ORAL MEDICINE

1. Preponderance of evidence indicates 7. The virus which belong to

that anug: Herpes group:
a. Endogenous infection and it is a. Herpes simplex virus
not communicable b. Varicella zoster
b. Infection is exogenous c. Epstein barr virus
c. Caused by systemic diseases d. All of the above
d. is acute coccal infection

2. Oral herp angina is 8. Behchets disease was described as a

Caused by: triad of symptoms including
a. Herpes simplex a. Burning mouth, genital ulcer, eye lesion
b. varicella zoster b. Oral lesions, oral bleeding, oral halitosis
c. cox sacxie c. Genital ulcer, eye lesion, bleeding mouth
d. Papilloma virus d. Recurrent oral ulcers, recurrent genital ulcer
eye lesion
3. Hand,foot and mouth disease 9. Pemphigus is
most investigators as a. inflammatory disease
a. cox sacxie A6 virus b. ulcerative disease
b. HSV c. Auto immune disease
c. Papilloma virus d. Collagen disease
d. Pox virus

4. Target lesion in skin occurs in 10. In Pemphigus the characteristic sign

a. Pemphigus of the disease is that pressure to an
b. Erythema multiforme apparently normal area will result in
c. Psoriosis the formation of a new lesion
d. HSV This phenomenon is called:
a. Auspitz sign
5. Oral allergic reaction to systemically b. Nickolsky’s sign
administered drugs is called c. Bell’s sign
a. Allergic stomatitis d. Kobner’s sign
b. Stomatitis medicamentosa
c. Stomatitis venninata 11. In Bullous pemphigoid the initial defect
d. Fixed drug eruption causing bulla is in
a. Intra epithelial
6. One of the most common side effects b. At basement membrane
of anti cancer drugs is c. Sub epithelial
a. Excess salivation d. Superficial epithelium
b. Multiple oral ulcers
c. White patches in oral mucosa
d. Oral bleeding
12. Nickolsky’s sign is absent in: 18. Oral carcinoma is associated with
a. Pemphigus vulgaris a. Reticular LP
b. Pemphigus vegetans b. Bullous LP
c. Bullous pemphigus c. Pigmented LP
d. Pemphigus folliaceous d. Erosive LP

13. Cicatricial pemphigus is also
known as:
a. Bullous pemphigoid
b. Benign mucous memberane
pemphigoid
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Mucous memberane pemphigoid
19. If a drug come into contact with oral
mucosa and produces allergy it is called
a .Allergic stomatitis
b. Fixed drug eruption
c. Stomatitis medicamentosa
d. Stomatitis vennata

14. Desquamative gingivitis is not 20. Varicella zoster causing herpes zoster
a disease but a sign of a. DNA virus
a. Erosive LP b. RNA virus
b. Pemphigus vulgaris c. EBV
c. Cicatricial pemphigoid d. HIV
d. All the above

15. The most common cause of 21. Leukoplakia is a

a single ulcer in the a. Inflammatory disease
oral mucosa is: b. Keratotic lesion
a. Infection c. Malignant lesion
b. Idiopathic d. Syphilitic lesion
c. Allergy
d. Trauma

16. Immmunosupressed patients 22. Fordyce’s granules in buccal mucosa is due

may develop to incorporation of:
a. Acute herpes a. Mucous glands
b. Recurrent herpes b. Serous glands
c. Chronic form of herpes infection c. Sebaceous glands
d. Herpes zoster d. Mixed glands.

17. Idoxuridin is a drug of choice for
a. Herpes
b. Vincents disease
c. Oral cancer
d. Oral lupus erythematosus
d. Inflammatory exudates
23. Oral burns are due to:
a. keratinization
b. Precipitation of tissue proteins of oral
mucosa
c. Injury caused by heat
24. Pizza burn in palate is caused by 30. Chronic oral hyperplastic candidiasis
a. Melted cheese and hot sauce may cause
b. Hot drink a. Ulcerated growth
c. Asprin application b. Erosions in mucosa
d. Clove oil application c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Excess bleeding

25. Measles virus cause 31. For oral fungal infection the following
anti fungal drugs is administered
a. Cafe au lait spots systemically as:
b. Koplik’s spot a. Mycostatin ointment
c. Fordyce’s spot b. Ketaconazole
d. Beauty spot c. Gentian violet
d. Hexidine

26. Candida infection is 32. Stomatitis nicotina is a specific lesion

associated with: that developes on the:
a. Keratotic white patch a. Palate
b. Non keratotic white patch b. Buccal mucosa
c. Both a and b c. Tongue
d. White patch caused due d. Gingiva
less vascularity

27. Acute pseudo memberanous 33. An isolated area of white patch in the oral
candidiasis is called mucosa associated with chronic irritation
a. Thrush of sharp tooth is called:
b. Atrophic candidiasis a. Homogenous leukoplakia
c. Hypertrophic candidiasis b. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Candidial granuloma c. Frictional keratosis
d. Candidial white patch
28. Candidia species in oral cavity 34. Intra epithelial micro abscess called
are monro’s abscess is found in
a. Transmitted from other individual a. Pemphigus
b. Normal inhabitants of oral flora b. Psoriasis
c. Associated with bacterial infection c. Pyostomatitis
d. Developed as pathogenic organism in the mouth d. Erythema multiforme

29. Predisposing factors for 35. White spongy nevus is a

oral candidiasis a. Vascular lesion
a. Denture irritants b. Genodermatosis
b. Steroid therapy c. White patch that is scrappable
c. Immunosuppresant d. Multiple ulcerated white lesion
d. All of the above

36. Leukoedema is a 42. Oral candidiasis is caused by

a. Variation of the normal mucosa a. Yeast like fungus
b. Non scrappable white patch b. Saprophytic fungus
c. Swelling in the oral mucosa c. Mycosis fungus
d. A true pathological condition d. Dimorphic fungus

37. Warty or cauliflower like growth is 43. Denture stomatitis is

a. Papilloma a. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
b. Fibroma b. Acute candidiasis
c. Lipoma c. Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
d. Hemangioma d. Denture irritation

38.Horizontal streak on the 44. Median rhomboid glossitis is now

buccal mucosa at the level considered as
of occlusal plane a. Developmental abnormality
a. Frictional keratosis b. Chronic candidiasis
b. Reticular plannar c. Nutritional deficiency
c. Linea alba d. Acute candidasis
d. Early leukoplakia

39. Tobacco pouch keratosis 45. Oral candidiasis is the most frequent
occurs due to opportunistic infection associated with
a. Smoking tobacco a. Immunocomprimised patients
b. Smokeless tobacco b. Diabetic patients
c. Betel nut c. Hormonal deficiency
d. Pan masala d. Gastro intestinal problem

40. Numerous elevated papules 46. Mucous patches occurs in

with punctate red centers that a. Primary syphilis
are red in color in palatal mucosa b. Secondary syphilis
a. Erythro leukoplakia c. Tertiary syphilis
b. Erythroplakia d. Latent syphilis
c. Nicotina stomatitis
d. Siladenosis of palatal mucosa

41. Oral hairy leukoplakia 47. Thick white lesion with papillary
occurs in tongue due to surface in oral mucosa is
a. EBV a. Homogenous leukoplakia
b. Herpes virus b. Speckled leukoplakia
c. HIV c. Veruccous leukoplakia
d. Papilloma virus d. Preleukoplakia

48. Bright red velvety plaque or patch 54. Para neoplastic pemphigus is
which cannot be characterized a. variant of pemphigus associated with
clinically is non hodgkin’s lymphoma
a. Erythroleukoplakia b. Variant of pemphigus vegetans
b. Erythroplakia c. Sub epithelial dermatosa
c. Carcinoma d. A benign neoplasm
d. Erythema

49. Oral lichen planus is a 55. Actinic chelitis is

a. Chronic immunological a. Malignant lesion
inflammatory mucocutaneous b. Mucocutaneous lesion
lesion c. Potentially malignant lesion
b. Dermal lesion d. Due to excessive heat in food.
c. Drug reaction
d. Due to diabetes

50. Lichenoid reaction is 56. A white patch on oral mucosa

a. Variant of lichen planus non scrappable not attributed to any
b. Drug induced lesion diagnosable condition
c. Chronic irritation a. Leukoplakia
d. A type of burn b. Mono nucleosis
c. Frictional keratosis
d. White spongy nevus

51. OSMF is associated with 57. A 3 cm squamous cell carcinoma of the

a. Burning sensation of mouth retromolar trigone invading mandible &
b. Formation of vesicles medial pterygoid muscle is at what TNM
c. stiffening of oral mucosa stage
d. All the above a. Stage III
b. Stage I
c. Stage IV
d. Stage II
52. Hemangiomas are 58. The clinical sign of OSMF is
a. Hamartomas a. Vertical fibrous bands in buccal mucosa
b. Teratoma b. Horizontal fibrous bands in buccal mucosa
c. Choristoma c. Vertical fibrous bands in labial mucosa
d. Neoplasia d. Horizontal bands in labial mucosa

53. Patchy melanosis of 59. Wickham’s striae is present in

oral mucosa occurs in a. Reticulate LP
a. Addison’s disease
b. Brown’s tumour of
hyperparathyroidism
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Hyper pituitarism
60. The triad oral lichen planus,
diabetic mellitus and
hypertension called
a. Plummer syndrome
b. Patterson Kelly syndrome
c. Treachercollin syndrome
d. Grinspan’s syndrome.
61. Circumoral pigmentation with
intestinal polyposis occurs in
a. Crohn’s disease
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Lead poisoning
d. Peutz jegher’s syndrome
62. In carotenemia,excessive levels
of carotene in oral mucosa shows
a. Orange to yellow color
b. Black blue color
c. Mild yellow
d. Red color
63. Grey black lead line in gingival
is seen in
a. Bismuthism
b. Plumbism
c. Mecurialism
d. Argyria
64. Auric stomatits is due to the
use of
a. Lead
b. Bismuth
c. Silver salts
d. Gold salts
65. The outstanding symptom of
phosphorous poisoning
b. Bullous LP
c. Ulcerated LP
d. All of the above
66. Giant cell epulis in oral cavity is
a. Inflammtory hyperplasia
b. Neoplasia of gingival
c. Dysplastic growth
d. Metaplasia
67. Hamartomas are tumour like lesions of
a. Tissue native to the site with particular
histological tissue
b. Tissue not native to the site
c. Different types of tissues
d. Only vascular tissues
68. Angiomatous lesion in the face
in the trigeminal area is found in
a. Angiomatous syndrome
b. Osler weber rendu syndrome
c. Sturge weber syndrome
d. Von hipple syndrome
69. Congenital macroglossia occurs in
a. Hemangioma
b. Lymphangioma
c. Amyloidosis
d. All the above
70. Granular cell myoblastoma in child is:
a. Fibrous epulis
b. Giant cell epulis
c. Congenital epulis
d. Myloid epulis
71. Inflammatory gingival enlargement is
caused by
a. Stomatitis a. Poor oral hygiene
b. Excessive salivation b. Accumalation of calculus
c. Osteomyelitis of the jaw c. Malposed teeth
d. Burning sensation of the mouth d. All of the above

72. Hyperkeratosis palmoplantaris, 78. Lesions of herpangina in mouth occurs

premature exfoliation of teeth a. All over the mouth
occurs in b. Palatal mucosa
a. Hypophosphatasia c. Pharynx and posterior
b. Papillon lefevere syndrome portion of oral mucosa
c. Struge weber syndrome d. Dorsal mucosa
d. Cross syndrome

73. Dilantin sodium for the treatment 79. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis
of epilepsy causes occurs due to
a. Inflammaory gingival enlargement a. Cox sacxie virus
b. Fibrotic gingival enlargement b. Zoster virus
c. Soft,smooth bleeding gingival enlargement c. EBV
d. Multiple gingival growths d. Virus that has affinity towards lymphnode

74. Cervicofacial actinomycosis is 80. Erythema multiforme appears with

caused by a. Several types of skin and mucosal lesions
a. Bacteria b. Develops with vesicles and bulla
b. Fungus c. Associated with erythema and edema
c. Virus d. All of the above
d. Protozoa.

75. Multiple sinuses associated
with pigmentation of skin in
cervico facial region occur in
a. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
b. Tuberculo osteomyelitis
c. Syphillitc osteomyelitis
d. Actinomycosis osteomyelitis.
81. Borellia vincenti and fusobacterium causes
a. Acute gingivitis with vincents infection
b. Acute gingival enlargement
c. Ulcerative gingivitis
d. ANUG

76. Epithelial elevation in skin or 82. Pediadenitis mucosa necrotica

mucosa containing clear fluid recurrence is
over 1cm is a. Major aphthous ulcer
a. Cyst b. Minor apthous ulcer
b. Nodule c. Herpetiform ulcer
c. Inflammatory swelling d. Recurrent apthous ulcer
d. Bulla
77. One of the following viruses 83. Oral mucosal involvement is
belong to Herpes virus of little consequences in the
a. Cox sacxie virus a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Paramyxo virus b. Pemphigus vegetans
c. EBV c. Pemphigus foliaceous
d. CMV d. Pemphigoid

84. Pemphigus vulgaris results 89. Diagnosis of mucormycosis in

from destruction of histopathology is the presence of
a. Intercellular substances in a. spores
Prickle cell layer of epithelium b. Septate of hyphae
b. Basal cell destruction c. Non septate hyphae
c. Superficial epithelial cell destruction d. Multiple hyphae
d. Suprabasilar cell destruction

85. Nickolsky’s sign is associated with 90. Uremic stomatitis is

a. Lichen planus a. Keratotic white lesion
b. EM b. Non keratotic white lesion
c. Pemphigus vulgaris c. Pseudomemberanous white lesion
d. Psoriasis d. Pale mucosal white lesion

86. Tzanck’s test is 91.Bullous pemphigoid is

a. Histopathological study a. Pigmented lesion
b. Cytological study b. Supraepithelial lesion
c. Immunological study c. Subepithelial lesion
d. Biochemical study d. Intra epithelial lesion

87. Bullous pemphigoid can be 92. The most common sign of mucormycosis is
treated with a. Ulceration of palate
a. Anti allergic drug b. Ulceration of tongue
b. Antibiotic c. Ulceration of floor of mouth
c. Corticosteroids d. Ulceraton of buccal mucosa
d. Sulphonamides

93. Chemical injuries of oral mucosa

88. Blastomycosis is caused by occurs as ulcers due to
a. Histoplama capsulatum a. Asprin
b. Saprophytic fungi b. Silver nitrate
c. Blastomycosis dermatidis c. Sodium hypochlorite
d. All of the above organisms
94. Linear white lesion on the dorsolateral
tongue among non tobacco chewers
a. Idiopathic leukoplakia
b. Galvanic reaction leukoplakia
c. To tell the patient about the disease
d. Hairy leukoplakia
95. The majority of the acute
oral candidiasis infection responds to
a. Topical mycostatin
b. Systemic ketoconazole
c. Anti fungal mouth wash
d. B complex therapy
96. Ectopic geographic tongue occurs
a. Dorsum of tongue
b. Ventral surface of tongue
c. Lateral border of tongue
d. On buccal mucosa
d. Differential diagnosis
97. Pachynochia congenita has
a. Thickening of finger nails and toe nails
b. Palmoplantar and follicular keratosis
c. Leukor keratosis
d. All the above
98. Retenoids are used for
a. Candidiasis
b. Leukoplakia
c. Chemical burns
d. Thermal burns
c. To satisfy the patient
d. All of the above
99. Carcinoma in situ is
a. Mild dysplasia in epithelium
d. All the above
101. The importance of diagnosis
a. To identify the signs and symptoms of
the disease
b. White hairy tongue
c. To plan treatment for the disease
d. To get more knowledge to doctors
102. Identification of disease by clinical
signs and symtoms
a. Clinical diagnosis
b. Provisional diagnosis
c. Differential diagnosis
d. Final diagnosis
103. Rapid and immediate diagnosis of
disease based on minimal data is
a. Provisional diagnosis
b. Therapeutic diagnosis
c. Spot diagnosis
104. Physical appearance of patient includes
a. Height and weight
b. Speech and anxiety
c. Gait and deformity
d. All of the above
105. Review of organ systems in oral diagnosis
is necessary to
a. Identify the oral disease due to systemic
disease
b. To eliminate the systemic disease
106. Osteomalacia is a bone disease due to
a. Vitamin A deficiency
b. Moderate dysplasia of epithelium b. Vitamin B
c. More severe grade of dysplasia c. Vitamin C deficiency
d. Severe hyperplasia of epithelium d. Vitamin D deficiency
100. Fibroelastic changes of lamina 107. Hypercalcium occurs in
propria of oral mucosa occurs in a. Hyperparathyroidism
a. Lupus erythmatosus b. Hyperthyroidism
b. Bullosa dystrophica c. Hypoparathyroidism
c. OSMF d. Hypothyroidism
d. Degeneration of fibrous tissue.
108. Secondary hyperparathyroidism 114. Recurrent and multiple paradental
develops due to abscess occurs in
a. Kidney disease a. Poor oral hygiene with suppuration
b. Parathyroid disease b. Diabetes
c. Bone disease c. Advance periodontitis
d. Liver disease d. Periodentoelasia

