Minor06 QP DLP NEET20 (Pmtcorner - In)

(0999DMD31031900
)/999DMD31/319//6) Test Pattern
6)
NEET(UG)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME MINOR TEST #
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 06
15-09-
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
12th Undergoing/Pass Students
Test Type : Unit - 05

This Booklet contains 40 pages. bl iqf rdk esa 40 i`"B gaSA
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to
do so.
bl ih{kk iqfrdk dks tc rd uk ekksysa tc rd dgk u tk,A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
bl i h{kk iqf rdk ds fiys vko k i fny funsZ'kks a dks eeku ls ia.saA
Important Instructions :
egRoiw kZ funs Z 'k :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on 1.mÙk i» ds i`"B-1 ,oa i`"B-2 i eekuiwoZd dsoy
Side-1 uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu ls foo k Hk saA
and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point 2.i h{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVs gS yoa ih{kk iqf rdk esa 180
pen only.
iz'u gaAS izR;sd iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙk ds
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test
Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question fyy i h{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad fny tk,axsaA izR;sd xyr mÙk
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the ds fyy dqy eksx esa ls ,d vad
candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA
response, one mark will be deducted from the
3.bl i`"B i foo k vafdr d us yoa mÙk i» i
total scores. The maximum marks are 720. fu'kku yxkus ds fyy dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy ikWbaV isu
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing dk iz;ksx dsaA
particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Q dk;Z bl i h{kk iqf rdk esa fu/kkZf r Fkku i gh d
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided
for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. saA
5. On completion of the test, the candidate 5.i h{kk lEiék gksus i, i h{kkFkhZ d{k@gkWy ksM+us ls iow
must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The Z mÙk i» fu h{kd dks vo'e lkSa i nsaA i h{kkFkhZ vius lkFk
candidates are allowed to take away this dsoy i h{kk iqfrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSa A
Test Booklet with them. 6.i h{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr d sa fd bl mÙk i» dks eksM+k u tky
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer
yoa ml i dksbZ vUe fu'kku u yxk,aA i h{kkFkhZ
Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks
on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No.
viuk QkWeZ uEc iz'u iqf rdk@mÙk i» esa fu/kkZf r
anywhere else except in the specified space in the Fkku ds vfrf Dr vUe» u fy[ksaA
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7.mÙk i» i fdlh izdk ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not ds iz;ksx dh vuqefr ugha gAS
permissible on the Answer Sheet. 8.;fn vki fdlh iz'u dks gy d us dk iz;kl d rs gSa rks
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle mfpr xksys dks uhps n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlk xg k dkyk d sa
should be properly darkened as shown below, vU;Fkk mls ekkyh ksM. nsaA lgh r hdk xyr r hdk
otherwise leave blank. Correct Method Wrong
Method
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vi"Vrk dh f Fkfr esa, vaxzsth lad k dks gh vafre ekuk tk,sxkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
i h{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kksa
esa) :
Form Number : in figures
QkWeZ uEc : vadksa esa
: in words
: 'kCnksa esa
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
i h{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kksa esa) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
i h{kkFkhZ ds g rk{k
: fuh{kd ds grk{k :
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

LTS / Page 1/40
ALLEN
TOPIC : Collisions and Centre of Mass, , Electromagnetic Induction
1. In the circuit shown in figure the jockey J is being 1. fp» esa iznf'kZr ifiFk esa, folihZ dqath J dks nk;ha
pulled towards right so that the resistance in the vks ys tk;k tk gk g,S ftlls if iFk dk izfr ks/k
circuit is increasing. Its a value at some instant is ca. gk gAS fdlh ek k i bldk eku 5  gA
5 . The current in the circuit at this instant will bl ek k i if iFk esa ekk k gS :–
be L
L
J
J
20 V
20 V
(1)
4A
(1) 4 A
(2)
less than 4 A (2) 4 A ls de
(3)
more than 4 A (3) 4 A ls vf/kd
(4)
may be less than or more than 4 A depending (4) 4 A ls de vFkok vf/kd eg L ds eku
on the value of L i fuHkZ d sxk
2. Two blocks A and B of equal mass m = 1.0 kg are 2. leku nzO;eku m = 1.0 kg okys nks CykWd A o B
lying on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in fp» esa n'kkZ ;s vuq lk yd fpduh ekSfrt lrg
figure. A spring of force constant k = 200 N/m is i [ks gqy gaS A k = 200 N/m cy fu;rkad okyh f
fixed at one end of block A. Block B collides with iazx dk yd fl k CykWd A ls tqM+k gqvk gAS CykWd B,
block A with velocity 2.0 m/s. The maximum 2.0 m/s osx ds lkFk, CykWd A ls Vd krk gAS f iazx
compression of the spring will be esa vf/kdre ladqpu gksxk :–
2.0 m/s 2.0 m/s
B A B A
(1) 1 m (2) 10 cm (1) 1 m (2) 10 cm

(3) 1 cm (4) 3 cm (3) 1 cm (4) 3 cm
3. A long solenoid has 2000 turns/m and radius is 6cm.
3. ,d yEch if ukfydk esa 2000 Qs s/eh- vkS f=T;k
If Current is varied at a uniform rate of 6cm gAS
0.01 AS–1 then find electric field induced at a point ;fn if ukfydk esa fo|qr ekk k yd leku n 0.01
outside the solenoid at distance 8cm from its axis. AS–1 ls ifofrZr gks rks if ukfydk dh v{k ls
(1) 5.6 × 10–3 v/m 8cm nw h i fFkr fcUnw i izsf r fo|qr ek»
Kkr d asA
(2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m
(1) 5.6 × 10–3 v/m
–7
(3) 5.6 × 10 v/m
(2) 2.25 × 10–2 v/m
(4) zero
(3) 5.6 × 10–7 v/m
(4) 'kwUe
LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy 0999DMD310319006
txg
ALLEN
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-2019
0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy LTS / Page

txg 3/40
4. A square plate of side 20 cm has uniform thickness 4. ,d oxkZdk IysV dh Hkqtk 20 cm rFkk ×kuRo yd
and density. A circular part of diameter 8 cm is cut leku gAS blesa
out symmetrically as shown in figure. The position ls fp» esa n'kkZ;s vuqlk 8 cm O;kl okyk yd
of centre of mass of the remaining portion is o`Ùkkdk Hkkx dkV fy;k x;k gAS 'k"s k Hkkx d
nzO;eku dsUnz dh f Fkfr gS :–
O O1
O O1
(1) at O1
(2) at O (1) O1 i
(3) 0.54 cm from O on the left hand side
(2) O i
(4) 0.86 cm from O on the left hand side.
(3) O ls ck;ha vks 0.54 cm i
5. Two particles of mass m and 2m moving in
(4) O ls ck;ha vks 0.86 cm i
opposite directions collide elastically with
velocities v and 2v respectively. Velocity of heavy 5. m o 2m nzO;eku okys nks d k Øe'k: v rFkk 2v osx
particle after collision will be ds lkFk foihr fn'kkvksa esa xfr d rs gqy izR;k Fkr:
(1) 3v (2) 2v (3) zero (4) v Vd krs gaSA VDd ds i'pkr~ Hkk h d k dh pky gS :–
6. An infinitely long conductor AB lies along the axis (1) 3v (2) 2v (3) 'kwUe (4) v
of a circular loop of radius R. If the current in the 6. vuUr yEckbZ okyk yd pkyd AB, R f=T;k okyh
conductor AB varies at the rate of x ampere/second, o`Ùkkdk ywi dh v{k ds vuqfn'k gSA efn
then the induced emf in the loop is pkyd AB esa ekk k x ,Eih; @lsd M dh n ls
if ofrZr gksrh g,S rks ywi esa izsf r fo-ok-c- gS :–
A
A
BR
BR
 xR  xR  xR  xR  xR  xR
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) zero
2 4 4 (1) 0
(2) 0
(3) (4) 'kwUe
0
2 4 4
7. Three identical balls, ball I, ball II and ball III are
placed on a smooth floor on a straight line at the
7. ,d tlS h rhu xsansa, xsan I, xsan II rFkk xsan III ,d
separation of 10 m between balls as shown in ly s[kk dsvuqfn'k, fpdus Q'kZ i [kh gqbZ
figure. Initially balls are stationary. g,aS fp» esa n'kkZ;s vuqlk xsanksa ds chp 10 m nw h gAS
Ball I is given velocity of 10 m/s towards ball II, izk EHk esa xsans fokekoFkk esa gaAS
collision between ball I and II is inelastic with
coefficient of restitution 0.5 but collision between xsan I dks xsan II dh vks 10 m/s osx iznku fd;k
ball II and III is perfectly elastic. What is the time tkrk g,S xsan I o II ds chp VDd, izR;koFkku xq
interval between two consecutive collisions kkad 0.5 ds lkFk vizR;kFk g,S fdarq xsan II o III ds
between ball I and II? chp VDd iw kZr;k izR;k Fk gAS xsan I rFkk II ds chp
I II III nks Øekxr VDd ksa ds chp le;kUrky fdruk g?S
10 m 10 m I II III
(1) 7.5 s (2) 4 s (3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s
10 m 10 m
(1) 7.5 s (2) 4 s (3) 2 s (4) 2.5 s
LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019
8. A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on 8. m æO;eku dh rkacs ls M. xq:Rokd"kZ k dh otg ls
two smooth parallel rails l distance apart set at an ×k"k kZ fgr
angle  to the horizontal. At the bottom, the rails iVf ;kas i fQly gh gAS nkus kas iVf ;kas ds chp nw
are joined by a resistance R. h l gS rFkk eksfrt ls dks k  gAS nksuksa iVf ;ksa R izfr
ks/k ls tqM+h gqbZ gAS
B
l
B
VT l
R VT
 R
There is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular 
to the plane of the rails. The terminal velocity of ,d fu;r pqEcdhe eks» iVf ;ksa ds ry ds yEcor~
the rod is dk;Z r gAS
mg R cos  M. dk lhekUr osx gksxkA
(1)
Bl
2 2
mg R cos 
(2)mg R sin  (1) 2 2
B2l 2 Bl
mg R tan  mg R sin 
(3) (2) 2 2
Bl
2 2 Bl
mg R cot  (3) mg R tan 
(4) 2 2 B2l 2
Bl
9. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic (4) mg R cot 
field which is directed into the paper. The magnetic B2l 2
field is increasing at a constant rate. The directions
9. ,d ekkfRod rk dh Ýse dkxt ds ry ds yEcor
of induced current in wires AB and CD are
van dh vks f Fkr pqEcdhe eks» esa f Fkr gA
× × × × C×
× A× × × × pqEcdhe eks» yd fu;r n ls ca. gk gAS rk AB
× × × × × rFkk CD esa izsf r ekk k dh fn'kk gksxh
× B× × × × × × × × C×
× × × × D× × A× × × ×
(1) B to A and D to C × × × × ×
× B× × × ×
(2) A to B and C to D × × × × D×
(3) A to B and D to C (1) B ls A ,oa D ls C dh vks
(4) B to A and C to D (2) A ls B ,oa C ls D dh vks
10. A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides (3) A ls B ,oa D ls C dh vks
head on with another body of mass 2 m which is (4) B ls A ,oa C ls D dh vks
initially at rest. The ratio of KE of colliding body 10. m nzO;eku okyh yd orq v osx ds lkFk xfr d rh
before and after collision will be gqbZ, izk EHk esa fFk 2 m nzO;eku okyh yd vUe o rq
ls lEeq[k VDd d rh gAS Vd kus okyh o rq dh
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
VDd ls iwoZ rFkk i'pkr~ xfrt ÅtkZ dk vuqikr
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1 gksxk :–
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
ALLEN
11. The loop ABCD is moving with velocity v towards 11. ywi ABCD, v osx ds lkFk nk;ha vks xfr d gk gAS
right. The magnetic field is 4 T and into the page pqEcdhe
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The loop {ks» 4 T gS rFkk eg ywi ds ry ds yEcor~ dkxt
is connected to a resistance of 8 . If steady ds ry ds vUn dh vks gAS ywi dks 8  izfr k/s k ds
current of 2 A flows in the loop then value of v lkFk tkMs +k x;k gAS efn yiwdk izfr ks/k 4  gS yoa
if loop has resistance of 4 , is ywi ls 2 A Fkk;h ekk k izokfgr gks gh g,S rks v dk
(Given, AB = 30 cm, AD = 30 cm) eku gS :
(fn;k g,S AB = 30 cm, AD = 30 cm)
D C
v
D C
8
v
37° 8
A B
37°
A B
50
(1) m/s (2) 20 m/s
3 50
100 (1) m/s (2) 20 m/s
3
(3) 10 m/s (4) m/s 100
3
12. Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The (3) 10 m/s (4) m/s
acceleration of the centre of mass of the two balls 3
12. nks xsansa yd lkFk gok esa QaSdh tkrh gaSA tc os gok esa
while in air
gksa, nksuksa xsanksa ds nzO;eku dsUnz dk Ro k –
(1) depends on the direction of the motion of the balls
(1) xsanksa dh xfr dh fn'kkvksa i fuHkZ d sxk
(2) depends on the masses of the two balls
(2) nksuksa xsanksa ds nzO;ekuksa i fuHkZ d sxk
(3) depends on the speeds of two balls
(3) nksuksa xsanksa dh pkyksa i fuHkZ d sxk
(4) is equal to g
(4) g ds c kc gksxk
13. After perfectly inelastic collision between two
13. leku pky ds lkFk fofHkUu fn'kkvksa esa xfr'khy,
identical particles moving with same speed in
yd tlS s nks d kksa ds chp iw kZr;k vizR;k Fk
different directions, the speed of the particles VDd ds i'pkr, d kksa dh pky izk fEHkd pky dh
becomes half the initial speed. The angle between vk/kh g tkrh g,S VDd ls iwoZ nksuksa d kksa ds chp
the two before collision is : dks k gS :–
(1) 60° (2) 120° (1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 45°

