Pharmaceutical Inorganic Chemistry Answer Key-RED PACOP

INORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The upper oxidizing zone of a nonluminous Bunsen flame consists largely of:
A. Incandescent carbon
B. A mixture of reducing gases and oxygen
C. A large excess of oxygen
D. Nitrogen
E. Unburnt gas
2. Less volatile substances may be detected in:

A. Lower oxidizing zone
B. Upper oxidizing zone
C. Upper reducing zone
D. Lower reducing zone
E. Hottest portion of the flame
3. Sb imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

A. Crimson
B. Yellowish green
C. Green
D. Blue
E. Brick red
4. Tl imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

A. Crimson
B. Yellowish green
C. Green
D. Blue
E. Brick red
5. In the micro scale of qualitative analysis, the quantity of a substance employed is reduced by a
factor of
A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
E. 1000
6. A metallic deposit obtained after sublimation may indicate the presence of:
A. Ammonium salts
B. Sulphur
C. Mercury (I) iodide
D. Selenium (IV) oxide
E. Amalgams
7. The color of the flame caused by calcium chloride when viewed through cobalt glass is
A. Brick red
B. Light green
C. Violet
D. Crimson
E. Purple
8. A mixture of potassium and sodium chloride will produce _______ color in the flame test.
A. Orange
B. Violet
C. Yellow
D. Red
E. Reddish orange
9. In the microcosmic salt bead test, the microcosmic salt _________ is used.
A. Na2B4O7.10H2O
B. Cu(BO2)2
C. Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
D. CuSO4.5H2O
E. NOTA
10. The color of borax bead produced by cerium salts in the oxidizing flame when hot is:
A. Orange red
B. Colorless
C. Yellow
D. Rose-violet
E. Bottle green
11. The upper edge of a filter paper used during filtration should be about ______ cm from the
upper rim of the funnel
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 2/3 cm
E. 0.5 cm
12. When a precipitate tends to pass through the filter paper, this salt may be added to prevent the
formation of colloidal solutions.
A. Sodium chloride
B. Potassium nitrate
C. Lithium chloride
D. Ammonium nitrate
E. NOTA
13. Glass apparatus which are particularly greasy may be cleaned with
A. Hot nitric acid
B. Concentrated hydrochloric acid
C. Chromosulphuric acid
D. Perchloric acid
E. Glacial acetic acid
14. The reaction between lead nitrate and hydrogen sulphide will yield
A. A blue solution
B. A colorless solution
C. A white precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
E. A black precipitate
15. This compound is formed when mercury (I) chloride dissolves in aqua regia
A. Mercury (II) amidochloride
B. Mercury (I) amidochloride
C. Mercury (I) nitrate
D. Mercury (II) nitrate
E. Mercury (II) chloride
16. Basic mercury (II) amidonitrate exists as:

A. A black precipitate
B. A white precipitate
C. A gray precipitate
D. A colorless precipitate
E. Colorless solution
17. The reaction between silver nitrate and potassium iodide will produce
A. A black precipitate
B. A white precipitate
C. A gray precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
E. No precipitate
18. The reaction between mercury (II) nitrate and excess potassium iodide will produce:
A. A white precipitate of potassium nitrate
B. A black deposit of metallic mercury
C. A red precipitate of mercury (II) iodide
D. A colorless solution containing tetraiodomercurate (II) ions
E. NOTA
19. Purple colored compounds usually indicate the presence of

A. Dichromates
B. Cobalt salts
C. Permanganates
D. Purple sulphur
E. Sulphides
20. Devarda’s alloy contains

A. Cu, Al, Zn
B. Cu, Ni
C. Bi, Pb, Sn
D. Ni, Fe, Cr
E. Pb, Sb, Sn
21. A solution that yields a white precipitate with dilute HCl and dissolves in ammonia solution
indicates the presence of
A. Pb 2+
B. Hg2+ 2
C. Ag+
D. Hg2+
E. NOTA
22. A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess reagent of ammonium carbonate indicates
the presence of
A. Group I cations
B. Group II cations
C. Group III cations
D. Group IV cations
E. Group V cations
23. A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess reagent of Na2HPO4 indicates the presence
of
A. Mg 2+
B. NH 4+
C. Na+
D. K+
E. NOTA
24. The most stable complexes are found by ions of these groups of elements
A. Group VI A
B. Group VII A
C. Group I B
D. Group II B
E. Group VIII
25. The element that was named from a Greek word which means “acid former”
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Chloride
E. Helium
26. Artificial radioactive isotopes emit the following except

A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Gamma rays
D. K capture x rays
E. NOTA
27. Emitted when neutrons exceed protons beyond a stable ratio that occurs mainly in the elements
of atomic numbers above 63
A. Alpha particles
B. Positron
C. Negatron
D. Cyclotron
E. K capture x rays
28. The mineral spodumene contains

A. CaMg3(SiO3)4
B. Na3AIF6
C. CaSO4.2H2O
D. LiA([SiO3])2
E. NOTA
29. Compounds formed when molecules of two different halogens react

A. Interhalogens
B. Intrahalogens
C. Semihalogens
D. Cohalides
E. Reaction is not possible
30. CrCl2 (H2O) 4NO3 is

A. Aqueous chromochloronitrate
B. Hydrated chromodichloronitrate
C. Nitrated chromodichlorohydrate
D. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (III) nitrate
E. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (II) nitrate
31. Ethylenediamine is a type of ligand classified as

A. Unidentate
B. Bidentate
C. Hexadentate
D. Tetradentate
E. Pentadentate
32. Francium has Z=

A. 37
B. 55
C. 57
D. 87
E. 95
33. The most stable diatomic molecule is

A. Oxygen
B. Bromine
C. Nitrogen
D. Fluorine
E. NOTA
34. The bond existing between mercury (II) fluoride is

A. H bond
B. Ionic
C. Covalent
D. Metallic bond
E. NOTA
35. The most metallic of all halogens is

A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
E. NOTA
36. If a basic solvent is used, the iodine solution obtained is usually colored
A. Colorless
B. Violet
C. Orange
D. Blue black
E. Black
37. Linus Pauling called this element a superhalogen, probably owing to its high electronegativity
value.
A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
E. NOTA
38. This principle states that, in a stable complex, there may be no high concentration of negative or
positive charge, and that charge will tend to distribute itself over the atoms within a complex in such
a way that the net charge on each atom approaches zero.
A. Law of Hess
B. Aufbau Principle
C. Electropositvity principle
D. Electronegativity principle
E. Electroneutrality principle
39. Oxidation of phosphorous with oxygen may yield

A. P4O6
B. P4O10
C. P2O4
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
40. An element that has an electronegativity of 0.9 on the Pauling scale and an element with a
Pauling electronegativity of 3.0 has sufficient difference to form
A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Coordinate covalent bonds
D. H bonds
E. NOTA
41. Calcium Disodium Versenate may be used in the treatment for heavy metal poisoning, primarily
that caused by
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Gold
D. Lead
E. NOTA
42. The only alkali metal that melts above the boiling point of water is
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Rubidium
E. Cesium
43. Which alkali metal hydroxide has the highest alkalinity?

