothermic Heat Reaction 
B. Static Electricity Heating
C. Exothermic Heat Reaction 
D. Heat Generated by Lightning
825. On the Fahrenheit scale, 32 degrees is the melting point of ice;
212 degrees is the boiling point of water?
A. Fahrenheit 
B. Fire point 
C. Fire Triangle 
D. Flame

826. The percentage of a substance in air that will burn once it is


ignited?
A. Flammable or Explosive Limit 

96
B. Fire National Training Institute 
C. Flash Point
D. Flash Over
827. The minimum temperature to which a fuel in air must be heated in
order to start self-sustained combustion independent of the heating
source?
A. Ignition Temperature 
B. Glowing Combustion
C. Heating
D. Heat Transfer
828. It is transfer of energy, from a hotter body to a colder one, other
than by work or transfer of matter?
A. Heat
B. Heating
C. Fuel
D. Fuel Removal
829. Three elements necessary to create/produced fire in equal
proportion?
A. Fire tetrahedron theory
B. Fire triangle theory
C. Life cycle of fire theory
D. None of the above
830. The fourth element of fire known as the “chemical chain
reaction”?
a. Fire tetrahedron theory
b. Fire triangle theory
c. Life cycle of fire theory
d. None of the above
831. This stages/steps wherein fire is created?
a. Fire tetrahedron theory
b. fire triangle theory
c. life cycle of fire theory
d. None of the above
832. Material/substance being burned in the combustion process?
A. Oxidizing
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
833. Refers the energy component of the fire tetrahedron?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
834. A series of events that occur in sequence with the results of each
individual reaction being added to the rest?

97
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical reaction
835. Material/substance that yield oxygen or oxidizing gases during the
process of a chemical reaction?
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Reducing agent
C. Temperature
D. Self-sustained chemical
836. The movement two surfaces against each other?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
837. This heat is generated when a gas is compressed in a container or
cylinder?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
838. An energy possessed by a moving object?
A. Energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
839. An energy possessed by an object that be released in the future?
A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of friction
D. Heat of compression
840. It is the form of heat transfer that take place within a solids when
one portion of one object is heated?
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. None of the above
841. Proper ventilation is simplifies and expedites rescue by removing
smoke and gases that will possibly endanger the life of the life of the
trapped occupants?
A. Fire attack and extinguishment
B. Fire spread control
C. Rescue operation
D. Reduction of flashover potential

98
842. It is once the sufficient heat will confine in area the degree of heat
of the combustible materials rise to their ignition point?
A. Reduction of backdraft potential
B. Fire spread control
C. Rescue operation
D. Reduction of flashover potential
843. This field of firefighting operation is fire different from the word
overhaul in an auto mechanic operation?
A. Salvage
B. Overhaul
C. Technical staff
D. Inspection
844. During the firefighting personnel is not only tried to suppress?
A. Inspection requirement
B. Salvage
C. Overhaul
D. Technical staff
845. In case of willful failure to correct the deficiency or abate the fire
hazard as provided in the preceding subsection?
A. Punitive
B. Administrative fine
C. Administrative
D. Penalties
846. Refers to contractures conforming to the requirements of this
code?
A. Center lines of streets
B. Temporary buildings
C. Moved building
D. Fire zones defined
847. This use of fire extinguisher?
A. Sound the alarm
B. Advise fire department
C. Fight fire
D. Evacuate
848. Refers to mental evaluation by the ground commander which
enables him to determine his course of action and to accomplish his
mission?
A. Pre-fire planning
B. Cover exposure
C. Rescue
D. Sizing up
849. Act or process of lowering down the intensity of heat?
A. Fire control
B. Fire suppression
C. Fire rescue

99
D. None of the above
850. If the fire involves a large area and confined by locating the
hottest portion and applying a stream over hottest portion?
A. Direct attack
B. Indirect attack
C. Combination attack
D. None of the above
851. To prevent the fire from extending to the other portion of the
burning building?
A. Confinement
B. Ventilation
C. Extinguishment
D. Salvage
852. Is the process of finding the cause of fire and extent of damage
thereof for the purpose of determining if the perpetrator is guilty or not
of the crime of arson?
A. Arson
B. Fire
C. Fire investigation
D. Arson investigation
853. Refers to conduct a critique of what was done during the fire
operation?
A. Post fire analysis
B. Overhauling
C. Cover exposure
D. Pre-fire planning
854. Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to
set off explosives?
A. Abatement
B. Administrator
C. Blasting agent
D. Cellulose nitrate
855. A continuous passageway for the transmission of air?
A. Combustible fiber
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Curtain board
D. Duck system
856. It is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system
which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
A. Distillation
B. Dust
C. Electrical arc
D. Damper
857. It is a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially
burned, and is still oxidizing without the manifestation of flames?