6/40 txg
ALLEN

txg 5/40
14. The current i in an induction coil varies with time 14. fdlh izs k dq Myh esa ekk k, lee ds lkFk fp» es
t according to the graph shown in figure. iznf'kZr xzkQ ds vuqlk if ofrZr gksrh gS
i
i
O t
O t
fuEufyf[kr xzkQksa esa ls dkuS lk lee ds lkFk dq
Which of the following graphs shows the induced Myh esa izsf r
emf (E) in the coil with time? fo-ok-c- (E) dks n'kkZrk gAS
E E
E E
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O t O t
O t O t
E
E E
E
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
O t O t O t O t
15. A block of mass m moving at a velocity v collides
15. v osx ds lkFk xfr'khy m nzO;eku okyk CykWd, fo
with another block of mass 2 m at rest. The lighter
keko Fkk esa fFkr 2 m nzO;eku okys CykWd ls Vd krk
block comes to rest after collision. Find the value gAS VDd ds i'pkr~ gYdk CykWd fo keko Fkk esa vk
of coefficient of restitution. tkrk gAS izR;koFkku xq kkad dk eku Kkr dhft;s
1 :–
(1) (2) 1
1
2 (1) (2) 1
1 1 2
(3) (4) 1 1
3 4 (3) (4)
16. A coil of inductance 50 H and resistance 0.5  3 4
is connected to a battery of emf 5 V. A resistance 16. 50 H izs dRo rFkk 0.5  izfrks/k okyh dq Myh
of 10  is connected parallel to the coil. Now at dks 5 V
some instant the connection of the battery is fo-ok-c- dh cVS h ds lkFk tksM+k x;k gAS yd 10
switched off. Then, the amount of heat generated  izfr ks/k dq Myh ds lekukUr Øe esa tqM+k gqvk
in the coil after switching off the battery is gAS fdlh ek k i cVS h dk f op cUn d
(1) 1.25 mJ (2) 2.5 mJ fn;k tkrk gAS cVS h dk f op cUn dus ds
(3) 0.65 mJ (4) 0.12 mJ i'pkr~ dq Myh esa mRiUu Å"ek dh ek=k gS –
(1) 1.25 mJ (2) 2.5 mJ
(3) 0.65 mJ (4) 0.12 mJ
ALLEN
17. Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are 17. ,d tlS s rhu xksys, izR;sd dk nzO;eku 1 kg, muds
placed touching each other with their centres on dsUnzksa dks l y [s kk esa [krs gqy, i i i'kZ d rs
a straight line. Their centre are marked P, Q and
gqy [ks gqy gaAS muds dsUnzksa i Øe'k: P, Q rFkk
R vafdr gaAS bl fudke ds nzO;eku dsUnz dh P ls nw
R respectively. The distance of centre of mass of
h gS :–
the system from P is
PQ  PR  QR PQ  PR
PQ  PR  QR PQ  PR
(1) (2)
(1) (2) 3 3
3 3
PQ  QR PQ  QR
(3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(3) (4) None of these 3
3
18. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving 18. 0.05 kg nzO;eku (izR;sd dk) okyh foy;MZ dh
–1
in opposite directions with speed 6 ms collide nks xsans 6 ms–1 pky ds lkFk i i foi hr fn'kk esa
and rebound with the same speed. The impulse xfr d rh gqbZ Vd krh ga S vkS leku pky ds lkFk
imparted to each ball due to the other will be izfrf{kIr gksrh gaAS izR;sd xsan dks nwl h ds dk k
(1) –0.30 kg ms–1 (2) +0.30 kg ms–1 izkIr vkosx gksxk –
(3) –0.60 kg ms–1 (4) +0.60 kg ms–1 (1) –0.30 kg ms–1 (2) +0.30 kg ms–1
(3) –0.60 kg ms–1 (4) +0.60 kg ms–1

19. A pair of coils of turns n1 and n2 are kept close
19. n1 rFkk n2 Qsksa okyh dq Mfy;k¡ yd&nw ls ds
together. Current passing through the first is
reduced at rate r and emf 3 mV is developed across
lehi [kh gq;h gAS igyh dq Myh esa izokfgr ekk k r
dh n ls de dh tkrh
the other coil. If the second coil carries current
which is then reduced at the rate 2r, the emf gS vkS nwl h dq Myh ds fl ksa i 3 mV fo-ok-cy-
produced across the first coil will be izsfr gksrk gAS vc efn nwl h dqMyh esa ekk k, 2r n
6n1
mV (2)
6n2
mV (3) 6 mV (4) 3 mV ls de dh tkrh g,S rks igyh dq Myh ds fl ksa i
(1)
n2 n1 2 mRiUu fo-ok-cy- gksxk :–
20. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel
6n1 6n2
plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what (1) mV (2) mV (3) 6 mV (4) 3 mV
n2 n1 2
height will the ball rise after second bounce?
20. Vhy dh yd xsan, 32 m Å¡pkbZ ls Vhy dh IyVs i
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m (3) 8 m (4) 16 m fx rh
21. A capacitor of capacity 2 F is charged to a gAS efn izR;ko Fkku xq kkad 0.5 g,S nwl h m ky ds
potential difference of 12 V. It is then connected i'pkr~ xsan fdruh Å¡pkbZ rd Åi mBsxh\
across an inductor of inductance 0.6 mH. The (1) 2 m (2) 4 m (3) 8 m (4) 16 m
current in the circuit at a time when the potential 21. 2 F /kkf rk okys yd la/kkf» dks 12 V
difference across the capacitor is 6.0 V is foHkokUr rd vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gAS fQ
(1) 0.6 A (2) 1.2 A (3) 2.4 A (4) 3.6 A bldks 0.6 mH izs dRo okyh izs k dq Myh ds fl ksa
i tksM+k tkrk gAS tc la/kkf» ds fl ksa i
txg
ALLEN
foHkokUr 6.0 V g,S ml lee if iFk esa ekk k gS :–
(1) 0.6 A (2) 1.2 A (3) 2.4 A (4) 3.6 A

8/40 txg
22. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity 22. xq:Ro ds izHkko esa Å/okZ/k fx gh yd o rq,
breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre vleku nzO;ekuksa okys nks Hkkxksa esa nw tkrh gAS nksuks
of mass of the two parts taken together shifts Hkkxksa dks yd lkFk ysus i mudk nzO;eku dsUnz ekf
horizontally towards
rtr: fo Fkkfir gksrk gS –
(1) heavier piece
(1) Hkkh VqdM+sa dh vks
(2) lighter piece
(3) does not shift horizontally
(2) gYds VqdM+s dh vks
(4) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of (3) {kfS rtr: fo Fkkfir ugha gksxk
breaking (4) VwVus ds lee i Å/oZ oxs i fuHkZ d rk
23. A magnetic flux of 8 × 10–4 weber is linked with gAS
each turn of a 200 turn coil when there is an 23. 200 Qs ksa okyh dq Myh ls tc 4A fo|qr ekk k
electric current of 4A in it. The self induction of izokfgr gksrh g,S blds izR;sd Qs s ls lEc¼ pqEcdhe
¶yDl 8 × 10–4 osc gAS dq Myh dk o izs dRo
coil :- (1) 8 × 10–2 H (2) 6 × 10–2 H
gS :-
(3) 4 × 10–2 H (4) 2 × 10–2 H
(1) 8 × 10–2 H (2) 6 × 10–2 H
24. A current time curve is shown in the following (3) 4 × 10–2 H (4) 2 × 10–2 H
diagram. This type of current is passed in the
24. fuEu fp» esa ekk k&lee oØ n'kkZ;k x;k gAS bl
primary coil of transformer. The nature of induced
izdk dh ekk k VªkalQkWeZ dh izkFkfed dq Myh ls
emf in the secondary coil will be :–
izokfgr gks gh gAS f}rhe dq Myh eas mRiUu izfs r
fo-ok- cy dh izo`fr gkxs h:–
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
25. The time constant of an inductance is 2 × 10–3 s. 25. ,d izs dRo dk lee f Fkkad 2 × 10–3 s gAS tc
When a 90 resistance is joined in series, the time blds JskhØe
constant becomes 0.5 × 10 –3 s. The inductance and esa 90 izfr ks/k tksM+k tkrk g,S lee f Fk kad 0.5 ×
resistance of coil are :- 10–3 s gks tkrk gAS dq Myh dk izs dRo yoa izfr ksèk
(1) 30 mH, 30 (2) 60 mH, 30 g:S -
(3) 30 mH, 15 (4) 90 mH, 45 (1) 30 mH, 30 (2) 60 mH, 30
26. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 30 kg are placed
(3) 30 mH, 15 (4) 90 mH, 45
along a vertical line at a distance of 10 cm. The
26. 10 kg rFkk 30 kg nzO;ekuksa okys nks CykWd, yd
first block is raised through a height of 7 cm. By
Å/okZ/k s[kk ds vuqfn'k 10 cm nwh i [ks gqy
what distance should the second block be moved
gaAS igys CykWd dks 7 cm Å¡pkbZ ls Åi mBk;k tkrk
to raise the centre of mass by 1 cm?
gAS nzO;eku dsUnz dks 1 cm Åi mBkus ds fyy, nwl
(1) 2 cm upward (2) 1 cm upward
CykWd dks fdruk f[kldk;k tk;s\
(3) 2 cm downward (4) 1 cm downward
(1) 2 cm Åi dh vks (2) 1 cm Åi dh
27. If magnetic flux varies according to  = 3t2 + 4t + 2,
vks
emf at t = 2 s will be.
(3) 2 cm uhps dh vks (4) 1 cm uhps dh vks
(1) 22 V (2) 18 V
27. ;fn pqEcdhe ¶y d  = 3t2 + 4t + 2 ds vuqlk
(3) 20 V (4) 16 V ifofrZr gks gk gks, rks t = 2 s i o|S qr okgd
28. A ball strikes against the floor and returns with cy gksxk:
double the velocity, in which type of collision is
(1) 22 V (2) 18 V
it possible-
(1) Perfectly elastic (2) Inelastic (3) 20 V (4) 16 V
(3) Perfectly inelastic (4) It is not possible 28. ,d xsan Q'kZ i Vd krh gS rFkk nqxqus osx ls
29. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its
okfil ykVS rh g,S
;g fdl izdk dh VDd eas lEHko g–S
own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
(1) iw kZr;k izR;k Fk
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the
(2) vizR;k Fk
figure. An electric field is induced
(3) iw kZr;k vizR;k Fk (4) ;g lEHko ugha gAS
A B
29. ,d ekkfRod oxkZdk ywi ABCD, fp» esa n'kkZ;s
vuqlk blds ry ds yEcor~ le:i pqEcdhe eks»
esa, blds o;a ds ry esa v osx ls xfr d gk gA
D C
fo|qr ek»s izsf r gks gk gS :
(1) in AD, but not in BC
A B
(2) in BC, but not in AD
(3) neither in AD nor in BC
(4) in both AD and BC D C
(1) AD esa fdUrq BC esa ugha
(2) BC esa fdUrq AD esa ugha
(3) u rks AD esa vkS u gh BC esa
(4) AD o BC nksuksa esa
ALLEN
30. In figure, four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass 30. fp» esa pk M+ksa AB, BC, CD rFkk DA ds nzO;eku
m, 2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of Øe'k:
mass of all the four rods m, 2m, 3m rFkk 4m gAS lHkh pk ksa M+ksa dk nzO;eku dsUnz
D C gksxk:
1 2
D C
O 1 2
3 4
A B O
3 4
(1) lie in region 1 (2) lie in region 2 A B
(3) lie in region 3 (4) lie at O
(1) {ks» 1 esa (2) {ks» 2 esa
31. The current carrying wire and the rod AB are in
(3) {ks» 3 esa (4) O i
the same plane. The rod moves parallel to the wire
with a velocity v. Which one of the following 31. /kk kokgh rk rFkk M. AB ,d gh ry eas gAS M. rk
statements is true about induced emf in the rod? ds lekukUr v osx ds lkFk xfr d gh gAS M. esa
izsfr fo-ok-c- ds fyy fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa eas ls
i
dkuS lk lRe g\S
A
i
v
A
B v
(1) End A will be at lower potential with respect
to B B
(2) A and B will be at the same potential (1) fl k A, fl s B ds lkis{k fuEu foHko i
(3) There will be no induced emf in the rod gksxkA
(4) Potential at A will be higher than that at B (2) A o B nksuksa leku foHko i gksaxsA
32. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity u passes (3) M. esa dksbZ fo-ok-c- izsfr ugha gksxkA
through a wooden block of mass M = nm. The (4) A dk foHko, B ds foHko ls mPp
block is resting on a smooth horizontal floor. After gksxkA
passing through the block the velocity of bullet 32. u osx ls xfr'khy m æO;eku dh xksyh M = nm
is v. Its velocity relative to block is- æO;eku okys ydM+h ds CykWd ls xqt rh gAS CykWd
m fpdus ekfS rt Q'kZ i [kk
M=nm
u gqvk gAS CykWd ls xqt us ds i'pkr~ xkys h dk oxs
v gASCYkkWd ds lkis{k bldk osx gAS
(1 n) v  u nv  u
(1) n (2) n  1
m
nu  v (n  1) u  u
M=nm
(3) v n  1 (4) 2n  1
(1 n) v  u nv  u
(1) n (2) n  1
LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy txg 0999DMD310319006
ALLEN
nu  v (n  1) u 
(3) v n  1 (4) 2n  1

txg
33. Blocks A and B are resting on a smooth horizontal 33. fpduh yoa ekfS rt lrg i [ks gqy CykdW kas A o B
surface given equal speeds of 2 m/s in opposite dks fp» esa n'kkZ;s
sense as shown in the figure. vuqlk foi hr fn'kk esa 2 m/s leku pky iznku dh
tkrh gAS
2m/s 2m/s
4kg 4kg 2m/s 2m/s
origin (4.5m, 0) 4kg 4kg
At t = 0, the position of blocks are shown, then origin (4.5m, 0)
the co-ordinates of centre of mass t = 3 s will be t = 0 i, CykWdksa dh f Fkfr;k¡ n'kkZ;h x;h ga,S
(1) (1, 0) (2) (3, 0) rks t = 3 s i nzO;eku dsUnz ds funsZ'kkad gksaxs
(3) (5, 0) (4) (2.25, 0) (1) (1, 0) (2) (3, 0)
34. The natural frequency of the circuit shown in the
(3) (5, 0) (4) (2.25, 0)
figure is :
34. fp» esa iznf'kZr if iFk dh izkd`frd vko`fÙk gS :–
C C C C
L L L L
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 LC 2 2LC 2 LC 2 2LC
2
(3) (4) None of these 2
2 LC
(3) (4) buesa esa dksbZ ugha
35. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating with an 2 LC
angular velocity of 100 rad/s in a plane 35. 2 m yEch yd ekkfRod M., blds ry ds yEcor~
bafxr
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
0.3 T eku ds pqEcdhe eks» esa 100 rad/s dks khe osx ds lkFk
0.3 T. The potential difference between the ends
?kw kZu d gh gAS M. ds fl kas ds chp foHkokUr gS –
of the rod is
(1) 30 V (2) 40 V
(1) 30 V (2) 40 V (3) 60 V (4) 600 V
36. Two particles of equal mass have coordinates (3) 60 V (4) 600 V
(2m, 4m, 6m) and (6m, 2m, 8m). Of these one particle
36. leku nzO;ekuksa okys nks d kksa ds funsZ'kkad (2m, 4m,
 