A. Lithium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Rubidium hydroxide
E. Cesium hydroxide
44. All oxides and hydroxides of the coinage metals are freely basic except for
A. Cu2O
B. Ag2O
C. Au2O
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
45. The reagent that will precipitate out Group I cations

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Ammonium sulphide
D. Ammonium carbonate
E. Sodium biphosphate
46. Which among these acid halides has the highest acidity?
A. HI
B. HBr
C. HCl
D. HF
E. NOTA
47. How many percent by weight of HCl does muriatic acid contain?
A. 96-98%
B. 97-99%
C. 10-16%
D. 35-38%
E. 9.5-105%
48. A type of water that contains iron in solution or suspension and are characterized by a
ferruginous taste
A. Alkaline water
B. Carbonated water
C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
E. Saline water
49. The specific gravity of sulphuric acid is

A. 1.18
B. 1.84
C. 1.71
D. 1.14
E. NOTA
50. A type of water which is sometimes known as purgative water

A. Alkaline water
B. Carbonated water
C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
E. Saline water
51. Graham’s salt is

A. Sodium sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Sodium metaphosphate
E. Ammonium bicarbonate
52. Parenteral preparations containing bacteriostatic water for injection may be administered through
the following routes except:
A. Intravenous
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
53. This element decreases the coefficient of expansion in glass.

A. Potassium
B. Iron
C. Titanium
D. Boron
E. Rare earth metals
54. Element that predominates in the plasma and interstitial fluids

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
E. Iron
55. The black precipitate produced in Marsh’s test is

A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Silver
D. Hydrogen sulfide
E. Cadmium
56. The xanthoproteic test make use of this acid

A. Boric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Sulfuric acid
E. Phosphoric acid
57. Softening both temporary and permanent hard water may be achieved through:
A. Boiling
B. Clark’s lime process
C. Demineralization
D. Addition of ammonia
E. NOTA
58. The principal anion of the intracellular fluid compartment is

A. Chloride
B. Phosphate
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate
E. Carbonate
59. Ringer’s injection contains_____ mEqs of potassium

A. 147 mEq
B. 130 mEq
C. 4 mEq
D. 2.7 mEq
E. NOTA
60. This is used both as a diuretic and in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate
reserve.
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium lactate
E. Ammonium chloride
61. Iron compound which has the superior resistance to oxidation upon exposure to air
A. Ferrous fumarate
B. Ferrous gluconate
C. Ferrous sulfate
D. Ferrous oxide
E. NOTA
62. Important component of the protein ceruloplasmin

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Magnesium
D. Zinc
E. NOTA
63. Marsh test is a test for

A. Cadmium
B. Copper
C. Astatine
D. Arsenic
E. Lead
64. The positive result in Gutzeit’s test is the presence of

A. White precipitate
B. Evolution of colorless gas
C. Black spot in filter paper
D. Effervescence in solution
E. Silver mirror in test tube walls
65. Decoloration of fuchsin dye indicates the presence of

A. Phosphates
B. Sulphates
C. Oxides
D. Phosphites
E. Sulphites
66. Prussian blue is:

A. Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3
B. The same as Turnbull’s blue
C. Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
67. Deficiency of this mineral result to parakeratosis

A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Magnesium
E. Iodine
68. This metal has the capacity to displace hydrogen in solution

A. Platinum
B. Mercury
C. Tin
D. Bismuth
E. Copper
69. These salts may contain two different cations combined with a single anion or may contain a
single cation combine with two or more anions.
A. Normal salts
B. Hydrogen salts
C. Mixed salts
D. Double salts
E. NOTA
70. Temporary hardness of water is usually caused by the presence of:

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Calcium sulfate
D. Magnesium carbonate
E. Potassium sulfate
71. The element found in human bodies that is an important constituent of xanthine oxidase and
aldehyde oxidase.
A. Iodine
B. Zinc
C. Molybdenum
D. Selenium
E. Copper
72. Defacqz reaction is used to test for:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Thallium
D. Gallium
E. Gold
73. Turnbull’s blue is

A. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]12
B. Iron (II) hexacyanoferrate
C. The same as prussian blue
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
74. A precipitate may result in an unknown solution upon the addition of hydrogen sulphide if this
action is present:
A. Ag+
B. As5+
C. Fe2+
D. Fe3+
E. Li+
75. This system of inorganic nomenclature cites the charge on a complex ion rather than the
oxidation state of the central unit.
A. Stock system
B. Ewens-Bassett System
C. Classical System
D. Modern System
E. AOTA
76. Being a bridge element, the behaviour of this element and its compound is often different that of
the other members of the Group I family.
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Ammonium
D. Rubidium
E. Cesium
77. The most chemically active among the members in Group II A

A. Magnesium
B. Beryllium
C. Calcium
D. Strontium
E. Barium
78. The second most abundant element on earth

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Aluminum
D. Silicon
E. Hydrogen
79. This is the product when a base like sodium carbonate is fused with pure silica.
A. Smectite
B. Talc
C. Silanes
D. Glass
E. Pumice
80. One hundred volumes of hydrogen peroxide is equal to

A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 30%
D. 70%
E. 100%
81. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at room temperature

A. α- sulfur
B. β- sulfur
C. Г-sulfur
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
82. The best expectorant is

A. KI syrup
B. NH4Cl solution
C. HI solution
D. H2O vapor
E. NOTA
83. Fatal bends in deep sea divers are caused by gaseous_____ in the blood
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Helium
D. Pure oxygen
E. Nitrogen
84. Compounds which are capable of interfering with the passage of X rays are used as
A. Enema
B. Chemotherapeutic agents
C. Radiopaques
D. Radioisotopes
E. NOTA
85. Iron oxides are usually used as