100
A. Ember
B. Combustible liquid
C. Finishes
D. Jumper
858. Any device intended for the protection of buildings?
A. Fire safety constructions
B. Fire safety device
C. Fire lane
D. Fire door
859. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a
wall in approximately the same floor level?
A. Hazardous operation/process
B. Drying
C. Horizontal exit
D. Hypergolic fuel
860. Any building or structure where (50) or more people congregate,
gather, or assemble for any purpose?
A. Public assembly building
B. Burning equipment
C. Public way
D. Self-closing doors
861. This shall apply to all persons and all private and public buildings,
facilities or structures erected or constructed before and after its
effectivity?
A. Applicability of the code
B. Responsibility for the enforcement of this code
C. Revised fire code of the Philippines
D. None of the above
862. It is the movement two surfaces against each other?
A. Heat of compression
B. Heat of friction
C. Potential energy
D. Kinetic energy
863. It is a gas which can be fatal after only a few breaths, is produced
fires involving chloride-containing plastic?
A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Hydrogen cyanide
C. Hydrogen chloride
D. None of the above
864. It is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hopper and
less luminous when mixed with more oxygen?
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Flame
C. Laminar flame
D. Turbulent flame

101
865. When a particle follows a smooth path through a gaseous flame?
A. Non-luminous flame
B. Luminous flame
C. Remixed flame
D. Laminar flame
866. It is the nation of the wait of a solid or substance to the weight of
an equal volume of water?
A. Specific gravity
B. Vapor density
C. Diffusion flame
D. None of the above
867. It is a visible product of incomplete combustion, a mixture of
oxygen, nitrogen, CO, CO2 and finely divided particles released from
the burning material?
A. Life cycle of fire theory
B. Boiling point temperature
C. Oxidation
D. Smoke
868. It is the ratio of the weight of a solid or substance to the way of an
equal volume of water?
A. Specific gravity
B. Vapor density
C. Ignition temperature
D. Temperature
869. This are changes whereby energy (heat) is absorbed or is added
before the reaction takes place?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion or flame
870. Refers to reactions or changes that release or give off energy
(heat) thus they produce substances with less energy than the
reactants?
A. Exothermic reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Oxidation
D. Combustion or flame
871. It is the second phase of burning in which materials or structures
are burning in the present of adequate oxygen?
A. Free-burning phase
B. Incipient or beginning phase
C. Ignition temperature or kindling temperature
D. Smouldering phase
872. These liquefied gases are most effective in interrupting the chain
reaction but they also have slight smothering and cooling effects?

102
A. Foam
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Halons
D. Dry chemicals
873. This used for fires involving lithium and lithium alloys?
A. Powdered copper metal
B. Graphite-based powders
C. Sodium carbonate
D. None of the above
874. Known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into law
1977, repealed by RA no. 9514?
A. PD. 1185
B. PD. 1186
C. PD. 1187
D. PD. 1188
875. Bureau of fire protection and bureau of jail management and
penology professionalization act of 2004?
A. RA no. 9262
B. RA no. 9263
C. RA no. 9264
D. RA no. 9265
876. The heat generated by either the splitting or combining of atoms?
A. Nuclear fission and fusion
B. Mechanical heat energy
C. Products of combustion
D. None of the above
877. The 3rd highest officer in the BFP. Rank is chief superintendent?
A. Chief of the bureau
B. Deputy chief for administration of the fire bureau
C. Deputy chief for operation of the fire bureau
D. Chief of the directorial staff of the fire bureau
878. The BFP shall establish, operate and maintain their respective
regional offices in each of the administrative regions of the country?
A. Directors of the directorates in the respective national
headquarters office
B. Regional director for fire protection
C. Assistant regional director for fire protection
D. District fire marshall
879. At least one in every provincial capital, city and municipality?
A. Chief of municipal/city fire station
B. Municipal fire marshall
C. Fire station
D. Local government unit
880. This act shall be known as the fire code of the Philippines of 2008?