ˆ
has a velocity v1  2 i m/s and another particle
6m) rFkk (6m, 2m, 8m) gAaS lee t = 0 i bu
has
  m/s at time t = 0. The coordinate
ˆ
velocity v2  r2 j
nksuksa esa ls yd d k dk oxs v1   2 î  m/s rFkk nl
r
s d k dk oxs v2   2ˆj  m/s gAS
of their centre of mass at time t = 1 s will be r r
(1) (4m, 4m, 7m) (2) (5m, 4m, 7m) lee t = 1 s i buds nzO;eku dsUnz ds funZ's kkad
(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m)
gksaxs –
(1) (4m, 4m, 7m) (2) (5m, 4m, 7m)
(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m)

37. An ideal coil of 10 H is joined in series with a 37. 10 H dh izs k dq Myh, 5  izfr ks/k rFkk 5 V dh
resistance of 5  and a battery of 5 V. 2 s after cVS h ds
joining, the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit lkFk Js khØe esa la;ksftr dh tkrh gAS la;kstu ds
2 s i'pkr~ if iFk ls izokfgr ekk k gS (,Eih; esa) :
will be
(1) e–1 (2) (1 – e–1)
(1) e–1 (2) (1 – e–1)
(3) (1 – e) (4) e
(3) (1 – e) (4) e
38. 4.9 m Å¡pkbZ ls eqDr vi ls fx gh xsan ekfS rt
38. A ball falling freely from a height of 4.9 m, hits
lrg ls
3
a horizontal surface at t = 0. If e  , then the ball 3
t = 0 i Vd krh gAS efn e  g,S rks xsasn ds nwl h
4
ck lrg
hit the surface, second time at t = 4
(1) 1.0 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 2.0 s (4) 3.0 s ls Vd kus dk lee t gksxk –
39. A conducting square loop of side l and resistance (1) 1.0 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 2.0 s (4) 3.0 s
R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
39. l Hkqtk yoa R izfr ks/k okyk yd pkyd oxkZdk ywi
perpendicular to one of its sides. A uniform and
constant magnetic field B exists along the bldh yd Hkqtk ds vuqfn'k, yd leku osx v ds
perpendicular to the plane of the loop as shown lkFk xfr d gk gAS blds ry ds yEcor~ yd
in figure. The current induced in the loop is le:i pqEcdhe eks» fp» esa n'kkZ;s vuqlk fo|eku
× × × × × × gAS ywi esa izsfr ekk k gS
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
v
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
v
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
(1) Blv clockwise Blv anticlockwise
R
(2)
R
× × × × × ×
2Blv Blv Blv
(3) (4) zero (1) okekorhZ (2) nf{k kkorhZ
anticlockwise R R
R
2Blv
40. In a transformer, the coefficient of mutual inductance (3) nf{k kkorhZ (4) 'kwUe
between the primary and the secondary coil is R
0.2 H. When the current changes by 5 A/s in the 40. ,d Vªk¡lQkeZ esa izkFkfed rFkk f}rh;d dq Mfy;ksa
primary, the induced emf in the secondary will be
ds chp vU;ksUe izs dRo 0.2 H gAS tc izkFkfed
(1) 5 V (2) 1 V (3) 25 V (4) 10 V esa ekk k 5 A/s ls if ofrZr gksrh g,S f}rh;d esa
41. A transformer is used to : izsfr fo-ok-c- gS :–
(1) Change the alternating potential (1) 5 V (2) 1 V (3) 25 V (4) 10 V
(2) Change the alternating current 41. VªkalQkWeZ dk mi;ksx gksrk gS :
(3) To prevent the power loss in alternating current (1) izR;korhZ foHko dks cnyus gsrq
flow
(4) To increase the power of current source
(2) izR;korhZ ekk k dks cnyus gsrq
(3) izR;korhZ ekk k izokg esa gksus okyh 'kfDr eke
dks ksdus gsrq
(4) /kk k =ksr dh 'kfDr ca.kus gsrq
42. In a free space, a rifle of mass M shoots a bullet of 42. eqDr vkdk'k es a , M nzO;eku okyh kbQy 9k k
mass m at a stationary block of mass M distance
D away from it. When the bullet has moved through
blls D
a distance d towards the block, the centre of mass nw h i f Fkr M nzO;eku ds fFk CykWd
of the bullet-block system is at a distance of i, m nzO;eku dh xksyh nkxh tkrh gSA tc
D  dm xksyh CykWd dh vks d nw h rd tkrh g,
(1) from the bullet
xksyh&CykWd fudke dk nzO;eku dsUnz, fdruh nw h
md  MD
M m
(2) from the block i gS –
Mm
2md  MD D  d m md  MD
(3) from the block (1) xksyh ls (2) CykWd
Mm
D  dM ls  m
M Mm
(4) from the bullet
43.
Mm
A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass m
2md  MD D  dM
(3) CykWd ls (4) xksyh
and a string of length l. A bullet of mass m1 is fired
towards the pendulum with a speed v1 and it emerges ls
v Mm Mm
from the bob with speed 1 . The bob just completes
3 43. ,d yksyd, m nzO;eku okys ydM+h ds xksyd rFkk
motion along a vertical circle. Then, v1 is l yEckbZ okyh Mks h ls fufeZr gAS ykys d dh vks
m1 nzO;eku dh xksyh v osx ds lkFk nkxh tkrh g
v1
O vkS eg xksyd ls osx ds lkFk
1
3
ckg fudyrh gAS xksyd Å/oZo`Ùk ds vuqfn'k o`Ùk
m1 v1 m m1 v1/3 esa xfr iw h ek» d rk gAS rks v1 g–S
m 3m
(1) 5gl (2)
5gl m1
2m1 O
2m   m1 
(3) 3  m  5gl (4)   gl
 1 m m1 v1 m m1 v1/3
m 3m
44. Eddy currents are produced when 5gl 5gl
(1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field (1) (2)
2m1 m  2m
 m11
(2) a metal is kept in a steady magnetic field (3) 5gl (4) gl
(3) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field    m
3  m1   
(4) through a circular coil current is passed
44. Hk¡o ekk k,a mRiUu gksrh ga,S tc fdlh
45. In a gravity free space, a man of mass M standing
(1) /kkrq dks if orZu'khy pqEcdhe eks» esa [kk
at a height h above the floor, throws a ball of mass
tkrk gAS
m straight down with a speed u. When the ball
(2) /kkrq dks Fkk;h pqEcdhe eks» esa [kk tkrk
reaches the floor, the distance of the man above
the floor will be
gAS
 m  M (3) o`Ùkkdk dq Myh dks pqEcdhe eks» esa [kk
(1) h  1  (2) 1   h tkrk gS
 M  m 
m (4) o`Ùkkdk dq Myh ls ekk k izokfgr gksrh gS
(3) h (4) h 45. x:q Ro eqDr vkdk'k eas Q'kZ ls h Å¡pkbZ i
M
ekM+k gqvk M nzO;eku dk yd O;fDr, m nzO;eku
dh xsan dks u pky ds lkFk lh/kk uhps dh vks Qad
rk gAS tc xasn Q'kZ i igq¡prh gS, O;fDr dh Q'kZ
ls nw h gksxh :–
 m  M
(1) h  1  (2)  1   h
 M  m m 
(3) h (4) h
M
TOPIC : Surface Chemistry : Adsorption,Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Thermodynamics
46. What will be the mass of one He atom in gram:- 46. ,d He i ekkq dk xzke esa æO;eku gS :-
(1) 6.64 × 10–24 g (2) 24 × 1023 g (1) 6.64 × 10–24 g (2) 24 × 1023 g
(3) 4.15 × 10–25 g (4) 6.64 × 1024 g (3) 4.15 × 10–25 g (4) 6.64 × 1024 g
47. Number of atoms present in 50 amu of hydrogen is:- 47. gkbMªkstu ds 50 amu esa i ek kqvksa dh laeek
(1) 50 (2) 25 gS :- (1) 50 (2) 25
(3) 1 (4) None of these (3) 1 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
48. 8g O2 has same number of atoms as that in :- 48. 8g O2 esa i ek kqvksa dh laeek fdlds leku
(1) 14g CO (2) 7g CO gS :-
(3) 11g CO2 (4) 22g CO2 (1) 14g CO (2) 7g CO
49. If LPG cylinder contains mixture of butane and (3) 11g CO2 (4) 22g CO2
isobutane then the amount of oxygen that would be 49. LPG flys M esa mif Fkr C;wVsu o vkblks C;wVsu ds
required for combustion of 1 kg of it will be:- (1) 1 kg feJ k dk ngu d us ds fyy vko';d
1.8 kg (2) 3.58 kg (3) 2.7 kg (4) 4.5 kg vkWDlhtu dh ek=k gksxh :-
50. 24 g Mg metal reacts with water, then how many (1) 1.8 kg (2) 3.58 kg
moles of H2 will be liberated :- (3) 2.7 kg (4) 4.5 kg
50. 24 g Mg /kkrq ty ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k d rh gS rks
(1) 2 mol (2) 4 mol (3) 3 mol (4) 1 mol gkbMªkstu ds fdrus eksy cusaxs :-
51. How many moles of potassium chlorate to be (1) 2 eksy (2) 4 eksy (3) 3 eksy
heated to produce 5.6 litre oxygen at STP ? (4) 1 eksy
1 51. ikVS fs 'k;e Dyks Vs ds fdrus ekys xeZ d us i ,
(1) mol (2) 6 mol STP i 5.6 yhV vkWDlhtu mRiUu d saxs\
6
1
1 (1) eksy (2) 6 eksy
(3) 18 mol (4) mol 6
18
1
52. The equivalent weight of a metal is 4.5 and the
(3) 18 eksy (4) eksy
molecular weight of its chloride is 80. The atomic 18
weight of the metal is :- 52. ,d ekkrq dk rqY;kadh Hkk 4.5 gS o blds Dyks kbM dk
(1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 36 v kqHkk
53. Which has minimum number of atoms of oxygen? 80 gAS ekkrq dk i ek kq Hkk gS :-
(1) 10 ml H2O(l) (1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 36

(2) 0.1 mol of V2O5(s) 53. fdlesa vkWDlhtu i ek kqvksa dh laeek lcls de
(3) 12 gm O3(g) g\S
(4) 12.04 × 1022 molecules of CO (1) 10 ml H2O(l)
2
54. In air contains 21% O2 by volume. The number (2) V2O5(s) ds 0.1 eksy
of atoms of oxygen per litre of air at STP is :- (3) 12 xzke O3(g)
(1) 3.8 × 1023 (2) 0.38 × 1023 (4) 12.04 × 1022 v kq CO
23 2
(3) 38 × 10 (4) 1.12 × 1022
54. ;fn gok esa vkWDlhtu xlS dqy vk;ru dk 21%
g,S rks STP if f Fkfr;kas eas izfr yhV gok esa
vkWDlhtu ds i ek kqvksa dh laeek Kkr d sa :-
(1) 3.8 × 1023 (2) 0.38 × 1023
(3) 38 × 1023 (4) 1.12 × 1022
ALLEN
55. An organic compound on analysis was found to 55. ,d dkcZfud ekSfxd dk fo'ys"kk d us i
contain 0.032 % of sulphur. If its molecule contain lYQ dk
two sulphur atoms, then the molecular mass of the 0.032 % izkIr gksrk gS rks ekfS xd dk v kqHkk D;k
compound will be :- gksxk efn izfr vkq esa lYQ ds nks iek kq gaS
(1) 200 (2) 2000 (3) 100000 (4) 200000 :-
56. An amount of 0.3 mole of SrCl2 is mixed with (1) 200 (2) 2000 (3) 100000 (4) 200000
0.2 mole of K3PO4. The maximum KCl which may 56. SrCl2 ds 0.3 eksy dks K3PO4 ds 0.2 eksy ls
form will be :- feykd vfHkfØ;k d kbZ tkrh gAS KCl ds izkIr
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1 vf/kdre eksyksa dh laeek gksxh :-
57. Which one of the following will have minimum (1) 0.6 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1
number of atoms ? 57. fuEu eas ls fdlesa U;wure i ek kq laeek gksxh ?
(1) 8 g oxygen (1) 8 g vkWDlhtu
(2) 1 g hydrogen (2) 1 g gkbMªkstu
(3) 1.5 mol nitrogen
(3) 1.5 eksy ukbVªkstu
(4) 5.6 L He at NTP
(4) NTP i 5.6 L He
58. How many number of g-molecule of O2 will be
58. 6.02 × 1024 CO2 v kqvksa esa O2 ds fdrus g-v kq
present in 6.02 × 1024 molecules of CO2 ? mifFkr gksaxs ?
(1) 10 (2) 5 (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 20 (4) 6.02 × 1023 (3) 20 (4) 6.02 × 1023
59. Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of Fe by weight. 59. gheksXyksfcu esa Hkkkuqlk 0.334% Fe mif Fkr gA
The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
gheksXyksfcu dk v kqHkk yxHkx 67200 gS vr: blds
aproximately 67200. The number of iron atoms
1 v kq esa mifFkr Fe i ekkqvksa dh laeek Kkr d k
present in one molecule of haemoglobin is :-
:-
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 (1) 1 (2) 2
60. When a metal is burnt its weight is increased by (3) 4 (4) 6
24%, the equivalent weight of metal is :- 60. tc fdlh ekkrq dk ngu d rs gaS rks blds Hkk esa 24%
100 dh o`f¼ gks tkrh gS vr: ekkrq dk rqY;kadh Hkk Kkr
(1) 24 (2) d ks ?
3 100
(3) 25 (4) 8 (1) 24 (2)
61. Which statement is correct regarding adsorption:- 3
(3) 25 (4) 8
(1) H is always +ve
(2) G is always +ve
61. vf/k'kks"k k ds lanHkZ esa dkuS lk dFku lgh gS :-
(3) TS is always –ve
(1) H lnoS +ve gksrk gAS
(4) All are correct
(2) G lnSo +ve gksrk gAS
62. Which of the following characteristics is not
(3) TS lnSo –ve gksrk gAS
correct for physical adsorption :-
(4) lHkh lgh gaAS
(1) Adsorption is spontaneous at suitable 62. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk xqk HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k k ds fy;s
conditions lgh ugha gS :-
(2) It is not specific in nature (1) mfpr if f Fkfr;ksa esa vf/k'kks"k k or: gAS
(3) It is reversible in nature (2) ;g O;ogk esa fof'k"V ugha gksrk gAS
(4) Degree of adsorption increases with temperature
(3) ;g izd`fr esa mRØe khe gAS