109. Osteitis fibrosa cystic in jaw occurs in 115. In gigantism

a. Hyperparathyroidism a. 50% of individual have macrodontia
b. Basal cell nevi syndrome b. Few have microdontia
c. Multiple cystic cavities c. Malformed teeth will be present
d. Hypothyroidism d. Size of teeth not affected

110. During development of teeth if 116. In acromegaly, one of the

hypoparathyroidism develop,it causes following will be absent
a. Hyperplasia of teeth a. Macrodontia
b. Hypoplasia of teeth b. Macrognathia
c. Discolouration of teeth c. Macrochelia
d. Mobility of teeth d. Macroglossia

111. Children with hyperparathyroidism has 117. Cushings disease occurs in

a. Premature loss of deciduous teeth a. Hyperadrenocortisum
b. Delayed exfoliation of teeth b. Hypo adrenocortisum
c. Delayed formation of deciduous teeth c. Diabetic
d. Absence of deciduous teeth d. Osteoporosis

112. In cretinism 118. Oral pigmentation is a sign of

a. Delayed eruption of teeth a. Addisons disease

b. Early eruption of teeth b. Cushings syndrome
c. Early loss of teeth c. Acromegaly
d. All of the above d. Cretinism

113. In cretinism patient will have 119. Pregnancy gingivitis occurs

a. Macroglossia a. All pregnant women
b. Microglossia b. 90% of pregnantwomen
c. Aglossia c. Pregnant women with dietary deficiency
d. Ankyloglossia d. 35 to 50% of pregnant women

120. The important clinical sign of 125.Toxic manifestation of body structure

menopause gingivitis is in excess fluoride ingestion of more than
a. Desquamation of gingiva 3ppm
b. Necrotic ulcer of the gingiva a. Dental fluorosis
c. Enlarged gingiva b. Skeletal fluorosis
d. Receeded gingiva c. Both dental and skeletal fluorosis
d. Osteoporosis

121. Post menopausal chronic 126. In dental fluorosis the following cell
desquamative gingivitis is caused by is disturbed
a. Estrogen deprivation a. Osteoblast
b. Androgen deprivation b. Ameloblast
c. Both estrogen and androgen deprivation c. Cementoblast
d. Steroid deprivation d.osteoclast

122. Wearing away of tooth structure in 127. Scattered multiple small sized
incisal and occlusal surface due to whole spots or flecks are seen in
mastication is a. Mild dental fluorosis
a. Abrasion b. Moderate dental fluorosis
b. Destruction c. Severe dental fluorosis
c. Erosion d. very severe fluorosis
d. Attrition

123. Loss of labial surface of enamel 128. The color changes from moderate
due to abnormal mechanical force is to severe dental fluorosis is
a. Attrition a. White
b. Abrasion b. Yellow
c. Erosion c. Brown
d. Destruction d. Yellowish white

124. Loss of tooth structure in the cervical 129. Dental fluorosis is

Part of enamel
a. Attrition a. Pandemic disease
b. Abrasion b. Epidemic disease
c. Erosion c. Endemic disease
d. Destruction d. Endemic and pandemic disease

130. Clinical appearance with bulbous crown

of teeth with opalescent hue and bluish
brown color are features of
a. Amelogenesis imperfecta
b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Odontogenesis imperfecta

131. Dentinogenesis imperfect associated 137. Amalgam tattoo appears

with blue sclera and bone deformity is a. Mass of amalgam
called b. A solitary or focal pigmentation
a. Osteogenesis imperfect in the oral mucosa
b. Odontogenesis imperfect c. Blackish red patch
c. Osteitis cystic fibrosis d. Brown discolouration
d. Paget’s disease

132. Necrotic punched out ulceration in 138. Oral pigmentation may be

interdental papilla of gingival occurs in a. Focal
a. HSV infection b. Diffused
b. HZ infecton c. Multifocal
c. ANUG d. All the above
d. Gangrenous stomatitis

133. Periodontium manifestation in AIDS 139. Hamartoma are cellular

a. linear gingival erythema proliferation of cells
b.NUG a. Native to that site
c. NUP b. Other tissues
d. All the above c. Multiple tissues
d. Pigmentation blood vessels

134. Cancrum oris in children is 140. Suprabasilar acantholysis with cleft in

a. Fulminating form of ulcerative epithelium is diagnostic feature of
stomatitis related to ANUG a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Chronic suppurative lesion b. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
c. Necrosis and gangerene due to c. Bullous pemphigoid
fungus d. Cicatricial pemphigoid
d. Chronic gangrenous stomatitis

135. The most common neoplastic process 141. Large purpuric lesion is called
 to accompany HIV infection is a. Petechiae
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Ecchymosis
b. Squamous papilloma c. Hematoma
c. Kaposi’s sarcoma d. Hemorrhagic vesicle
d. Fibrosarcoma
136. Characteristic mulitiple round or 142. Viruses that are known to cause
oval purple papules measuring less oral mucosal lesions are
than 0.5 cm in diameter is a. HSV1
a. Melanotic freckles b. HSV2
b. Heamorrhagic vesicles c. Varicella zoster
c. Hereditary heamorrhagic d. All the above
telengectasiasis
d. Multiple nevus spots
143. Lichen planus with small pin head 147. Lab tests are useful in diagnosis of
sized hemispherical raised glistening primary herpes infection
white spots a. Cytology
a. Reticular variety b. HSV isolation
b. Papular variety c. Antibody titre
c. Plaque variety d. All the above
d. Annular variety
144. Allergy may manifest itself in the 148. Unilateral vesicles along the course of
mouth in the form of allergic stomatitis nerve in orofacial region occurs in
which occurs as a. Herpes simplex
a. Allergic chelitis b. Secondary herpes
b. Allergic gingivitis c. Herpangina
c. Allergic glossitis d. Herpes zoster
d. All the above

145. Angineurotic edema is 149. Post herpetic neuralgia is found in

a. Developmental swelling of the a. Herpes simplex
blood vessel b. Herpes zoster
b. Developmental swelling of c. Herpangina
blood veeels and nerves d. Herpetic gingivitis
c. Allergic swelling with fluid accumulation
d. Traumatic swelling with fluid accumulation
150. Herpes zoster of geniculate ganglion
146. Recurrent herpes will develop in with bells palsy occurs in
a. Individual suffering from viral infection a. Melckerson rosanthal syndrome
b. Ramsay hunt syndrome
b. Individuals with recurrent aphthous ulcer c. Freys auricular syndrome
c. Individuals who have experienced primary d. Eagles syndrome
herpes
d. Individual with immune suppression
 151. Steven Johnson syndrome is due to
a. Allergy
b. Infection
c. Acute inflammation
d. Acute drug reaction

152. Denture sore mouth is 159. A systemic granulomatous disease that

a. Chronic atrophic candidiasis affects the parotid gland is called
b. Acute atrophic candidiasis a. Sialadenosis
c. Hypertrophic candidiasis b. Sialometaplasia
d. Candidial granuloma c. Sarcoidiosis
d. Mikulicz disease
153. Reiters syndrome is a triad of 160. Non neoplastic ,non inflammatory,
a. Stomatitis,dermatitis,conjunctivitis salivary gland enlargement is called
b. Urethritis,conjunctivitis,arthritis a. Sialadenitis
c. Dermatitis,conjunctivitis,urethritis b. Sialometaplasia
d. Stomatitis,conjunctivitis,dermatitis c. Sialdenosis
d. Sarcoidosis
154. True abberent salivary glands are more 161. Sjogren’s syndrome is included
frequent reported in the list of
a. In cervical region near parotid gland a. Autoimmune disease
b. In submandibular region b. Genetically determined disease
c. In sublingual region c. Immunosuppressive disease
d. In palatal region d. Degenerative disease

155. Sialolith occurs most frequently in 162. Ranula is a large mucocoele found in
a. Submandibular duct a. Floor of the mouth
b. Parotid duct b. Base of the tongue
c. Sublingual duct c. Edge of the tongue
d. Ducts of minor salivary glands d. Swelling of the duct

156. Mucocele is a swelling caused by 163. Necrotizing sialometaplasia is a

a. Chemical injury a. Reactive inflammatory disorder of
b. Accumulation of blood the salivary gland
c. Pooling of saliva due to injury to b. Necrosis of salivary gland
minor salivary glands c. Degenerative disease
d. Salivary gland swelling seen at the d. Neoplastic disease
base of the tongue

157. Necrotising sialometaplasia is an 164. Exposure to various drugs causes

inflammatory swelling tha affects enlargement of salivary glands
a. Minor salivary glands with itching is called:
b. Major salivary glands a. Suppurative sialadenitis
c. Both a and b b. Allergic sialdenitis
d. Ectopic salivary gland c. Degenerative sialdenitis
d .Toxic sialdenitis
158. Mumps affect 165. Mumps is caused by:
a. Salivary gland a. Pox virus
b. Gonads b. Para myxo virus
c. CNS c. Myxo virus
d. All the above d. CMV
166. Premature exfoliation of anterior 172. Geniculate neuralgia affects
primary teeth occurs in: a. Cranial nerve V
a. Hypophosphatasia b. Cranial nerve VI
b. Hyperphosphatasia c. Cranial nerve VII
c. Hyper phosphatemia d. Cranial nerve IX
d. Hyper calcemia

167. Small white lesions along the mid palatal 173. Paroxysmal pain is felt in the ear,
raphae in the new born can be tonsils,side of tongue,lateral wall
diagnosed as of pharynx in
a. Epstein pearls a. Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Epithelial pearls b. Geniculate neuralgia
c. Torus palatinus c. Hypoglossal neuralgia
d. Hyperplasia of mucosa d. Glossopharyngial neuralgia

168. Migrane is: 174. Post herpetic neuralgia is presented

Clinically as
a. Neural origin a. Intermittent pain
b. Dermal origin b. Chronic pain
c. Vascular origin c. Continous burning pain
d. Intracranial origin d. No pain

169. Paroximal pain of neuropathic 175. Altered taste and diminished

origin may affect cranial nerve taste sensation is
a.V a. Partial anesthesia of tongue
b.VII b. Injury to the nerve
c. IX c. Dysgeusia
d.all the above d. Dysphagia
170. Pain is limited to the anatomic 176. Orofacial pain that does not confirm to
distribution of the affected nerve recognized anatomic pathway in
in distribution is called
a. Tic doloureux a. Pain due to herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster b. Atypical orofacial pain
c. Migrane c. Pain due to physical injury
d. Injury to the nerve d. Pain due to herpes zoster

171. Most cases of tic doloureux 177. Dysphagia is caused in plummer Vinson
respond to the treatment of syndrome due to
a. Carbamazipine a. Inflammation of pharyngeal mucosa
b. Brufen b. Esophageal web
c. Steroids c. Carcinomatous growth
d. Tranqulizers d. Narrow esophagus

178. The oral manifestation of hepatitis is 185. Burkits lymphoma is the human cancer
a. Bad breath from mouth that is most commonly linked with
b. Icterus of oral mucosa a. Papilloma virus
c. Reddish erythematous mucosa b. HIV
d. Frequent vomiting c.CMV
d.EBV
179. Oral granulomatous lesion occurs in 186. Multiple myeloma in the bone is the
a. Crohns disease malignant neoplasm of :
b. Intestinal disease a. Osteoblast of the bone marrow
c. Peutz jeghers syndrome b. Osteocyte of the bone
d. Gastric disease c. Osteoclast of the bone
d. Plasma cell in bone marrow
180. Ammonia cal taste and smell in 187. Kissing’s disease is caused by
oral cavity occurs in a. HIV virus
a. Stomach disease b. Herpes labialis virus
b. Lung disease c. EBV
c. Liver disease d. Varicella zoster virus
d. Kidney disease

181. Oral manifestation in renal 188. Pharyngeal and intra oral carcinomas
transplantation is are common among the patients with:
a. Metallic taste a. AIDS
b. Odour of urea in blood b. Plummer vinson’s syndrome
c. Dry mouth c. Ramsay hunt syndrome
d. All of the above d. Papillon levefre syndrome

182. The most common oral sign of 189. Papillary squamous cell carcinoma is
 neutropenia is
a. Burning sensation of oral mucosa
b. Multiple growths of mucosa
c. Ulceration of oral mucosa
d. Pigmentation of mucosa
183. Oral manifestation of leukemia is
a. Gingival bleeding and enlargement
b. Burning sensation
c. Localized gingival growth
d. Mild gingivitis
184. Hodgkins disease is
a. Benign neoplasm of lymphnode
b. Malignant lymphatic tissue
c. Developmental abnormality of lymphnode
d. A disease that will spread to the brain
d. Melano carcinoma
192. Post radiation complication in
oral carcinoma is
a. Inflammation of bone
b. Thickening of bone
c. Osteoradio necrosis
d. Osteo porosis
memberane
193. Osteosarcoma in the mandible
is characterized by:
a. Formation of bone on osteoid
tissue by tumour cells
b. Proliferation of fibroblasts
c. Neural involvement with loss of
Sensation
d. Fast proliferating with bleeding
tendency
194. TNM classification means:
a. Size of the tumour
b. Node metastasis
c. Distant metastasis
d. All of the above
d. All the above
195. The potentially malignant
a. An exophytic papillary lesion
b. An endophytic growth
c. Papillary projection of rete pegs
d. Consists of multiple papillomatous growths
190. Treatment of oral carcinoma includes
a. Radiotherapy
b. Chemotherapy
c. Surgery
d. All the above
191. Sun exposure is considered the
principle etiological factor of
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Veruccous carcinoma
198. Carcinoma in situ in oral mucosa have
a. Severe epithelial hyperplasia
b. Intermittent dysplasia
c. Dysplasia in the entire thickness of
epithelium
d. Dysplasia with break in basement
199. Squamous cell carcinoma is
charcterised by
a. Dysplasia of epithelium
b. Broad rete pegs with dysplastic cells
c. Disruption of basement memberane
by nests of abnormal cells.
d. Peripherally spreading dysplastic cells
200. Gingival enlargement due to poor oral
hygiene and food impaction in
a. Chronic hyperplastic gingivitis
b. Acute hyperplastic gingivitis
c. Subacute hyperplastic gingivitis
201. Fibrotic gingival enlargement
 condition of oral mucosa is : occurs during treatment with
a. Pemphigus a. Phenytoin
b. Psoriaisis b. Cyclosporine
c. Aphthous ulcer c. Nifedipine
d. OSMF d. All the above

196. Oral carcinoma is one of the most
prevalent cancer and is one of the:
a. 5 most common cause of death
b. 10 most common cause of death
c. 20 most common cause of death
d. 30 most common cause of death.
197. In advanced oral cancer the lymph
node is
a. Soft and movable
b. Hard and movable
c. Hard and fixed
d. Enlarged and tender
204. Most common malignancy in
Males in India is
202.Treatment with calcium channel blockers
cause
a. Inflammatory gingival enlargement
b. Fibrotic gingival enlargement
c. Soft gingival enlargement
d. Bleeding gingival enlargement
203. Severe gingival enlargement
can also take place in
a. Papillon-lefever syndrome
b. Struge-weber syndrome
c. Plummer-vincent syndrome
d. Idiopathic gingival enlargement
210. White lesion that involves oral mucosa
that cannot be classified as another

a. Lung cancer lesion both clinically and histologically

b. Prostrate cancer a. Leukoplakia
c. Oral cancer b. Idiopathic keratosis
d. Brain cancer c. Frictional keratosis
d. Lichen planus

205. The risk factors of oral and 211. An immunologically mediated

oro-pharyngeal carcinoma mucocutaneous lesion is
a. Tobacco a. Leukoplakia
b. Tobacco and alcohol b. Lichen planus
c. Smoking tobacco c. White spongy nevus
d. Smokeless tobacco d. Psoriasis

