Solutions of Mock CAT - 05 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

 Scorecard

 Accuracy

 Qs Analysis

 Booster Analysis

 Video Analysis

 Solutions

 Bookmarks

 VRC

 LRDI

 QA

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every
single moment. But what reality?

Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in
collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend
getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist,
traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly
transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before
flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he
may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to
them.

I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art
on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor
assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train
station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the
commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's
independence, even superiority.

One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes,
poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady
rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out
entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty
of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for
the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley
friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the
Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of
the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes
the artist an emblem of modern life.

The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés,
the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart
from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all
values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a
judgment to be feared.

Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined

a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step
by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human
vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its
uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers
and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He
begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the
painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A
cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing.
Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.

Q.1
Through this passage, the author attempts to do which of the following?

a The author attempts to show that Monet evokes a world of color from themes
that never before existed within it.

b The author attempts to show Monet's development, increasingly isolated from the
avant-garde he helped so to create.

c The author attempts to show that in Monet, for the first time, the artist became
independent of worldly forms.

d The author attempts to show that Monet did copy appearances, but he
transformed both copying and seeing into a creative act.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every
single moment. But what reality?
Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in
collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend
getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist,
traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly
transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before
flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he
may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to
them.

I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art
on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor
assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train
station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the
commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's
independence, even superiority.

One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes,
poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady
rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out
entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty
of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for
the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley
friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the
Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of
the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes
the artist an emblem of modern life.

The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés,
the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart
from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all
values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a
judgment to be feared.

Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined

a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step
by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human
vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its
uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers
and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He
begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the
painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A
cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing.
Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.

Q.2
According to the author, which of the following describes an activity that Monet
indulged in?

a Of being an avid traveler

b Of transcribing what one sees

c Of being only in the company of one's friends

d Of doing whatever one wishes to do

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every
single moment. But what reality?

Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in
collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend
getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist,
traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly
transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before
flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he
may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to
them.

I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art
on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor
assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train
station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the
commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's
independence, even superiority.

One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes,
poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady
rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out
entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty
of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for
the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley
friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the
Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of
the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes
the artist an emblem of modern life.

The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés,
the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart
from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all
values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a
judgment to be feared.

Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined

a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step
by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human
vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its
uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers
and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He
begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the
painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A
cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing.
Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.

Q.3
The author would agree with which of the following?

a Monet's each painting offers a new technical challenge, startlingly overcome.

b Good art should stress the conjunction of visual imagining with the artist's
original vision.

c Monet elevated subject and canvas together above everyday things.

d Artistic vision should mean imagining rather than mirroring.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Science and a painter's vision agree: the human eye must reinvent reality for itself every
single moment. But what reality?

Early on, Monet alternated between city parks and streets. Before long, in
collaborations with Pierre-Auguste Renoir that forged a new style, he painted weekend
getaways. Later, with more time, fame, and cash, he became the perfect tourist,
traveling up the Seine and to London. Eventually he just bought and lavishly
transformed whatever land he wished to paint.

One can easily identify Monet with the middle class on holiday, just as a century before
flower painting graced another leisure class, the aristocracy. At best, like Manet, he
may force viewers' attention on their own guilty pleasures. At worst, he may succumb to
them.

I think that either concern is correct-but largely beside the point. Monet does focus art
on pleasure, but distinct from the pleasures of everyday life. He neither glorifies nor
assaults the property owner; he sets himself apart. When he paints an urban train
station, a cloud of smoke hides equally the power of the engine and the fatigue of the
commuter or crew. His indifference and his immersion in modernity assert the artist's
independence, even superiority.

One of my favorite early works shows men unloading a ship. Lean, graceful silhouettes,
poised at intervals on thin black ramps, appear to move back and forth in a steady
rhythm. Faced with the same scene, a wealthy tourist might have tuned them out
entirely. A more overt social critic could actually have missed the dark, poignant beauty
of their endless labor. Monet is interested in the preconditions of any critical perception.

Ordinary consumers hardly ever put in an appearance in Monet's paintings. Except for
the infamous tongue lickings, his increasingly rare human subjects are his motley
friends. The Art Institute reunites the surviving fragments of an early Luncheon on the
Grass. Like a more aggressive rendition by Manet, this one takes on Titian. In place of
the mythical figures of the Renaissance, Monet stuck the Impressionist circle. He makes
the artist an emblem of modern life.

The avant-garde was not about criticism so much as abstention. The Salon des Refusés,
the exhibition that launched it all, was a refusal on both sides. The artist stood apart
from society, sharing some of its values, violating others, searching for the origins of all
values. Such idealism makes less and less sense for Postmodernism, but it was a
judgment to be feared.

Monet combined self-assertion, generalization, and escapism. In the process, he defined

a new, powerful avant-garde. In this full career retrospective, we can see it emerge step
by step. The very first room documents the discovery of the Impressionist brushstroke.

Four rooms later comes the turn from single scenes to the underpinnings of human
vision. Black paint and people all but vanish, while even subject matter loses its
uniqueness. A station or a rock face must be seen in a series, for all different weathers
and times of day. Monet abandons the pretense of taking it all in within an instant. He
begins a dozen canvases at once, returning to each one when the light strikes.