16/40 txg
ALLEN
(4) vf/k'kks"k k dh ek=k rki ds lkFk ca.rh gAS

txg 15/40
63. Point out the false statement :- 63. xyr dFku pqfu;s :-
(1) Brownian movement and Tyndall effect is (1) czkmfu;u xfr rFkk fV My izHkko dksykWbMh feJ k sa
shown by colloidal systems 9k k n'kkZ;s tkrs gaAS
(2) Gold number is a measure of the protective (2) o kZ la eek, æousgh dksykWbMkas dh {k k
power of a lyophilic colloid ekerk dk eki gAS
(3) The colloidal mixture of a liquid in liquid is (3) æo dk æo esa dksykW b Mh feJk ^tyS *
called ‘gel’ dgykrk gSA
(4) Hardy-Schulze rule is related with coagulation (4) gkMhZ&'kqYt fu;e dUnu ekerk ls lEcfU/kr gAS
power. 64. æousgh lWky dh o kZ laeek yd yslk xq k gS
64. Gold number of a lyophilic sol is such a property fd–
that :
(1) The larger its value, the greater is the peptizing (1) bldk eku vf/kd rks isIVhd`r ekerk Hkh
vf/kd gksxhA
power
(2) The lower its value, the greater is the peptizing (2) bldk eku de rks isIVhd`r ekerk vf/kd gksxhA
power (3) bldk eku de rks {k k ekerk vf/kd gksxhA
(3) The lower its value, the greater is the protecting
power (4) bldk eku vf/kd rks {k k ekerk Hkh
(4) The larger its value, the greater is the vf/kd gksxhA
protecting power 65. HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k k ds fyy fuEu esa ls dkuS lk
65. Which of following is incorrect regarding physical vlRe gS ?
adsorpton ?
(1) 'kh?kz æfor gksus okyh xlS sa vklkuh ls vf/k'kksf"kr gksrh
(1) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed
gaAS
easily
(2) Physical adsorption is multilayer (2) HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k k cgqi rhe gksrk gAS
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption (Hadsorption) is low and (3) vf/k'kks"k k dh mG"ek (Hadsorption) de rFkk
positive ekukRed gksrh gAS
(4) It occurs because of vander waal forces
(4) ;g ok M oky cyksa ds dk k gksrk gAS
66. Which of following involves heterogeneous
66. fuEu esa ls fdlesa fo"kekaxh mRizs k gS ?
catalysis ?
1
1 (1) 2HCl  O (g) CuCl (s)Cl 
(1) 2HCl  O (g) CuCl (s)Cl
HO
H O 2
2
(g) 2 2  g 2  l
(g) 2 2 g 2  l 2
2
(2) 4NH 3(g)  5O 2 (g)  Pt (s)  4NO  6H O (2) 4NH 3(g)  5O 2 (g)  Pt (s)  4NO
g
 6H O
2  l
g 2  l
(s ) (s )
(3) 2SO (g) Pt   2SO (3) 2SO (g) Pt   2SO
2 3(g) 2 3(g)
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls lHkh
67. The stability of lyophilic colloids is due to : 67. nzousgh dksykWbMksa dk Fkkf;Ro gS :
(1) charge on their particles (1) muds d kksa i vkos'k ds dk k
(2) a layer of dispersion medium on their particles (2) muds d kksa i if {ksik ekeee dh i r
(3) the smaller size of their particles ds dk k
(4) the large size of their particles (3) muds d kksa ds ksVs vkdk ds dk k
(4) muds d kksa ds cMs. vkdk ds dk k
ALLEN
68. Which of the following is incorrect match 68. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk feyku vlRe gS \
(1) physisorption - multilayered (1) HkkfS rd vf/k'kks"k k – cgqi rhe
(2) Active Adsorption-Requires activation energy (2) lfØe vf/k'kks"k k - lfØek ÅtkZ
(3) Lyophobic colloid - charge is present vko';d gAS
(4) Lyophilic colloid - less hydration (3) nzo fo ks/kh dksykWbM – vkos'k mifFkr gksrk
69. Which of the following is an example of gAS
positively charged colloidal solution ? (4) nzo usgh dksykWbM – de ty ekstu
M M 69. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ekukosf'kr dksyWkbM dk mnkg k
(1) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI gAS
3
10 10
M M
M M (1) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI
(2) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI 10 3
10
3
10 20
M M
M M (2) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI
(3) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI 3
20 3
10 10 20
M M M M
(4) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI (3) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI
3
20 3
20 20 10
70. Lyophilic colloidal solution can be coagulated M M
by– (4) 100ml AgNO  100ml KI
3
20 20
(1) addition of high concentration of electrolyte
70. nzzousgh dksyWkbMh foy;u dks dafnr fd;k tk
(2) By addition of solvent like C2H5OH
ldrk
gS –
(3) By addition of excess H2O
(1)
fo|qr vi?kV~e dh vf/kd lkanzrk feykd
(4) Both (1) & (2) correct
71. A freshly prepared Fe(OH) 3 precipitate is peptized (2)
C2H5OH tlS s foyk;d dks feykd
by adding FeCl 3 solution. The charge on the (3)
ty dks vkf/kDe esa feykd
colloidal particle is due to preferential adsorption (4)
nksuks (1) vks (2) lgh gaAS
of :- 71. Fe(OH)3 ds rktk cus vo{ksi esa FeCl3 foy;u
(1) Cl– ions (2) Fe+++ ions feykus i blsisIVhd`r fd;k tkrk gAS dksykWbMh d kkas
(3) OH– ions (4) None of these i vkos'k, fuEu esa ls fdlds vf/k'kks"k k ls vkrk
72. For the coagulation of 100 ml of ferric hydroxide gS :-
sol. 10 ml of 0.5 M KCl is required. What is the (1) Cl– vk;u (2) Fe+++
coagulation value of KCl ? vk;u
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) OH– vk;u (4) bueas ls dksbZ ugha
(3) 100 (4) 50 72. 100 ml Qsf d gkbMªkWDlkbM ds danu ds
73. Out of the following which is not the set of fy;s 10 ml
intensive properties :- 0.5 M KCl vko';d gS rks KCl dk danu eku
(1) Boiling point, pH, molarity D;k gksxk ?
(2) Volume, area, length (1) 5 (2) 10
(3) Freezing point, boiling point, molar volume (3) 100 (4) 50
(4) Molarity, molality, density fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lewg xgu xq k/keksZ dk ugha gS :-
73.
(1) DoFkukad, pH, eksyrk
txg
ALLEN
(2) vk;ru, eks=Qy, yEckbZ
(3) xyukad, DoFkukad, eksy vk;ru
(4) eksy rk, eksyyrk, ×kuRo

txg
74. Consider the following chemical reactions 74. nh xbZ vfHkfØ;kvksa esa Kkr d ks
I : CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g) I : CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2(s) + C2H2(g)
II : CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) II : CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
III : 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g)  Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) III : 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g)  Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g)
work is done by the system in the cases of :- fd fdlesa fudke 9k k dk;Z fd;k tkrk gS :-
(1) I, II (2) I, II, III (1) I, II (2) I, II, III
(3) I only (4) II only (3) dsoy I (4) dsoy II
75. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the 75. vkn'kZ xlS ds lerkihe izlk ds nkS ku fd;k
work done is equal to- x;k dk;Z fdlds leku gksxk–
(1) Heat released out of the system (1) fudke 9k k mRlftZr Å"ek
(2) Heat absorbed by the system (2) fudke 9k k vo'kksf"kr Å"ek
(3) Zero (3) 'kwUe
(4) None of them (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
76. Which of the following is correct option for free 76. :¼ks"e if fFkfr;ksa eas vkn'kZ xlS ds eqDr izlk
ds fyy fuEu esa ls lgh dFku g\S
expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic
condition? (1) q = 0, T < 0, W  0
(1) q = 0, T < 0, W  0 (2) q = 0, T  0, W = 0
(2) q = 0, T  0, W = 0 (3) q  0, T = 0, W = 0
(3) q  0, T = 0, W = 0
(4) q = 0, T = 0, W = 0
(4) q = 0, T = 0, W = 0
77. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh vfHkfØ;k dHkh Hkh or: ugha
77. Which of the following reaction is expected never gks ldrh gS :-
to be spontaneous :-
(1) 2O3(g)  3O2(g) H = –ve, S = +ve
(1) 2O3(g)  3O2(g) H = –ve, S = +ve
(2) Mg(s) + H2(g)  MgH2 H = –ve, S = –ve
(2) Mg(s) + H2(g)  MgH2 H = –ve, S = –ve
(3) Br2(l)  Br2(g) H = +ve, S = +ve
(3) Br2(l)  Br2(g) H = +ve, S = +ve
(4) 2Ag(l) + 3N2(g)  2AgN3 H = +ve, S = –ve
(4) 2Ag(l) + 3N2(g)  2AgN3 H = +ve, S = –ve 78. 27°C rki i 2 eksy vkn'kZ xlS 4 yhV ls
78. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally 40 yhV rd
and reversibly from a volume of 4 lit. to 40 lit. The lerkih o mRØekhe vi ls izlk d rh gAS xlS
work done (in kJ) by the gas is :- 9k k fd;k x;k dk;Z (kJ esa) gS :-
(1) w = –28.72 kJ (2) w = –11.488 kJ (1) w = –28.72 kJ (2) w = –11.488 kJ
(3) w = –5.736 kJ (4) w = –4.988 kJ (3) w = –5.736 kJ (4) w = –4.988 kJ
79. What is the change in internal energy when a gas 79. ,d xlS ckg~e nkc 1520 VkW ds izHkko eas 377
contracts from 377 ml to 177 ml under a constant ml
pressure of 1520 torr. While at the same time being ls 177 ml rd ladqfpr gksrh gS rFkk lkFk&lkFk blls
cooled by removing 124 J heat ? 124 J Å"ek mRlftZr gksrh gAS xlS dh
vkUrfd ÅtkZ esa gksus okyk if orZu gS :-
(1) 40.52 J (2) –83.48 J
(1) 40.52 J (2) –83.48 J
(3) –248 J (4) None of these
(3) –248 J (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
80. For the reaction FeCO3(s)  FeO(s) + CO2(g) 80. vfHkfØ;k FeCO 3 (s)  FeO(s) + CO 2 (g)
H = 82.8 kJ at 25°C, what is E at 25°C ? H = 82.8 kJ (25°C i) ds fyy E dk eku
(1) 82.8 kJ (2) 80.32 kJ g\S
(3) –2394.77 kJ (4) 85.28 kJ (1) 82.8 kJ (2) 80.32 kJ
81. Which of the following will have zero standard (3) –2394.77 kJ (4) 85.28 kJ
molar enthalpy of formation ? 81. fuEu esa ls fdldk ekud fuekZ k yUFkYS ih dk eku
(1) P(s) (2) P(g) (3) P4(g) (4) Na(g) 'kwUe gksxk\
82. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is (1) P(s) (2) P(g) (3) P4(g) (4) Na(g)
– 91.8 kJ mol–1. The amount of heat required to
decompose 34 g of NH3(g) into its component 82. NH dh ekud fuekZ k Å"ek –91.8 kJ mol–1 gAS
elements N2, H2 will be :- vr:3(g)
(1) 183.6 kJ (2) 91.8 kJ 34 g NH3(g) dks mlds vo;oh rRoksa N2 rFkk H2 esa
(3) 45.9 kJ (4) 137.7 kJ fo?kfVr d us ds fyy vko';d Å"ek gksxh :-
83. For the reaction X2Y4(l)  2XY2(g) at 300 K the (1) 183.6 kJ (2) 91.8 kJ
values of U and S are 2 kcal and (3) 45.9 kJ (4) 137.7 kJ
20 cal K–1 respectively. The value of G for the
reaction is :- 83. vfHkfØ;k X2Y4(l)  2XY2(g) ds fyy 300 K
(1) –3400 cal (2) 3400 cal rki i
(3) –2800 cal (4) 2000 cal U, S dk eku Øe'k: 2 kcal vkS
84. Combustion of glucose takes place according to 20 cal K–1 gS vr: vfHkfØ;k ds fyy G dk eku
the equation, gksxk:
C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O, H =–72 kcal
How much energy will be released by combustion (1) –3400 cal (2) 3400 cal
of 160 g of glucose (3) –2800 cal (4) 2000 cal
(1) 0.064 kcal (2) 0.64 kcal
84. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds vuqlk Xywdkst dk ngu gksrk gS –
(3) 6.4 kcal (4) 64 kcal
C6H12O6 + 6O2  6CO2 + 6H2O, H =–72 kcal
85. The heat of combustion of C4H10 is –2878 kJ mol–1. If
vr: 160 g Xywdkst ds ngu ls mRlftZr ÅtkZ gksxh
the heats of formation of CO 2 and H 2O are
–393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 then the heat
–
of formation of C4H10 is :- (1) 0.064 kcal (2) 0.64 kcal
(1) –125.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 126.75 kJ mol –1 (3) 6.4 kcal (4) 64 kcal
(3) –402.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 402.5 kJ mol –1 85. C4H10 dh ngu dh Å"ek –2878 kJ mol–1 gS rFkk CO2,
86. For the reaction H2O
2Cl(g)  Cl2(g) dh fuekZk Å"ek Øe'k: –393.5 kJ mol –1
vkS
What are the sign of H and S ?
–285.8 kJ mol–1 gAS vr: C4H10 dh laHkou Å"ek
(1) H > 0 , S > 0 dk eku gksxk \
(2) H < 0 , S < 0 (1) –125.0 kJ mol–1 (2) 126.75 kJ mol –1
(3) H > 0 , S < 0 (3) –402.5 kJ mol–1 (4) 402.5 kJ mol –1
(4) H < 0 , S > 0 86. 2Cl(g)  Cl 2(g)
fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fyy H o S dk fpUg D;k
gksxk ? (1) H > 0 , S > 0
(2) H < 0 , S < 0
(3) H > 0 , S < 0
(4) H < 0 , S > 0
87 Na(s)  Na(g), the heat of reaction is called 87. vfHkfØ;k Na(s)  Na(g) dh Å"ek dgykrh
as g–S
(1) Heat of vaporisation
(1)ok"iu dh Å"ek
(2) Heat of atomisation
(2)i ek ohd k dh Å"ek
(3) Heat of sublimation
(3)Å/oZikru dh Å"ek
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4)2 rFkk 3 nksuksa
88. The heat of neutralization for 2 moles of LiOH and
1 mole of H2SO4 at 25°C is –69.6 KJ. The heat of 88. 25°C rki i 2 eksy LiOH o 1 eksy
H 2 SO 4 ds mnklhuhd k dh Å"ek –69.6 KJ mol–1
ionisation of LiOH will be nearly :-
gAS LiOH dh vk;uhd k dh Å"ek yxHkx D;k
(1) 22.5 KJ mol–1
gksxh :-
(2) 90 KJ mol–1 (1) 22.5 KJ mol–1
(3) 45 KJ mol–1 (2) 90 KJ mol
–1
(3) 45 KJ mol
–1
(4) 33.6 KJ mol–1
89. The following reactions are given : (4) 33.6 KJ mol–1
CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g)+2H2O(g) ; H = – x ...(1) 89. fuEu vfHkfØ;k nh x;h gS :