206. Morphologically altered tissue in
which cancer is more likely to occur is
a. Pre cancer
b. Pre cancerous lesion
c. Pre malignant condition
d. Pre cancerous condition
d. Sessile papilloma
212. Vertically folded white patch most
frequently seen on the lateral border
of the tongue is
a. Oral hairy leukoplakia
b. Papillomatous growth
c. Papilloma

207. Lesion in which abnormal cells involve 213. The consistency of lymph node in
only the entire epithelium is oral squamous cell carcinoma is
a. Hyperplasia a. Soft
b. Dysplasia b. Firm
c. Severe dysplasia c. Firm to hard
d. Carcinoma in situ d. All the above

208.TNM classification T denotes 214. The common fungal infection in AIDS is

a. Tumor a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Size of tumor b. Candidiasis
c. Shape of tumor c. Tuberculosis
d. Site of tumor d. Herpangina

209. High risk of progression to squamous 215. Calcified stones that lie
cell carcinoma occurs in within the blood vessels is
a. Verrucous leukoplakia a. Pleolith
b. Proliferative leukoplakia b. Phelbolith
c. Diffuse leukoplakia c. Haemolith
d. Leukoerythroplakia d. Vascularlith

216. The most common site for involvement 222.Osteoarthritis of TMJ joint is
of sialolith 80-90% is in a. Degenrative condition
a. Submandibular gland b. Degenarative condition accompanied
b. Parotid gland by secondary inflammation
c. Sublingual gland c. Condition due to occlusal traumatism
d. Mucous salivary gland d. Collagen disorder

217. Swelling caused by accumulation of 223. In TMD nocturnal bruxing is thought to

saliva aggrevate
a. Odema of salivary gland a. Pain symptom
b. Cyst b. Jaw movement restriction
c. Mucocele c. Jaw deviation
d. Abscess in salivary gland d. Jaw sound

218. Necrotising sialometaplasia of salivary 224. Intracapsular disorders of TMJ joint

tissue
a. Self limiting disease
b. Requires chemotherapy
c. Requires radiotherapy
d. Requires surgery
a. Anterior disc displacement with reduction
b. Anterior disc displacement without
reduction
c. Posterior disc displacement
d. All the above

219. Pilocarpin HCL is approved specifically 225. Degenerative disease of TMJ can
for the relief of be treated better by
a. Xerostomia a. Non- steroidal anti-inflammatory
b. Ptyalism medication
c. Sialorrhea b. Anti spasmatic drug
d. Sialolithiasis c. Antibiotic drugs
d. Steroids
220. Sarciodosis is chronic granuloma causing 226. If condyle is positioned anterior to
destruction of tissue with association of the articular eminence and cannot
a. T lymphocytes and mononuclear phagocytes return to normal position it is called as
b. Tuberculous bacilli a. Subluxation
c. B lymphocytes b. Ankylosis
d. Monocytes c. Fracture condyle
d. Dislocation
221. In TMJ joint the space between the 227. Fusion of the head of the condyle to
condyle and mandibular fossa the temporal bone is
are separated by a. Ankylosis
a. Fibrous capsule b. Arthrosis
b. Synovial membrane c. Dislocation
c. Articular cartilage d. Fracture with malunioun
d. Articular disc

228. Orofacial pain is 234. Burning mouth syndrome is reffered

a. A disease for describing oral burning due to
b. Sign of a disease a. Nutritional deficiency
c. Symptom of disease b. In neuropathy
d. Both sign and symptom c. Glossodynia
d. That has no detectable cause
229. Pain in trigeminal neuralgia is 235. Facial pain can develop from
characterized as a. Vascular structure
a. Continous throbbing pain b. Nerves
b. Brief episodes of shooting electrical shock c. Muscular structure
like pain along the course of nerve d. All of the above
c. Localized pain aggrevates and intermittent
nature
d. Continuos pain reffered to other parts

230. The nerve that rarely affects 236. The artery involved in giant cell arteritis
trigeminal neuralgia is that cause inflammation and pain is
a. Mandibular narve a. Maxillary artery
b. Maxillary nerve b. Facial artery
c. Opthalmic nerve c. Temporal artery
d. All the above d. Opthalmic artery

231. Drug of choice for trigeminal 237. Cluster headache is

 neuralgia a. Unilteral haed pain around the eye
a. Brufen b. Bilateral throbbing pain
b. Paracetamol c. Continous headache
c. Carbamazepine d. Headache due to intracranial lesion
d. Tranqulizer

232. Trigeminal neuralgia is 238. Migraine headache with pain in face

otherwise called as is due to damage of
a. Atypical facial neuralgia a. Neural structure
b. Idiopathic neuralgia b. Vascular structure
c. Tic doloreux c. Muscular structure
d. Psychogenic pain d. Cranial structure

233. Facial pain is triggered by 239. Drugs that are useful in aborting
stimulating the pharengeal migraine include
mucosa in a. Ergotamine
a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Tegretol
b. Glossopharengial neuralgia c. Migril
c. Geniculate neuralgia d. Ibuprofen
d. Hypoglossal neuralgia

240. Migraine is caused by 246. Multiple intestinal polyposis

a. Pressure on nerves by tumor with circumoral pigmentation as in
b. Vasoconstriction of intracranial artery a. Basal cell melanotic syndrome
c. Muscular spasm of facial muscles b. Albright syndrome
d. Intracranial lesion c. Peutz-jegher’s syndrome
d. Melanotic freckles
241. Erosion of teeth occurs in 247. Ammonia like taste and smell
a. Gastric disease in mouth is due to
b. Intestinal disease a. Gastric disease
c. Colon disease b. Intestinal disease
d. Rectal disease c. Diabetes
d. Kidney disease
242. Pyostomatitis vegetans is 248. Changes to kidney disease occurs
a. A varitant of pempighus vegetans when BUN level is
b. Stomatitsis due to drugs a. >150mg/dl
c. Due to ulcerative colitis b. >60mg/dl
d. Due to crohn’s disease c. <140mg/dl
d. <100mg/dl
243. Oral mucosal growth with 249. Giant cell lesion of the jaw to occur in
cobblestone appearance a. Osteporosis
occurs in b. Osteomalacia
a. Ulcerative colitis c. Renal osteodystrophy
b. Pyrostomatitis vgetans d. Osteodysrophy in hormonal disturbance
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Peutz-jegher’s syndrome

244. Oral mucosa shows yellowish 250. If renal disease starts in

discoloration in young age the child will have
a. Jaundice a. Ulcerartion in mouth
b. Anamia b. Delayed eruption of tooth
c. Cynosis c. Dental caries
d. Keratoanemia d. Enamel hypoplasia

245. Cardinal oral manifestation
of eating disorder in
a. Severe erosion of enamel on
lingual surface
b. Food accumulation causing halitosis
c. Fermentation of food causing bad taste
d. Irritation to gingival with bleeding
251. The major oral sign of iron
deficiency anemia is
a. Pallor of mucosa
b. Pallor and atrophy of epithelium cells
c. Redness of tongue
d. Redness and burning tongue

252. Dysphagia occurs in iron 258. The most common oral sign of
deficiency anemia due neutropenia in oral mucosa is
a. Oesophageal ulcers a. Ulceration
b. Oesophageal webs b. Bleeding
c. Oesophageal bands c. Paleness
d. Oesophageal muscle spasms d. Burning sensation

253. Plummer Vinson syndrome 259. Oral manifestationof leukemia includes

is associated with a. Gingival bleeding
a. Microcytic hypochromic anemia b. Gingival enlargement
b. Macrocytic hypochromic anemia c. Oral ulceration
c. Aplastic anemia d. All of the above
d. Polycythemia

254. Sickle cell anemia is due to
a. RBC reduction
b. Heamoglobinopathy
c. Iron deficiency
d. Erythrocyte enzyme deficiency
d. Neutropenic leukemia
255. Bimaxillary protrusion and other
260. Oral infection is a serious potentially
fatal complication in the blood disorder
a. Heamophilia
b. Purpura
c. Anemia
261. Lymphomas are malignant,solid
 occlusal abnormalities are tumor that develop
present in a. From lymph node
a. Thalassemia b. Involving cells of lymphoreticular or
b. Sickle cell anemia immune system
c. Megaloblastic anemia c. Lymphocytes
d. Aplastic anemia d. Lymphatic vessels

256. Tongue is beefy red and inflamed 262. In Hodgkin’s disease involvement
with erythematous area on of one lymph node region or single
the lip in extranodal site
a. Pernicious anemia a. Stage 1
b. Iron deficiency anemia b. Stage2
c. Thalassemia c. Stage3
d. All of the above d. Stage4

257.Aplastic anemia is a normochromic 263. Non- Hodgkin’s lymphoma arises from

normocytic anemia caused by a. B or T lymphocytes
a. Aplasia of red cells b. Lymphoblasts
b. Absence of haemoglbin c. Lymphotrophic cells
c. Bone marrow failure d. Lymph nodes
d. Toxicity of bone

264. In multiple myeloma mandible is 270. Oral lesions of lupus erythmatosis

more involved because it contains is confused with
a. More vascularity a. Leukoplakia
b. Contain more plasma cells b. Erythroplakia
c. Greater content of marrow c. Vesicular lesion
d. Teeth bearing area d. Lichen planus

265. The disease that affects the males 271. Tight lips, narrow opening of mouth, loss
carried by females is of skin fold around face occurs in
a. Purpura a. Oral submucous fibrosis
b. Leukemia b. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
c. Agranulocytosis c. Sceloderma
d. Hemophilia d. Actinic chelitis

266. Oral mucosal bleeding in the form
of ecchymosis occurs in
a. Platelet deficiency
b. RBC deficiency
c. WBC deficiency
d. Stem cell deficiency
272. In scleroderma radiographically we can
see
a. Narrowing of PDL space
b. Widening of PDL space
c. Alveolar resorption
d. Mucosa is thickened
267. Higher incidence of oral disease
occurs in
a. B lymphocyte abnormally
b. T lymphocyte abnormality
c. Lymphocyte abnormality
d. All of the above
268. Sarcoidosis is
a. Systemic granulomatous disease
b. Local granulomatous disease
c. Tuberculous disease
d. Connective tissue disorder
269. Systemic lupus erythmatosis is
a. An auto immune disease
b. Immunodeficiency disease
c. Genetic disease
d. Endocrine disease
d. HSV virus
276. Altered wound healing occurs
in oral injury in
a. Vincent infection
b. Suppuration
c. Hormonal disturbance
d. Diabetes
277. The most common diabetic
emergency in dental office is
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Delayed wound healing
d. Prolonged bleeding
278. Facial myxedema,magroglossia,
hoarse voice are observed in
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypoparathyroidism
273. Zidovudine or AZT is
a. Antiviral drug
b. Antiretroviral drug
c. Antilymphocytic drug
d. Anti immunosuppressive agent
274. The oral fungal infection in HIV patient
a. Pseudomembraneous candidiasis
b. Erythmatous candidiasis
c. Hyperplastic candidiasis
d. All of the above
275. Oral hairy leukoplakia in AIDS
is caused by
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Epstein barr virus
c. Papilloma virus
282. Systemic disease associated with
headache and orofacial pain is
a. Osteopetrosis
b. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
c. Paget’s disease
d. Cledocranial dystosis
283. Formation of convex ramus
on affected side occurs in
a. Condylar aplasia
b. Condylar hypoplasia
c. Condylar ankylosis
d. Condylar hyperplasia
284. In valvular heart disease patient
should be treated for dental
procedures with
a. Anticoagulant therapy
b. Antihypertensive therapy
d. Hyperparathyroidism c. Antibiotic therapy
d. Antianxiety agents
279. Unilateral paralysis in facial 285. Post herpectic neuralgia develops in
region occurs in a. Primary herpes
a. Injury of nerves b. Secondary herpes
b. Trigeminal neuralgia c. Herpangina
c. Post herpes zoster implication d. Herpes zoster
d. Bell’s palsy

280. Patient who are taking anti
convulsant drugs are subject to
a. Gingival bleeding
b. Gingival desquamation
c. Gingival overgrowth
d. Gingival fibrosis
286. Deviation of the mandible to
affected site occurs in
a. Ankylosis
b. Agenesis and hyperplasia of condyle
c. Fracture condyle
d. Disc displacement

281. Cleidocranial dyostosis consists of 287. HAART for treating HIV is a

a. Absence of clavicles
b. Colobama eye with micrognathia
c. Intestinal polyposis and
supernumerary teeth
d. Intestinal polyposis
a. Immune modulatory therapy
b. Anti virus therapy
c. Anti retroviral therapy
d. Resistance to immune suppression

288. Haemochromatosis is endogenous 294. Presence of basophilic stippling of

pigmentation resulting from the red cells is the diagnostic feature of
deposition of a. Erythroblastic anemia
a. Melanin b. Plumbism
b. Iron as melanin c. Bismuthism
c. Iron d. Mercuralism
d. Porphyrin

289. Carotenemia is a condition that 295. Argyria is the permanent discolouration

results from of the skin and mucous membrane caused
a. Excess level of carotene pigment a. Silver compound
b. Excess in take of carrots b. Gold compound
c. Excess in take of beetroots c. Lead compound
d. Excess in take of eggs d. Mercury compound

290. Jaundice is caused by increased 296. Auric stomatitis is due to the use of
levels of a. Silver salts
a. Bilirubin in blood b. Gold salts
b. Biliverdin in blood c. Flouride salts
c. Both bilirubin and biliverdin in blood d. Arsenic salts
d. Porphyrin and biliverdin n blood

291. Grey black lead line is seen in 297. Chemical that produces osteomyelitis
gingival margin of leading to necrosis
a. Plumbism a. Arsenic
b. Bismuthism b. Phosphorous
c. Mercurialism c. Lead
d. Arsenism d. Bismuth

292. Mercurization is 298. Giant cell reparative granuloma is

a. Inflammatory disease a. Benign neoplasm
b. Occupational disease b. Variant of hemangioma
c. Industrial disease c. Inflammatory hyperplasia with osteoclasts
d. Allergic disease d. Giant cell fibroma

293. Acrodynia is a symptom 299. Hemangioma is

complex of a. Malignant tumor
a. Lead ingestion b. Hamartoma
b. Ingestion of bismuth c. Teratoma
c. Ingestion of mercury compound d. Choriostoma
d. Metallic allergy

300. The oral mucosal lesion that develop 306. Herpes whitlow an infection of
due to prolonged steroid therapy fingers when virus is inoculated
a. Non healing ulcer in the skin in
b. Atrophic glossitis a. Contagious infection
c. Erythematous lesion with burning b. Direct infection
sensation c. Occupational hazard
d. Thrush d. Are sensitive to the skin

301. Sideropenic anemia shares the
features of
a. Atrophic glossitis and angular chelitis
b. Pale mucosa with burning sensation
c. Mucosa with loss of sensation
d. Mucosal ulcers with bleeding
307. Recurrent HSV should be used
to refer to actual ulcer caused by
a. Primary infection
b. By reactivated virus
c. Transmitted virus from nerve
d. Virus spread from others