Finally, the act of observation subsumes even the observer. Water and sky extend to the
painting's edge. Accuracy of vision remains, but a viewer has nowhere at all to stand. A
cryptic, incomplete horizon keeps one from interpreting the scene apart from the seeing.
Now too, Monet owns all the property he paints.

Q.4
The passage has most likely been taken from?

a An article on postmodernist artists

b A review of an art show

c An essay on Monet

d A critical analysis of Monet

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People
with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live
forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is
waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be
superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He
also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal
immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the
human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse
nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die
voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come
back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be
born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we
should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that
sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a
man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been
more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to
make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him
to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into
bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is
rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make
room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be
and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible
shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on
his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of
hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory;
and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift
individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a
being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-
conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those
who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me
perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present
imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as
well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old
Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the
matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be
irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do
people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell,
however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor
and no conscience, is not a fact.

Q.5
Which of the following is a reason, according to the author, that helps us reconcile with
the idea of death?

a We become slightly better each time that we are born again.

b When we die, we leave all our mistakes and immorality behind.

c We were a sorry job to begin with and it is better to be remanufactured.

d Our personality and its faults are no longer meaningful when we are born again
and again.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People
with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live
forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is
waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be
superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He
also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal
immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the
human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse
nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die
voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come
back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be
born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we
should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that
sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a
man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been
more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to
make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him
to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into
bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is
rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make
room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be
and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible
shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on
his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of
hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory;
and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift
individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a
being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-
conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those
who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me
perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present
imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as
well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old
Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the
matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be
irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do
people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell,
however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor
and no conscience, is not a fact.

Q.6
What is the author's idea of Hell?

a To live forever

b To live forever as the same person that we are in this life

c To live forever with the same people, in the same world

d To live an immoral life

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People
with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live
forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is
waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be
superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He
also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal
immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the
human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse
nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die
voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come
back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be
born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we
should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that
sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a
man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been
more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to
make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him
to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into
bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is
rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make
room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be
and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible
shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on
his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of
hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory;
and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift
individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a
being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-
conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those
who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me
perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present
imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as
well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old
Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the
matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be
irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do
people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell,
however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor
and no conscience, is not a fact.

Q.7
What according to the author is the goal of evolution?

a To create an individual that is moral and cannot be corrupted

b To create an individual that can lead a perfect life

c To create an individual that lives forever

d None of the above

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Now death is not necessarily a failure of energy on the part of the Life Force. People
with no imagination try to make things which will last forever, and even want to live
forever themselves. But the intelligently imaginative man knows very well that it is
waste of labor to make a machine that will last ten years, because it will probably be
superseded in half that time by an improved machine answering the same purpose. He
also knows that if some devil were to convince us that our dream of personal
immortality is no dream but a hard fact, such a shriek of despair would go up from the
human race as no other conceivable horror could provoke. With all our perverse
nonsense as to John Smith living for a thousand million eons and for ever after, we die
voluntarily, knowing that it is time for us to be scrapped, to be remanufactured, to come
back, as Wordsworth divined, trailing ever brightening clouds of glory. We must all be
born again, and yet again and again. We should like to live a little longer just as we
should like 50 pounds: that is, we should take it if we could get it for nothing; but that
sort of idle liking is not will. It is amazing--considering the way we talk--how little a
man will do to get 50 pounds: all the 50-pound notes I have ever known of have been
more easily earned than a laborious sixpence; but the difficulty of inducing a man to
make any serious effort to obtain 50 pounds is nothing to the difficulty of inducing him
to make a serious effort to keep alive. The moment he sees death approach, he gets into
bed and sends for a doctor. He knows very well at the back of his conscience that he is
rather a poor job and had better be remanufactured. He knows that his death will make
room for a birth; and he hopes that it will be a birth of something that he aspired to be
and fell short of. He knows that it is through death and rebirth that this corruptible
shall become incorruptible, and this mortal put on immortality. Practise as you will on
his ignorance, his fears, and his imagination, with bribes of paradises and threats of
hells, there is only one belief that can rob death of its sting and the grave of its victory;
and that is the belief that we can lay down the burden of our wretched little makeshift
individualities forever at each lift towards the goal of evolution, which can only be a
being that cannot be improved upon. After all, what man is capable of the insane self-
conceit of believing that an eternity of himself would be tolerable even to himself? Those
who try to believe it postulate that they shall be made perfect first. But if you make me
perfect I shall no longer be myself, nor will it be possible for me to conceive my present
imperfections (and what I cannot conceive I cannot remember); so that you may just as
well give me a new name and face the fact that I am a new person and that the old
Bernard Shaw is as dead as mutton. Thus, oddly enough, the conventional belief in the
matter comes to this: that if you wish to live forever you must be wicked enough to be
irretrievably damned, since the saved are no longer what they were, and in hell alone do
people retain their sinful nature: that is to say, their individuality. And this sort of hell,
however convenient as a means of intimidating persons who have practically no honor
and no conscience, is not a fact.

Q.8
The tone of the author is

a cynical

b didactic

c pedantic

d righteous

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and
sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-
awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies
for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it
for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are
feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in
murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of
consciousness.

Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it
comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and
theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols,
and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an
imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on
respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally
dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior,
like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to
all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of
intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize
every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect,
advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable
there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger
instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis
should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive
warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified
unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise
qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between
them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty
secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out
altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman
consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is
undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than
would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the
woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no
danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She
contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her
nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must
come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery
that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk.
There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to
know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of
others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to
consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of
entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends
without letting them know what they are undertaking.

Q.9
The author is likely to agree with which of the following?

a The less cultivated the mind, the less courage there is to face important subjects
objectively.

b We often see the abuse of authority to keep people in ignorance and error.

c The ordinary man dislikes having his mind unsettled; his passions awakened.

d Both (a) and (b)

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and
sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-
awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies
for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it
for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are
feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in
murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of
consciousness.

Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it
comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and
theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols,
and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an
imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on
respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally
dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior,
like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to
all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of
intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize
every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect,
advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable
there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger
instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis
should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive
warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified
unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise
qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between
them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty
secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out
altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman
consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is
undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than
would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the
woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no
danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She
contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her
nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must
come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery
that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk.
There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to
know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of
others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to
consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of
entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends
without letting them know what they are undertaking.

Q.10
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a The subject of sex is suppressed because it is a taboo.

b Young girls need protection from risks they are too young to understand.
c The consent to marry can be given only when one has knowledge of sex.

d A relationship cannot be realized if the details of it are suppressed.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and
sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-
awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies
for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it
for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are
feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in
murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of
consciousness.

Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it
comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and
theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols,
and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an
imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on
respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally
dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior,
like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to
all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of
intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize
every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect,
advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable
there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger
instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis
should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive
warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified
unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise
qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between
them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty
secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out
altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman
consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is
undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than
would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the
woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no
danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She
contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her
nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must
come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery
that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk.
There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to
know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of
others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to
consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of
entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends
without letting them know what they are undertaking.

Q.11
Why is it important for children to be taught by qualified unrelated adults?

a Related adults might not be qualified.

b The relationship of the child with a related adult is reticent.

c The discussion can be free and without reserve if done with an unrelated adult.

d All of the above

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The ablest and most highly cultivated people continually discuss religion, politics, and
sex: it is hardly an exaggeration to say that they discuss nothing else with fully-
awakened interest. Commoner and less cultivated people, even when they form societies
for discussion, make a rule that politics and religion are not to be mentioned, and take it
for granted that no decent person would attempt to discuss sex. The three subjects are
feared because they rouse the crude passions which call for furious gratification in
murder and rapine at worst, and, at best, lead to quarrels and undesirable states of
consciousness.

Even when this excuse of bad manners, ill temper, and brutishness (for that is what it
comes to) compels us to accept it from those adults among whom political and
theological discussion does as a matter of fact lead to the drawing of knives and pistols,
and sex discussion leads to obscenity, it has no application to children except as an
imperative reason for training them to respect other people's opinions, and to insist on
respect for their own in these as in other important matters which are equally
dangerous: for example, money. And in any case there are decisive reasons; superior,
like the reasons for suspending conventional reticences between doctor and patient, to
all considerations of mere decorum, for giving proper instruction in the facts of
intimacy. Those who object to it (not counting coarse people who thoughtlessly seize
every opportunity of affecting and parading a fictitious delicacy) are, in effect,
advocating ignorance as a safeguard against precocity. If ignorance were practicable
there would be something to be said for it up to the age at which ignorance is a danger
instead of a safeguard. Even as it is, it seems undesirable that any special emphasis
should be given to the subject, whether by way of delicacy and poetry or too impressive
warning. But the plain fact is that in refusing to allow the child to be taught by qualified
unrelated elders (the parents shrink from the lesson, even when they are otherwise
qualified, because their own relation to the child makes the subject impossible between
them) we are virtually arranging to have our children taught by other children in guilty
secrets and unclean jests. And that settles the question for all sensible people.

The dogmatic objection, the sheer instinctive taboo which rules the subject out
altogether as indecent, has no age limit. It means that at no matter what age a woman
consents to a proposal of marriage, she should do so in ignorance of the relation she is
undertaking. When this actually happens (and apparently it does happen oftener than
would seem possible) a horrible fraud is being practiced on both the man and the
woman. He is led to believe that she knows what she is promising, and that he is in no
danger of finding himself bound to a woman to whom he is eugenically antipathetic. She
contemplates nothing but such affectionate relations as may exist between her and her
nearest kinsmen, and has no knowledge of the condition which, if not foreseen, must
come as an amazing revelation and a dangerous shock, ending possibly in the discovery
that the marriage has been an irreparable mistake. Nothing can justify such a risk.
There may be people incapable of understanding that the right to know all there is to
know about oneself is a natural human right that sweeps away all the pretences of
others to tamper with one's consciousness in order to produce what they choose to
consider a good character. But they must here bow to the plain mischievousness of
entrapping people into contracts on which the happiness of their whole lives depends
without letting them know what they are undertaking.