C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) ; H = – y ...(2) CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g)+2H2O(g) ; H = – x ...(1)
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) ; H = – y ...(2)
1
H2(g) + O2 (g)  H2O(g) ; H = – z ...(3) 1
2 H2(g) + O 2(g)  H2O(g) ; H = – z ...(3)
Calculate the heat of formation of CH4 ? 2
CH4 dh fuekZ k dh Å"ek Kkr d ks ?
(1) x + y + z
(1) x+y+ z
(2) y + 2z – x
(2) y + 2z – x
(3) x – y – 2z
(3) x – y – 2z
(4) none of the above
(4) mi ksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
90. From the following bond energies:
90. fuEu dh cU/k ÅtkZ,¡ :
H–H bond energy = 420 KJ mol–1
H–H dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 420 KJ
CC bond energy = 601 KJ mol–1
mol–1 CC dh ca/k ÅtkZ = 601
CC bond energy = 340 KJ mol–1 KJ mol–1 CC dh ca/k ÅtkZ =
CH bond energy = 425 KJ mol–1 340 KJ mol–1 CH dh ca/k
Enthalpy change for the reaction : ÅtkZ = 425 KJ mol–1 rks
C2H2 + 2H2  C2H6 vfHkfØ;k :
(1) –599 KJ mol–1 C2H2 + 2H2  C2H6 dh yUFkYS ih if orZu g–S
(2) –580 KJ mol–1 (1) –599 kJ mol–1
(2) –580 kJ mol–1
(3) –625 KJ mol–1
(3) –625 kJ mol–1
(4) –325 KJ mol–1
(4) –325 kJ mol–1
ALLEN
TOPIC : Genetics-II, Molecular basis of Inheritance, Biology and Human Welfare (Domestication of Plants),
Cell Structure and Function, Cell division: Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance.
91. Which of following organelle is not present in 91. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dks'khdkax vf/kdka'kr: lHkh
almost all plant cells :- ikniksa dh dksf'kdkvksa esa mif Fkr ugha gksrk gS :-
(1) Vacoule (2) Plastid
(1) hfDrdk (2) yod
(3) ekbVksdksUMªh;k (4) rk ddsUæ
(3) Mitochondria (4) Centriols
92. uo ikni dksf'kdk dh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk esa f Fkr
92. The cell wall of a young plant cell, the ....."A".....
....."A"
is capable of growth, which gradually diminishes
esa
as the cell mature and the ....."B"......is formed on
o`f¼ dh ekerk gksrh g,S tks dksf'kdk dh if iDork
the inner side of the cell. ds lkFk ×kVrh tkrh gS o blds lkFk dksf'kdk ds
Choose the correct word for "A" and "B" Hkhr dh rQ ....."B".....
respectively :- dk fuekZ k gksus yxrk gAS
(1) Secondary wall, Tertiary wall "A" o "B" ds fyy Øe'k: l gh 'kCnks a dk
p;u dhft;s :-
(2) Primary wall, Secondary wall
(1) f}rh;d fHkfÙk, r`rh;d fHkfÙk
(3) Secondary wall, Primary wall
(2) izkFkfed fHkfÙk, f}rh;d fHkfÙk
(4) Tertiary wall, Secondary wall (3) f}rh;d fHkfÙk, izkFkfed fHkfÙk
93. Which one is the continuous with outer membrane
(4) r`rh;d fHkfÙk, f}rh;d fHkfÙk
of nucleus:-
(1) Golgibody (2) SER 93. dsUæd dh ckgh f>Yyh ds lkFk vuo r dkuS tqM+k
(3) RER (4) Lysosome gksrk gS :-
94. If A cell have 40 picogram DNA in 20 (1) xkWYthdke (2) SER
chromosomes at prophase I then what should be (3) RER (4) ykblkslkse
the amount of DNA and chromosome number in
94. ;fn yd dksf'kdk izksQst I esa 40 fidksxzke DNA 20
a gamete respectively :-
xq klw=ksaesa gS rks eqXed esa fdruk DNA vkS xq klw=ksa
(1) 20,20 (2) 10,20 dh laeek Øe'k:
(3) 20,10 (4) 10,10 D;k gksxh :-
95. Crossing over take place in which phase of (1) 20,20 (2) 10,20
meiosis :-
(3) 20,10 (4) 10,10
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene 95. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl vo Fkk esa thu fofuee
96. Homologus chromosomes are separate in which gksrk gS :-
phase of meiosis :- (1) ysIVkVs hu esa (2)
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II tk;xksVhu esa
(3) prophase I (4) Metaphase II (3) isdhVhu esa (4) fMIyksVhu esa
97. Which one is correct statement for lysosome:- 96. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl vo Fkk esa letkr xq klw
(1) Membrane less cell organells » i`Fkd gksrs gaS :-
(2) It have only protease enzyme
(1) ,ukQst I esa (2) ,ukQst II esa
(3) izksQst I esa (4) esVkQst II esa
(3) It is packed by ER
97. ykblkslkse ds fyy dkuS lk yd lRe
(4) It have low pH than cytoplasm
dFku gS :-
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ALLEN
(1) f>Yyh fgr dksf'kdkax
(2) blesa dsoy izksVh,t yUtkbe gksrs gS
(3) bldh idS sthax ER esa gksrh gAS
(4) blesa dksf'kdk æOe ls de pH gksrh gS
LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-
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98. Identify the given cells :- 98. nh xbZ dksf'kdkvksa dks igpkfuy :-
(A) (B) (A) (B)

(1) A-RBC B-nerve cell (1) A-RBC B-raf=dk
(2) A-WBC B-nerve cell dksf'kdk
(3) A-WBC B-Trachied cell (2) A-WBC B-raf=dk dksf'kdk
(4) A-RBC B-Trachied cell (3) A-WBC B-okfgfudk
99. ER, Golgicomplex, lysosomes and vacuoles are dksf'kdk
includes in endomembrane system because. (4) A-RBC B-okfgfudk dksf'kdk
(1) Their Functions are similar 99. ER, xkWYthdke, y;udke o l/kkuh dks vr:
(2) Their structures are same f>fYydk ra» ds varxZr [krs gaS D;ksfd :-
(3) Their functions are co-ordinated (1) buds dk;Z leku gksrs gaAS
(4) Golgi complex, ER and vacuoles are (2) budh la puk leku gksrh gAS
originated from the lysosome
(3) buds dk;Z yd nwl s ls tqM+s grs gAS
100. D (4) xkWYthdke, ER o l/kkuh, y;udke ls mRiUu
B gksrs gaAS
A
100. D
C B
A
C
Identify the marked cell organells :-
fpUghr dksf'kdkaxks dks igpkfuy :-
101. Which of the following pair of organells contain

ribosome ?
(1) Golgi body and mitochondria
(2) Lysosome and sphaerosome 101. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dksf'kdkax eqXe esa
(3) Chloroplast and mitochondria kbckslkse feyrk gS –
(4) Vacuole and ER (1) xkYthdkWe rFkk lw=df kdk
(2) ykblkslkse rFkk Qks kslkse
(3)Dyks ksIyk V rFkk ekbVksdkWUMªh;k
(4) f fDrdk rFkk ER
A B C D
A B C D
(1) Centriol Ribosome SER Nucleolus
(1) rk d dsUæ kbckslks SER dsfUædk
(2) Ribosome Ribosome SER Centriol e
(3) Mitochondria Centriol RER Golgi body (2) kbckslkse kbckslks SER rk d dsUæ
(4) RER Ribosome SER Nucleolus e
(3) ekbVªksdksfUMª; rk d RER xkWYthdke
102. Dissolution of Synaptonemal complex occurs in 102. izksQst I dh fdl vo Fkk esa flusIVksuhey lfEeJ dk
which phase of prophase I ? fo?kVu
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene gks tkrk gS :-
(3) Dikinesis (4) Diplotene (1) tk;xksVhu esa (2)
103. If the centromere is situated close to its end forming fyIVksVhu esa
one extremely short and one very long arm, the (3) Mk;dkbufs ll esa (4) fMIyksVhu esa
chromosome is :- 103. ;fn xq klw » fcUnq fls ds lehi f Fkr gks
(1) Telocentric (2) Submetacentric ftlls yd vR;f/kd ksVh yoa yd vR;f/kd
(3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric yEch Hkqtk cu tkrh g,S yslk xq klw» dgykrk gS :-
104. The structure that are formed by stacking of
(1) vardsUnzh (2)
mieee dsUnzh
organised flattened membranous sacs in the
(3) vxzdsUnzh (4) eee dsUnzh
chloroplasts are :-
104. gf r yod esa piVh f>Yyh eqDr FkyS huqek, la
(1) Stroma lamella (2) Stroma pukvksa ds as dks D;k dgrs ga:S -
(3) Cristae (4) Grana
(1) Vªksek iêfydk (2) Vªksek
105. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human
cells(eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase (3) fØ Vh (4) xzsuk
of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum 105. ,slk dgk tkrk gS fd ekuo dh dksf'kdk esa dksf'kdk
part of cell cycle ? foHkktu dk yd pØ iw kZ gksus esa 24 ?kaVs yxrs gA
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase vkids vuqlk dksf'kdk pØ dh fdl vo Fkk e
(3) Anaphase (4) Metaphase lcls T;knk lee O;rhr gkrs k gS ?
106. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degraded (1) izksQst (2) bUVQst
exclusively in the :-
(3) ,ukQst (4) esVkQst
(1) Peroxisome (2) Mitochondria
(3) Spherosome (4) Glyoxysomes 106. vadqf r chtksa esa olhe vEyksa dk fo[kaMu fdlesa
107. The core of a cilium or flagellum composed of gksrk gS :-
microtubules is called :- (1) i vkWDlhlkse (2) lw=df
(1) Blepharoplast (2) Axonema kdk
(3) Microfilament (4) Chromatin
(3) Qs kslkse (4) XyksbvkWDlhlkse
108. The lampbrush chromosomes is observed during
which stage of meiosis :- 107. lhfy;k vFkok ¶yfS tyk dh dks dk fuekZ k
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
lw{eufydkvksa ls gksrk g;S bldks dgrs gaS :-
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
(1) CyhQsksIykV (2)
,Xtksuhek (v{klw»)
109. Identify structure A, B and C :- (3) lw{erUrq (4) ØksesfVu
COOH COOH COOH
108. yES icz'k xq klw» v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl izko Fkk
H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 ds nkS ku fn[kkbZ nsrk gS :-
(1) Fkwyiê (2) f}iê
H CH3 CH2OH (3) ik xfrØe (4) ;qXeiê
(A) (B) (C) 109. la puk A, B rFkk C dh igpku d ks :-
Option:- COOH COOH COOH
(A) (B) (C)
H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2 H–C–NH2
(1) Alanine Serine Valine
(2) Glycine Serine Alanine H CH3 CH2OH
(3) Glycine Alanine Serine (A) (B) (C)
(4) Glycine Alanine Valine
fodYi :-
(A) (B) (C)
(1) ,ysuhu lhhu oys hu
(2) Xykblhu lhhu ,ysuhu
(3) Xykblhu ,ysuhu lhhu
(4) Xykblhu ,ysuhu osyhu
110. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% 110. leqnzh vfpZu ds DNA esa , tks f}dqaMfyr
of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The gksrk g,S 17% csl
percentages of the other three bases expected to be lk;Vksflu ds fn[kky xy bl DNA esa vUe rhu
present in this DNA are :- cslksa dh izR;kf'kr izfr'krrk D;k gksxh\
(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5% (1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33% (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
111. Which one of the following is a non - reducing
carbohydrate ? 111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk yd
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose vu&vipk;d dkcksZgkbMsªV g\S
(3) Lactose (4) Ribose (1) ekYVkst (2)
112. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched? lqØkst
(1) Purines - Adenine and Guanine
(3) yDS Vkst (4) kbckstÛ
(2) Pyrimidines - Cytosine and Uracil
112. fuEu esa ls
(3) Nucleosides - Cytosine and Uridine
dkuS lk tksM+k xyr feyku d gk g\S
(4) DNA - Genetic macromolecule
(1) I;whu - ,sMsuhu vkS Xokuhu
113. Read the given statements and select the option
(2) fif feMhu - lkbVksflu vkS ew sfly
that correctly sorts these with respect to X and Y in
(3) U;wfDy;kslkbM - lkbVksflu rFkk ewf fMu
the given flow chart :-
(4) DNA - vkuqoaf'kd o`grv kq
Living tissue
113. fn;s x;s
Grinding in Cl3COOH
dFkuksa dk eekuiwoZd veeeu d rs gq;s mUgs fn;s x;s
Thick slurry vk s[k esa X o Y ds lUnHkZ esa vyx&vyx
kfV;s–
Strained through cheese cloth
thfor rd
Two fractions are obtained Cl3COOH feDlj esa
fgyk;s xk<k ?kksy