302. Vitamin b12 defeciency causes 308. Intra oral recrudescent HSV occurs
a. Pernicious anemia chiefly on mucosa of
b. Sideropenic anemia
c. Cooleys anemia
d. Aplastic amemia
d. Soft palate mucosa
303. Interstitial glossitis occurs in
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Primary syphills
c. Secondary syphilis
d. Tertiary syphilis
d. Ciprofloxacin 500mg thrice for 5 days
304. Cancer chemotherapy causes
oral lesions as
a. Acute multiple oral lesions
b. Chronic multiple lesions
c. Recurring oral mucosal lesions
d. Continuous multiple lesion
305. Herpes viridae family of viruses
contain
a. 7 different viruses
b. 8 different viruses
c. 9 different viruses
d. 10 different viruses
c. Multiple ulcers
d. Multiple necrotic ulcers
312. A variant of herp angina is
a. Lymphadenitis of the throat
b. Lymphonodular pharyngitis
c. Acute pharyngitis
d. Acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis
d. Erythema multiforme
313. Plasma cell stomatitis is
a. Plasma cell immune disease
b. Hypersensitive reaction
c. Immunosuppressive disease
d. Allergic stomatitis
c. Pemphigus foliaceous
d. Bullous pemphigoid
314. Amlexanox paste is used to
decrease the healing of
a. Herpetic ulcer
a. Hard palate,gingival and dorsum of tongue
b. Tongue,ventral mucosa.labial mucosa
c. Buccal mucosa
309. One of the following treatment is not
proved affective in treating herpes zoster
a. Acyclovir 800mg 5 times per day
b. Valacyclovir 1000mg 3 times per day
c. Famcyclovir 500 mg 3 times per day
310. Post herpetic neuralgia in herpes
zoster cannot be treated with
a. Gaba pentin
b. Opioid analgesic
c. Tricyclic antidepressant
d. Anti viral therapy
311. Cytomegalovirus in mouth of
immunocomprimised persons
tends to present
a. Single large necrotic ulcers and less
often multiple ulcers
b. Recurrent ulcers
318. One of the following disease belongs
to subepithelial bullous dermatosis
a. Pemphigus vegetans
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophica
319. Desquamative gingivitis has also
been reported as most common oral
manifestation of
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Pemphigus erythematosis
320. One of the following drugs is
immunosuppressive drug used in
pemphigus group of diseases
b. Herpangina ulcer a. Clobetasol
c. Necrotizing ulcer b. Azathioprine
d. Aphthous ulcer c. Dapsone
d. Doxicyclin
315. Clinical manifestation as diagnostic 321.The disease that also manifests
criteria for Behcet’s disease has a rhino cerebral form
a. Recurrent genital lesions a. Histoplasmosis
b. Eye lesions ,uveitis or retinal vasculitis b. Blasto mycosis
c. Skin lesions,erythema nodosum and c. Phycomycosis
papilllopustular lesion d. Candidiasis
d. All of the above

316. Pathergy test is indicated for 322. Necrosis of oral epithelium which
a. Allergic lesions may also be perceived as
b. Autoimmune disease a. Suppurative lesion
c. Behcet’s disease b. Gangrenous lesion
d. TB c. White lesion
d. Ulcerative lesion
317. In pemphigus vulgaris oral lesion 323. Oral candidiasis develop from
develops as a patient who takes prolonged
a. Classical ulcer treatment of
b. Classical vesicle a. Antibiotics
c. Classical bulla b. Analgesics
d. Classical erythema c. Antihistamine
d. Anti depressants

324. The type of candidiasis that is 329.White spongy nevus that occurs
associated with malignant in oral mucosa can also involve
transformation is extra oral site such as
a. Pseudomemberanous candidiasis a.pharynx
b. Atrophic candidiasis b.larynx
c. Erythematous candidiasis c.esophagus
d. Chronic plaque type and d.bronchus
nodular candidiasis

325. CD4 + T lymphocytes in hairy 330.Pigments that result in discolouration

leukoplakia appears on of dorsal tongue can be produced by
a. High level a.melanogenic bacteria
b. Low level b.spirochetes
c. Normal level c.chromogenic bacteria
d. Variation level d.bacterium fusiform
326. The white lesion of oral mucosa that 331.One of the following sarcoma of
cannot be characterized as any other mucosa can cause discoloration
lesion is a.fibrosarcoma
a. Spongy nevus b.liposarcoma
b. Frictional keratosis c.myosarcoma
c. Linea alba d.kaposi sarcoma
d. Leukoplakia

327. The lesion that produce white 332. Melanotic macules develop more
radiating striae resembling oral frequently in
lichen planus is a.children
a. Systemic Lupus b.males
b. Discoid Lupus c.females
c. Erythroleukoplakia d.both a and b
d. Marked hyper keratinization

328.To obtain relief of symptoms from 333.Well circumscribed tan or brown coloured
oral mucosal Lupus erythematosis macular develop in facial and perioral
the treatment is skin is called
a.clobetazole propionate gel a. freckle or ephelis
b.hydrogen peroxide b. melanoma
c.warm saline c. circum oral pigmentation
d.immunosupressant drug d. patch pigmentation

334.The chief drugs implicated in drug 340.Peripheral ossifying or cementifying

induced melanosis is fibroma is found exclusively in
a.antimalarial a.gingiva
b.anti carcinogenic b.alveolar mucosa
c.anti fungal c.palate
d.anti depressant d.anywhere in the oral cavity

335.Acquired symmetric melanosis 341.Gingival enlargement occurs in

develop on sun exposed area of a.crohn’s disease
skin particularly is called b. amyloidosis
a.melanoma c. lymphoma
b.melasma d.all of the above
c.melanotic maccule
d.metonic spots
336. Hemochromatosis is a chronic 342.One of the following condition
progressive disease that is causes congenital macroglossia
characterized by deposition of a.acromegaly
a.excessive melanin b.hyperpitutarism
b.excessive copper c.lymphangioma
c.excessive iron d.myoma of the tongue
d.excessive porphyrin

337.Epulis in gums is a 343.The cyst that is associated with

a.benign growth nevoid basal cell carcinoma is
b.congenital growth a.dental cyst
c.developmental growth b.dentigerous cyst
d.inflammatory growth c.odontogenic keratocyst
d.primodial cyst

338.Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia 344. Patient using bisphosphonate may

of mucosa in hard palate is due to develop
a.smoking irritation a.ulceration in oral mucosa
b.food accumulation b.dryness of mouth
c.pipe smoking irritation c.osteonecrosis and osteomyelitis
d.denture irritation d.cancrum oris

339.Pregnancy epulis developes when 345. The virus that cause sialadenitis,
a.circulating estrogen is high xerostomia and salivary gland
b.circulating estrogen and androgen is high enlargement
c.circulating androgen is high a.hepatitis A
d.circulatng estrogen is low b.hepatitisB
c.hepatitis C
d.hepatitis D

346. Symmterical lacrimal,parotid 352.Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania is

and submandibular enlargement a.neuralgia
occurs in b.myalgia
a. Sjogrens syndrome c.headache
b. Heerford syndrome d.vascular pain
c. Mumps
d. Granulomatous condition

347.One of the drugs is a systemic sialogogue 353.Rickets is failure of

a.cevimiline HCL a.mineralisation of endochondral
b.bromohexine new bone formed
c.anetholetrithin b.mineralisation of organic bone matrix
d.thalidomide c.matrix formation of bone
 d.matrix formation and mineralization
348.Pain at the angle of the left side 354.Rickets and osteomalacia is
of the mandible brought on by due to abnormalities of
exertion and relieved on rest a.vit A
suggest b.vit B
a.cardiac ischemia c.vit C
b.myositis ossificans d.vit D
c.thyroid inflammation
d.TMJ disc displacement

349.Temporal artery swelling, severe 355. In hyperparathyroidism there is

throbbing,severe pain,transient
visual abnormalities occurs in a.hypercalcemia
a. Migraneous neuralgia b.hypocalcemia
b. TMJ disc displacement c.hyperphosphatemia
c. Atypical facial pain d.hypophosphatemia
d. Temporal arteritis

350.Systemic disease associated 356.Facial myxedema and enlarged

With skull enlargement and ocular disturbance tongue are features of
a.acromegaly a.hypothyroidism
b.paget’s disease b.hyperthyroidism
c.metastatic carcinoma c.hypopituitarism
d.gasteritis d.hyperparathyroidism

351.Gamma knife stereotactic 357.Growth hormone deficiency causes

radiosurgery is the new a.delayed eruption of tooth
technique to treat b.retarded eruption of teeth
a.vascular lesion c.uneruptted teeth
b.early malignancy d.burried teeth
c.ulceration of foliate papule
d.trigeminal neuralgia
358. In diabetes mellitus the signs 364.Gingival hyperplasia in acute
and symptoms are myelogenic leukemia is due to
a.xerostomia and parotid gland a.inflammatory exudates
enlargement b.fibrosis of
b.ptylism with burning mouth c.leukemic cell infiltration
c.parotitis d.epithelial proliferation
d.dryness of mouth

359. Spasm of muscles of mastication 365.Neutropenia occurs in cyclic

increases until the jaw is finally neutropenia as
locked in a.an acute onset
a.fracture of condyle b.chronic pattern
b.fracture of maxilla c.intermittent
c.myostis ossificans d.cyclic pattern
d.tetanus

360. Mucous patches and snail 366.Multiple impacted supernumerary teeth

tract ulcers are common in associated with intestinal polyposis
a.primary syphilis occurs in
b.secondary syphilis a.cleidocranial dystosis
c.tertiary syphilis b.gardners syndrome

d.congenital syphilis c.osteopetrosis

d.hypothyroidism
361. Rigid lip ,narrow oral aperture, 367. Yellow pigmentation may be
loss of skin folds around the mouth observe on oral mucosa in
occurs in a. Carotenemia
a.radiation fibrosis b. Allergic condition
b.OSMF c. Uremic stomatitis
c.scar of burn d. Liver cirrhosis
d.scleroderma

362. Cell mediated immunity is 368. Erythematous macular lesion

brought out by on soft palate and enlargement
a.T cell of lingual tonsillar tissue occurs in
b.B cell a. Upper respiratiory viral infection
c .both a and b b. Viral infection lymphoid tissue
d.none of the above c. Acute glossitis
d. Lung infection
363.Long term intravenous 369. Nocturnal bruxism is thought to
bisphosphonate therapy causes aggrevate or contribute pain symptoms
a.osteopetrosis associated with
b.osteonecrosis a. Gastric disease
c.osteitis b. Oral malignancy
d.osteoporosis c. Oro facial neuralgia
d. TMD
370. Oral diskinesias are 375. Deviation of the mandible to the
a. Severe,bad odour affected side and facial
b. Abnormal,involuntary movement deformity occurs in
of tongue,lip and jaws a. Fracture condyle
c. Biting of teeth and closing b. Agenesis of condyle
of mouth c. Displacement
d. Tremors of tongue d. Fibrous ankylosis

371. True bony ankylosis of TMJ 376. Rheumatoid arthritis of TMJ is

involves fusion of a. Inflammatory
a. Head of the condyle to b. Degenerative
zygomatic bone c. Suppurative
b. Condyle to temporal bone d. Immunological
c. Condyle to articular disc
d. Head of the condyle to glenoid fossa
of temporal bone

372. Condyle is positioned anterior to 377. Chronic alcoholism is associated with

articular eminence and cannot parotid gland dysfunction in the form of
return to glenoid fossa is a. Parotitis
a. Dislocation b. Ptyalism
b. Subluxation c. Sialolith
c. Concussion d. Salivary gland enlargement
d. Malposition

373. Condyle moves anterior to the 378. Dehydration has been demonstrated
eminence during opening and to result in salivary gland with
is able to return to resting a. Excess output of salivation
positon is b. Diminished output of salivation
a. Concussion c. No salivation at all
b. Hypermobility d. Diminished purulent salivation
c. Subluxation
d. Dislocation

374. Clinically a deep depression 379. An acute and sudden onset of a

can be felt in pretragus swollen salivary gland with pain is
region in a. Acute bacterial sialedinitis
a. Condylar hypoplasia b. Acute viral sialedinitis
b. Condylar fracture c. Acute allergic sialednitis
c. Condylar concussion d. Acute fungal sialedinitis
d. Condylar dislocation

380. Hypoplasia of parotid gland occurs in 385. Oral non-hodgkin’s lymphoma is seen in
a. Ramsay hunt syndrome a. Multiple myeloma
b. Melkerson rosenthal syndrome b. Histiocytosis
c. Frey’s auriculo temporal syndrome c. HIV/AIDS
d. Sjogren’s syndrome d. Wegwners granulomatosis

381. In salivary gland disease to 386. Diagnosis of major salivary gland

differentiate masses can be made without open
between biopsy by
 cyst and solid mass the best a. FNAC
investigation is b. Aspiration
a. Ultrasonography c. Radiograph
b. MRI d. Clinical findings
c. CT scan
d. Radionuclear imaging

382. Limited opening of mouth 387. Multiple osteoma’s occur in

has been related to a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
a. Tetanus b. Gardner syndrome
b. Radiation fibrosis c. Multiple ostosis
c. Scleroderma d. Albright syndrome
d. All the above

383. Cytotoxic chemotherapy and 388. One of the following maxillary cyst
radiation therapy for oral is not a bony cyst
cancer affect a. Nasopalatine cyst
a. Connective tissue b. Median cyst
b. Vascular tissue c. Nasolabial duct cyst
c. Mucosal epithelial tissue d. Hemoharragic cyst
d. All the above

384. Prior to radiotherapy of cancer 389. Foliate papillitis is a painful lymphoid

infected tooth,root stump and aggregate occurs in tongue in the
periodontally involved tooth a. Dorsum
should be removed b. Base
a. To prevent osteoradionecrosis c. Posterolateral part
b. To provide better radiation treatment d. In the tip
c. To prevent mucositis
d. To prevent soft tissue necrosal gangrene

390. The drug that causes 396. Combination of therapy to reduce

pigmentation in the teeth is pain and decrease size of ulcer in
a. Oxy tetracycline apthous stomatitis is
b. Tetracycline a. Antibiotics
c. Chloromycin b. Analgesics and antibiotics
d. Tetracyclin c. Steroids and anti-histamins
d. Analgesics and corticosteroids
391. Oral mucosal pigmentation 397. Bullous pemphigoid and mucous
 occurs in membrane pemphigoid are
a. Amalgam tattoo a. Epithelial bullous lesions
b. Graphite tattoo b. Sub epithelial bullous lesions
c. Ornamental tattoo c. Only mucosal lesions
d. All the above d. Suprabasilar lesions

392. Oral contraceptives will produce
a. Oral ulceration
b. Oral burning sensation
c. Oral bleeding
d. Oral melanosis
d. Patients with nerve disorder
393. Vitiligo a depigmented lesion is
a. Congenital disease
b. Inflammatory disease
c. Autoimmune disease
d. Developmental disease
c. Gaba pentin and lidocaine patch
d. Antiviral therapy
394. Diffuse or patchy melanotic
pigmentation in oral mucosa
is associated with
a. Chewer’s mucosa
b. B complex deficiency
c. Tertiary stage of syphilis
d. OSMF
398. Varicella zoster viral infection are more
severe in
a. Adults with prolonged antibiotics
b. Patients with systemic disease
c. Immunocompromised patients
399. First line of treatment in post
herpetic neuralgia is
a. Vit B12 and analgesics
b. Opioid analgesics and tricyclic
antidepressants
400. The microbe that is likely to play
an important role in progression
of ANUG to cancrum oris is
a. Borellia vincenti
b. Bacillus fusiformis
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Camphylobacterium

395. Hairy tongue is characterized 401. Steven johnson syndrome is

by projections of a. Varient of herpes virus infection
b. Less severe variant of toxic
a. Fungiform papillae epidermal necrolysis
b. Filliform papillae c. Mucocutaneous lesion
c. Circumvallate papillae d. Prone for malignancy
d. Foliate papillae

402. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis has
a. Major apthous ulcer
b. Minor apthous ulcer
c. Herpetiform ulcer
d. All the above
d. Fibrous dysplasia
403. In hereditary gingival fibromatosis
408. One of the following conditions
in fibro-osseous lesion
a. Fibroma
b. Fibrous epulis
c. Giant cell epulis
409. Diagnosis of primary syphilis can be
a. Gingiva bleeds made by
b. Delayed eruption of teeth a. Blood examination
c. Alveolar bone not fully formed b. Dark ground field microscopy
d. Multiple exophytic growth occurs c. Blood culture
d. FNAC
404. The teeth are red or purple 410. Specific test such as FTA-ABS is
in colour in indicated in
a. Internal resorption a. Tuberculosis
b. Congenital porphyria b. Syphilis
c. Gangrene of tooth c. Leprosy
d. Dental fluorosis ` d. HIV infection

405. Hutchinson’s incisor is present in 411. Supression of normal flora of the

a. Congenital syphilis mouth by anti bacterial drugs causes
b. Primary syphilis a. Viral infection
c. Secondary syphilis b. Fungal infection
d. Tertiary syphilis c. Protozoal infection
d. Spirocheteal infection
406. Internal resorption is a uncommon 412. Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate 2.5mg
condition in which dentin is resorbed pelletes allowed to dissolve in mouth
within the pulp this is also called 3 times a day is a treatment to
a. Pink tooth a. Herpetic ulcer
b. Cafe-au-lait spot b. Traumatic ulcer
c. Koplik’s spot c. Reccurent apthous ulcer
d. Melanotic spot d. Pemphigus ulcer