Q.12
Which of the following has not been discussed as an aim of sex education?

a To be able to differentiate between accurate and inaccurate information

b To be able to understand the moral and cultural frameworks of society

c To be able to make informed choices

d To be able to form correct attitudes and beliefs

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.13
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.
1. The task may be harder than she imagines.
2. It is the Marmite of the meat counter - dark, salty and you either love it or hate it.
3. But black pudding is gaining in popularity, with a little help from celebrity chefs,
manufacturers and even government ministers.
4. I love the stuff, but my children are squeamish eaters and the very notion of a "blood
sausage" brings about their swift exit from the kitchen.
5. The environment minister, Liz Truss, recently listed the culinary concoction of blood,
salt and rusk among the "must-eat" British foods that a new generation should be
introduced to.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 23514

Q.14
Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.
A. That said, understanding and doing aren't the same thing.
B. "I've a lot of available options as a playwright and that comes from knowing a lot of
plays," he says.
C. Theatre academic and playwright Dan Rebellato believes seeing a wide range of
work opens up one's possibilities.
D. Even seeing the breadth of playwrights' work encourages him to experiment.
E. You can see why a critic, so accustomed to judging, might struggle to start.

a CBADE

b ECDBA

c EBCDA

d CBDAE

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.15
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.
1. Amani Yahya - billed as Yemen's first female rapper - is still thousands of miles
away.
2. On top of this, her visa to attend the UK festival has been denied.
3. With her homeland on the brink of civil war, Yahya, along with her family, has had
to flee to Saudi Arabia, where the kingdom's strict rules mean her fledging musical
career has come to an abrupt halt.
4. "I was so excited to be coming to the UK," says the 22-year-old, who started rapping
in her bedroom while at high school.
5. It's day three of the Liverpool Arab Arts festival, but one of its performers hasn't yet
been to a single event.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 51324

Q.16
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.
1. But under the Public Order Act 1986 the home secretary has no power to ban static
demonstrations.
2. The small New Dawn party has planned a protest in Golders Green for 4 July.
3. The Golders Green Together campaign, launched on Monday by the London Jewish
Forum and the anti-fascist organisation Hope Not Hate, plans to spark feelings of
solidarity in the area.
4. It will take place on a Saturday - the Jewish sabbath - in an area where about 40% of
the population are Jewish.
5. Tessa Jowell, one of the contenders to become Labour's London mayoral candidate,
has asked Theresa May to prevent the march from going ahead and 11,000 people have
signed an online petition to that effect.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 24351

Directions for questions 17 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care
provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to
a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider,
but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income,
uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health
care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant
or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency
care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which
is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing
emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores)
are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over
the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an
outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were
provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted
predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use
of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health
counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation,
intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to
the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative
care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a
hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to
an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or
friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans
provide some form of informal care.

Q.17
Which of the following would be the main reason why uninsured individuals would be
unable to seek specialty medical services?

a They receive treatment only from community health centres that do not provide
specialist services.

b They have to pay for specialty medical services out of their personal budget.

c They receive specialty medical care only when there is an emergency.

d As compared to insured individuals, they are made to pay more than the normal
costs for medical care.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 17 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care
provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to
a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider,
but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income,
uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health
care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant
or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency
care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which
is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing
emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores)
are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over
the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an
outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were
provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted
predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use
of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health
counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation,
intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to
the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative
care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a
hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to
an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or
friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans
provide some form of informal care.

Q.18
From the passage, it can be inferred that

a insured individuals can seek treatment in a hospital by contacting their insurer

first.

b an insurer cannot refuse the medical insurance claim of anyone who has been in
an emergency.

c medical insurance helps an individual obtain primary as well as specialist care.

d a retail clinic can help an uninsured person obtain medical treatment.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 17 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care
provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to
a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider,
but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income,
uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health
care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant
or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency
care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which
is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing
emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores)
are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over
the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an
outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were
provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted
predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use
of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health
counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation,
intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to
the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative
care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a
hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to
an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or
friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans
provide some form of informal care.

Q.19
It can be inferred from the passage that the shift of health services from inpatient to
outpatient has been due to

a the increased availability of medicines and counselling services to help support

the home medical care system.

b the availability of home medical care services for patients.

c the easy access to and affordability of home medical care professionals and
services.

d the need to reduce the financial burden of patients, who don't need heightened
care, on hospitals.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 17 to 20: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Insured individuals tend to enter the US health-care system through a primary care
provider, though with some kinds of insurance (e.g. PPO) individuals may go directly to
a specialist. Uninsured individuals often do not have a regular primary care provider,
but instead visit community health centres (which provide primary care for low-income,
uninsured and minority populations) and hospital emergency rooms for their health
care, which hinders continuity of care. Due to out-of-pocket costs they may be reluctant
or unable to seek out specialty, surgical or inpatient care unless they need emergency
care; emergency departments in hospitals that receive payment from Medicare (which
is nearly all hospitals in the US) are required by law to provide care to anyone needing
emergency treatment until they are stable. Retail clinics (in pharmacies or large stores)
are also emerging as places to go for treatment of minor medical conditions.