X filtrate Y Retentate
?kksy dks diM+s }kjk Nkuus ij
(a) Acid soluble pool
(b) Acid insoluble pool nks ?kVd çkIr gq;s
(c) Molecular weight ranging from 18 to 800
dalton approximately
(d) Amino acid, sugar, nucleotides X fuL;an Y /kkfjrk
(e) Contain chemicals that have molecular weight
more than 1000 D (a) vEy foys e va'k
(f) Protein, nucleic acid, polysaccharides (b) vEy vfoyse va'k
Options :- (c) vkf od Hkk yxHkx 18-800 MkYVu gksrk
(1) X - b, e, f; Y - a, c, d gAS
(2) X - a, c, d; Y - b, e, f (d) vehuks vEy, 'kdZ k, U;qfDy;ksVkbM
(3) X - a, d; Y - b, c, e, f
(e) vkf od Hkk 1000 D ls T;knk [krs gaAS
(4) X - b, c, f; Y - a, e, d
(f)izksVhu, U;wfDyd vEy,
iksyhldS s kbM fodYi :-
(1) X- b, e, f; Y - a, c, d
(2) X- a, c, d; Y - b, e, f
(3) X- a, d; Y - b, c, e, f
(4) X- b, c, f; Y - a, e, d
A B A B
ALLEN
114. Match the column-I with column-II :- 114. rEHk-I dk rEHk-II ds lkFk feyku d ks :-
Column-I Column-II rEHk -I rEHk-II

(A) Alkaloids (I) Monoterpenes (A) ,YdsYok,M (I) eksuksV
(B) Terpenoides (II) Morphine ihal
(B) V (II) ekQhZu
(C) Drugs (III) Rubber
ihUok,Ml
(D) Polymeric (IV) Vinblastin (C) MªXl (III) c
substances
(D) cgqyd (IV) ohuCys
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV inkFkZ Vhu
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
115. Following structure is :- 115. fuEu la puk g–S
O O
O CH2–O–C–R1 O CH2–O–C–R1
R2–C–O–CH O R2–C–O–CH O
CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2 CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
OH N OH N
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
CH 3 CH3
(1) Cephalin (2) Ganglioside (1) lQS fyu (2) xaSxfy;kslkbM
(3) Cholesterol (4) Lecithin (3) dkWysVs kWy (4) yslhFkhu
116. Which of the following is a homopolymer ? 116. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lecgqyd g\S
(1) Cellulose (2) Nucleic acid (1) lsY;wykst (2)
(3) Histone (4) Insulin U;wfDyd vEy
117. Match the column I with column II and choose the (3) fgVksu (4) bUlwfyu
correct answer :- 117. rEHk I dk rEHk II ls feyku dhfty rFkk lgh
fodYi dks pqfuy :-
Column I Column II rEHk I rEHk II
(Organic compound) (Example) (dkcZfudinkFkZ) (mnkg k)
(A) Fatty acid (i) Tryptophan (A) olhe vEy (i) VªhIVksQsu
(B) Complex (ii) Arachidonic (B) tVhy (ii) v sdhMksuhd
polysaccharide acid
ikWyhlsdskbM vEy
(C) Amino acid (iii) Rubisco (C) vehuks vEy (iii) :ch dks
(D) Protein (iv) Chitin (D) izksVhu (iv) dkbVhu
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii (1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy txg
118. From the given below structure, identify the zwitter 118. uhps nh xbZ la pukvksa esa ls, fToV vk;u dks
ions ? igpkfuy ?
 H  H  H  H
(A) –C–COO (B) –C–COO (A) –C–COO (B) –C–COO
NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
CH2 OH CH2 OH
COO COO
H H H H
(C) 
NH3–C–COOH (D) NH –C–COO
3
(C) 
NH3–C–COOH (D) NH 3–C–COO
CH2 CH3 CH2 CH3
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
CH3 CH3
NH3 NH3
 
(1) A and C (2) Only A (1) A rFkk C (2) dsoy A

(3) B and D (4) A and B
(3) B rFkk D (4) A rFkk B
119. A protein is imagined as a line, the left end
119. dYiuk d sa dh izksVhu yd s[kk gS rks blds cky
represented by -
fl s i-
(1) The first amino acid with its carboxyl terminal
(2) The last amino acid with its amino terminal
(1) izFke vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk eg dkcksZfDly
fl k gAS
(3) The first amino acid with its amino terminal
(2) vafre vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk eg
(4) The last amino acid with carboxyl terminal
vehuks fl k gAS
120. Which one is not a Fibrous protein
(3) izFke vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk eg vehuks
(1) Collagen (2) Elastin
fl k gS
(3) keratin (4) Albumin (4) vfUre vehuks vEy ftlds lkFk yd
121. Read the following statement - dkcksZfDly fl k gAS
(i) Majority of proteins and enzymes in 120. dkuS lh s'ksnk izksVhu ugha gS
protoplasm exhibit tertiary structure.
(1) dksystu (2) byk
(ii) In secondary structure of protein amino acids
Vhu
are linked by hydrogen bond, in addition to
peptide bond. (3) dh sVhu (4) ,Ycqfeu
(iii) Peptide bonds are present in primary 121. fuEu dFkuksa dks ia.s–
configuration. (i) izksVksIykTe esa mif Fkfr vf/kdk'ak izksVhu o
(iv) Property of proteins are depend on sequence of yatkbe r`rh;d foU;kl n'kkZrs gAS
amino acid and configuration of protein (ii) izksVhu dh f}rh;d la puk esa isIVkbM ca/k
molecule ds vykok blesagkbMªkstu ca/k Hkh gksrs gAS
How many above statements are correct :- (iii) izkFkfed ohU;kl esa isIVkbM ca/k mif Fkr
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3 gksrs gS
(iv) vehuksa vEy ds Øe rFkk izksVhu dh la puk
i izksVhu ds xq k fuHkZ d rs gAS
mi ksDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gaSA
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3
122. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 122. raHk-I dk raHk-II ds lkFk feyku d sa vkS lgh
correct option :- fodYi
pqfu,s :–
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
123. Most abundant protein in human body is- (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(1) Collagen (2) Myosin 123. ekuo 'k h eas lcls vf/kd ek=k eas ik;h
(3) Actin (4) Albumin tkus okyh ikz Vs hu gS–
124. Most simple amino acid is- (1) dkWystu (2)
(1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine ek;kslhu
(3) Glycine (4) Aspartic acids (3) ,fDVu (4) ,YC;qfeu
125. The given below diagram represents the components 124. lcls l y vehuks vEy gksrk g–S
of of a transcription unit. Select the correct (1)Vkb kslhu (2) ykblhu
option :- (3) Xykbflu (4) ys ikfVZd vEy
A B 125. fn;k x;k fp» vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds ×kVdksa dks n'kkZ
3
1 C
5
1 gk gAS blds fy;s lgh fodYi dk pquko d saA
A B
1 1
5 3 1 C 1
3 5
Template strand
1 1
5 3
<ÈEN`< 7UU,
Co1tmn·I Co1tmn·II raHk-I raHk-II
Fi9hfs infecfious laØked dk dkas
A Insulin i A bUlqfyu i ls yM+uk
a9enfs
Enables 9lucose Xywdkts dk
B Anfibody ii
fransµorf info cells B izfr {kh ii dksf'kdkvksa esa
ifogu
C Receµfor iii Hormone
C xzkgh iii gkWeksZu
D G1UY-4 iv Sensory receµfion
D th-,y-;w-Vh-- iv laosnh xzgk
4
A B C
A B C ukWu dksfMax
(1) lekid mUuk;d Ttq
Non-coding
(1) Terminator Promoter
strand
Coding (2) mUuk;d lekid dksfMax Ttq
(2) Promoter Terminator
strand
(3) mUuk;d lekid lsUl Ttq
(3) Promoter Terminator Sense strand
Coding (4) lekid mUuk;d dksfMax Ttq