103
A. RA 9511
B. RA 9512
C. RA 9513
D. RA 9514
881. This are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chemical chain reaction?
A. Triangle of fire
B. Fire tetrahedron
C. Oxidizing agent
D. None of the above
882. Any material used to initiate or promote the spread of a fire?
A. Area of origin
B. Accelerant
C. Arson trail
D. Adiabatic flame temperature
883. A self-propagating chemical reaction in which activation on one
molecule leads molecule leads successfully to the activation of many
others?
A. Chain reaction
B. Combustion
C. Compound
D. Catalyst
884. A mixture of two or more compounds that have a constant
boiling point?
A. Atomize
B. Asbestos
C. Azeotrope
D. Arson
885. The ability of a material to transfer energy from one place to
another?
A. Conductivity thermal
B. Combustion
C. Conductivity
D. Compound
886. The visible path of fire on a surface or surfaces?
A. Boiling point
B. Burn pattern
C. Burning rate
D. Butane
887. Refers to burn with intense heat and light?
A. Control zones
B. Deflagrate
C. Evaporation
D. Explosives
888. A component of gasoline but also a major breakdown product of
pyrolysis released when certain polymers are heated?

104
A. Ethyl-benzene
B. Evaporation rate
C. Explosion
D. Explosion limit
889. Refers to amount of material that can burn?
A. Fire point
B. Fire load
C. Flame
D. Fire
890. The range of gas or vapor concentrate that will burn or explode
if an ignition source is present?
A. Flammable liquid
B. Flammable vapor
C. Flammable explosive range
D. Flammable
891. The movement of a flame to a fuel source, typically occurs via
the vapor of a highly volatile liquids or through combustible sources?
A. Flash
B. Flash point
C. Flash fire
D. Flashback
892. An enclosed laboratory cabinet with a movable sash or fixed
access port on the front, connected to a ventilating system that may
incorporate air scrubbing or filtering?
A. Fume
B. Fume hood
C. Gas
D. Gasoline
893. A physical state of matter that has low density and viscosity, can
expand and contract greatly in response to changes in temperature
and pressure and readily and uniformly distributes itself throughout
any container?
A. Fume
B. Fume hood
C. Gas
D. Gasoline
894. It is a separation technique involving passage of a gas as the
mobile phase, moving through a column containing a fixed adsorbent
material?
A. Gas chromatograph
B. Gas chromatography
C. Headspace concentration
D. High explosive
895. It is a technique for concentration of all or most of the
flammable or combustible liquid vapors in a sample on to a tube of
charcoal?

105
A. Gas chromatograph
B. Gas chromatography
C. Headspace concentration
D. High explosive
896. It is the area immediately surrounding a chemical hazard
incident?
A. Hot zone
B. Ignition
C. Ignition temperature
D. Ignition source
897. An atom, molecule or radical that has lost or gained one or more
electrons thus, acquiring an electric charge, positively charge ions
are cautions?
A. Incendiaries
B. Incendiary fire
C. Ion
D. Kelvin
898. This fire intentionally set by human hands often involving the
use of an accelerant to increase and spread the rate and intensity of
burning?
A. Incendiaries
B. Incendiary fire
C. Ion
D. Kelvin
899. The smallest particle into which a substance can be divided
without changing its chemical properties?
A. Low explosive
B. Magnesium
C. Molecule
D. Origin determination
900. Refers to explosives having a detonation lest violent than high
explosives and that produce a subsonic pressure wave?
A. Low explosive
B. Magnesium
C. Molecule
D. Origin determination
901. An ignition device that ignites the first fuel or assist the initial
flame to build in intensity, it may include a timing mechanism?
A. Pentane
B. Plant
C. Propane
D. Pyrolysis
902. An irresistible impulse or impulsion to start a fire or set
something on fire?
A. Pyromania