The number of acute inpatient (hospital) discharges and length of stay have fallen over
the past decades, with more acute-care services, such as surgery, being performed on an
outpatient basis. For example, in 2010 more than three-quarters of all surgeries were
provided in an outpatient setting. Mental health services have also shifted
predominantly from inpatient to outpatient, accompanied by substantially increased use
of pharmaceuticals and reduction in provision of psychotherapy and mental health
counselling. The utilization of post-acute-care services such as rehabilitation,
intermittent home care and sub acute-care has increased over the past decades due to
the financial need for hospitals to discharge patients not requiring acute care. Palliative
care is received mostly through hospice services, either in the patient's home, or in a
hospital, nursing home or other institutional setting. Hospice care has increased due to
an expansion of Medicare benefits in 1983. The informal caregiver (usually family or
friends) plays an important role in United States health care; 23% of Americans
provide some form of informal care.

Q.20
Which of the following options would correctly present the significance of the last
sentence?

a It indicates a weakness in the argument presented by the author.

b It adds a supplementary point to the argument in the last paragraph.

c It provides an illustration that aims at highlighting the argument.

d It aims to fill in a gap in the reasoning presented in the last paragraph.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.21
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
a The victims, crammed into a sealed, coffin-like wooden case, squawked as they
struggled to breathe.

b The hiss of gas, released by a red lever turned by Arie den Hertog in the back of
his white van, signaled the start of the massacre.

c This is the most effective method of goose control.

d Then, after barely two minutes, they fell silent.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.22
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a In the past, when confronting this subject, the justices have pondered the impact
on children.

b The Supreme Court is set to issue a ruling soon that could make same-sex
marriage legal in every state.

c In 2013, during oral arguments on same-sex marriage in California, Justice

Anthony M. Kennedy wondered about the “some 40,000 children in California” who
“live with same-sex parents.”

d Advocates of gay marriage saw that as an opportunity to use the court’s rulings
to assert that marriage laws in other states were discriminatory.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.23
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Will he ever be normal again?

b Eventually he got into bed and kept eating until he became too heavy to get out.

c Bullied, sexually abused and unloved as a child, he said he dulled his feelings with
more and more food.

d It took Mr. Mason a long time to get as fat as he was, and it has taken him a long
time to try to shed all that weight and find a life approaching normalcy.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.24
Four sentences are given below, labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a Nearly all of us are philosophers, because we have some kind of values by which
we live our lives (or like to think we do, or feel uncomfortable when we don’t).

b Perhaps we think there’s a god who made it all, including us; or, on the contrary,
we think it’s all a matter of chance and natural selection.

c So, it is not wrong to say that philosophy is ubiquitous.

d And most of us favour some very general picture of what the world is like.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.25
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. The reader will notice that I haven’t made any attempt to define philosophy,
B. but had just implied that it is an extremely broad term covering a very wide range of
intellectual activities.
C. Some think that nothing is to be gained from trying to define it.
D. I can sympathize with that thought.

a Only B
b B and A

c A and C

d D and B

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.26
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then, choose the most appropriate option.

A. Once, very long time ago, our ancestors were animals, and simply did
B. whatever came naturally without noticing that that was what they were doing,
C. or indeed without noticing that they did anything at all.
D. Then, somehow, they acquired the capacities to ask why things happen.

a A and D

b B and C

c C and A

d B and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.27
Given below are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify
the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and
usage. Then,choose the most appropriate option.

A. Plato, who was born in or around 427 BC and died in 347 BC, was not the first
important philosopher of ancient Greek civilization,
B. but he is the first from whom a substantial body of complete works have come down
to us.
C. In the Indian tradition the Vedas, and many of the Upanishads are earlier;
D. but of their authors, and how they were composed, we knew next to nothing.
a B and A

b B and D

c C and A

d A, B and C

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.28
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

Of all the family-newspaper-appropriate socioeconomic slurs, one that was ubiquitous

in the 1980s and ’90s is slowly on its way out in this millennium: yuppie. We have plenty
of equivalents today, such as “This Is 40” (and nearly every other romantic comedy)
and TV’s “Togetherness” and the recently departed “Parenthood” and “How I Met
Your Mother” (and most other dramedies and sitcoms). Their organic-buying, gym-
going, homeowning characters, however, aren’t tagged as yuppies as readily as those
from the previous era were. It’s not because they aren’t from the narcissistic upper
middle class; they certainly are. But they look different now.

a This millennium is characterized with money-obsessed trends of the 1980s.

b This millennium has a lot in common with the money-obsessed 1980s.

c This millennium saw a comeback of money-obsessed 1980s.

d This millennium is characterized by narcissistic upper middle class.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.29
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

I was struck by not just the silicon valley’s income disparity, but also by the lack of
compassion that wealthy tech workers sometimes displayed toward the poor. Paul K.
Piff, a professor of psychology and social behavior at the University of California,
Irvine, believes all the money sloshing around the Valley could make some tech
executives unaware of their surroundings. He has conducted several social experiments
that consistently show that when people gain access to money, their empathy toward the
less fortunate falls and, at the same time, their sense of entitlement and self-interest
rises.

a Silicon Valley creates wealth at a staggering clip, but many of its companies’ and
executives’ philanthropy has not kept pace.

b Silicon Valley exemplifies the assertion that access to money lowers the level of
empathy with the poor.

c Silicon Valley is an apt example to prove that people who are rich do not
empathize much with those that are poor.

d Silicon Valley has seen a steady increase in wealth and a steady decline in
philanthropy.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.30
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

Turkish voters reasserted their commitment to democracy in Sunday’s parliamentary

elections. More than 86 percent of them cast ballots, a level of participation far above
the 57 percent turnout posted by Americans in 2012. President Recep Tayyip Erdogan,
an increasingly authoritarian leader was denied a parliamentary majority while voting
in significant numbers for a party representing the Kurdish minority.

a Voters in the parliamentary elections do not want President Recep Tayyip

Erdogan to come into power because of his authoritarian nature.

b Voters in the parliamentary elections came out in huge numbers to deny

President Recep Tayyip Erdogan majority.

c A great turnout of voters in the recent parliamentary elections is a reassertion of

their democratic status.

d Voters in Turkey do not want an authoritarian President.