A. Astringents
B. Topical protectives
C. Laxatives
D. Pigments
E. Buffers
86. A green precipitate that results after a solution was neutralized with ammonia solution and after
the addition of ammonium sulphide indicates the presence of:
A. Al3+
B. Mn2+
C. Cr3+
D. Co2+
E. Ni2+
87. Potassium alum is an example of a

A. Normal salt
B. Hydrogen salt
C. Mixed salt
D. Double salt
E. NOTA
88. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit, USP must be stored in

A. PET bottles
B. Rubber containers
C. PVC containers
D. Amber bottles
E. Clear glass containers
89. The only route of administration approved in administering Iron Dextran Injection
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intra arterial
E. Intradermal
90. This metal will not react with acids to produce hydrogen
A. Potassium
B. Aluminum
C. Bismuth
D. Strontium
E. Lead
91. The softest mineral known is:

A. Mg5(Si8O20)(OH)2.8H2O
B. Mg3(OH)2Si4O10
C. [Al4(OH)6][Si4O10)(OH2)]
D. CaAl2Si4O12.6H2O
E. NOTA
92. A white precipitate after the addition of excess ammonium carbonate indicates the presence of
A. Group I cations
B. Group II cations
C. Group III cations
D. Group IV cations
E. Group V cations
93. A basic or “sub” salt is prepared by

A. Partial hydrolysis of a normal salt
B. Partial neutralization of a hydroxide
C. Partial reaction with a base
D. A and B
E. B and C
94. An example of an efflorescent substance is

A. Epsom salt
B. Glauber’s salt
C. Blue vitriol
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
95. Used as bone replacement for temporary braces of long bones and to close openings in the skull
A. Plaster of Paris
B. Zinc-eugenol cement
C. Silver
D. Tantalum
E. Adamantium
96. The following elements belongs to Period III of the periodic table except for:
A. Boron
B. Magnesium
C. Sulfur
D. Silicon
E. NOTA
97. Treatment with gold has been used in the following conditions except:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Disseminated lupus
C. Nondisseminated lupus erythematosus
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
98. The oxidation state of sulphur that gives rise to sulphuric cid
A. -1
B. -2
C. +2
D. -3
E. +6
99. Metallic mercury is soluble in the following acids except

A. Hot H2SO4
B. HI
C. HCl
D. Cold HNO3
E. NOTA
100. A solution prepared from the complex compound produced when mercuric iodide reacts with
potassium iodide is known as:
A. Benedict’s reagent
B. Valser’s reagent
C. Bordeaux mixture
D. Nessler’s reagent
E. Fehling’s reagent
101. Native colloidal, hydrated silicate is also known as:

A. Kaolin
B. Talc
C. Bentonite
D. Silane
E. Siliceous earth
102. Burrow’s solution contains

A. Aluminum acetate
B. Lead subacteate
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
103. Purple of Cassius consists of

A. Metallic gold
B. Colloidal gold
C. Tin chloride
D. Metallic tin
E. NOTA
104. A cofactor for phosphate transferring enzymes and also a constituent of bones and teeth
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Copper
E. Zinc
105. Aluminum silicates that contain impurities of calcium, magnesium, iron oxides, fragments of
quartz etc. is known as ________
A. Bentonite
B. Montmorillonite
C. Kaolin
D. Attapulgite
E. Clay
106. The metal of Masynoeci is also more commonly known as

A. Wood’s alloy
B. Devarda’s alloy
C. Brass
D. Bronze
E. NOTA
107. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as floridin, is a low plasticity, clay-like material
which, when heated, exhibits an increase in its adsorptive properties.
A. Kaolin
B. Bentonite
C. Talc
D. Fuller’s earth
E. Pumice
108. The purest native form of uncombined carbon is

A. Coal
B. Charcoal
C. Diamond
D. Graphite
E. AOTA
109. What is formed when ozone dissolves and unites with the double bonds of substances such as
oil of turpentine, oil of cinnamon and olive oil?
A. Peroxides
B. Ozonides
C. Oxidized oils
D. Dehydrogenated oils
E. NOTA
110. The following are the known uses of sodium hypochlorite solution except:
A. Disinfectant
B. Antiseptic
C. Oxidizing agent
D. Bleaching agent
E. AOTA
111. Corrosive sublimate is:

A. Ammoniated mercury
B. Mercury bichloride
C. Mercurous chloride
D. Potassium hydroxide
E. NOTA
112. The only Group V cation that will yield a precipitate with sodium biphosphate
A. Li+
B. Na+
C. K+
D. NH4+
E. Mg2+
113. Water (as molecules) associated with cations and/or anions of salt in solution or in crystals.
A. Coordinated water
B. Zeolytic water
C. Lattice water
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
114. Rinman’s green is

A. Zinc acetate
B. Cobalt zincate
C. Copper acetoarsenate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
E. NOTA
115. In testing for the presence of reducing sugars in a diabetic urine, 0.1% concentration of such
sugars will produce ______ with the Fehling’s solution.
A. Brick red precipitate
B. White precipitate
C. Colorless solution
D. Bluish-green solution
E. NOTA
116. Solution 2 of the Fehling’s reagent contains the:

A. Cupric sulfate
B. Reducing agent
C. Sequestering agent
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
117. Which of the following metals are placed higher than hydrogen in the electromotive series of
metals?
A. Barium
B. Strontium
C. Nickel
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
118. The oxidation state of oxygen in the peroxide ion is

A. 0
B. -1
C. -2
D. +2
E. NOTA
119. What is the color of the precipitate produced when mercuric salts are treated with sodium
hydroxide TS?
A. Yellow
B. Scarlet
C. White
D. Black
E. No precipitate
120. Complexes of iodine with carrier organic molecules serving as solubilizing agent to liberate
iodine in solution.
A. Iodates
B. Starch-iodoform
C. Iodophor
121. A procedure that employs gamma emitting isotopes and focused radiation directly on the area
under treatment
A. Teletherapy
B. Implantation therapy
C. Contact therapy
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
122. Why is it important to give a patient Lugol’s solution at least 24 hours before the administration
of radioactive iodine?
A. To saturate the thyroid gland with iodine
B. To prevent iodine depletion
C. To prevent the uptake of radioactivity
D. A and B
E. A and C
123. Vogel reaction is used to test for:

A. Nickel ions
B. Ferrous ions
C. Cobaltous ions
D. Ammonium ions
E. NOTA
124. Which is false from these statements?

A. Metallic properties of elements generally decrease in a given period as atomic number
increases
B. Ionization energy increases as the atomic number increases
C. Electronegativity of the elements increases from left to right across any period and from
bottom to top in any group (except VIIIA)
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
125. A useful diagnostic agent in determining renal function is:

A. Iodinated I 125 Serum Albumin
B. Sodium Iodohippurate I 131
C. Sodium Rose Bengal I 131
D. Ferric chloride Fe 59
E. NOTA
126. The quantitative Benedict’s solution contains all of the following except:
A. Cupric sulfate
B. Sodium citrate
C. Potassium thiocyanate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
E. Sodium carbonate
127. In the Griess-Ilosvay test, diazotization of sulphanilic acid is affected by _____ acid, followed by
coupling with 1-naphthylamine reagent to form the red azo dye.
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Hypochlorous acid
C. Nitrous acid
D. Nitric acid
E. Glacial acetic acid
128. Which reagent may be used to differentiate mercurous salts from mercuric salts?
A. Sodium hydroxide TS
B. Copper foil
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
129. Which of the following commercial preparations contain potassium iodide and is indicated for
goiter prophylaxis in iodine deficiency?
A. Eltroxin ®
B. Iodine ®
C. Jodid ®
D. Neo mercazole ®
E. Thyrax ®
130. These metals react vigorously with water to form hydrogen gas and metallic hydroxides
A. Alkali metals
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Coinage metals
D. Rare earth metals
E. AOTA
131. All of the members of the family of these metals form complex cations with ammonia
A. Alkali metals
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Coinage metals
D. Rare earth metals
E. AOTA
132. All the other nitrates are soluble in the water except for ______ which is only sparingly soluble
in water.
A. Mercuric nitrite
B. Sodium nitrite
C. Ammonium nitrite
D. Silver nitrite
E. Mercurous nitrite
133. An entity providing a pair of electrons in a coordinate covalent bond is termed as

A. Acceptor species
B. Electron provider
C. Donor species
D. Acid
E. Base
134. This group of element hydroxides in aqueous solutions has the greatest alkalinity in nature with
alkalinity increasing as the ionic radius increases.
A. Group IA
B. Group IB
C. Group IIA
D. Group IIB
E. Group IIIA
135. All Group IA elements have increasing oxidation potentials except:

A. Cesium
B. Rubidium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
E. Lithium
136. The following are the advantages of using Benedict’s solution over Fehling’s solution except:
A. Benedict’s solution is less alkaline than Fehling’s solution
B. The citrate solution in Benedict’s reagent is a better sequestering agent
C. Benedict’s solution is more stable than Fehling’s solution
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
137. Thenard’s blue is chemically known as:

A. Aluminum carbonate
B. Sodium cobaltnitarate
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Cobalt meta-aluminate
E. NOTA
138. This is also known as White Precipitate

A. Zinc sulfide
B. Ammoniated mercury
C. Calomel
D. Zinc oxide
E. Ammonium carbonate
139. All alkaline earth metals reduce water with the liberation of hydrogen and the formation of an
alkaline solution except:
A. Be
B. Ca
C. Sr
D. Ba
E. Ra
140. This group of elements have an additional ten electrons, giving it a “pseudo- inert gas” or an 18-
electron structure.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
E. NOTA
141. Hydroxides of this group of elements tend to show amphoteric properties except those at the
top and the bottom elements of this group.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA
E. Group IVB
142. This group of elements predominantly exhibit covalent bonding, owing to the small size and
high charge on the tetravalent ions.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA
E. Group IVB
143. What is the relationship between the oxidation number and acidity of the oxyacids of a given
element in the case of the elements in Group VI?
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Acidity and oxidation number has no relation at all
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
144. The strongest acid among the members of the halogen family is
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HBr
D. HI
E. HNO3
145. An oxyacid of the halogen with the formula HOXO is appropriately named as
A. Hypohalous acid
B. Halous acid
C. Halic acid
D. Perhalic acid
E. NOTA
146. This group of elements are the most stable to any kind of chemical reaction.
A. Group IA
B. Group IB
C. Group VIIA
D. Group VIIIA
E. NOTA
147. If oxidizing impurities are rigidly excluded, all alkali metals in this group will dissolve in ammonia
to form a blue solution, which, if evaporated, will recover the uncharged metal eventually.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
E. Group IIIA
148. According to this principle, hard acids are electron acceptors with high positive charges and
relatively small sizes while soft acids have low positive charges and relatively large sizes.
A. Lewis Acid and Base Principle
B. Bronsted-Lowry Principle
C. Arrhenius Principle
D. Pearson’s HSAB Principle
E. NOTA
149. Heating boric acid to temperature s over 160°C will produce

A. Metaboric acid
B. Pyroboric acid
C. Boron trioxide
D. Tetraboric acid
E. Sodium perborate
150. This group of elements are the first elements large enough to permit the addition of electrons to
the d orbital, beginning with the third principal quantum number.
A. Group IB
B. Group IIB
C. Group IIIB
D. Group IVB
E. Group VB
151. Nitric acid, NF 30 is an aqueous solution containing:

A. Not less than 36.5% and not more than 38% by weight of HNO3
B. Not less than 69% and not more than 71% by weight of HNO3
C. Not less than 85% and not more than 88% by weight of HNO3
D. Not less than 94% and not more than 98% by weight of HNO3
E. Not less than 27% and not more than 30% by weight of HNO3
152. This mixture is used for its ability to absorb CO2 from expired air in metabolic function test.
A. Slaked Lime D. AOTA
B. Soda Lime E. NOTA
C. Lime Water
153. Each element in this group has a core with an outer shell of 18 electrons, together with a single
valence electron in the outermost shell.
A. Group 1A D. Group IIB
B. Group IB E. Group IIIA
C. Group IIA
154. Sal soda or washing soda has the formula
A. NaHCO3
B. B. Na2CO3
C. C. Na2CO3. H2O
D. Na2CO3. 7 H2O
E. Na2CO3. 10 H2O
155. This buffer system is useful at alkaline pH and can be used in ophthalmic solutions, contact
lens solution and as solvent for soluble fluorescein.
A. Sorensen phosphate buffer
B. Atkins and Pantin buffer
C. Feldman’s buffer
D. Gifford’s buffer
E. NOTA
156. When combined with oxygen or in the form of their oxygen salts, the halogens have ___
valence/s.
A. one D. A and B
B. negative E. B and C
C. greater than one
157. Addition of Barium chloride solution to solutions containing nitrites will produce
A. Evolution of gas D. Transient pale blue solution
B. Brown precipitate E. No precipitate
C. White crystalline precipitate
158. An antioxidant usually found in solutions of drugs with phenol or catechol nucleus ex.
Epinephrine HCl to prevent oxidation of these compounds to quinines and similar substances.
A. Sulfur dioxide D. Nitrogen
B. Sodium hyposulfite E. Sodium nitrite
C. Sodium metabisulfite
159. This is used to provide an inert atmosphere to retard oxidation in cod liver oil, olive oil, and
multiple vitamin preparations.
A. Helium D. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen E. NOTA
C. Hydrogen
160. Temporary hard water is caused by the presence in solution of calcium or magnesium ____.
A. sulfates D. chlorides
B. hydroxides E. NOTA
C. bicarbonate
161. Members of the “heavy platinum metals” include