407. Premature loss of deciduous tooth 413. Glossitis with angular stomatitis
especially in incisors is a is characteristic of
manifestation of a. Thiamine deficiency
a. Hypocalcemia b. Riboflavin deficiency
b. Hypothyroidism c. Ascorbic acid deficiency
c. Hypoadrenalism d. Retenoids
d. Hypophosphatasia

413. Glossitis with angular stomatitis 419. Radiotherapy is carried by implantation

is characteristic of of radioactive material in and around
a. Thiamine deficiency oral cancer is called
b. Riboflavin deficiency a. Teletherapy
c. Ascorbic acid deficiency b. Radiation therapy
d. Retenoids c. Brachy therapy
 d. Radiotherapy
414. Amyloidosis causes 420. Oral cancer treatment by exposure
a. Microglossia of beams of xray from xray generator
b. Aglossia or radioactive isotope is called
c. Ankyloglossia a. Teletherapy
d. Macroglossia b. Radiotherapy
c. Radiation therapy
d. Brachytherapy
415. White patch can be caused in oral 421. One the following drugs causes
mucosa due toirritation of sharp xerostomia
tooth a. Fluconazole
a. Leukoplakia b. Atropine
b. Linea alba c. Ciplofloxicin
c. Frictional keratosis d. Paracetamol
d. Lichen planus

416. The leukoplakia frequently shows
dysplasia
a. Homogenous leukoplakia
b. Pre leukoplakia
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Idiopathic leukoplakia
c. Parotid stone
d. Sialolithiasis
417. White lesion of the floor of the
mouth and ventral tongue with
wrinkled appearances
a. Sublingual leukoplakia
b. Homogenous leukoplakia
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Sublingual keratosis
422. Sialogram shows the typical snow
strom appearance of blobs of
contrast media that have leaked
from the duct system in
a. Sjogren syndrome
b. Sialometaplasia
423. Osteogenesis imperfect is a disease
in which defect of biosynthesis of
type 1 collagen causes
a. Osteoblast failure to form bone
b. Osteoblast fail to resorb the bone
c. Failure of calcification
d. Cartilage formation is affected

418. Cervicofacial lymphadenopathy is 424. Failure of normal proliferation of

particularly common in cartilage in epiphysis and base of the
a. Tuberculosis skull is
b. Sickle cell anemia a. Cleidocranial dystosis
c. Agranulocytosis b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Thrombocytopenia c. Achondroplasia
d. Ricket

425. In one of the following condition 429. Clinically symmetrical swelling occurs
delayed eruption of permanent teeth in the angle of the mandible and in
or embedding of permanent teeth severe cases in maxilla producing
occurs in jaw fullness of the cheek causing eye to
a. Hyperthyroidism appear turned upwards the condition is
b. Cleido-cranial dystosis a. Maxillary tumor
c. Achondroplasia b. Leontiasis ossea
d. Cherubism c. Paget’s disease
d. Cherubism
426. Broadening of growing ends of 430. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is due to
bone,skull with wide fontanelles a. Adenoma of parathyroid
with frontal bossing,defective b. Hyperplasia of parathyroid
calcification of teeth are clinical c. Stimulation of parathyroid by pituitary
findings in d. Chronic renal failure
a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia 431. Sexual precosity,pigmentation of skin
c. Achondroplasia polyostotic fibrous dysplasia is
d. Myxedema a. Albright syndrome
b. Melkerson-rosenthal syndrome
427. Elevation of plasma calcium,reduction c. Addison’s disease
of phosphorus level with increase of d. Gardner’s syndrome
plasma alkaline phosphate occurs in
a. Rickets 432. Successful treatment of keratotic
b. Hypeparathyroidism flecks in leukoplakia is being carried
c. Hyperpitutarism out with
d. Osteomalacia a. Retenoids
b. Thiamine and riboflavin
c. Vit B 12
d. Folic acid
428. Symmetrical enlargement of maxilla 433. A peculiar form of glossitis in which
with great deepening and broadening tongue becomes magenta coloured
of alveolar process,with biochemical and granular in appearance due to
elevation of alkaline phosphatase flattening of papilla.This occurs in
occurs in a. Nicotine amide deficiency
a. Fibrous dysplsia b. Vit B 12 deficiency
b. Paget’s disease c. Folic acid deficiency
c. Caffe’s disease d. Riboflavin deficiency
d. Osteopetrosis

434. The tip and lateral margin of tongue 440. Dyskeratosis congenita is a rare
become red ,swollen and ulcerative heritable recessive or dominant trait
with stomatitis in with white lesion in the oral mucosa
a. Nicotinamide deficiency that shows microscopically
b. Vit B12 deficiency
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. Riboflavin deficiency
435. Swollen bleeding gums and delayed
wound healing with purpuric spots in
oral mucosa and skin are features of
a. Vit A deficiency
b. Vit B complex deficiency
c. Vit C deficiency
d. Vit D deficiency
436. Dental erosion and parotid
swelling sialadenosis may occur in
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Alcholism
c. Acid mouth wash
d. Anorexia and bullemia
437. Sharply circumscribed lesion in skin
recurring intha same site each
time when a drug is taken in
a. Stomatitis medicamentosa
b. Stomatitis venenata
c. Fixed drug eruption
d. Allergic dermatitis
438. Drugs that produce antimuscuranic
Action such as tricyclic
antidepressant causes
a. Allergic stomatitis
b. Ptyalism
c. Dry mouth
d. Ulceration in oral mucosa
439. Patient with anticoagulant therapy
will have
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Hypotension
c. Ulceration in mouth
d. Risk of post operative bleeding
d. Epithelial polyp
446. Clinically a white spiky or
cauliflower like surface in
oral mucosa is suggestive of
a. Hypertrophyof epithelium
b. Metaplasia of epithelium
c. Hyperplasia of epithelium
d. Dysplasia of epithelium
441. The habit of snuff dipping or tobacco
chewing in the labial and buccal mucosa
gives rise to
a. Burning sensation
b. Ulceration
c. Keratosis
d. Hyperplastic growth
442. The typical sequelae to syphilitic
Leukoplakia is the development of
a. Chancre
b. Snail tract ulcer
c. Gumma
d. Carcinoma
443. Verrucous carcinoma in oral mucosa
is slow growing
a. Spreads deeply to the tissues
b. Spreads as an exophytic growth
c. Spreads laterally
d. In any direction
444. The development of giant cell epulis
may be related to
a. Eruption of permanent tooth
b. Eruption of deciduous tooth
c. Resorption of deciduous tooth
d. Irritation of osteoblasts
445. Red speckled strawberry gums
associated with respiratory,renal
signs are called
a. Uremic stomatitis
b. Pyostomatitis vegetans
c. Wegner’s granulamtosus
452. Most frequent malignant tumor
in AIDS is
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
a. Irritation fibroma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Speckled leukoplakia b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma and Kaposi sarcoma
c. Veruccous carcinoma c. kaposi sarcoma
d. Papilloma d. kaposi sarcoma and non- Hodgkins
lymphoma
447. Extra nodal lymphoma associated 453. The Rheumatoid arthritis
with EBV virus is associated with
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma a. Scleroderma
b. Non hodgkins lymophoma b. Granulomatous lesion
c. Burkit lymphoma c. Sjogren’s syndrome
d. Malignant lymphoma d. SLE

448. Fall in number of circulating neutophils 454. Palmar plantar keratosis is

at regular intervals of 3 to 4 weeks associated with
with oral ulceration is a. Trecher collin’s syndrome
a. Leukopenia b. Scleroderma
b. Chronic leukemia c. Papillon levefere syndrome
c. Cyclic neutropenia d. Chronic dermatosis
d. Drug induced leucopenia

449. Purpura is a clinical sign of 455. In general examination abnormal

a. Platelet disorder and relatively, Nail kolionychia suggest
rarely vascular defect a. Raynauds phenomenon
b. Platelet disorder b. Long standing anemia
c. Bleeding disorder c. Skin disorders
d. Coagulation dirsorder d. Cardiac condition

450. Haemophilia is the most common 456. Clinical test to distinguish benign
and severe clotting disorder and from malignant neoplasm can be
heamophilia is due to done with
a. Clotting fctor VIIdeficiency a. Biopsy
b. Clotting factor VIII def. b. Patch test of skin
c. Clotting factor IX def. c. FNA biopsy
d. Clotting factor X def. d. Dermal scrapping

451. Dental extraction can be carried 457. In blood examination serum alkaline
out safely to the patents with phosphatase is lowered in
anticoagulant therapy a. Hyperparathyroidism
a. An INR 1-2 b. Paget’s disease
b. An INR 2-3 c. Hypophosphatasia
c. An INR 3-4 d. Osteogenesis imperfeca
d. An INR 4-5
458. Dental flurosis will develop 463. Low grade chronic periapical or
to those individuals who consume perifollicular infection causes
a. High fluoride water during development
of teeth
b. High fluoride water after 20yrs
c. High fluoride water after 25yrs
d. High fluoride water after 30yrs
d. Alveolar osteitis
459. In dental fluorosis if the enamel is
grossly defective,opaque,pitted and
brown stained- the grade of this
condition is
a. very mild
b. mild
c. moderate
d. severe
460. Persistance skin sinus extraorally
in the midline of the lower border
of the mandible associated with
lower incisor rendered non vital is
a. Chronic periapical infection
with extraoral sinus
b. Acute periapical infection
with extraoral sinus
c. Periapical granuloma
with exrteraoral sinus
d. Periapical cemental dysplasia
with extraoral sinus
c. Spreads to other parts
d. Parasoxysmal and very severe
461. Crater shaped punched out ulcer
formed initially at the tip of the
interdental papilla is the sing of
a. Mixed infection of the gingival
b. ANUG
c. Gangrenous stomatitis
d. HIV gingivitis
462. The treatment of hyperbaric oxygen
in osteomyelitis of jaw is mainly of value in
a. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
b. Tuberculous osteomyelitis
c. Osteoradionecrosis
d. Phossy jaw
reactive subperiosteal new bone
formation in young individual
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Garre’s osteomyelitis
c. Chronic specific osteomyelitis
464. One of the following carcinoma
can matasize in the jaw bone
a. Bronchogenic carcinoma
b. Gastric carcinoma
c. Pancreatic carcinoma
d. Carcinoma of the bladder
465. Middle third of face is retrusive
in one bone disorder and this is due
to the deficient growth of skull bone
this disorder is
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis
b. Treacher-collin syndrome
c. Achondroplasia
d. Hypoplasia of the base of the skull
466. Pain in the trigeminal neuralgia is
a. Throbbing and lancinating
b. Killing and pricking
467. Clinically in cervicofacial region
if a firm sweliing with a group
of matted nodes is found is
a. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Tuberculous lymph nodes
c. Leukemic node
d. Syphilitic node
468. Widespread and persistant 473. Macroglossia and fissuring of tongue
lymphadenopathy including occurs in
cervicofacial lymph node is a. Cretinism
a feature of b. Heamangioma
a. Leukemia c. Myxedema
b. Syphilis d. Down’s syndrome
c. Cat-scartch disease
d. AIDS

469. Blowing the nose may force air 474. In myocardial infarction pain may
into the mouth or causes frothing be referred to
of blood from socket is a clinical a. Left maxillary region
finding of b. Left mandibular region
a. Maxillary sinusitis c. Left submental region
b. Allergic sinusitis d. Right and left mandibular region
c. Root or tooth displacement into the antrum
d. Oronasal fistula

470. Dental implication of drug nifedipine 475. Pain is localized in migranous nueralgia
use is a. Frontal region of skull
a. Stomatitis b. Orbit and temple
b. Bad taste c. Preauricular area
c. Gingival hyperplasia d. One side of face
d. Gingival desquamation

471. The virus that gives chief risk to 476. Prolonged anesthesia and paresthesia
dental personnel and can be readily of lip caused due to
transmitted during dentistry is a. Injury to lip
a. Hepatitis B b. Growth in lip
b. Hepatiis D c. Injury to nerve by inferior dental block
c. Herpes d. Injury to mental nerve
d. HBV

472. Oral changes in Down’s syndrome
a. Mandibular retrusion,unerupted
teeth,wide palatal arch
b. Maxillary protrusion with spacing in teeth
c. Crowding of teeth with cleft
d. Underdeveloped maxilla,protrusive
mandible,class III malocclusion,anterior open bite
477. Bell’s palsy is the common cause
of facial paralysis due to
a. Cerebral tumor
b. Trauma to the base of skull
c. Compression of the facial nerve
d. Injury to the nerve due to malignant tumor
478. The mandible is enlarged due to 484. Gangrenous infection outward
elongated ramus and increased from the mouth causing
obliqueity of the angle in extensive facial destruction occurs in
patient of 24 yrs old in a. Mucormycosis
a. Condylar hyperplasia b. Pyogenic osteomyelitis
b. Mandibular prognathism c. Gangrenous osteomyelitis
c. Cherubism d. Cancrum oris
d. Acromegaly

479. Von willebrand’s disease is characterized 485. Cyst develop from non odontogenic
by epithelial along the mid palatine
a. Oral bleeding with prolonged bleeding time raphe measuring few mm in diameter in
b. Deficiency in cioagulant factorVIII a. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Normal coagulation time b. Epstein pearl
d. Prolonged bleeding time and deficiency c. Epithelial pearl
of factor VIII d. Mid palatine cyst

480. Multiple keratocysts of jaw occurs in 486. Rheumatoid arthritis of TMJ is

a. Ameloblastoma a. Inflammatory disease
b. Osteitis fibrosa cystica b. Degenrative disease
c. Gorlin- goltz syndrome c. Autoimmune disease
d. Eosinophilia d. Immunological disease

481.Dermoid cyst develops 487. Reccerent apthous ulcer measures

a. In the midline of the mandible a. 1cm
b. In the tongue b. Less than 1cm
c. Posterior part of the palate c. 1-2mm
d. Immediately beneath the tongue d. 5mm

482. Pemphigus vulgaris will have 488. Dilated tortuous veins may be
good response to prolonged seen along the ventral surface
treatment of of the tongue is called
a. Antibiotic a. Heamangioma
b. Antiallergic b. Angiomatous lesion
c. Immunosuppressive drugs c. Mild aneurysm
d. Gold therapy d. Lingual varicosities

483. One of the following diseases 489. White patch that can be caused by
cause ptyalism prolonged irritation of sharp tooth is
a. Myasthenia gravis a. Frictional keratosis
b. Cerebral palsy b. Cheek bite
c. Parkinsons disease c. Leukoplakia
d. Bell’s palsy d. Chronic non healing ulcer
490. Necrotising sialometaplasia is a
tumor like lesion that mainly affects
a. Parotid gland
b. Sub mandibular gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Minor salivary glands
c. Speckled leukoplakia
d. Verrucous carcinoma
491. Long term tobacco chewing habit
gives rise to change in buccal mucosa as
a. Extensive white thickening and wrinkling
b. Erythema and mild ulceration
c. Discolouration of mucosa with gray colour
d. Mild leukoplakia
492. Important side effects of long
term use of corticosteroids
a. Bacterial infection
b. Fungal infection
c. Opportunistic infection
d. Viral infection
493. Crops of 1-5 ulcers on non-keratinizing
mucosa heals in 7-10days
a. Erythema multiforme
b. Minor aphthae
c. Herpes zoster
d. Herpes ulcer
494. Leukoplakia like plaque have soft,
corrugated surface with symmetric
distribution is seen in mouth
a. psedomembraneous candidiasis
b. white spongy naevus
c. long standing renal failure
d. lichen planus
495. White lesion consists of white
flecks of fine nodules on
a. Atrophic erythematous base
b. Psedomembraneous candidiasis
c. Candidial leukoplakia
d. Speckled leukoplakia
496. The clinical lesion in the oral mucosa
a characteristic white warty appearance
forming well circumscribed mass,
raised along the mucosa
a. Papilloma
b. Wart
497. Residual cyst is
a. A cyst in the residual infected portion
b. A persistant radicular cyst
c. Cyst left in the bone after enucleation
d. Cyst in the apex of tooth
498. Parotid sarcoidosis and facial paralysis
Are clinical features of
a. Ramsay hunt syndrome
b. Melkerson rosanthal syndrome
c. Frey’s syndrome
d. Heerfords syndrome
499. Clinically the presence of multiple
osteomas in mandible occur in
a. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
b. Multiple exostosis
c. Gardners syndrome
d. Multiple myeloma
500. A soft rounded bluish swelling
over a tooth abort to erupt is
a. Mucocele
b. Pigemented swelling
c. Hemangioma
d. Eruption cyst
501. Vesiculobullous lesions of oral mucosa
resembling pemphigus vulgaris but
with intra cellular IgA is
a. Para neoplastic pemphigus
b. Pemphigus vegetans
c. IgA pemphigus
 d. Mucous membrane pemphigus