106
B. Pyrophoric distillation
C. Polarity
D. Propane
903. Also known as spontaneous combustion, initially a slow
exothermic reaction at ambient temperatures?
A. Serial arson
B. Spontaneous heating
C. Trailer
D. Turpentine
904. Fast burning materials used by arsonist as fuses to rapidly
spread fire throughout a structure or area?
A. Serial arson
B. Spontaneous heating
C. Trailer
D. Turpentine
905. The weight of given volume of a vapor or a gas compare to the
weight of an equal volume of dry air, both measured at the same
temperature and pressure?
A. Vapor density
B. V-shape pattern
C. Vapor pressure
D. Vaporization
906. The physical change of going from a solid or a liquid into a
gaseous status?
A. Vapor density
B. V-shape pattern
C. Vapor pressure
D. Vaporization
907. It is a lobby, entrance hall, or passage between the entrance and
the interior of a building?
A. Volatile
B. Vestibule
C. Vermiculite
D. Vaporization
908. It is a micaceous hydrated silicate mineral used as a planting
medium and as insulation?
A. Volatile
B. Vestibule
C. Vermiculite
D. Vaporization
909. How many Fire Exit Drills are required in an Educational Type
Occupancy?
A. Regularly
B. Atleast four (4) fire exit drills a year
C. At least twice (2) fire exit drills a year

107
D. At least twice (2) fire exit drills a month
910. The following fees collected by the LGU such as Mayor’s permit
fee, sanitary, environmental, garbage, electrical inspection fee and
others are included in the computation of?
A. 2% premium tax
B. 0.10% construction tax
C. 10% fire safety inspection fee
D. 2% fire code proceed tax
911. Authority of the Chief, Bureau of Fire Protection is provided in?
A. Rule 4 of RA 9514
B. Rule 1 of the IIR of RA 9514
C. Rule 2 of the IIR of RA 9514
D. Rule 3 of the IIR of RA 9514
912. All business establishments employing at least fifty (50) persons
shall have a?
A. Fire Volunteer
B. Floor Marshall
C. Fire Chief
D. Fire Brigade
913. How many Fire Safety Enforcers do we have in the IIR of RA 9514?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
914. This is issued to fire volunteers, members of fire brigades and fire
safety practitioners, after completion of the mandatory training and
competency evaluations conducted by the BFP.
A. Certificate of Competency
B. Fire Safety Clearance
C. Fire Safety Inspection Certificate
D. Fire Safety Checklist
915. He shall review and evaluate building plans and specifications
including fire protection system; Conduct site verification and
inspection on building under construction.
A. Fire Safety Inspector
B. Fire Safety Officer
C. Plan Evaluator
D. Fire Officer
916. Endorsement from the building official (BO) is a documentary
requirement in the issuance of Fire Safety Inspection Certificate (FSIC)
for?
A. Occupancy Permit
B. Conveyance Permit
C. Mayors Permit
D. Business Permit

108
917. Endorsement from the business Permit Licensing Office (BPLO) is
a documentary requirement in the issuance of Fire Safety Inspection
Certificate (FSIC) for?
A. Occupancy Permit
B. Conveyance Permit
C. Mayors Permit
D. Business Permit
918. During the first inspection conducted and a violation was noted
this shall be issued stating therein the period of compliance.
A. NTCV
B. Notice to comply
C. Fire Safety Clearance
D. Stoppage/Closure Order
919. What particular clearance is secured from the BFP by the
applicant/contractor as pre requisite prior to the issuance of Building
Permit by the Building Officials.
A. FSEC
B. FSC
C. FSIC
D. NTC
920. Fire Safety Clearance for Hot Works shall be secure from the BFP
on a per activity schedule of work?
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
921. If the building cannot withstand for the installation of an additional
dead load such as a sprinkler system the owner/administrator proceed
to the application of?
A. Fire Safety/Remedial Measure
B. Certificate of Competency
C. Fire Safety Clearance
D. Certificate of Exemption
922. If an initial compliance had been affected by the
owner/administrator of the noted violation, this shall be executed
thereof stating therein the schedule of work and the period of
compliance.
A. Affidavit of Exemption
B. Affidavit of Undertaking
C. Affidavit of Compliance
D. Affidavit of Willingness
923. The 2% Fire Code Proceed Tax are collected for the services
rendered by him or her from the Insurance Company.
A. Adjuster
B. LGU
C. BPLO