 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.31
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Isotopes of oxygen have a great advantage for scientists studying the shift in Earth’s
climate. Records of these isotopes in ocean sediments have established a strong
connection between Earth’s orbit and the periodicity of ice ages.

Which of the following, if true, could be the reason(s) for the advantage mentioned in
the passage?
I. It is a global record as there is little variation in sedimentary specimens taken from
different continents.
II. The records have shown that fluctuations in global ice volume over the past
thousands of years have a pattern.
III. Isotope records are very accurate.

a Only II

b Only I & III

c I only

d III only

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.32
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Problems of congestion on the roads can be tackled in a cost-effective manner by

providing effective public transport system within the cities. A successful plan in this
direction would reduce the number of private vehicles on the roads and would cost less
than the costs involved in building fly overs to deal with the ever-expanding number of
vehicles on the roads.

Which of the following, if true, can be used to strengthen the above argument?

a A large number of cars on the roads belong to people who are traveling from one
city to the other.
b More than half of the traffic on roads during peak hours belongs to office goers
who travel at the same time every day and to the same destination. Such commuters
would welcome a regular public transport system.

c An effective public transport system would entail a lot of spending in buying a

new fleet of buses and their maintenance.

d Many jobs are coming up on the suburbs, making it necessary for people to travel
to outside the city to reach their workplace.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.33
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Government has recently imposed restrictions on import of raw material for garments.
These restrictions are going to hit only the small manufacturers of garments. The bigger
ones are going to benefit at their cost by taking away business from them.

If the following are true, which of them weakens the claim made above?

a Many other countries will follow suit and follow similar restrictions.

b Both, the small and the big manufacturers of garments, specialize in different
kinds of products and hence none can benefit from the loss of the other.

c The small manufacturers already produce gods that are substandard.

d If the quality of the product is good, consumers will buy them even if the cost goes
up after the restrictions.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.34
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

All the children who took special coaching for a month before their examination did
well in the examinations. Thus the special attention these students got during the
coaching had really helped them.
 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above claim?

a The students who did well after the coaching were doing well even before they
started taking the coaching.

b None of the students who did not take the coaching did as well as those who took
the coaching.

c The children who took the coaching had to work very hard.

d The results of these children deteriorated as soon as the coaching was stopped.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. T
returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms

According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ra
the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme,
given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes havin
worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.

Q.35
How many schemes are there with an asset of more than Rs. 500 crore and the ratio of Return 1
to Best 1-year return more than 2?
x

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 7

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. T
returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms

According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ra
the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme,
given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes havin
worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.

Q.36
Based on the SEBI’s directive, which scheme will get the gold medal?

a Reliance Growth

b Franklin India Prima

c HSBC equity

d Reliance Vision

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. T
returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms

According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ra
the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme,
given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes havin
worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.

Q.37
Based on the SEBI’s directive, which scheme will get the silver medal?

a Templeton India Growth

b Reliance Vision

c DSPML Opportunities

d HDFC Top 200

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel

The following table shows the details of various mutual fund schemes available in the market. T
returns indicate the average return over the given time period (1-year or 3-year) in rupee terms
According to the directives of SEBI, the scheme (among those given above) having the highest ra
the difference between Best 1-year return and Worst 1-year return to the assets of that scheme,
given a gold medal. The second-best ratio holder scheme gets a silver medal. The schemes havin
worst two ratios will be barred from doing any business in future.

Q.38
Based on the SEBI’s directive, which two schemes will be barred from doing any business in fut

a HSBC Equity and Franklin India Blue-chip

b Birla Dividend Yield Plus Franklin India Blue-chip

c HSBC Equity and HDFC Equity

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones
in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands
namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-
wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
 Q.39
The number of outlets that sold mobiles of only one brand could not be more than

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 7

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones
in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands
namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-
wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
 Q.40
If R did not sell mobile of brand A, and A did not constitute more than 30% of sales of any
outlets, the sales of brand A through any of the outlets as a percentage of the total sales of
that outlet could not be less than

a 7.77%

b 14.2%

c 5%

d 1.4%

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones
in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands
namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-
wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
 Q.41
Due to some technical glitch, brand C had to recall 40% of its products sold in 2014 in
Delhi. It is also known that every outlet had sold at least 10% of these defective items. If the
sales of each outlet was adjusted after this recall then, after adjustment, the share of sales of
any outlet as a percentage of total sales could not be less than

a 5.36%

b 4.76%

c 4.1%

d 3.64%

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In Delhi, there were only eight outlets – N, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – that sell mobile phones
in 2014. Each of these outlets sold mobiles of one or more brands out of the five brands
namely A, B, C, D and E. The following pie charts show break-up of mobiles sold – brand-
wise and outlet-wise – in Delhi in 2014.
 Q.42
If R sold at least 30% of the total mobiles sold of brands A and C put together, then at most
what percentage of the total mobiles sold of brand B were sold by R?

a 31.25%

b 16.66%

c 33.3%

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1
to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each.
They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once
and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of
each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was
declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points,
runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds.