RADIOLOGY
1. Radiation is 6. The sudden stopping or slowing of high
a. Heavy heat speed electrons by tungsten nuclei in
b. Light the target produces
c. A form of breeze a. Bremsstrahlung radiation
d. Energy b. Characteristic radiation
c. Primary radiation
d. Secondary radiation
2. Electromagnetic radiation is 7. The quantity of radiation produced
the movement of energy by an xray tube is called
through space with a. KVp
a. Electric field b. mA
b. Magnetic field c. half value
c. Both a and b d. Gy
d. Electrically charged particles

3.X ray machine has 8. Collimator is a metallic barrier

a. X ray tube which is used to
b. Supporting arm a. Increase the size of x ray beam
c. Control panel b. To regulate the size of x ray beam
d. All the above c. To regulate the amount of irradiation to the
tissues
d. To determine the quality of radiation
4. X ray tube is composed of 9. Beam attenuation is obtained in
a. A cathode dental x-ray beam by
b. An anode a. Coherent scattering
c. cathode & anode in an b. Photoelectric absorption
evacuated glasstube c. Compton scattering
d. A mere vacuum chamber d. All of the above

5. A tungsten target in xray tube 10. Study of the effects of ionizing

is present in radiation on living tissue is
a. Anode a. Radiochemistry
b. Cathode b. Radiobiochemistry
c. Both a and b c. Radiophysics
d. Tube window d. Radiobiology

11. The effect of radiation on oral 16. Radiation causes cancer by

 mucous membrane is a. Modifying the cell structure
a. Mucosal growth b. Modifying the cytoplasm content
b. Mucosal burning c. Modifying the DNA
c. Mucosal bleeding d. Modifying the RNA
d. Mucositis

12. Effect of radiation on 17. The philosophy of radiation

salivary gland is protection is often reffered to as
a. Drooling of saliva a. Principle of justification
b. Hyposalivation b. Principle of optimization
c. Hypersalivation c. Principle of dose limitation
d. Irregular salivation d. Principle of ALARA

13. Patient receiving radiation 18. Operating potential of dental xray

therapy to oral structures have machine must range between
increased in a. 30-50 kilovoltage peak
a. Streptococcus mutans b. 50-100 kilovoltage peak
b. Strep. pyogenes c. 60-80- kilovoltage peak
c. Strep.viridans d. 10-30 kilovoltage peak
d. Staphylococcus

14. Osteoradionecrosis occurs 19. Leaded glass window is used for

in osteomyelitis due to protection from radiation to
a. Action of microbes in normal bone a. Patients
b. Decreased vascularity in the bone b. Attenders
following which infection occurs c. Nurses
c. Toxins of organisms causing necrosis d. Operators
d. Blood supply is cut off due to thrombosis

15. Radiation effect on muscle is 20. Film badges are used

a. Destruction of muscle a. To prevent radiation hazards
b. Inflammation and fibrosis b. To identify the staff of radiology department
c. Atrophy of muscles c. To record the occupational exposure
d. Hypertrophy of muscles d. To reduce radiation effect on operator

21. A conventional radiograph is 26.The x-ray film has

a. A two dimensional projection image a. Emulsion
b. Single dimensional projectional image b. Base
c. 3 dimensional projection image c. Emulsion and base
d. Only lateral dimension projection d. Plastic
22. In bisecting angle technique of 27. Dot in the corner of each dental x-ray film
intra oral Radiograph the film is
placed as close as to the teeth but a. Handling dot
a. It is parallel to the long axis of the tooth b. Developing dot
b. It is not parallel to the long axis of the tooth c. Identification dot
c. It is perpendicular to long axis of the tooth d. Holding dot
d. The film is from incisal edge to cervical edge 28. Bitewing view of intra oral radiograph
and not parallel to the long axis of the tooth. is used to record the
a. Bite and occlusion
23. In bisecting angle technique after keeping the b. Coronal portion maxillary teeth
intra oral radiograph the central ray is passed c. Coronal portion of mandibular teeth
a. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth d. Coronal portion of maxillary and
b. Parallel to the long axis of the film mandibular teeth
c. Perpendicular to the film
d. Perpendicular to an imaginary plane that bisects 29. Screen films are used to take
the angle between the teeth and the film radiograph of
a. Panaromic view
24. In paralleling technique of intra oral b. Cephalometric view
radiograph film is placed c. Skull view
a. Parallel to the imaginary line from angle d. All of the above
of film and tooth
b. Parallel to long axis of tooth 30. Intensifying screens are not used in
c. Away from long axis of tooth a. PA view skull radiograph
d. Perpendicular to long axis of tooth b. AP view skull radiograph
c. Occlusal view
d. Panaromic view
25. Tube shift technique is used to identify 31. Processing an exposed xray film causes it
a. Spatial position of the object to become dark in the
b. Superior position of the object a. Whole area
c. Inferior position of the object in localization b. Exposed area
d. Anterior position of object in localization c. Unexposed area
d. Area of soft tissue

32.Radiograhic contrast is a general term 37. The primary function of fixing solution is
that describes a. To brighten the images
a. Specificty of radiograph b. To dissolve silver halide crystals
b. Densities on radiograph c. To dissolve and remove the under
c. Darker and lighter area develop silver halide crystals from the
d. Only lighter area emulsion
d. To dissolve the emulsion
33. Using intensifying screen in 38. In sufficient contrast of the radiograph is
extraoral radiograph has due to
a. Beneficial effect of image a. Under developed film
b. Adverse effect of image b. Over developed film
c. Dimnished effect of image c. Over exposure
d. Excess effect of image d. Less KVp

34. A grid is composed of 39.Blurring of radiograph is due to

a. Strips of radioopaque material a. Double exposure
b. Strips of radiolucent material b. Less exposure
c. Pure plastics c. More exposure
d. Alternating strips of radio opaque and d. Prolonged exposure
radiolucent material

35. Film processing 40. Digital imaging

a. Helps to form latent image
b. Chemically changes photosensitive
silver halide solids
c. Converts the latent image into
one that can be visualized
d. All of the above
a. Helps quick radiographic processing
b. Give clear landmarks
c. Eliminates chemical processing
d. Is less expensive

36. Primary function of developing 41. Crowns of teeth and adjacent

solution is
a. To make the film radiopaaque
b. To get images
c. To wash out all silver halide salts
d. To convert exposed silver halide crystals
into metallic silver grains
alveolar crest are seen in
a. Extra oral radiograph
b. Intra oral radiograph
c. Bite wing radiograph
d. Panaromic radiograph

42. Full length of root with 2mm 47. The width of the PDL in radiograph
periapical bone must be seen in varies from
a. Periapical radiograph a. Patient to patient
b. Bitewing radiograph b. Tooth to tooth
c. Occlusal view radiograph c. Location to location
d. Topographic occlusal view radiograph d. All the above

43. Parameter influencing density 48. Inter maxillary suture in intra oral
and contrast of radiograph Radiograph may terminate at the
a. mA alveolar crest as
b. KVp a. Y shaped widening
c. Exposure time b. Oval widening
d. All the above c. V shaped widening
d. As straight line
44. Most appropriate technique for 49. In the periapical radiograph an
digital imaging is a ovoid radiolucency between
a. Short cone technique
b. Paralleling technique
c. Bisecting angle technique
d. All the above
d. Lower end of the nasal cavity
45. The lamina dura is wider and
more dense in heavy occlusion
a. In cervical part of the root
b. In middle third of the root
c. Around the roots of the teeth
d. In the apical third of the root
46. Alveolar crest in the posterior
region in intra oral radiograph appears
a. Horizontal
b. Angular
c. Vertical
d. Flat
d. Maxillary premolars and molars
52. Mental foramen in intra oral
radiograph appears as an
oval radiolucency near
a. Apex of 1st premolar
b. Apex of 2nd premolar
c. Between the apex of 1st and 2nd
premolar
d. Between canine and 1st premolar
53. Panaromic imaging is beneficial
Because
a. Covers the maxillary and mandibular
dental arches
b. Broad coverage of facial bone and teeth
c. Low patient radiation dose
d. All the above
54. Distortion in the panaromic radiograph
can be avoided by
a. Moving tube slowly
b. Reducing the radiation
the roots of central incisor is
a. Nasopalatine canal
b. Incisive foramen
c. Periapical abscess
50. Naso lacrimal canal is commonly seen
as ovoid radiolucency in
a. IOPA of upper third molars
b. Bitewing radiograph
c. Mandibular occlusal projection
d. Maxillary occlusal projection
51. In the IOPA ,the inferior border of
maxillary sinus appears as a thin
radioopaque line near the apices of
a. Maxillary premolars
b. Maxillary molars
c. Maxillary third molars
57. For lateral cephalometric radiograph
the patient placement should be
a. Film parallel to canthomeatal line
b. Film parallel to mid sagittal plane
c. Film in contact with cheek
d. Film perpendicular to mid sagittal plane
58. Submento vertex radiograph should
be taken with image receptor
a. Is positioned parallel to patient transverse
plane and perpendicular to mid saggital
plane
b. Perpendicular to patients transverse plane
c. Parallel to mid saggital line
d. Parallel to coronal plane
59. The most superior point of external
auditory canal is
a. Sella
b. Basion
c. Chin and occlusal rest must be c. Porion
properly positioned d. Pogonion
d. Head should be positioned

55. Intensifying screen are repeatedly used 60. The most anterior point of symphysis is
in panaromic radiographs because a. Gnathion
a. They give clear pictures b. Menton
b. They reduce the time of exposure c. Gonion
c. They reduce the amount of radiation d. Pogonion
d. They give proper density

56. Cephalometric and skull view requires 61. Fronto nasal suture is
the image receptor atleast a. Nasion
a. 6 X 8’’ b. Basion
b. 8 X 10’’ c. Gorion
c. 10 X 15’’ d. PNS
d. 13 X 18’’

62. Menton is 67. The most radio opaque structure is

a. Mental foramen region a.bone
b. Mandibular canal region b.cementum
c. Most inferior part of symphysis menti c.dentin
d. Midline of the manible d.enamel

63. For Waters position of skull
radiograph image receptor is placed
a. In front of the patient and perpendicular
to mid saggital plane
b. In back of the patient and perpendicular
to mid saggital plane
c. Film as to be kept touching the nose
d. Film is placed in front of the patient
and opening of the mouth
a.amount of bone loss in furcation
64. Conventional dental radiograph
produces images in two dimensions
usually
a. In mesio distal direction
b. In bucco lingual direction
c. In labio lingual direction
d. In mesio occlusal distal direction
b.around middle portion of root
65. The first step in image analysis is
a. To identify whether image is good or not
68. Widening of periodontal space with
intact lamina dura occurs in
a.hperparathyroidsm
b.orthodontic treatment
c.malignant lesion
d.benign lesion
69. Radiographs are specially helpful in the
evaluation of periodontal condition
b.new bone formation
c.cemental dysplasia in apical bone
d. root resorption
70. In radiograph the periodontal space is
slightly wider in
a.around cervical portion
c.around the apical portion
d.around interradicular portion
b. Identify the side of the image
c. Identiy all the normal anatomy
present in the image
d. Identify radiolucent and radiooapaque
areas
B.initial periodontal disease
66. A radioopaque mass associated
with the root of the teeth with
prominent radiolucent periphery is
a.hypercementosis
b.cemental dysplasia
c.osteoma
d.beningn cementolastoma
72.Radiographic appearance of bone
loss in localized aggressive
periodontitis consist of
a.horizontal defect
b.deep vertical defect
c.superficial vertical defect
d. all of the above
73. In radiograph if a tooth appears
larger than normal it suggest
a. taurodontism
b.odontome
c.dilated odontome
d.macrodontia
d. sclerosing osteitis
74. The radiographic appearance of
radioopaque inverted tear drop
outline in angular area is
a.talon cusp
b.evaginaton
c.dens invagination
d.enamel pearl
75.Intraoral radiograph shows bulbous
crown, short root,obliteration of
pulp chamber and root canal in
a.amelogenesis imperfect
b.dentinogenesis imperfect
c.odontogensis imperfect
d.odonto dysplasia
71. Loss of cortical density and roundening
of junction of alveolar crest and
lamina dura suggest
a.widening of interproximal
c.initial caries
d.pocket formation
77.Radioopaque structure within the pulp
a. pulp polyp
b.pulp growth
c.pulp stone
d.foreign body
78. Bone formation emanating from the
floor of maxillary antrum that arise
from apical inflammation is
a. condensing osteitis
b. rarefying osteitis
c. periosteitis
79. A well defined radiolucency surrounded
by radioopaque line in apical end
of non vital tooth
a.periapical abcess
b.periapical granuloma
c.periapical cyst
d.periapical rarefraction
80.Radioopaque line in the periapical cyst is
a.epithilial lining of cyst
b.destruction of bone
c.condensation of bone
d.cortical border
81. A radiolucent area in to which the
 Crown of tooth projects is
76.Localised radiolucent round or a.odontogenic tumor
oval elongation in the pulp b.tooth in carcinoma
of crown and root is c.odontoma
a. dental caries d.dentigerous cyst
b.fractured tooth with destruction
c.internal resorption
d.pulp stones

82. Radioopaque mass in the 87. Ground glass appearance of bone in

lingual aspect of premolar radiograph occurs in
region in mandible is a.ossifying fibroma
a.osteoma b.fibrous dysplasia
b.torus mandibularis c.hyperostosis of bone
c.enostosis d.early osteomyelitic change
d.ossifying fibroma

83. Radioopaque lesion consists 88. Multiple radioopaque masses in the

of tooth like structure are seen in mandible with cotton wool appearance
a.odontome is seen in
b.complex compound odontome a.paget’s disease
c.compound composite odontome b.osteopetrosis
d.odontogenic tumor c.fibrous dysplasia
d.cementoblastoma
84. Radioopaque lesion consists of 89. Intraoral radiograph shows in multiple
irregular mass of tooth structure in area loss of lamina dura occurs in
a.compound odontome a.hyperparathyroidsm
b.calcifying odontome b.hypoparathyroidism
c.calcifying tumor c.hypoadrenalism
d.complex odontome d.hyperadrenalism

85. Radiographically a very defined 90. Excessive growth of mandibular bone

uniformly radioopaque lesion with prognathism occurs in 29yr old male
containing bone trabaculae in
with well defind border a. Acromegaly
a.osteoma b. Gigantism
b.osteofibroma c. Paget’s disesase
c.ossifying fibroma d. Fibrous dysplasia
d.osteoid osteoma

86. Multifocal area of bone destruction 91. Radiographic appearance of bone in

And widening of portion of periodontal cushing’s syndrome
Ligament space characteristic of a.widening of trabaculae
Infiltration into mandible is seen in b.loss of lamina dura
a.metastatic carcinoma
b.leukemia
c.tumor infiltration from oral mucosa
d.lymphoma
92. Radiographically the bone in
osteopetrosis shows
a. increased density
b. decreased density
c. increased deformity
d. decreased deformity
93. Radiograph of patient shows
thickened diploic space and
thinning of skull cortex in
a.sickle cell anemia
b.aplastic anemia
c.thalassemia
d.cooley’s anemia
94. Skull radiograph of patient
shows granular appearance
and thickening of diploic space in
a.sickle cell anemia
b.thalassemia
c.aplastic anemia
d.haemolytic anemia
95. Visualization of TMJ in various
planes can be seen better in
a. Lateral oblique view radiograph
b. AP view skull radiograph
c. Occipitomental view
d. Transpharyngeal view
96. The imaging technique of choice for
soft tissue of TM joint in
a. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. Arthrography
c. CT scan
d. Angiography
102. X-rays are produced
c.generalised osteoporosis
d.granular appearance of bone
97. Transcranial projection of radiograph
is indicated
a.to see lateral part of cranium
b.identify the cranial extension of facial lesion
c.to visualize mastoid and auricle
d.to study TMJ
98. The radiographic projection to study
view of skull base and condyle in
a.lateral skull cephalometry
b.occipitomental view
c.submentovertex
d.town’s projection
99. For radioopaque band parelleling the
contour of the maxillary antral floor
in intraoral radiograph is
a.chronic maxillary sinusitis
b.growth in maxillary sinus
c.bony exostosis of floor
d.thickening of sinus mucosa
100. Radiographic finding of reduction
in size of mandible occurs in
a. hemifacial microsomia
b. hemi hypertrophy of face
c. hemi condylar fracture
d. hemi ankylosis of jaw
101. radiography is
a. Film showing an image
b. Use of radiation
c. The technique involved in producing
radiographic image using ionosing radiation
d. A diagram drawn with a radiogram
107. Assessment of presence and
a. by coverting the cathode rays to anode position of unerupted tooth by
b. when current is passed against tungsten a. bitewing radiograph
c. when high speed electrons bombard a target b. lateral skull radiograph
material and are brought suddenly to rest c. periapical radiograph
d. cathode rays are converted in a vaccum tube d. PNS view