A. Ruthenium D. Palladium
B. Iridium E. NOTA
C. Rhodium
162. Faulty calcium metabolism defined as a reduced volume of bone tissue per unit volume of
anatomical bone and commonly affects postmenopausal women is known as:
A. Osteoporosis D. Hypocalcemia
B. Rickets E. NOTA
C. Paget’s disease
163. Organic mercurial salts were previously used as diuretics and are all administered parenterally
except:
A. Meralluride D. Chlormerodrin
B. Sodium mercaptomerin E. NOTA
C. Calomel
164. This element can replace calcium in bone formation and has been used to hasten bone
remineralization in diseases such as osteoporosis.
A. Strontium D. Magnesium
B. Barium E. Tantalum
C. Beryllium
165. Betadine® antiseptic topical solution contains ____ % of iodine.

A. 0.5-1% D.10%
B. 5% E. NOTA
C. 7.5%
166. This compound has been used in the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans.
However, extended use of this product may result to argyria and nephritis.
A. Silver nitrate D. Silver lactate
B. Silver nitrite E. Silver protein
C. Silver trinitrophenolate
167. This sodium salt does not produce systemic alkalosis readily and is antiketogenic. As such, it is
thought to be more suitable as an electrolyte replenisher.
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium tatrate
B. Sodium lactate E. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium gluconate
168. In the reaction: KMNO4 + 5 HNO2 + 3 H2SO4 3 MnSO4 + 5 HNO3 + K2SO4, the
reducing agent is:
A. KMnO4 D. H2O
B.HNO2 E. NOTA
C. H2SO4
169. Addition of ferric salts to solutions of thiocyanates causes the formation of a blood-red colored
solution, which has been variously ascribed to the formation of:
A. Fe (SCN) 3 D.AOTA
B. Fe (SCN) 6 E. NOTA
C. Fe (SCN) ++
170. KNaC4H4O6. 4 H2O is also known by the following names except:

A. Potassium Sodium tartrate D. Rochelle salt
B. Sal seignette E. NOTA
C. Seidlitz powder
171. Fresh silver stains on skin may be best removed by painting the affected area with
A. Tincture of iodine
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Sodium picrate
D. Potassium cyanide
E. NOTA
172. Citric acid is added to Milk of Magnesia to

A. prevent oxidation D. A and B
B. enhance palatability E. B and C
C. minimize alkalinity
173. This substance gives calamine its pink color.

A. Zinc oxide D. Ferric oxide
B. Ferrous oxide E. NOTA
C. Zinc carbonate
174. Flash-light powders are mixtures of potassium chlorate or barium peroxide and the powdered
form of this element
A. Calcium D. Sulfur
B. Aluminum E. Phosphorus
C. Magnesium
175. NaF may be stored

A. in dark, glass bottles D. AOTA
B. for one year E.NOTA
C. in cool temperatures
176. The explosive form of antimony is the

A. Metallic form D. Yellow antimony
B. Amorphous form E. Black antimony
C. Crystalline form
177. Salt of wormwood is

A. KHCO3 . 4 H2O D. K2HPO4
B. K2CO3 . ½ H2O E. NOTA
C. CH3COOK
178. In the compound sodium manganite, NaMnO3, manganese exhibits a valence of

A. 2 D. 6
B. 3 E. 7
C. 4
179. The following elements exhibit amphoteric property except

A. Aluminum D. Lead
B. Tin E. NOTA
C. Zinc
180. Fool’s gold is

A. Gold sodium thiomalate D. Ferrous carbonate with shale
B. Auric selenate E. NOTA
C. Iron pyrite
181. In a weakly acidic medium, the reaction between this metal and stannous chloride will produce
a purple precipitate commonly known as Purple of Cassius
A. Tin D. Gold
B. Silver E. Lead
C. Mercury
182. The most desirable form of talc for cosmetics and pharmaceuticals
A. amorphous D. steatite
B. foliated E. granular
C. fibrous
183. Quilonium-R® is also

A. Lithium bromide D. Lithium bicarbonate
B. Lithium chloride E. Lithium hydroxide
C. Lithium carbonate
184. The iron salt in this commercial preparation has the advantage of being the least irritating to the
GI tract.
A. Feosol® D. Cherifer® capsule
B. Hemobion® E. NOTA
C. Revicon Max®
185. A native form of calcium carbonate that has been freed from most of its impurities through
elutriation.
A. Drop chalk D. Lime
B. Precipitated chalk E. NOTA

C. Muriate of Lime
186. A property of some substances to lose water molecules from a crystalline structure.
A. Dehydration D. Efflorescence
B. Hygroscopic property E. NOTA
C. Deliquescence
187. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as Floridin, is a low plasticity clay-like material
with high water content. It finds its use in the decolorization of oils.
A. Kaolin D. Pumice
B. Bentonite E. NOTA
C. Fuller’s Earth
188. This compound is said to be the recommended calcium salt as electrolyte replenisher because
it provides an optimum ratio of 1:1 calcium to phosphorus.
A. Calcium lactate D. Tribasic calcium phosphate
B. Calcium carbonate E. NOTA
C. Dibasic calcium phosphate
189. Vleminckx’s solution, a mixture prepared by boiling lime and sublime sulfur, is used as
A. cathartic D. emetic
B. scabicide E. irritant
C. antifungal
190. Fowler’s solution

A. Dilute sodium hypochlorite D. Bromine, tenth-normal solution
B. Copper Acetoarsenate solution E. NOTA
C. Potassium arsenite solution
191. Nordhausen acid also refers to