109
D. Insurance Companies
924. If the building had been found to have no secondary exit for the
fast escape and evacuation of the occupant said building shall be
declared as?
A. Public Enemy
B. Public Disturbance
C. Public Nuisance
D. Public Problem
925. The 10% Fire Safety Inspection Fee shall include all fees collected
by the LGU and other government agency.
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
926. Fine exceeding Php 30,000 but not more than 40,000 the
jurisdiction shall be imposed by the?
A. C/MFM
B. Regional Director
C. PFM/DFM
D. Both C/MFM & P/DFM
927. Failure on the part of the violator to pay the administrative fine
within the period fixed in the notice shall constitute a ground for the
issuance of an Order for Stoppage of Operation
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
928. A residential, Healthcare, & Assembly establishment shall be
declared imminent danger if at least violations are committed such
as Insufficient Exit width, Obstructed/ Padlocked Fire Exit.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
929. This refers to the part of a document that typically contains the
name of the office, the subject, date, and issue being addressed.
A. Body
B. Attention line
C. Caption
D. Salutation
930. This is a word or phrase serving as the prefatory greetings in a
letter or speech, as Dear Sir in a letter or Ladies and Gentlemen in a
speech.
A. Details
B. Reference

110
C. Subject
D. Closing
931. This is the part of the body of a memorandum that grants a right
to the signatory to settle any issue on a particular matter of concern.
A. Details
B. Reference
C. Subject
D. Closing
932. A report made by the Fire Safety Inspection (FSI) after conducting
Inspection in an establishment from an issued Inspection Order (IO).
A. Affidavit of Undertaking
B. Notice to Correct Violation
C. Affidavit of Loss
D. After Inspection Report
933. TO shall be used to address an addressee who has the same rank
than the signatory.
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
934. This is used to address a particular office, department or persons
(2 spaces below the last line of the inside address)
A. Subject Line
B. Attention Line
C. Salutation
D. Greetings
935. The part of the inspection report that contain the data of the
height area and features of the building inspected.
A. Salutation
B. Closing
C. Authority
D. Sectional Details
936. That part of the Inspection Order that indicates the consent of the
owner/administrator/occupant allowing the conduct of an inspection.
A. Salutation
B. Closing
C. Authority
D. Acknowledgement
937. What kind of letter often used by the BFP when responding to a
complaint inquiry, request and another matter of concern to another
government and private agency.
A. Subject-to-latter
B. Civilian letter
C. Memorandum
D. Blocked and semi blocked

111
938. That part of the inspection report that indicating the noted
deficiencies together with the corresponding sections of the provisions
of the fire code violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
939. That part of the inspection report that explains how the provisions
of fire code are being violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
940. This part of the inspection report indicating the fire safety
measure to be compiled with in accordance with the provisions of the
fire code violated.
A. Sectional details
B. Discussion
C. Findings
D. Recommendations
941. How many lines shall be maintained from one paragraph to the
next paragraph.
A. Double lines
B. 1 line
C. Three lines
D. 1.5 lines
942. Is endorsement and indorsement denotes the same meaning used
in elevating a particular document?
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
943. For shall be used to address an addressee who has a higher rank
than the signatory
A. False
B. Maybe
C. True
D. Sometimes
944. This is any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
945. This is any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages
the use of a building for the latter.

112
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
946. This is an airport, a defined area on land or water (including any
building, installation and equipment) intended to be used wholly or in
part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircrafts.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
947. This is person who undertakes, whether directly or indirectly, by
lease or any arrangements, to engage in air transportation services or
air commerce.
A. Abatement
B. Building administrator
C. Aerodrome
D. Air carrier or operator
948. This is any engine used, or intended to be used, for the propulsion
of an aircraft and includes all parts, appurtenances, and accessories
thereof other than propellers.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
949. This is any area used or intended or intended for used for the
packing, taxiing, takeoff, landing or other ground-based aircraft
activity.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
950. This is any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere
from the reactions of the air other than reactions of the air against the
earth’s surface.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station
951. That portion of an airport where flammable liquids are stored or
dispensed and shall include all facilities essential thereto, such as but
not limited to, underground tanks from which aircraft fuel and
lubricants may be drawn through dispensing devices.
A. Aircraft engine
B. Aircraft operation area (AOA)
C. Aircraft
D. Aircrafts service station