(4) Terminator Promoter
Strand
126. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for 126. ;fn eslsYlu o Vky ds iz;ksx dks
four generation in Bacteria, the ratio of pk ihf a.eksa
N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 containing DNA in the rd cSDVhf;k esa fd;k tk;s rks pkSFkh ihM+h
fourth generation would be :- esa N15/N15 : N15/N14 : N14/N14 DNA dk vuqikr D;k
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 3 : 0
gksxk\
(1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 1 : 3 : 0
(3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7
(3) 0 : 1 : 3 (4) 0 : 1 : 7
127. Find out the correct match :-
127. lgh feyku dk p;u d as :–
(i) RNA polymerase-I (a) hn-RNA
(i) RNA ikWyhe ts -I (a) hn-RNA
(ii) RNA Polymerase-II (b) t-RNA
(ii) RNA ikWyhe ts -II (b) t-RNA
(iii) RNA Polymerase-III (c) 18-S rRNA
(iii) RNA ikWyhe ts -III (c) 18-S rRNA
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
128. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are
128. DNA izfrd`rh;u ds nkS ku vksdktkdh ekM fdldks
used to elongate:
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.
ca.krs ga\S
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork. (1) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k dh r Q i'pxkeh Ttq
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication dks
fork. (2) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k ls i s vxzx Ttq dks
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork. (3) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k ls i s i'pxkeh Ttq
129. Which of the following is not required in DNA dks
fingerprinting ?
(4) izfrd`fr f}'kk[k dh r Q vxzx Ttq dks
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
129. Mh-,u-,- vaxqfy kih esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl
(2) Zinc finger analysis
yd dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS ?
(3) Restriction enzymes (1) ikWyhe ts Jà[kyk vfHkfØ;k
(4) DNA–DNA hybridization (2) ftad vaxqfy fo'ys"k k
130. In given diagram identify (c) and (d) :- (3) izfrca/ku yatkbe
(4) Mh-,u-,- – Mh-,u-,- lad k
(i) p i p o z y a 130. fn;s x;s fp» esa (c) o (d) dks igpkfuy :-
(i) p i p o z y a
(c)
(ii) p i p o z y a (c)
(ii) p i p o z y a
Enzyme
(d) Enzyme
(1) (c) – Inducer ; (d) – Repressor
(d)
(2) (c) – Repressor ; (d) – Inducer
(3) (c) – Allolactose ; (d) – c-Amp (1) (c) – çs d ; (d) – neudk h
(4) (c) – Galactose ; (d) – Lactose (2) (c) – neudk h; (d) – çs d
(3) (c) – ,yksyDS Vkst; (d) – c-Amp
(4) (c) – xsysDVkst ; (d) – yDS Vkst
ALLEN
131. Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select 131. fn;s x;s pk dFkuksa (v&n) i fopk dhft;s
the option which includes all the correct ones only:- vkS lgh dk
(a) The codon is read in mRNA in a continuous pquko dhft;s :-
fashion (v) m–vk -,u-y esa dksM+ksu dks yxkrk Øe esa
(b) AUG codon has dual function in protein synthesis ia.k tkrk gAS
(c) In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact
(c) çksVhu fuekZ k esa AUG dksM+ksu ds nks dk;Z gksrs
molecule which looks like inverted "L"
gAS
(d) 28 's' r-RNA in bacteria also behave as
(l) ok rfod la puk esa 't–vk -,u-y' ,d l?ku v
ribozyme
kq gS tks fd mYVs 'L' ds leku fn[kkbZ nsrk gAS
(1) b, c and d (2) a, b and c
(n) 28 's' r-vk-,u-y cDS Vhf ;k esa kbckstkbe dh r
(3) a, c and d (4) a and c g O;ogk d rk gSA
132. Find an incorrect statement with respect to results (1) c, l rFkk n (2) v, c rFkk l
of HGP :- (3) v, l rFkk n (4) v rFkk l
(1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene of
132. HGP ds if kkeksa ds vk/kk i, vlRe dFku
human genome.
dk p;u dfy :-
(2) Chromosome Y has minimum 231 genes (1) Mh Vªksihu izksVhu dh thu, ekuo thukse dk
(3) SNPs are identified at about 2.4 million lcls cM+h thu gSA
locations. (2) xq klw» Y i, U;wure 231 thu gksrs gaAS
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of (3) SNPs yxHkx 2.4 fefy;u Fkyksa i
discovered genes. igpkus xy gaAS
133. A molecule that can act as genetic material must (4) [kksts xy thUl esa ls, 50% ls vf/kd dk
not have following properties :- dk;Z Kkr ugha gSA
(1) It should be chemically and structurally highly 133. ,d vkq tks tufud inkFkZ ds vi esa dk;Z d rk
active. gks mles fuEu xq k fuf'pr vi ls mifFkr ugha gksuk
pkfg;s\
(2) It should be able to generate its replica.
(1) ;g klk;fud yoae lapukRedvi ls
(3) It should provide the scope for slow changes. vR;f/kd fØ;k'khy gksuk pkfg;sA
(4) It should be structurally more stable. (2) ;g viuh izfrÏfr cukus esa l{ke gksuk
pkfg;sA
134. Experiments using N15 to confirm semiconservative
replication of DNA were carried out by:- (3) blesa ekhes if orZu dh ekerk gksuh pkfg;sA
(1) Meselson and Stahl (4) ;g la pukRed vi ls T;knk Fkk;h gksuk
(2) Hershey and Chase pkfg;sA
(3) Watson and Crick 134. iz;ksxks esa N15 dk mi;ksx d ds Mh,uy ds v/kZla {kh
(4) Taylor izfrd k dks lqfuf'pr fd;k x;k :–
(1) eslYlu o Vky 9k k
135. On hydrolysis of a nucleoside would not yield
(2) g"kZs o psl 9k k
(1) Purine
(3) okWVlu o fØd 9k k
(2) Pyrimidine (4) Vsy 9k k
(3) Pentose sugar 135. ty vi?kVu gksus i U;qfDy;kslkbM ugha
(4) Phosphate nsrk :-
(1) I;w hu
0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy txg LTS / Page
ALLEN
(2) fif feMhu
(3) isaVkst 'kdZk
(4) Qks QsV
136. Which of the following is synthesized through reverse 136. O;qRØe vuqys[ku 9k k fuEu esa ls fdldk la'ys"k k
transcription ? gksrk g?S
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) c-DNA
(3) t-RNA (4) c-DNA
137. Which of the following correctly represents a
replicating fork ? 137. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk fodYi lgh izfrd`fr f}'kk[k
dks n'kkZrk gS ?
3'
3'
5'
(1) 3' 5'
(1) 3'
5'
5'
3'
3'
5'
3' 5'
(2) 3'
(2)
5'
5'
3'
3'
5'
(3) 3' 5'
(3) 3'
5'
5'
3'
3'
5'
3' 5'
(4)
(4) 3'
5'
138. DNA and RNA differ with respect to :- 5'
(1) only purine 138. Mh,uy o vk ,uy fdl lanHkZ eas fHkUu gS ?
(2) only pyrimidine (1) dsoy I;w hu ds
(3) only sugar (2) dsoy ik;hfeMhu ds
(3) dsoy 'kdZ k ds
(4) Both nitrogen base and sugar
(4) ukbVªkstu ekk o 'kdZ k nksuksa ds
139. If the sequence of coding strand in a DNA
139. ;fn DNA ds dwVys[ku Ttqd dk
molecule is, 5' ATCGATCGACTG 3' then the vuqØe 5' ATCGATCGACTG 3' gS, rks
sequence of RNA transcribed from template strand VsEiysV Ttqd ls vuqysf[kr RNA dk vuqØe
would be :- D;k gksxk :-
(1) 3' ATCGATCGACTG 5' (1) 3' ATCGATCGACTG 5'
(2) 5' TAGCTAGCTGAC 3' (2)5' TAGCTAGCTGAC 3'
(3) 3' UAGCUAGCUGAC 5' (3)3' UAGCUAGCUGAC 5'
(4) 5' AUCGAUCGACUG 3' (4)5' AUCGAUCGACUG 3
140. Reverse transcriptase enzyme is required for the 140. holZ VªkUlØhIVst yUtkbe fdlds la'ys"kk esa dke
synthesis of - vkrk g–S
(1) DNA From DNA (1) DNA ls DNA ds la'ys"kk esa
(2) DNA from RNA (2) RNA ls DNA ds la'ys"kk esa
(3) RNA from DNA (3) DNA ls RNA ds la'ys"kk esa
(4) DNA from nucleosides
(4) U;wfDyvkslkbM ls DNA cuus esa
141. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
141. fdlds iz;ksxksa ls eg lq i"V izek k izkIr
material came from the experiments of –
gqvk fd DNA
(1) Hershey and Chase (1952)
vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ g–S
(2) Frederic Griffith (1928)
(1) g"ksZ o psl (1952)
(3) Watson and Crick (2) QsMsf d fxzQhFk (1928)
(4) Meselson and Stahl (1958) (3) okWVlu rFkk fØd
142. In a transcription unit promoter is located towards:- (4) eslsYlu rFkk Vky (1958)
(1) 3' end of coding strand
142. vuqys[ku bdkbZ esa, izeksV f Fkr
(2) 5' end of coding strand
(3) 5' end of template strand gksrk gS \
(4) 3' end of sense strand (1) dksfMax Ttq thu ds 3' fls
dh vks
143. How many nucleotides in a sequence of messenger
(2) la pukRed thu ds 5' fls
RNA codes for an amino acid ? dh vks
(3) VsEiysV ds 5' fl s dh vks
(1) Three (2) Four (3) One (4) Two
(4) VsEiysV ds 3' fl s dh vks
144. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used
synonymously because– 143. ,d vehuks vEy dks dksM d us ds fyy
(1) One cistron contains many genes m-RNA i mif Fkr
(2) One gene contains many cistrons ,d dksMksu esa fdrus U;wfDy;ksVkbM gksus pkfgy
(3) One gene contains one cistron :-
(4) One gene contains no cistron (1) rhu (2) pk (3) ,d (4) nks
145. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of a 144. . thu rFkk fl Vªksu 'kCn dHkh&dHkh leku
ekus tkrs ga,S D;ksafd:–
polypeptide chain is called :-
(1) ,d fl Vªksu esa dbZ thu gksrh gaSA
(1) Promotor gene (2) Structural gene
(2) ,d thu esa dbZ fl Vªksu gksrh gSaA
(3) Regulator gene (4) Operator gene (3) ,d thu esa yd flVªksu gksrh gaSA
146. Which of the following statement incorrect about (4) ,d thu esa flVªksu ugha gksrh gaSA
satellite DNA ? 145. thu tks iksyhisIVkbM Jà[kyk ds la'ys"k k
(1) Satellite DNA shows high degree of ds fyy mÙk nk;h gksrh gS dgykrh gS :–
polymorphism
(1) izkWeksV thu (2) la
(2) Highly repetitive DNA
pukRed thu
(3) Satellite DNA is non-coding
(3) fu;U=d thu (4) vkWi Vs thu
(4) Satellite DNA codes for specific proteins 146. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lsVsykbV Mh,uy ds ck s
esa xyr gS ?
(1) lsVsykbV Mh,uy mPp Js kh dh cgq irk
iznf'kZr d rs gAS
(2) vR;f/kd iquko`fr Mh,u y
(3) lsVsykbV Mh,uy ukWu&dksfMax gksrk gAS
(4) lsVsykbV Mh,uy fof'k"V izdk dh izksVhu dks
dksM d rs gAS
147. In which phase of cell cycle centriole moves to 147. dksf'kdk pØ dh fdl vo Fkk esa lsfUVªvksy foi hr
opposite pole? ekzwoksa dh
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase vks xfr d rs gaS\
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) izksQst (2) esVkQst
148. Which of the following amino acid is coded by six (3) ,ukQst (4) VhyksQst
codon? 148. fuEu es ls dkuS lk vehuks vEy : izdwV 9k k dwV
(1) Leucine (2) Tryptophan
fd;k tkrk gSA
(1) Y;wlhu (2) fVªIVksQku
(3) Phenylalanine (4) Tyrosine
(3) fQukby,ykuhu (4) Vkb kslhu
149. During elongation of translation, new charged
149. vuqoknu ds lee nh?khZd k dh izfØ;k esa
tRNA enter which site of ribosome complex?
u;s vkosf'kr tRNA
(1) P-site
(2) A-Site
kbckslkse esa fdl Fkku i izos'k d rs g\S
(3) E-Site (1) P-site
(4) Smaller subunit of ribosome (2) A-Site
150. There are no tRNAs for (3) E-Site
(1) UAA, UGG and UGA (4) kbckslkse dh ksVh mibdkbZ
(2) UAG, UGG and UGA 150. fdlds fyy dksbZ tRNA ugha gksrk gS
(3) UAA, UAG and UGA (1) UAA, UGG vkS UGA ds fyy
(4) UAG, UGA and AUA (2) UAG, UGG vkS UGA ds fyy
151. When bands of proteins are transferred to a (3) UAA, UAG vkS UGA ds fyy
nitrocellulose membrane for identification, the (4) UAG, UGA vkS AUA ds fyy
banding is called- 151. tc izksVhu ds cS U M~l igpku ds fyy
(1) Southern blotting (2) Northern blotting ukbVªkslsyqykst
(3) Western blotting (4) Eastern blotting f>Yyh i FkkukUrf r fdy tkrs gS rks eg cUS Mhax
152. Which one of the following is a real inducer of lac dgykrh g-S
operon. (1) lnuZ CykfVax (2) uknZu
(1) Lactose (2) IPTG CykfVax
(3) osVªu Cykf ax (4) bZ Vªu Cykfax
(3) Allolactose (4)  - galactosidase
153. In Human genome project automated DNA 152. ysd vksis ksu eas fuEu eas ls dkuS lk okrfod bUM~;wl
sequencer is used which worked on the principle (izs d gAS )
of a method developed by : - gksrk g\S
(1) Alec. Jeffery (2) Frederick Sanger (1) ysDVkst (2) IPTG
(3) ,yksysDVkst (4)  -
(3) Kary Mullis (4) Har Gobind Khurana
xsysDVkslkbMst
154. Commonly used vector in human genome project:-
153. ekuo thukse izkstsDV eas vkWVksesVsM DNA lhDosal dk
(1) YAC and MAC mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS, eg fuEu es a ls
(2) YAC and BAC fdlds 9k k fodflr fof/k ds fl¼kUr i
dk;Z drk g\S
(3) YAC, BAC and MAC
(1) ,yhd tsQ h (2) QsMf
(4) only YAC d lsUx
(3) dsh eqfyl (4) g xksfoUn ekq kuk
154. ekuo thukse if ;kstuk esa lkekU;r;k dkuS ls okgd
dk mi;ksx fd;k x;k gS :-
(1) YAC o MAC
(2) YAC o BAC
(3) YAC, BAC o MAC
(4) dsoy YAC
155. Which of the following option is incorrect with 155. :ikUr k fl¼kUr ds lUnHkZ eas fuEufyf[kr eas ls
reference to the transforming principle ? dkuS lk fodYi
(1) S strain  injected into mice  mice died
vlRe gS ?
(2) R strain  injected into mice  mice
(1) S Vªsu  pwgsa esa izos'k d k;k  pwgs dh
lived e`R;q
(3) S strain (heat killed)  injected into mice (2) R Vªsu  pwgsa esa izos'k d k;k  pwgk
 thfor
mice died (3) S Vªsu (rki 9k k fuf"Øek)  pwgsa esa izos'k
d k;k  pwgs dh e`R;q
(4)  injected into mice 
(4)  pwgsa esa izos'k d k;k
mice died 
156. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made
pwgs dh e`R;q
up of :-
156. DNA v kq dh la puk esa bldh ha. curh gS
(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate
(1) isUVkst 'kdZ k rFkk QkW QsV ls
(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate
(2) gsDlkst 'kdZ k rFkk QkW QsV ls
(3) Purine and pyrimidine
(3) I;w hu rFkk fif feMhu ls
(4) Sugar and purine
157. 32P was used to radiolabel the which component (4) 'kdZk rFkk I;q hu ls
and Chase 157. g'ksZ vkS pst ds iz;ksx esa P dk iz;ksx thok kqHkksth
32
of bacteriophage in Hershey
experiment :- ds fuEu esa ls fdl ×kVd dks sfM;ks/kehZ cukus esa
(1) Viral protein (2) Viral fd;k x;k Fkk :-
DNA (1) fo"kk kq izksVhu (2) fo"kk kq
(3) Viral RNA (4) Both DNA and protein Mh,uy
158. If base sequence of one strand is (3) fo"kk kq vk ,uy (4) Mh,uy vkS izksVhu
5' GCCTTAAGC 3' of a DNA molecule, then its nksuksa
complementary sequence will be :- 158. ;fn yd Mh,uy v kq eas yd Ja`[kyk 5'
(1) 3' CGGUUAACG 5' (2) 3' CGGAATTCG 5' GCCTTAAGC 3' gSrks bldh iw d Ja`[kyk gksxh :-
(3) 5' GCCUUAAGC 3' (4) 5' CGGTTAACG 3'
(1) 3' CGGUUAACG 5' (2) 3' CGGAATTCG 5'
159. Following structure is related to which
(3) 5' GCCUUAAGC 3' (4) 5' CGGTTAACG 3'
compound? O
(1) Adenine 159. fuEu la puk fdl ekfS xd ls lacaf/kr g\S