A. Diluted hypochloric acid D. Fuming sulfuric acid
B. Phosphoric acid E. Muriatic acid
C. Concentrated nitric acid
192. Precipitation of copper salts can be prevented by sequestering agents found in

A. Fehling’s reagent D. AOTA
B. Benedict’s reagent E. NOTA
C. Haine’s reagent
193. Reduced iron is an odorless, grayish black and very fine powder, which should pass through
sieve
A. No. 20 D. No. 80
B. No. 40 E. No. 100
C. No. 60
194. The least abundant of all inert gases

A. Krypton D. Argon
B. Xenon E. Neon
C. Radon
195. What is the difference between Iodine Tincture and Iodine solution?
A. the concentration of iodine present D. AOTA
B. the comparative antiseptic efficiency E. NOTA
C. the solvent medium used
196. Acalka® is also

A. Sodium chloride D. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium carbonate E. Zinc oxide
C. Potassium citrate
197. The impurity, which is found more frequently in talc, is

A. Zinc oxide D. Magnesium oxide
B. Calcium oxide E. Ferrous oxide
C. Silica
198. Nessler’s reagent, an alkaline solution of Potassium tetraiodomercurate (II), is used to detect
A. Arsenic D. Aluminum
B. Ammonia E. Mercury
C. Zinc
199. The only single acid to dissolve gold

A. Nitric acid D. A and B
B. Hydrochloric acid E. B and C
C. Selenic acid
200. 750 mg of Kalium Durules contain an equivalent of ____ mEq of potassium chloride
A. 2.9 D. 9.8
B. 3.8 E. 12.2
C. 6.5
201. This cation does not react with HCl but forms precipitates with H2S in dilute mineral acid
medium.
A. Arsenic (III) D. Pb
B. Fe (II) E. Li
C. Ca
202. Which among these hydroxides are the most soluble?

A. Strontium chloride D. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Barium hydroxide E. NOTA
C. Calcium hydroxide
203. The group reagent for Group I cation

A. Dilute HCl
B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium
C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution
D. Ammonium carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic media
E. NOTA
204. A strong, caustic substance also known as burnt lime

A. Calcium carbonate D. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide E. Calcium sulfite
C. Calcium oxide
205. The compound commonly known as Plaster of Paris

A. Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate D. Aluminum chloride
B. Dried Calcium sulfate E. Chlorinated Lime
C. Sodium phosphate
206. Butter of Zinc

A. Zinc carbonate D. Zinc lactate
B. Zinc chloride E. NOTA
C. Zinc oxide
207. Tromdorff’s starch is used for detecting

A. nitrites D. A and B
B. free chlorides E. B and C
C. iodides
208. What acid can be used to purify talc?

A. Hydrochloric acid D. AOTA
B. Sulfuric acid E. NOTA
C. Nitric acid
209. Philosopher’s wool is also

A. Mercuric chloride D. Magnesium carbonate
B. Lithium carbonate E. Sodium phosphate
C. Zinc oxide
210. Which among the halogen is the most polarizable?

A. Iodine D. Fluorine
B. Bromine E. NOTA
C. Chlorine
211. Which reagent is more sensitive in the detection of sodium ions?

A. Uranyl magnesium acetate solution D. Tartaric acid

B. Uranyl zinc acetate solution E. NOTA
C. Chloroplatinic acid
212. Which reagent can be used to precipitate potassium salt but not sodium?
A. Sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III) D. AOTA
B. Tartaric acid solution E. NOTA
C. Chloroplatinic acid
213. Fenton’s test is a test for

A. chromates D. chlorides
B. tartrates E. iodides
C. sulfates
214. The only silver halide, which shows appreciable solubility in water
A. Silver chloride D. Silver fluoride
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
C. Silver iodide
215. Helium is usually supplied in cylinders, which are colored ____

A. green D. grey
B.black E.blue
C. brown
216. Nitrous oxide is usually supplied in cylinders, which are colored ____
A. green D. grey
B.black E.blue
C. brown
217. This gas is lighter than air and causes the pitch of sounds uttered by the vocal cords to be
increased, producing unintelligible speech with a “Donald Duck” sound
A. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide E. Nitrous oxide
C. Helium
218. Which of the following statements is false regarding activated charcoal?

A. Activated charcoal is administered in a charcoal to poison ratio of 5:1 to 10:1
B. Higher doses of activated charcoal are necessary if the patient ate before the poisoning
occurred
C. Charcoal tablets may substitute the powdered form as it is as effective
D. Repeated administration of activated charcoal after an adequate initial dose of the antidote
appears to exert no additional inhibition of absorption of the poison
E. NOTA
219. An effective precipitant for both topical and gastric exposure to phosphorus is
A. Cupric sulfate D. Calcium gluconate
B. Sodium phosphate E. NOTA

C. Magnesium sulfate
220. Dry ice is the frozen form of

A. Hydrogen D. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen E. NOTA
C. Nitrogen
221. Preston’s salt is

A. Magnesium sulfate D. Cobaltous chloride
B. Calcium chloride E. Calcium carbonate
C. Ammonium carbonate
222. This precipitation can hasten absorption in the stomach, increase acid gastric juice secretion
and act as carminative. It is prepared by charging carbon dioxide in water at a pressure of 3-4
atmospheres.
A. Lime water D. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Soda water E. NOTA
C. Dakin’s solution
223. Pale yellow precipitate obtained after the reaction with silver nitrate solution
B. Silver iodide E. NOTA
C. Silver bromide
224. The only sodium halide, which has the least solubility in water
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
C. Silver iodide
225. Howe’s solution is a solution of

A. Sodium hypochlorite D. Ammonium chloride
B. Cupric sulfate E. NOTA
C. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
226. Silver chloride is insoluble in

A. Dilute acids D. AOTA
B. Ammonium hydroxide E. NOTA
C. Sodium thiosulfate
227. This compound has been used in the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans
infections in concentration from 1-2%
A. Mild silver protein D. Colloidal silver iodide
B. Strong silver protein E. Silver picrate
C. Colloidal silver chloride
228. Glauber’s salt

A. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate E. NOTA
229. Yellow precipitate is used

A. Ophthalmic antiseptic D. Expectorant
B. Emetic E. NOTA
C. Scabicide
230. White precipitate is used as

A. Local anti- infective D. AOTA
B. Dusting powder E. NOTA
C. Topical anti-parasitic
231. Phosphorus allotrope occurring as a microcrystalline, non-poisonous powder, which is insoluble

in all solvents
A. White phosphorus D. Violet phosphorus
B. Red phosphorus E. Black phosphorus
C. Scarlet phosphorus
232. Fine, yellow, crystalline form of sulfur with a faint odor and taste
A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur
B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA
C. Sublimed sulfur
233. Also known as Iac sulfur