103. Oil in the x-ray tube helps
a. to hold the internal apparatus
b. to help to pass the radiation
c. facilitate the removal of the heat
d. gives cooling effect to the tube
d. 3.5x7cm
104. Radiation exposure to the unborn
child causes
a.congenital abnormality
b.breathing trouble
c.blood cell destruction
d.organ function affected
d.lateral oblique
105. Aluminium filteration in a
x-ray tube helps
a. to minimize leakage of unwanted
x-rays
b. to facilitate the heat removal
c. to remove harmful low energy
soft x-rays
d. helps to direct x-ray beam
a. sub mento vertex
106. Screen film is
a.wrapped or packet film
b.film with intensifying screen
c.film with direct action
d.film coated on both side
108. Film packet of occlusal radiograph is
measuring
a. 2x6 cm
b. 5.7x7.6cm
c. 6x4cm
109. The film and the saggital plane of the
patient are held parallel and the
x-ray film is perpendicular in
a.true lateral positioning
b.oblique lateral positioning
c.bimolar
110. Standard occipitomental view radiograph
is indicated in
a.investigation of maxillary antrum
b.leforte I,II , III fracture
c.coronoid process fracture
d.all of the above
111. Fracture zygomatic arch can be diagnosed
b.occipitomental view
c.lateral oblique skull view
d.cephalometric

112. Radiographs showing only a section 117.Radiograhic contrast studies for joint is
or slice of a patient is a.arthroscopy
a.tomography b.arthroradiography
b.panaromic radiograph c.arthrography
c.sections of panaromic radiograph d.arthroangiography
d. CT scan
113. The ability of the film to define an 118. Angiograph is a contrast study of
edge is called radiograph to
a.contrast a.vessels
b.sharpness b.blood vessels
c.image quality c.lymphatics
d.image geometry d.all of the above

114. Overdevelopment of x-ray film 119.Radioactive isotopes used for thyroid

is due to a.technitium 99m
a.excessive time in the developer b.gallium
solution c.iodine 123
b.developer solution is too hot d.krypton
c. developer solution is too
concentrated 120. Radiographic film is replaced by
d.all of the above very sensitive crystal or gas detectors in
a.conventional tomography
115. If the developer solution is too b.computerised tomography
cold and dilute it causes c.MRI
a.underdevelopment d.bone scan
b.overdevelopment
c.foggy film 121. The most common form of personal
d.overexposure monitoring device currently in use is
a.Thyroid collar
116. Poor stock control and film used after b. Ionization bleeper
expiry date causes c. Dosemeter
a. darkness of film d. T.L.D film badge
b. haziness in the film
c. dots in the film
d. fogging of the film

122. Monitoring the progression of dental
caries can be done
a. periapical radiograph
b. occlusal view radiograph
c. children’s radiograph
d. bitewing radiograph
c. parelleing technique
123.Large intraoral film packet for
adult measures
a. 31x41mm
b. 22x35mm
127. Technique very comfortable for the
patient particularly for radiographing
posterior teeth in whom gag reflex
is present is
a. bitewing technique
b. bisecting angle technique
d. occlusal view
128. Coning off or cone cutting may result
if the central ray is not aimed at the
c. 25x40mm center of the film in
d. 50x25mm a.occlusal view technique
b.bitewing technique
124. The radiograph to ascess the c.bisecting technique
relation of the teeth to the d.parelleing technique
jaws and the jaws to the
rest of the facial skeleton is 129. Assesment of a condition of the
a.OPG antral floor can be made with
b.cephalometric radiograph a.upper oblique occlusal radiograph
c.bitewing radiograph b.skull radiograph-water’s view
d.PA view skull radiograph c.paranasal sinus view
d.OPG
125. The most anterior point of the 130. Radiographic technique for TMJ
alveolar crest in the premaxilla a.transcranial
usually between the upper b.transpharangeal
central incisor c.transorbital
a. prosthion d.all the above
b. nasion
c. pogonion 131. Hydroquinone in developing solution
d. none of the above functions as
a. restrainer
126. All the teeth and their supporting b. Reduce silver halide to metallic silver
structures are shown on one film in c. activator
a.skull radiograph d. preservative
b.full mouth radiograph
c.cepalometric radiograph
d.OPG

132. Aluminium chloride fuctions as 137. Diffuse,radioopacity in the apex

a. harderner of chronic low grade inflammation
b. preservative a.periapical granuloma
c. acidifier b.periapical cementoma
d. solvent c.sclerosing osteitis
d.hypercementosis
133.The radiograph of choice for 138. Radiographically moth eaten
preoperative evaluation of appearance is seen in
skeletal and soft tissue patterns is a. chronic gingivitis
a. lateral view skull radiograph b. Osteomyelitis
b. cephalometric radiograph c. moderate periodontitis
c. OPG d. interproximal food impaction
d. occlusal view radiograph

134. The technique that generate image 139. Well defined periapical radiolucency with
from non-ionizing radiation is the loss of lamina dura and periodontal
a.digital radiograph
b.ultrasound
c.CT scan
d. all the above
d.periapical granuloma
135. Circumscribed well defined
radiolucent area of bone at
the apex of tooth surrounded by
dense sclerotic bone is
a. chronic periapical abscess
b.periapical cyst
c.chronic periapical granuloma
d.infected cyst
with superimposed radioopaque
136. Diffused,ill defined area
of radiolucency at the apex is
a.periapical periodontitis
b.periapical abscess
c.periapical granuloma
d.periapical cyst
space is seen in
a.periapical periodontitis
b.periapical cyst
c.periapical abscess
140. Onion skin appearance occurs
in radiograph in
a.Garre’s osteomyelitis
b.Suppurative osteomyelitis
c.Sclerosing osteomyelitis
d.Radiation osteomyelitis
141.Heart shaped appearance of radiolucency
line is seen in
a.nasopalatine canal cyst
b.median alveolar cyst
c.median mandibular cyst
d.mid palatine cyst

142.Pear shaped radiolucency suggests 147. Multiple root resorption

a.dental cyst occurs in jaw tumour
b.globulomaxillary cyst a.osteoclastoma
d.nasoalveolar cyst b.metastatic carcinoma
d.incisive canal cyst c.sarcoma mandible
d.ameloblastoma
143.Rounded radiolucency at the 148. Well defined,unilocular radiolucency
apex of root with radioopaque with multiple opaque foci associated
border is seen in with unerupted tooth occurs in
a. radicular cyst a.dentigerous cyst
b.follicular cyst b.ameloblastoma
c.dental lamina cyst c.keratocyst
d.enamel organ cyst d.adenoid odontogenic tumour

144. Unilocular radiolucency suurounding 149. Soap bubble appearance of radiograph

Crown of impacted tooth is seen in
a. dentigerous cyst a.ameloblastoma
b. dental cyst b.myxoma
c. keratocyst c.haemangioma
d. radicular cyst d.all the above
145. A circumscribed smoothly 150. The jaw tumor that shows sun ray
contoured, roundened appearance in radiograph is
radiopaque mass in jaw bone is a.osteochondroma
a.exostosis b.osteoblastoma
b.enostosis c.osteosarcoma
c.dysostosis d.osteoclastoma
d.hyperostosis

146.Multilocular small radiolucency 151. Radiographic appearance may simulate

with honey comb appearance ground glass appearance in
seen in a jaw lesion is a.ossifying fibroma
a.keratocyst b.osteomyelitis
b.ameloblastoma c.fibrous dysplasia
c.fibrous dysplasia d.cemental dysplasia
d.multiple cyst

152. Bullous shape of root apex 157. The primary radiographic feature of
Separated by radiolucent space cushings syndrome is
of periodontal membrane is a.bone formation
a.cementoma b.generalized osteoporosis
b.hypercementosis c.lamina dura lost
c.cementoblastoma d.marrow space increased
d.odontoma

153. Lincoln beard appearance in 158. An increased width of the pdl

Bone scan occurs in space occurs in
a.paget’s disease a.progressive systemic sclerosis
b.ossifying fibroma b.progressive destruction of alveolar bone
c.fibrous dysplasia c.progressive destruction of pdl memberane
d.osteosarcoma d.bone loss in periodontal disease

154. Greatly increased density of 159. Skull radiography shows thickened

bone with the trabecular pattern dipolic space and thinning of cortices in
of medullary cavities are a.sickle cell anaemia
unrecognized in b.aplastic anaemia
a.multiple myeloma c.cooley’s anaemia
b.paget’s disease d.iron deficiency aneamia
c.fibrous dysplasia
d.osteopetrosis

155. Loss of lamina dura of 160. Hair on end effect of cortices

alveolar bone is seen in of skull occur in
a.hyperthyroidism a.multiple myeloma
b.hypothyroidism b.sickle cell anemia
c.hyperparathyrodism c.apalstic anemia
d.hypoparathyroidism d.thalassemia

156.In lateral skull radiograph 161. Thickened trabecular plate

significant changes in sella and enlarged marrow space occur in
turcica occur in a.cooley’s anemia
a.hyperpituitarism b.sickle cell anemia
b.hypopituitarism c.aplastic cell anemia
c.hyperthyroidism d.myeloid leukemia
d.hyperparathyroidism

162. Sudden appearance of widening of 167. Radiographic appearance of very large

periapical pdl space occurs in marrow spaces and thinning of lower
a.dental concussion border cortex occurs in
b.chronic apical periodontits a.sickle cell anemia
c.scleroderma b.thalassemia
d.acute peripapical periodontitis c.aplastic anemia
d.myeloma
163. Supernumerary teeth and multiple 168. Total opacity with in the maxillary
uneruptted are seen in the antral cavity suggest
radiograph in a.acute sinusitis
a. cleidocranial dysostosis b.bony tumour of sinus
b. crouzon’s disease c.odontoma in antrum
c. dentigerous cyst d.paget’s disease
d. osteopetrosis
169.Ivory osteoma shows in radiograph as
164. Widening of pulp chamber with a.well defined round or lobulated
radiolucency in dentin with homogenous densly opaque mass
intact enamel b. thick radioopaque mass
a.chronic hyperplastic puplitis c.radioopaque mass surrounded by
b.extensive caries radiolucency
c.taurodontism d.radioopque and radiolucent mass
d.internal resorption

165. Multiple small well defned 170.Multilocular radioluscent lesion

radiolucencies without sclerotic border, a.ameloblastoma
punched out defect occurs in skull bone b.odontogenic myxoma
a.osteitis fibrosa cystic c.aneurysmal bone cyst
b.metastatic carcinoma d.all of the above
c.malignant lymphoma
d.multiple myeloma 171.Compound odontome radiographically
appears as
166. Ewing’s sarcoma of the mandible
radiographically appears as
a. onion skin effect
b.orange peel appearance
c.moth eaten appearance
d.ground glass appearance
a.as a homogeneous radioopaque mass
b.as a radiodensity with the miniature
teeth shape surrounded by radiolucent
line
c.radiodensity with calcified mass
d.large radiolucency with opaque mass

172.Florid cemento osseous dysplasia 177.Radio opaque mass at the apex

shows radiographically as of the root with golf ball appearance is
a.radioopacities a.osteoma
b.radiolucencies b.cementoblastoma
c.radioopaque and radiolucencies c.cementifying fibroma
d.radioopacity surrounded by d.hypercementosis
radiolucent line

173.Bitewing radiograph detects 178. Standard silver halide emulsion is

a.foreign body sensitive to
b.proximal caries a. red light
c.enamel thickening b. blue light
d.restoration c. ultraviolet
d. green light

174. Radiolucent anatomical 179.Generalized skeletal bone resorption in

landmark in the mandible primary hyperparathyroidism leads to
a.mental foramen a.osteoporosis
b.lingula b.osteoplasia
c.mylohyoid line c.osteitis
d.genial tubercle d.osteopenia

175. Radiolucency with evidence 180.Decreased bone density in skull vault

of faint random internal described as pepper pot skull occurs in
trabeculations a.cooley’s anemia
a.nasopalatine cyst b.osteopetrosis
b.aneurysmal bone cyst c.sickle cell anemia
c.odontogenic keratocyst d.hyperparathyroidism
d.median palatine cyst
181.Radiographic features of skull and jaws
176.Radiolucency in early stage shows frontal bossing, grossly enlarged
then numerous scattered radio and prognathic mandible with increased
opacity an appearance of obliquity of angle in
driven snow a.paget’s disease
a.CEOT b.condylar hyperplasia
b.AOT c.cruzon’s disease
c.gorlin cyst d.acromegaly
d.all the above
182.Fibrous dysplasia in the jaw 186. Sub periosteal deposits in radiograph
shows a localized, round suggests
zone of relative radiolucency a.osteopetrosis
containing fine trabecular b.osteogenesis imperfect
pattern is described as c.osteomalacia
a.ground glass,finger print or d.osteomyelitis
orange peel
b.ground glass 187.In one of the following technique ionizing
c.finger print radiation is not used
d.orange peel a. digital radiograph
b. CT scan
183. Copper beaten appearance c. conventional tomography
of cranium resulting due to d. MRI
craniosynostosis occurs in
a.multiple myeloma 188.The technique is excellent for
b.osteopetrosis differentiating between solid and cystic
c.crouzon’s syndrome mass
d.trecher Collin syndrome a.ultrasound
b.CTscan
184.Multiple odontogenic c.radioisotope imaging
keratocyst are a feature of d.MRI
a.gorlin’s syndrome
b.polycystic ameloblastoma 189.Sialographic appearance of calculi
c.multicystic keratocyst includes
d.osteitis fibrosa cystic a. filling defect in the main duct
b. ductal dialatation caused by associated
185.Stafne’s cyst appears sialodochitis
as a radiolucency c. the emptying film usually shows contrast
a.at the angle of mandible medium retained behind the stone
b.at the body of mandible d.all the above
c.at the angle of the mandible
before the inferior dental canal
d.at the angle of mandible
above the inferior dental canal

190.The radiographic projections 194.Multilocular bilateral radiolucency

for parotid and submandibular in ramus with internal radioopaque
 gland septa occurs in
a.oblique lateral a.ameloblastoma
b.PA view skull b.cherubism
c.zygomatic view c.aneurysmal bone cyst
d.transphyrengeal view d.myxoma mandible

191.Radiographically flattening of 195.Jaw lesion shows initially radiolucency

the head of the condyle with but in more advanced stage contain
erosion and destruction of the variable amount of radioopacity
articular surface of the condyle is
with hollowing of glenoid fossa a. periapical granuloma
occurs in b. Ameloblastoma
a.rheumatoid arthritis c. keratocyst
b.suppurative arthritis d. ossifying fibroma
c.osteomyelitis
d.tuberculosis of TMJ 196.Jaw lesion shows initially radiolucency
but small opacities of snow flakes with
192.Fusion of the head of the with in the radiolucency may be seen
condyle in glenoid fossa peripherally as the lesion matures in
with little or no evidence a.AOT
of joint space occurs in b.CEOT
a.ankylosis c.gorlin cyst
b.arthrosis d.fibrous dysplasia
c.arthritis
d.artifact of TMJ 197.Ultrasound has limited use in head and
neck region because
193.Dental injury can cause a.sound waves are not transmitted well
a.fracture of teeth b.sound waves are absorbed by the bone
b.luxation of teeth c.sound waves cannot pass through both
c.fracture of alveolus bone and soft tissues
d.all of the above d.sound waves are absorbed by the vascular
tissue