H-N O
(2) Guanine (1) Adenine
H-N
(3) Uracil O
(2) Guanine
N
(4) Thymine H
(3) Uracil O
160. Which of the following amino acid does not show
N
degeneracy ?
(1) Alanine (2) Tryptophan (4) Thy
H
(3) Arginine (4) Valine mine
161. Spliceosome complex is absent in :- 160. fuEu esa ls fdl vehuksa vEy ds lUnHkZ esa
viâkflrk iznf'kZr ugha gksrh gS :-
(1) Plant (2) Bird (1) ,ykuhu (2)
fVªIVksQuS
(3) Monkey (4) Bacteria (3) vkthZfuu (4) oyS hu
161. iykblh;kslkse dkEiysDl fuEu esa ls fdlesa vuqif
Fkr gksrk g\S
(1) ikni (2) i{kh
(3) cUn (4) cDS Vhf ;k
162. In prokaryotes, the predominant step of regulation 162. izksdsf ;ksV~l esa, thu vfHkO;fDr ds
of gene expression is :- fu;a» k dk eqee in
(1) Transcriptional level gS :-
(2) RNA processing (1) vuqys[ku r
(3) Translation initiation (2) vk ,uy izla d k
(4) RNA transfer from nucleus to cytoplasm (3) vuqoknu izkEHku
163. One codon codes for only one amino acid and not (4) vk ,uy dk dsUnzd ls dksf'kdknzOe esa
any other is called :- FkkukUr k
163. ,d izdwV dsoy yd vehuks vEy dk dwV
(1) Non overlapping (2) Degeneracy
ys[ku d rk gS fdlh vUe dk ugha, dgykrk g–S
(3) Non-ambiguous (4) Triplet nature
(1) ukWu vkso ysfiax
164. During protein synthesis, eukaryotic mRNA
(2) viâkflr
recognized smaller sub–unit of ribosome by :-
(3) vlafnX/k (4) f=d izd`fr
(1) SD sequence (2) ASD–sequence 164. çksVhu la'ys"kk ds nkS ku edw sf ;ksV~l dk mRNA
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) 7mG cap kbckslkse dh ksVh lc–ewfuV dks fuEu eas ls fdldh
165. In prokaryotes ASD–sequence is present on which lgk;rk ls igpkurk gS :-
of the following r–RNA :- (1)SD–Øe (2) ASD–Øe
(1) 18 s rRNA (2) 16 s rRNA (3) 1 o 2 nksuksa (4) 7mG cap
(3) 23 s rRNA (4) 5 s rRNA 165. çksdsf ;ksV~l esa ASD–Øe dkuS ls r–RNA i
166. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and select the mif Fkr gksrk gS :-
option that correctly identified the parts A, B and C: (1) 18 s rRNA (2) 16 s rRNA
(3) 23 s rRNA (4) 5 s rRNA
166. fn;s x;s U;wfDy;kslkse ds fp» dks ns[ks rFkk
Hkkx A, B o C dh igpku d us okys fodYi dks pqus
–
167. Histone proteins are :

(1) Basic and negatively charged
(2) Basic and positively charged
(3) Acidic and positively charged
(4) Acidic and negatively charged 167. fgVksu izksVhUl gksrs gS –
(1) {kk he rFkk ½ kkosf'kr
(2) {kk he rFkk ekukosf'kr
(3) vEyhe rFkk ekukosf'kr
(4) vEyhe rFkk ½ kkosf'kr
A B C A B C
(1) DNA Histone octamer H1 histone fg Vkus v"Vd H1 fg Vksu
(1) DNA
(2) Histone octamer H1 histone DNA
(2) fg Vkus v"Vd H1 fg Vksu DNA
(3) Histone octamer DNA H1 histone
(3) fg Vkus v"Vd DNA H1 fg Vksu
(4) DNA H1 histone Histone
octamer (4) DNA H1 fg Vksu fg Vkus
v"Vd
168. A m-RNA also has some additional sequences that 168. ,d m-RNA dh dq ysls Hkh
are not translated called UTR. The function of UTR vfrf Dr Øe tks fd VªkalysV ugha gksrs gaS, UTR
is:- dgykrs g,S UTR dk dk;Z g\S
(1) Charging of t-RNA
(1) t-RNA dks vkosf'kr d ukA
(2) isIVkbM ca/k dk fuEkkZ kA
(2) Formation of peptide bond
(3) n{krkiw kZ Vªkalys'ku esa lgk;rk d ukA
(3) Helps in efficient translation
(4) çfr Fkkiu esas lgk;rk d ukA
(4) Helps in translocation
169. Read the following steps of DNA finger printing :- 169. Mh,uy vaxqfy kih ds fuEufyf[kr inksa dk
(i) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases veeeu dhfty –
(ii) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR Probe (i) Mh,uy dk izfrca/ku yaMksU;wfDy,t 9k k ikpu
(iii)Seperation of DNA fragments by (ii) fpfUgr oh yu Vh vk izksc dk mi;ksx d
electrophoresis rs gqy lad k
(iv)Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by (iii) bysDVªksQkssfll 9k k Mh,uy ekaMks dk
autoradiography i`FkDd k
(v) Blotting (iv)ofofd kh fp »k 9k k ladf r Mh,uy ekaMks
(vi)Isolation of DNA dk irk yxkuk
Find the correct sequence of DNA finger printing :- (v) CykfVax
(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi (2) iii, i, v, ii, iv, vi
(vi) Mh,uy dk foyxu
(3) vi, i, iii, v, ii, iv (4) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii
Mh,uy vaxqfykih izfØ;k ds mi ksDr inksa dk lgh
170. In E.coli operator gene combine with :- Øe D;k gksxk:-
(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi (2) iii, i, v, ii, iv, vi
(1) Inducer gene to switch ON structural gene
(3) vi, i, iii, v, ii, iv (4) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii
action
170. bZ- dksykbZ esa vWki sV thu fdlds lkFk tqM+rk gS :-
(2) Inducer gene to switch off structural gene action
(3) Regulator protein (repressor) to switch OFF the
(1) izs d thu ls rFkk la pukRed thu fØ;k dks
structural gene action izk aHk d rk gAS
(4) Regulator protein to switch ON the structural (2) izs d thu ls rFkk la pukRed thu fØ;k dks
gene action cUn d rk gaAS
171. The regulation of gene expression in (3) sxqysV izksVhu (neudk h) ls rFkk la
prokaryotes:- pukRed thu fØ;k dks can d rk gaAS
(A) Lactose acts as the suppressor for gene (4)sX;wysV izksVhu ls rFkk la pukRed thu fØ;k
expression in lac operon. dks izk EHk d rk gaSA
(B) Tryptophan acts as the inducer for gene 171. izksdfS ;ksV~l esa thu vfHkO;fDr ds fu;eu ds lanHkZ
expression in tryptophan operon. esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lgh gaS :-
(C) In lac operon the i gene is produces the
(A)ySDVkst, ysd vksis ku esa thu vfHkO;fDr ds
repressor protein.
(1) only A correct
laned
(2) only B correct (suppressor) ds vi esa dk;Z d rk gaAS
(3) only C correct (B) fVªIVksQsu vksis ku eas, fVIª VksQsu thu
(4) Both B and A are correct vfHkO;fDr ds fyy isz d ds vi esa dk;Z d rk
172. In 1963 several varieties such as sonalika and gaSA
Kalyan sona were introduced all over the wheat (C) ysd vksis ku esa i thu yd neudk h
(repressor) izksVhu dks mRiUu d rh gaAS
growing belt of India which were :
(1) dsoy A lgh gaS (2) dsoy B lgh gaS
(1) High yielding (2) Disease resistant
(3) Resistant to water stress (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) dsoy C lgh gaS (4) B rFkk A lgh gaS
172. 1963 esa fd eksa dh oa'k s[kk,a tlS s lksukfydk rFkk
dY;k k lksuk dk fodkl d mUgsa Hkkro"kZ dh xgS
inS k d us okyseks=ksa esa iz;ksx fd;k x;k, tks Fkh –
(1) mPp mRiknu nsus okyh (2) ksx izfr ks/kh
(3) ty vHkko ds izfr ks/kh (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa
173. Which of the following variety of Brassica is 173. fuEu es a ls dkS ulh czsfl dk dh fd e yQhM
resistance to Aphids ? ds izfr
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa gaurav izfr ks/kd gS ?
(3) Pusa sem 2 (4) Pusa sawani (1) iwlk of kZEk (2) iwlk
174. Which one is used as the alternate source of proteins xkS o
for animal and human nutrition. (3) iwlk lse 2 (4) iwlk okuh
(1) Methylophilus (2) Agrobacterium 174. buesa ls dkuS lk, i'kq rFkk ekuo iks"k k ds fyy
(3) Atlas 66 (4) IR-8 izksVhu ds odS fYid
175. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus =ksrksa ds vi esa mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS -
free plants for micropropagation ? (1) feFkkbyksfQyl (2)
(1) Meristem (2) Node ,xzksoDS Vhf ;e
(3) Bark (4) Vascular tissue (3) ,Vyl 66 (4) IR-8
176. A mung bean variety which is resistance to yellow 175. lw{eizpk k (ekbØks izksiksxs'ku) ds fyy
mosaic virus is developed by which method - ok;l& fgr ik/S ks cukus ds fyy dkuS lk Hkkx
(1) Plant introduction (2) Hybridisation
lcls mi;qDr gksxk ?
(3) Mutational breeding (4) Domestication
(1) efS Vse (foHkT;ksrd ) (2) uksM (ioZ
)
177. (a) Variety of Brassica
(3) ky (4) laoguh e Ård
(b) Have resistance to white rust disease
176. ew¡x (chu) esa ihr ekstsd ok; l ds izfr izfr ks/kd
(c) Developed by hybridisation and selection
ekerk fdl fof/k 9k k fodflr dh x;h Fkh –
Above, statements are true for - (1) ikni iq: Fkkiu
(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa Sadabahar (2) lad k
(3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Pusa Sawani (3) mRif orZu iztuu (4) ?k sywd k
178. Which one of the following is not correctly 177. (a) l lksa dh fd e
described ? (b) 'osr fdV~V ds izfr izfr ks/kd
(1) Explant - Any part of plant from which whole
(c) lad k rFkk p;u 9kk
plant, could be regenerated mRiUu mi ksDr dFku fdlds
(2) Atlas 66 - A wheat variety having high fyy lgh gS -
carbohydrate content (1) iwlk xkS o (2) iwlk lnkcgk
(3) iwlk of kZe (4) iwlk lokuh
(3) Micropropagation - The method of producing
thousands of plants through tissue culture 178. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk yd lgh of kZr
(4) Parbhani kranti - A variety of Bhindi that is ugha gS \
resistance to yellow mosaic virus (1) ,DlIykUV – ikni dk dksbZ Hkh Hkkx ftlls yd
179. In tissue culture technique the source of carbon is: iw kZikni dks iqutZfur fd;k tk ldrk gAS
(2) ,Vyl aa – xsgw¡ dh yd fd e ftlesa
(1) Sucrose (2) CO2
(3) Lactose (4) Minerals dkcksZgkbMsªV dh ek=k mPp gksrh gAS
(3) lw{eizo/kZu – mÙkd loa/kZu 9k k gtk ksa dh laeek
180. Callus is a :
(1) Plant hormone esa ikniksadks mRiUu dus dh fof/k
(4) i Hkkfu Ø¡kfr – fHk Mh dh yd fd e gS ftlesa
(2) Differentiated mass of cells
(3) Air pollutant ihr ekstsd ok; l ds izfr izfr ks/kd ekerk
(4) Undifferentiated mass of actively dividing cells gksrh gAS ksa
in tissue culture
179. ÅÙkd lao/kZu rduhd esa dkcZu dk =ksr
gksrk gS –
(1) lwØkst (2) CO2
(3) ysDVkst (4) [kfut
180. dyS l D;k gksrk ga\S
ALLEN
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy txg
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your
Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in i mail d As
0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy txg LTS / Page 37/40
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/NEET-UG/15-09-
2019
LTS / Page 38/40 0999DMD310319006
ALLEN
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(Session-2019-20)
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0999DMD310319006 LTS / Page 39/40

Read carefully the following fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k eeku ls ia.s a :
instructions :
1.iw s tkus i izR;sd i h{kkFkhZ, fuh{kd dks
1. Each candidate must show on demand viuk yyu igpku i» fn[kk,A
his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. 2.fuh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ
2. No candidate, without special permission ih{kkFkhZ viuk Fkku u ksM+sA
of the Invigilator, would leave his/her 3.dk;Z r fuh{kd dks viuk mÙk&i» fny fcuk
seat. dksbZ ih{kkFkhZ i h{kk gkWy ugha ksM+sA
3. The candidates should not leave the
Examination Hall without handing over 4.bysDVªkWfud@grpfyr ifdyd dk
their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on mi;ksx oftZr gAS
duty. 5.ih{kk gkWy esa vkp k ds fyy ih{kkFkhZ
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is i h{kk ds lHkh fu;eksa yoa fofu;eksa 9k k fu;fer
prohibited. gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QlS yk
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules ih{kk ds fu;eksa yoa fofu;eksa ds vuqlk
and Regulations of the examination with gksxkA
regard to their conduct in the 6.fdlh gkyr esa ih{kk iqfrdk vkS mÙk &i»
Examination Hall. All cases of unfair dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u d s aA
means will be dealt with as per Rules and 7.ih{kk iqfrdk@mÙk&i» esa ih{kkFkhZ viuk
Regulations of this examination. lgh uke o QkWeZuEc fy[ksaA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer
Sheet shall be detached under any
circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct
Name and Form No. in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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+91-744-2757575dsat.a
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/N

0999DMD310319006

Minor06 QP DLP NEET20 (Pmtcorner - In)

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(0999DMD31031900

)/999DMD31/319//6) Test Pattern

Test Type : Unit - 05

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

(1) 1 m (2) 10 cm (1) 1 m (2) 10 cm

0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy LTS / Page

LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy 0999DMD310319006

0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy LTS / Page

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) –0.60 kg ms–1 (4) +0.60 kg ms–1

LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy 0999DMD310319006

0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy LTS / Page

(3) (2m, 4m, 6m) (4) (4m, 5m, 4m)

(1) 10 ml H2O(l) (1) 18 (2) 9 (3) 4.5 (4) 36

LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy 0999DMD310319006

0999DMD310319006 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy LTS / Page

LTS / Page SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / Q dk;Z ds fyy 0999DMD310319006

CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g)+2H2O(g) ; H = – x ...(1) 89. fuEu vfHkfØ;k nh x;h gS :

(A) (B) (A) (B)

Identify the marked cell organells :-

fpUghr dksf'kdkaxks dks igpkfuy :-

101. Which of the following pair of organells contain

fgyk;s xk<k ?kksy

Column-I Column-II rEHk -I rEHk-II

CH2 CH3 CH2 CH3

(1) A and C (2) Only A (1) A rFkk C (2) dsoy A

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

Coding (4) lekid mUuk;d dksfMax Ttq

(1) Adenine 159. fuEu la puk fdl ekfS xd ls lacaf/kr g\S

167. Histone proteins are :

Distance Learning Programmes

ABOUT FEEDBACK SYSTEM

LEADER TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/15-09-2019

0999DMD310319006 LTS / Page 39/40

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKAL

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020/N

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