C. Sublime sulfur
234. Also known as Flowers of Sulfur

C. Sublime sulfur
235. Solder is an alloy of

A. Antimony D. Copper
B. Lead E. Zinc
C. Bismuth
236. Which of the following statements in Dalton’s Atomic Theory are valid in the light of researches
that are more recent in atomic structure?
A. All elements consist of minute discrete particles called atom
B. Atoms of a given element are alike and have the same mass.
C. Atoms cannot be subdivided nor those of one element changed into another
D. Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed

E. NOTA
237. An essential trace element which seemed to improve or normalize impaired glucose tolerance
of some diabetics, elderly and malnourished children.
A. Zinc D. Chromium
B. Manganese E. Copper
C. Iron
238. Iron Dextran must be administered via this route only

A. subcutaneous D. oral
B. intravenous E. topical
C. intramuscular
239. Iron interferes with the absorption of tetracycline through the mechanism of
A. Oxidation D. Chelation
B. Reduction E. NOTA
C. Neutralization
240. Parakeratosi is associated with a deficiency of

A. Calcium D. Iodine
B. Iron E. NOTA
C. Zinc
241. This trace element has been implicated in cellular respiration and as an antioxidant in
conjunction with Vitamin E
A. Manganese D. Sulfur
B. Selenium E. Iron
C. Molybdenum
242. How many mEq /L of sodium do the human plasma contains?

A. 4 D. 154
B. 5 E. 142
C. 3
243. How many mEq /L of potassium do the human plasma contains?

A. 4 D. 154
B. 5 E. 142
C. 3
244. The best food source of Copper

A. meat D. AOTA
B. egg yolk E. NOTA
C. whole grains
245. This trace element best found in legumes and whole grains, competes with calcium for
transport
A. Magnesium D. Zinc
B. Iron E. Copper
C. Iodine
246. A deficiency of this trace element results to hypochromic anemia and excessive hepatic storage
in Wilson’s disease
A. Magnesium D. Zinc
B. Iron E. Copper
C. Iodine
247. This trace element is a constituent of Factor 3, acts with Vitamin E to prevent liver necrosis and
muscular dystrophy in animals and inhibits lipid peroxidation
A. Cobalt D. Selenium
B. Manganese E. Chromium
C. Molybdenum
248. This trace element is a constituent of Vitamin B12

A. Cobalt D. Selenium
B. Manganese E. Chromium
C. Molybdenum
249. A deficiency of this inorganic ion results to cystinuria and cysteine renal calculi
A. Cobalt D. Magnesium
B. Sulfur E. Fluoride
C. Selenium
250. This trace element is poorly absorbed and needs to be aided by Vitamin D
A. Sodium D. Iron
B. Potassium E. Magnesium
C. Calcium
251. Deficiency of this inorganic ion results to osteomalacia and renal rickets
A. Calcium D. Chloride
B. Phosphorus E. NOTA
C. Sodium
252. This is added to whole blood to complex blood calcium and prevent clot formation in a collected
blood
A. EDTA D. Warfarin
B. Citrate E. NOTA
C. Heparin
253. Hypocalcemia can be caused by

A. hypoparathyroidism D. NOTA
B. Vitamin D deficiency E. AOTA
C. Steatorrhea
254. The fourth most abundant cation in the human body is

A. Magnesium D. Manganese
B. Iron E. Cobalt
C. Calcium
255. This cation exerts a powerful general anesthetic action similar to that produced by chloroform
when injected intramuscularly or intravenously
A. Magnesium D. Manganese
B. Iron E. Cobalt
C. Calcium
256. How many mEq /L of chlorine do Ringer’s Injection contains?

A. 147 D. 155.5
B. 4 E. NOTA
C. 4.5
257. This compound is used in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate reserve and
also exerts a diuretic effect
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium biphosphate
B. Potassium bicarbonate E. NOTA
C. Sodium citrate
258. Salmiac refers to

A. Sodium lactate D. Sodium acetate
B. Potassium citrate E. NOTA
C. Ammonium chloride
259. The zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame used for testing volatile substances on whether
they impact any color to the flame
A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. hottest portion of the flame
260. The fusion zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame is also the
261. A large excess of oxygen is present in this zone of the non-luminous Bunsen flame
262. Salts containing the cation calcium will form a precipitate with
A. Dilute HCl
E. NOTA
263. This cation belong to the sub group IIA in the classification of cations except
A. Mercury (II) D. Copper
B. Tin (II) E. Cadmium
C .Bismuth
264. Salts containing the cation chromium (III) will form a precipitate with
A. Dilute HCl
B. B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium
E. NOTA
265. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should you heat the thin platinum wire after cleaning it by
dipping into concentrated HCl?
266. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should one introduce the substance being investigated to
observe the color that imparts to the flame?
A. upper reducing zone D. lower oxidizing zone
267. Group reagent of Group IV cations

A. Dilute HCl
E. NOTA
268. Strontium imparts this color to the flame when viewed through cobalt glass
A. Crimson D. Light green
B. Purple E. Nil
C. Yellowish green
269. Which of these subatomic particles have the smallest mass?

A. electron D. AOTA
B. proton E. NOTA
C. neutron
270. Chemical activity, in general, increase for the elements listed in the Periodic Table in
descending order except for the _______ elements
A. Group IA D. Group IIB
B. Group IB E. Noble gases
C. Group IIA
271. Borax (Na2B4O7 .10 H2O) is also known as

A. Sodium borate D. Sodium pyroborate
B. Sodium tetraborate E. AOTA
C. Sodium biborate
272. The following are bulk-increasing laxative except

A. Castor oil D. Liquid petrolatum
B. Cellulose E. NOTA
C. Saline cathartics
C. Iron
273. The following are irritant laxative except