198.The radiograph of choice for 203.The atom consists of

the ankylosis of TMJ is a.central nucleus and orbiting electrons
a.CT b.protons and neutrons
b MRI c.electrons
c.ultrasound d.electrons and neutrons
d.bone scan
204. Radiation is
199.Reverse towne’s view is a.emission and propogation of energy through
indicated to investigate space or a substance in the form of
a.articular surface of the condyle wave and particle
b.disease within the joint b.certain unstable atom or element
c.fracture condylar head and neck c.a beam of energy that has power to
d.all the above penetrate
d.invisible rays
200.Transpharyngeal view of 205. Radiation effects on heamopoitic tissue
radiograph is indicated for causes
a.detection of pharyngeal growth a.anemia
b.for tonsillar growth b.leukemia
c.to find out styloid process c.polycythemia
d.TMJ pain dysfunction syndrome d.thrombocytopenia

201.The science or study of 206.Radiation effects on skin causes

radiation energy is a.carcinoma
a.radiology b.sarcoma
b.roentonology c.toxicity of skin
c.imageology d.chronic dermatitis
d.radiograph
207.Small amounts of radiation absorbed
202.The father of x-rays who over a long period of time causes
discovered the early a.acute radiation effects
potential of an xray b.chronic radiation effects
beam in 1895 c.long term effect
a.Robert m jones d.short term effect
b.william Conrad roentgen
c.eric whaite
d.william d.coolidge

208.Genetic effects of radiation 213.The dental xray tube head

a.do not affect the health of must be equipped with
the exposed individual a.appropriate aluminum filter
b.affect health of exposed individual b.lead collimator
c.affects the entire tissue c.PID
d.affect the person who exposed d.all the above
the radiation to the patient
214.The placement of aluminium disc in the
209.One of the following cell is most path of xray beam between the collimator
radio sensitive and the tube head seal in the dental
a.epithelial cell xray machine is
b.lymphocytes a.simple filtration
c.myocytes b.inherent filtration
d.plasma cell c.added filtration
d.total filtration
210.One of the following cell is 215.In intra oral radiograph to restrict the
Radioresistant size and shape of x-ray beam and to
a.muscle cell reduce patient exposure
b.lymphocyte a.collimation is used
c.reproductive cell b.filteration is used
d.fibroblasts c.Kvp is adjusted
d.aluminum disc are used
211.The traditional units of 216.Lead apron is used to protect
radiation measurements scatterd radiation to
a.The roentgen(R) a.heart
b.the radiation absorbed dose(rad) b.reproductive and blood forming cells
c.roentengen equivalent c.immunological cells
d.all of the above d.skin

212.A special unit of absorbed 217.The single most effective method

dose that is equal to deposition of reducing the patient exposure
of 100Ergs of energy/gm of tissue is to x-ray is by
a.rad a.using PID
b.rem b. using proper collimation
c.sivert c.using fast film
d.Roentgen(R) d.using proper film holding device

218.All exposure to radiation must
be kept to a minimum or as
low as reasonably achievable,
this is
a.MPD concept
b.MAD concept
c.ALARA concept
d.all the above
224.To take radiographs of crown,root,tip
219.Film badge is used for
a.personal monitoring
b.radiation monitoring
c.equipment monitoring
d.Xray room monitoring
223.Lead foil sheet in the xray film packet
is used
a.to give thickness to the film packet
b.to shield the film from back scattered
radiation that results in film fog
c.to reduce radiation
d.to prevent leakage of radiation
of the root,the film used is
a.bitewing
b.occlusal view
c.periapical film
d.children film

220.Control panel of xray machine is 225.Intensifying screens are coated with

a. to suspend xray tube head a.silver halide
b. to allow the dental radiographer to b.phoshorous
regulate the xray beam c.calcium salts
c. to hold central device d.film emulsion
d. to hold exposure button
226. Extra oral cassette is a special device that
221.Dental xray film base is a flexible is used to hold
piece of a. Sensor
a.cardboard b.intensifying screens
b.lead sheet c.unexposed film
c.plastic d.both b and c
d.polyester plastic
227.Radiographs lack density and permit
222.The main advantage of using the passage of xray beam appears
double emulsion film is a.radioopaque
a.easy manipulation b.foggy
b.double exposure c.black with grains
c.it requires less radiation exposure to d.radiolucent
produce image
d.for better quality of image

228.Structures that resist the passage 232.One of the following chemicals in

of xray beam shows developing agent
a.radioopacity a.hydroquinone
b.foggy b.sodium sulphite
c.white with black c.sodium carbonate
d.radiolucency d.potassium bromide

229.The capability of the xray film 233.Fixing chemical agent in the fixer
to reproduce distinct outlines composition solution is
of the object is a.sodium thiosulphate
a.contrast b.sodium sulphite
b.sharpness c.potassium alum
c.density d.acetic acid
d.magnification
234.Photographic image produced on the film
230.Target film distance is the by the passage of xray through the teeth
a.distance between target to is called
the tip of the cone a.periapical film
b.distance between anode b.dental radiograph
and cathode c.intraoral xray film
c.distance between the source
of xray and the film
d.distance between xray film
to the mouth
b.an instrument to hold and read the film
231.The process of converting
the latent invisible image
into visible image
a.rinsing
b.developing
c.fixing
d.film processing
236.Hemostat with bite block is
a.surgical clamp to control bleeding
b.used in prosthetic bite registration
c.a film holder to stabilize the film
d.used to raise the bite in tmj problems
d.cephalometric film
237.Crowns and roots of the 2nd
premolar of the mandible
including the apices must
be seen in
a.mandibular premolar exposure
b.mandibular canine
c.mandibular canine and premolar
exposure
d.mandibular premolar and molar
exposure
238.During film placement posterior
films are placed
a.vertically
b.horizontally
c.tilting the film mesially
d.tilting the film distally
a.the cassette is kept along the outer
239.Elongated images refer to
images that appear too
long due to
a.incorrect horizontal angulation
d. x-ray of the teeth
235.A film holder is
a.a clip to hold the film to develop and fix
c.a device that is used to position the film
to exposure
d.to hold and preserve the film
241.The level of alveolar bone can be
examined in
a.periapical film
b.bitewing film
c.vertical bitewing film
242.Intraoral occlusal radiograph the film
used for adults is
a.size 3 intraoral film
b.size 4 intraoral film
c.size 2 intraoral film
d. size 1 intraoral film
243.The occlusal projection used to examine
the palate and the anterior teeth of the
maxilla is
a.topographic projection
b.lateral projection
c.cross sectional projection
d.pediatric projection
244. In panaromic radiography
surface of the jaw
b.the film is kept alone in the rotating machine
c.tubehead alone rotates around the patient
d.film and the tubehead rotates around
b.insufficient vertical angulaion
c.excess vertical angulation
d.incorrect vertical angulation
240.Foreshortened images refer
to images of teeth that
appear short due to
a.incorrect horizontal angulation
b.insufficient vertical angulation
c.excessive vertical angulation
d.incorrect vertical angulation
246.The intensifying screen which
requires less xray exposure and
emit green light is
a.calcium tungstate intensifying screen
b.silver halide intensifying screen
c.rare earth intensifying screen
d.plain screen film
252.The skull radiograph to evaluate the
247.Frankfort plane is an imaginary
plane from the
a.angle of the mouth to the tragus
b.alae of the nose to the outer part
of the eye
c.that passes through the top of the
ear canal to the bottom of the
eye socket
d.a line from the angle of the mouth to the
lateral part of the eye lid
view
248.The images seen on the panaromic
radiograph are
a.really sharp
b.are not sharp as intra oral radiograph
c.more sharp than intraoral radiograph
d.sharpness equal to intraoral radiograph
to estimate the joint space and to
249.The advantage of panaromic
radiograph is
a.field size and simple
b.image quality
c.distortion
d.focal trough limitation
the patient
245.The collimater used in the panaromic
xray machine is a lead plate
a.with small round opening
b.with small round and rectangular opening
c. with the opening in the shape of a
narrow vertical slit
d.with the circular shaped slit
251.Multiple cyst like radiolucent osteitis
fibrosa cystic occurs in
a.hypoparathyroidism
b.basal cell nevi syndrome
c.multiple myeloma
d.hyperparathyroidism
maxillary sinus area ,frontal and
ethmoidal sinus and orbital and nasal
cavity
a.anterior posterior projection
b.posterio anterior projection
c.sub mento vertex
d.water’s projection
253.Fractured zygomatic arch can be
visualized in the skull radiogaraph in the
a.water’s proection
b.reverse towne’s projection
c.submento vertex projection
d.posterioanterior projection
254.To study the bony components of TMJ,
evaluate the extent of movement of
condyle the following radiograph is
indicated
a.lateral view of skull radiograph
b.transcranial projection
c.TMJ topography
250.The indication for reverse towne
projection for extra oral radiogarph is
a. to evaluate base of the skull
b.to identify position of coronoid
c.to identify the fracture of the condyle
and ramus area
d.to locate tumor in the base of the skull
256.CCD is
a.video camera
b.fax machine
c.a device to collect Xrays
d.image receptor used in dental
digital radiograph
d.internal resorption
257.A ring shaped radioopacity
below the apices of mandibular
incisors is
a.midline of the mandible
b.genial tubercle
c.periapical infection
d.torus mandibularis
d.periapical periodontitis
258.A radioopaque band extending
downward and forward from
the anterior border of ramus
of the mandible is
a.lower border of mandible
b.mylohyoid line
c.external oblique ridge
d.inferior dental canal
264. Reverse towne’s projecton- this
259.The outer most radiopaque
layer of crown of the tooth is
a.cementum
b.dentin
c.alveolar bone
d.enamel
260.Which alveolar crest
radiographically appears
flat and smooth
a.alveolar crest of incisors
b.alveolar crest of canine
c.anterior alveolar crest
d.orthography
255.The method of capturing image using
sensor without Xray film is called
a.digital substraction
b.digital radiography
c.indirect digital imaging
d.CCD
261.A round to ovoid radiolucency in the mid
crown or mid root of a tooth involving the
pulp is
a.extensive dental caries
b.external root resorption
c.failure to close the pulp chamber
262.Widening of periapical periodontal space
and appears as a round or ovoid
radiolucency with loss of lamina dura
between the root apex and apical lesion
a.periapical granuloma
b.periapical cyst
c.peripaical abscess
263. Neither the Xray film is used nor the
the processing procedure is followed in
one of the imaging techniques
a.extra oral radiograph
b.bite wing radiograph
c.occlusal
d.digital
projection of extra oral radiograph helps
to identify
a.base of the skull
b.paranasal sinus
c.foramen magnum and ramus area
d.fractured neck of the condyle
265.The differences in degree of blackness
between adjacent area on a radiograph is
a.distortion
b.density
c.contrast
d.elongation
d.posterior alveolar crest

266.Well defined radio opacity 271.Supernnumerary tooth distal to 3rd molar

below the apices of vital tooth is a.mesiodens
a.condensing osteitis b.distodens
b.cementum c.peridens
c.idiopathic periapical osteosclerosis d.paramolars
d.early ossifying fibroma
272. Supernumerary tooth that erupt
267.Radiolucent area above the ectopically either buccal or
mental ridge in panaromic lingual to normal arch
radiograph is a. mesiodens
a.mental foramen b.distodens
b.mental fossa c.peridens
c.lingual fossa d.paramolars
d.lingual foramen
273.Fusion of adjacent 2 tooth germs
268.Radioopacity anterior to develop and calcified as
mandibular foramen in a.fusion
panaromic radiograph is b.gemination
a.coronoid process c.concrescence
b.retromolar area d.dilaceration
c.anterior part of coronoid process
d.lingula 274.A cyst shows radiolucency which
may be more hazy than anticipated
269.Radiolucent band outlined a.infected dental cyst
by two thin radioopaque b.keratocyst
lines representing cortical c.dentigerous cyst
wall in panaromic radiograph is d.a cyst associated with odontome
a.mandibular foramen
b.mandibular canal 275.Radiographically a circumscribed
c.mental foramen smoothly contoured somewhat rounded
d.mental ridge radioopaque mass in the jaw is
a.exostosis
270.Supernumerary tooth between b.enostosis
or just posterior to central incisors c.hypercementosis
a.mesiodens d.dyostosis
b.distodens
c.peridens
d.paramolars

276.Jaw lesions in which a single isolated 281.Multiple small well defined

radioopaciy well defined or diffused radiolucency without sclerotic
within trabeculae of normal bone is called border like punched out defect occurs in
a.exostosis a.hyperparathyroidism
b.hypercementosis b.eosinophillic granuloma
c.enostosis c.multiple myeloma
d.hyperostosis d.hand- schuller –christian disease

277.An odontoma in the jaw bone is a 282. A thin radiolucent capsule surrounds the
a.odontogenic tumor radioopacity and seperates it from
b.hamartoma adjacent normal bone is
c.choriostoma a.condensing osteitis
d.teratoma b.periapical cemental dysplasia
c.exostosis
278. Radiographically spoke wheel d.sequestrum in osteomyelitis
Appearance is seen in
a. Ameloblastoma 283. Rdiographically multiple roots seen
b. CEOT with hypercementosis in advanced
c. Central hemangioma of bone stage of the following disease
d. AOT a.cleido cranial dysostosis
b.osteitis deformans
279.Primary radiographic carcinoma of c.osteopetrosis
jaw shows irregular radiolucent d.osteomalacia
destructive disease with ill defined
irregular erosion of bony margin 284.The disease in which all the bones
and erosion of alveolar bone show increased density that the
occurs in trabecular pattern of medullary cavities
a.ameloblastoma are virtually unrecognized in
b. central giant cell granuloma a.paget’s disease
c.multiple myeloma b.skeletal fluorosis
d.primary carcinoma c.osteogenesis imperfecta
d.osteopetrosis
280.The malignant tumor of jaw that 285.Radiograph shows dense alveolar bone
show sun ray appearencve in and embedded poorly formed teeth in
radiograph is a.osteopetrosis
a.metatstaic carcinoma b. cleido- cranial dysostosis
b.osteosarcoma c.skeletal fluorosis
c.fibrosarcoma d.osteogenesis imperfecta
d.ameloblastic carcinoma
286.Dense opacity slightly raised on 291.Loss of density of the alveolar bone
Palate in maxillary occlusal and lamina dura occurs in
radiograph is a.osteomalacia
a.osteopetrosis of the maxilla b.diabetic periodontitis
b.multiple osteoms c.osteopetrosis
c.condensing osteitis d.malignancy
d.torus palatinus
287.In occlusal radiograph radioopaque 292.Following traumatic event of the central
Homogenous knobly protrubernce from the incisor,widening of the PDL space
lingual surface of the mandible suggest in the apical portion occurs in
a.supernumerary tooth a.periodontitis
b.impacted canine b.concussion
c.sialolith c.subluxation
d.torus mandibularis d.luxation

288.Radiographically as a radioopaque 293.Radiographically intruded tooth with

infolding of the enamel into obliteration of the lamina dura occurs in
the tooth pulp chamber is a.developmental disease
a.pulp stone b.unerupted tooth
b.evagination c.tooth pushed by tumor
c.dens-in denti d.traumatic injury
d.talon’s cusp
294.Vertical radiolucent lines that appear in
289.Periapical radiograph shows loss mandibular periapical radiograph suggest
of lamina dura in a.fracture of the mandible

a.hyperparathyroidism b.fracture alveolus

b.hypoparathyroidism c.mid line suture
c.hyperthyroidism d.nutrient canal
d.hypothyroidism
295.Compared to conventional radiograph
290.Radiographically thinning of lamina the digital radiography requires
Dura delayed dental eruption and a.less x-ray radiation
short tooth root is seen in b.more x ray radiation
a.hypothyroidism c.same x-ray radiation
b.hyperthyroidism d.no x-ray radiation
c.hyper pitutarism
d.hypopitutarism

296. To capture radiographic image 299.The radiograph not indicated to evaluate

of teeth in digital radiograph caries,periodontal disease and
a. sensor is used periapical lesion is
b.pixel is used a.intraoral radiograph
c.CCD is used b.occlusal radiograph
d.xray film is used c.bitewing radiograph
d.panaromic radiograph
297.To locate foreign bodies or 300.A radiolucent area located above the
salivary stones in the region apices of maxillary premolar and molar is
of the floor of the mouth the a.orbital cavity
choice of radiograph in mandible is b.nasal cavity
a.IOPA c.maxillary sinus
b.topographic occlusal projection d.ethmoidal sinus
c.cross sectional occlusal projection
d.all of the above

298.To locate foreign bodies and

lesions in posterior maxilla,
the radiograph is maxillary
a.periapical radiograph
b.topographic occlusal radiograph
c.lateral occlusal projection
d.all of the above