Additional Data:
(i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
(ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
(iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds,
is not a prime number.
(iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two
teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.

Q.43
If 3 players got the same value on the die, in both the rounds, what was the value on the
die of the player in G2 who got the lowest value in Round1?

a 1

b 4

c 2

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1
to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each.
They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once
and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of
each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was
declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points,
runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds.
Additional Data:
(i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
(ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
(iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds,
is not a prime number.
(iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two
teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.

Q.44
If the same 3 players from the 3 teams got least values in their respective team in both
the rounds, what is the minimum possible value of the sum of 2 values in 2 rounds for
any of these 3 players?

a 5

b 4

c 3

d 2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1
to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each.
They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once
and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of
each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was
declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points,
runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds.
Additional Data:
(i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
(ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
(iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds,
is not a prime number.
(iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two
teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.

Q.45
For which team no player could get 4 on the die in any of the two rounds ?

a G3

b G2

c G1

d Not possible

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends decided to play a game of die, the numbers on six faces of which were from 1
to 6. They divided themselves in 3 teams – G1, G2 and G3 – with two friends in each.
They played two rounds of the game. In each round, all the players threw the die once
and the absolute difference (AD) between the face values obtained by the members of
each team was calculated. The team with the lowest, second highest and highest AD was
declared the winner, runner up and loser respectively. The winner got 30 points,
runner-up got 20 points and the loser got 10 points.
The table below shows points obtained by the teams in 2 rounds.
Additional Data:
(i) The sum of ADs of the 3 teams in Round 1 was less than that in Round 2.
(ii) Out of 4 numbers obtained by the 2 players of G3 in two rounds, at least 2 were odd.
(iii) The sum of the four numbers obtained by the two players of G1 in the two rounds,
is not a prime number.
(iv) No two friends got the same number on the die in any of the rounds. Also, no two
teams had the same AD in any of the rounds.

Q.46
Which team could definitely not get the same AD in both rounds?

a G1

b G2

c G3

d More than one of them

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group,
85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to
both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60
students belong to both lion and leopard groups.

Q.47
If the number of students belonging to all the three groups is mean (average) of its
maximum possible value and minimum possible value, how many students in the hostel
do not belong to any of the three groups?

a 130
b 170

c 80

d Data insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group,
85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to
both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60
students belong to both lion and leopard groups.

Q.48
If the number of students belonging to all three groups is maximum possible value and
tiger group starts collecting a ‘Rangdari tax’ from all those students who do not belong
to this group at the rate of Rs. 10 per student, then what will be the amount collected by
tiger group in the form of Rangdari tax?

a Rs. 700

b Rs. 2,300

c Rs. 1,600

d Rs. 900

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group,
85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to
both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60
students belong to both lion and leopard groups.

Q.49
If the number of students belonging to at least one of the three groups is its minimum
possible value, what is the number of students who belong to only lion group?

a 65

b 20

c 0

d 55

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

There are a total of 300 students in SRCC Hostel. Out of them 70 belong to tiger group,
85 belong to lion group and 90 belong to leopard group. Exactly 45 students belong to
both tiger and lion groups, 40 students belong to both tiger and leopard groups, and 60
students belong to both lion and leopard groups.

Q.50
If the number of students belonging to none of the three groups is maximum, how many
students belong to exactly two of the three groups?

a 105

b 145

c 25

d 85

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In

the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and
the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd
ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1
played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of
match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the
final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.

Q.51
If there was no upset in the 1st and 3rd rounds and all matches in second round were
upsets, the highest ranked player who could win the final was

a 16

b 24

c 32

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In

the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and
the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd
ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1
played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of
match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the
final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.

Q.52
If the player ranked 54 reached the semifinals, which of the following ranked player
could have won the tournament?

a 22

b 59

c 38

d None of these
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In

the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and
the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd
ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1
played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of
match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the
final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.

Q.53
If the player ranked 16 reached the semifinals, what was the minimum number of
upsets in the tournament?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 2

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

In the Wimbledon Tennis tournament of 2014 players ranked 1 to 64 participated. In

the first round, the first match was played between the top ranked i.e. 1st ranked and
the lowest ranked i.e. 64th ranked players, the second match was played between 2nd
ranked and 63rd ranked players and so on. In the next round, the winner of match 1
played against the winner of match 32, winner of match 2 played against the winner of
match 31 and so on. This pattern continued in the subsequent rounds as well, till the
final. When a lower ranked player beats a higher ranked player it's called an upset.

Q.54
If the winner, Federer, who was also the top ranked player, beats Berdych and
Bhupathi in Quarterfinals and round 2 respectively, then what was the maximum
possible sum of the ranks of Berdych and Bhupathi?

a 72

b 73

c 90
d 89

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses
Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on.
The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is
dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common
drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one
wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and
press the delivery button.

Following information is also given:

Turning on switches:
I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi
respectively.

Q.55
One of the drinks which is dispensed by turning on switch 1 is

a Limca

b Coca-cola

c Mirinda

d 7-up

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses
Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on.
The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is
dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common
drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one
wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and
press the delivery button.