A. sulfur D. vegetable acids
B. Anthraquinones Cathartics E. NOTA
C. Mercurial purgatives
274. Other names of Potassium carbonate are the following except for one
A. potash D. Salt of Wormwood
B. Pearl ash E. NOTA
C. Cream of Tartar
275. Caution is highly exercised in handling potassium chlorate as great explosions may occur when
it is triturated with
A. Tannic acid D. charcoal
B. Sulfides E. AOTA
C. Reduced iron
276. This toxic potassium salt, which is excreted slowly by the kidney, may cause lysis of red blood
cells, which in turn, irritates the kidney and produces a marked interstitial nephritis. It can also cause
some conversion of hemoglobin to met hemoglobin
A. Potassium carbonate D. Potassium hydroxide
B. Potassium chlorate E. NOTA
C. Potassium chloride
277. If cuprous oxide is colored red, cupric oxide is colored

A. blue D. green
B. colorless E. NOTA
C. black
278. Which of the following elements occur highest in the electromotive series of metals?
A. Aluminum D. Bismuth
B. Calcium E. Hydrogen
C. Iron
279. Which of the following elements occur lowest in the electromotive series of metals?
A. Copper
B. Strontium
C. Iron
D.Tin
E.Lead
280. Which of the following metals will react with acids to produce hydrogen?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Mercury
E. Nota
281. Potassium alum is an example of a

A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. mixed salt
282. KCaPO4 is an example of a

A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. mixed salt
283. An acetate salt, which is only sparingly soluble in water

A. Calcium acetate D. Sodium acetate
B. Mercurous acetate E. Potassium acetate
C. Lead acetate
284. White precipitate

A. ZnO D. HgNH2Cl
B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
C. ZnSO4
285. Yellow mercuric oxide turns red in the presence of

A. air D. A and B
B. heat E. B and C
C. light
286. Corrosive sublimate

A. 4 Bi (OH)2HNO2. BiO (OH) D. magnesium
B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
C. Zinc
287. Copper is associated to promote better assimilation of

A. Iron D. Magnesium
B. Calcium E. NOTA
C. Zinc
288. First prepared by Egyptians by subliming the ashes resulting from the slow burning of camel’s
dung
A. Ammonium hydroxide D. Ammonium bromide
B. Ammonium chloride E. NOTA
289. Argol is composed of

A. Potassium bitartrate
B. Calcium tartrate
C. Cream of Tartar
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
290. Eau Forte

A. water D. nitric acid
B. alcohol E. hydrochloric acid
C. sulfuric acid
291. The following acids have oxidizing properties except

A. Sulfuric acid D. AOTA
B. Phosphoric acid E. NOTA
C. Nitric acid
292. Which of the following anions will have a positive result to Fenton’s test?
A. tartrates D. succinates
B. citrates E. AOTA
C. malates
293. The color of the precipitate produced when Barium chloride solution reacts with solutions of
chromates
A. white D. brownish red
B. black E. no precipitate
C.pale yellow
294. Borate salts may be derived from

A. H3BO3 D. AOTA
B. H2B4O7 E. NOTA
C. HBO2
295. The precipitate produced in the reaction of magnesium salts with Sodium hydroxide will readily
dissolve in
A. excess reagent D. ammonia
B. water E. NOTA
C. Alcohol
296. Continuous washing is employed in the reaction between Magnesium sulfate and Sodium
hydroxide to prepare Milk of Magnesia
A. dissolved the unreacted magnesium sulfate D. AOTA
B. dissolve the unreacted sodium hydroxide E.NOTA
C. removes the byproduct sodium sulfate
297. Chile saltpeter is

A. KNO3 D. NaNO3
B. KNO2 E. NOTA
C. NaNO3
298. Niter is
A. KNO3 D. NaNO3
B. KNO2 E. NOTA
C. NaNO3
299. Which of the following cations is expected to react with hydrochloric acid?
A.Magnesium D. Ammonium
B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Potassium
300. The purest native form of uncombined carbon

A. charcoal D. coal
B. graphite E. NOTA
C. diamond

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Pharmaceutical Inorganic Chemistry Answer Key-RED PACOP

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INORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY

2. Less volatile substances may be detected in:

3. Sb imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

4. Tl imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

16. Basic mercury (II) amidonitrate exists as:

19. Purple colored compounds usually indicate the presence of

20. Devarda’s alloy contains

26. Artificial radioactive isotopes emit the following except

28. The mineral spodumene contains

29. Compounds formed when molecules of two different halogens react

30. CrCl2 (H2O) 4NO3 is

31. Ethylenediamine is a type of ligand classified as

32. Francium has Z=

33. The most stable diatomic molecule is

34. The bond existing between mercury (II) fluoride is

35. The most metallic of all halogens is

39. Oxidation of phosphorous with oxygen may yield

43. Which alkali metal hydroxide has the highest alkalinity?

45. The reagent that will precipitate out Group I cations

49. The specific gravity of sulphuric acid is

50. A type of water which is sometimes known as purgative water

51. Graham’s salt is

53. This element decreases the coefficient of expansion in glass.

54. Element that predominates in the plasma and interstitial fluids

55. The black precipitate produced in Marsh’s test is

56. The xanthoproteic test make use of this acid

58. The principal anion of the intracellular fluid compartment is

59. Ringer’s injection contains_____ mEqs of potassium

62. Important component of the protein ceruloplasmin

63. Marsh test is a test for

64. The positive result in Gutzeit’s test is the presence of

E. Silver mirror in test tube walls

65. Decoloration of fuchsin dye indicates the presence of

66. Prussian blue is:

67. Deficiency of this mineral result to parakeratosis

68. This metal has the capacity to displace hydrogen in solution

70. Temporary hardness of water is usually caused by the presence of:

72. Defacqz reaction is used to test for:

73. Turnbull’s blue is

77. The most chemically active among the members in Group II A

78. The second most abundant element on earth

80. One hundred volumes of hydrogen peroxide is equal to

81. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at room temperature

82. The best expectorant is

85. Iron oxides are usually used as

87. Potassium alum is an example of a

88. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit, USP must be stored in

91. The softest mineral known is:

93. A basic or “sub” salt is prepared by

94. An example of an efflorescent substance is

99. Metallic mercury is soluble in the following acids except

101. Native colloidal, hydrated silicate is also known as:

102. Burrow’s solution contains

103. Purple of Cassius consists of

106. The metal of Masynoeci is also more commonly known as

108. The purest native form of uncombined carbon is

111. Corrosive sublimate is:

114. Rinman’s green is

116. Solution 2 of the Fehling’s reagent contains the:

118. The oxidation state of oxygen in the peroxide ion is

123. Vogel reaction is used to test for:

124. Which is false from these statements?

125. A useful diagnostic agent in determining renal function is:

133. An entity providing a pair of electrons in a coordinate covalent bond is termed as