113
952. Any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or
commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of
aircraft and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the
roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set
apart for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircrafts
capable of descending or climbing vertically.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
953. A medical gas used as anesthetic agents for surgical procedures
that could either be flammable or non-flammable.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
954. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
955. A stage or platform that opens on at least three (3) sides to
audience seating. It may be with or without overhead scene handling
facilities.
A. Airport
B. Anesthetics gas
C. Approved
D. Arena stage
956. An integrated system of underground or overhead piping or both
connected to a source of extinguishing agent or medium and designed
in accordance with fire protection engineering standards which, when
actuated by its automatic detecting device, suppress fires within the
area protected.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
957. That portion of property where liquids used as motor fuels are
stored and dispensed from fixed equipment into the fuel tanks of motor
vehicles and shall include any facilities available for the sale and
service of tires, batteries and accessories, and for minor automotive
maintenance work.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
958. This is a non-liquid tight transverse partition in a cargo tank.

114
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
959. This is a large bundle or package of hay or a raw material such as
cotton, tightly bound with string or wire to keep it in shape during
transportation or storage.
A. Automatic Fire Suppression System
B. Automotive Service Station
C. Baffle
D. Bale
960. This is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer
used to set off explosives.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
961. A sudden release of oil and gas from a well.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
962. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid equals
the surrounding atmospheric pressure.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
963. The expulsion of crude oil (or certain other liquids) from a burning
tank in which the light fractions of the crude oil burn off producing a
heat wave in the residue, which on reaching a water strata may result
in the explosion of the portion of the contents of the tank in the form of
a froth.
A. Blasting Agent
B. Blowout
C. Boiling Point
D. Boil over
964. A land covered with a dense undergrowth of small trees and
brushes.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
965. It is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen storage
containers, pressure regulators, safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds,
and interconnecting piping, that has a storage capacity of more than

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five hundred sixty six cubic meters (566 m3) of oxygen including
unconnected reserves on hand at the site.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
966. That portion of a property where liquids are received by tank
vessels, pipelines, tank cars or tank vehicle, and are stored or blended
in bulk for the purpose of distributing such liquids by tank vessels,
pipeline, tank car, tank vehicle, portable tank or container.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
967. This is a liquid-tight closure between compartments of a cargo
tank.
A. Brush
B. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Bulk Plant
D. Bulkhead
968. This is any tank having a liquid capacity more than four hundred
fifty liters (450L) used for carrying flammable combustible liquids and
mounted permanently or otherwise upon a tank vehicle. This term does
not apply to any container used solely for the purpose of supplying fuel
for the propulsion of the tank vehicle upon which it is mounted.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
969. This is a highly combustible and explosive compound produced by
the reaction of nitric acid with a cellulose material.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
970. This is any plastic substance, material or compound having
cellulose nitrate (nitro cellulose) as base.
A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
971. The duly designated head of the City or Municipal Fire Station
including those designated as “Officer-in-Charge” or in an “Acting”
capacity. This shall also apply to highly urbanized Cities and Stations
where by its approved organization, the head is the District Fire
Marshal or Station Commander as the case maybe.

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A. Cargo Tank
B. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose
C. Cellulose Nitrate Plastic (Pyroxylin)
D. City Municipal Fire Marshall
972. This is large integrated plant or that portion of such plant other
than a refinery or distillery where flammable or combustible liquids are
produced by chemical reactions or used in chemical reactions.
A. Chemical Plant
B. Closed Containers
C. Collecting officers
D. Combination Standpipe

973. This is any container so sealed by means of a lid or other device


that neither liquid nor vapour will escape from it at ordinary
temperatures.
A. Chemical Plant
B. Closed Containers
C. Collecting officers
D. Combination Standpipe
974. An accountable officer, who shall be responsible in the collection,
deposit and remittance of fire code revenues from all fire code taxes,
fees/charges and fines with AGDB.
A. Chemical Plant
B. Closed Containers
C. Collecting officers
D. Combination Standpipe
975. This is a pipeline system filled with water and connected to a
constant water supply for the use of the BFP and the occupants of the
buildings solely for fire suppressions purposes.
A. Chemical Plant
B. Closed Containers
C. Collecting officers
D. Combination Standpipe
976. An enclosed and isolated structure where loose fibers are worked
upon, and used as storage for such fibers.
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers
C. Combustible Liquid
D. Class II liquid
977. This is any readily ignitable and free-burning fibers, such as but
not limited, to cocoa fiber, cotton, excelsior, hay, hemp, hequen, istle,
jute, “kapok”, oakrum, rags sisal, Spanish moss, straw, tow, waste
cloth, waste paper, certain synthetic fibers commonly used in
commerce, or any material in a fibrous or shredded form that will
readily ignite when heat sources are present.
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers

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C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
978. This is any liquid having a flash point at or above thirty seven and
eight tenths degrees Celsius (37.8C)
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers
C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
979. This is also known as loose waste material, are those generated
by an establishment, or process and, being salvageable, are retained
for scrap or reprocessing on the premises where generated.
A. Combustible Fiber Loose House
B. Combustible Fibers
C. Combustible Liquid
D. Combustible Waste
980. A group of fire fighters performing fire suppression activities
within a specified jurisdiction.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
981. This is one that exist solely in the gaseous state under pressure in
range of two hundred seventy three kilopascal (273 KPa) to twenty four
thousand nine hundred twenty three kilopascal (24,023 KPa) at all
normal atmospheric temperature ranging from twenty degrees Celsius
(20 C) inside its container.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
982. A pressure container designated to hold compressed gases at
pressures greater than one atmosphere at twenty degrees Celsius (20
C)
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture
983. This is a mixture of two or more compressed gases contained in a
single packaging, the hazard properties of which are represented by
the properties of the mixture as a whole.
A. Community/Barangay Fire Brigade
B. Compressed Gas
C. Compressed Gas Container
D. Compressed Gas Mixture

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984. This is an assembly of components, such as containers, reactors,
pumps, compressors and connecting piping and tubing, designated to
contain, distribute or transport compressed gases.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
985. This is any vessel less than two hundred twenty seven liters
(227L) capacity used for transporting or storing liquids.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
986. This is any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic
matter or with certain chemicals.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
987. This is any naturally-occurring, unrefined petroleum liquid.
A. Compressed Gas System
B. Container
C. Corrosive Liquid
D. Crude Oil
988. This is descriptive of any material which, by its nature or as a
result of its reaction with other elements, produces a rapid drop in
temperature of the immediate surroundings.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
989. This is pressure or low-pressure or atmospheric container of any
size designed or used for transportation, handling or storage of a
cryogenic fluid, and which utilizes venting, insulation, refrigeration or a
combination thereof to maintain the pressure within the design
parameters for such container and to keep the contents in a liquid
state.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container

990. This is a fluids produced or stored at very low temperatures and


that have normal boiling point below negative fifty five degrees Celsius
(-55 C)
A. Cryogenic

119
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
991. This is a container in which the maximum liquid level is below the
normal surrounding grade and is constructed of natural materials, such
as earth and rock and pendent upon the freezing of water-saturated
earth materials for its tightness or impervious nature.
A. Cryogenic
B. Cryogenic Container
C. Cryogenic Fluids
D. Cryogenic Inground Container
992. This is a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive
materials attached to and extending below the bottom chord of the
roof trusses to divide and underside of the roof into separate
compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a
roof vent.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
993. This is an organic member of the Bureau of Fire Protection who is
tasked to attend to the immediate needs and concerns of a customer,
applicant or any taxpayer transacting business in a unit/station/office.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
994. This is normally open device installed inside air duct systems
which automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
995. This is a frame work that is constructed over a mine or oil well for
the purpose of boring or lowering pipes.
A. Curtain Board
B. Customer Relations Officer (CRO)
C. Damper
D. Derrick
996. This is a process for rapidly removing excess wet coating material
from a dipped or coated object or material by passing it through an
electrostatic field.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation

120
997. This is a tank, vat or container of flammable or combustible liquid
in which articles or materials are immersed for purposes of coating,
finishing, treating, or similar processes.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation
998. This is an equipment used to deliver petroleum products such as
gasoline, diesel and kerosene: installed in a fore court/curve area
within the retail outlet. Dispensing device can either be a self-
contained or with a remote/submersible pump.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation

999. The process of first raising the temperature to separate the more
volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing
the resulting vapour so as to produce a nearly purified substance.
A. Detearing
B. Dip Tank
C. Dispensing Device
D. Distillation

1000. A plant or that portion where liquids produced by fermentation


and distillation are concentrated, and where the concentrated products
may also be mixed, stored, or packaged.
A. Distillery
B. Drum
C. Dry Standpipe
D. Duct System

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