Following information is also given:

Turning on switches:
I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi
respectively.

Q.56
7-up is one of the drinks that is dispensed by turning on switch

a switch 1

b switch 2

c switch 3

d switch 4

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses
Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on.
The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is
dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common
drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one
wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and
press the delivery button.

Following information is also given:

Turning on switches:
I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi
respectively.

Q.57
One of the drinks which is dispensed by turning on switch 2 is

a 7-up

b Mirinda

c Limca

d Pepsi

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

A vending machine, having five switches viz. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, when operated, dispenses
Coca-cola, 7-up, Mirinda, Limca and Pepsi depending upon which switch is turned on.
The machine is such that each switch dispenses two different drinks and each drink is
dispensed by two different switches. If two or more switches are turned on, the common
drink, if any, nullifies each other and will not come out at all. To get the drink that one
wants, he/she has to turn on the right combination of switches, put in the money and
press the delivery button.

Following information is also given:

Turning on switches:
I. 1 and 3, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
II. 2, 4 and 5, we get 7-up and Mirinda.
III. 1 and 2, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
IV. 1 and 4, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
V. 3, 4 and 5, we get Coca-cola and Pepsi.
VI. 2, 3 and 5, we get Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi.
VII. Switches 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 do not supply 7-up, Limca, Coca-cola, Mirinda and Pepsi
respectively.

Q.58
What drinks are dispensed by turning on switches 2 and 3?

a Mirinda, Limca and 7-up

b Pepsi, Limca and 7-up

c Coca-cola and Mirinda

d Coca-cola, Mirinda, Pepsi and 7-up

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are
sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite
to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.

Q.59
On which seat is Ajay sitting?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 2

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are
sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:

Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite
to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.

Q.60
If Rahul and Pooja are sitting on opposite sides, on which seat is Aish sitting?

a 2

b 3

c 7

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are
sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:
Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite
to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.

Q.61
Who is sitting on seat number 8?

a Rahul

b Kaif

c Ajay

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six boys Kaif, Prem, Rahul, Ravi, Ajay and Akash, and two girls Pooja and Aish are
sitting around a dinning table with numbered chairs as follows:
Below are some additional facts about how they occupy their seats.

I. The two girls are sitting on opposite sides of the table but they are not sitting opposite
to each other. Also neither of them is sitting on a corner seat.
II. Ravi and Prem are sitting on diagonally-opposite-corner seats.
III. Akash is sitting on seat number 4.
IV. Rahul and Kaif are sitting on the same side but not adjacent to each other.

Q.62
Which of the following pairs of persons can never sit adjacent to each other?

a Ajay and Aish

b Kaif and Pooja

c Ravi and Aish

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of

at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one
language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the
20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as
great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and
two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the
other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers
belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel
only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer
belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century
and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet
and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.

Q.63
B wrote in

a Marathi

b Hindi
c Bengali

d Tamil

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of

at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one
language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the
20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as
great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and
two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the
other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers
belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel
only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer
belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century
and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet
and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.

Q.64
Who was the Tamil writer?

a F

b E

c B

d A

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of

at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one
language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the
20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as
great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and
two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the
other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers
belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel
only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer
belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century
and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet
and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.

Q.65
To which genre of literature did C contribute?

a Poetry

b Novel

c Drama

d All the three

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six writers – A, B, C, D, E and F – made their contribution to literature in the form of

at least one genre out of poem, novel and drama. Each one of them wrote in only one
language. Two belonged to the 17th century, three to the 19th century and one to the
20th century. Four were recognized as great poets, three as great novelists, and three as
great dramatists. One contributed to Bengali literature, One to Tamil, two to Hindi and
two to Marathi. Of the two Marathi writers one contributed to poetry only and the
other contributed to poetry, novel and drama. Only the Hindi and Tamil writers
belonged to 19th century. One of the Hindi writers contributed to poetry and novel
only, while the Tamil writer contributed to novels and drama only. The Bengali writer
belonged to the 17th century and contributed to poetry only. A belonged to 20th century
and was only a poet. B wrote drama only and C wrote in Marathi. D was a Hindi poet
and novelist of 19th century, and F contributed to poetry only.

Q.66
Who among the following belonged to 19th century?

a A
 b B

c F

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Sec 3

Q.67
A shopkeeper sells rice at a mark-up of 22.22%. However, to all his customers
purchasing 10 kg or more rice, he gives 1 kg of rice free and to all his customers
purchasing more than 20 kg of rice, he gives 2 kg of rice free. On a particular day, he
sells rice to 6 customers purchasing 2 kg, 10 kg, 15 kg, 9 kg, 25 kg and 50 kg. What is
the shopkeeper’s approximate net profit percentage on the day?

a 10.00

b 13.50

c 12.22

d 16.00

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.68
Let f(α) be a real valued function such that f(α) = a√α , where ‘a’ is a non-zero constant.
If f(x), f(y)and f(x + y) indicate the sides of a right angled triangle, then the area of the
triangle is

b
c

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.69
N is an even number in the decimal system. If S is the sum of the digits of N when it is
written in base 7, then S is certainly a/an

a even

b odd

c composite

d Both (a) and (c)

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.70

If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle, then the minimum value of is nearest to

a 1

b 2

c 1/2

d 1/3

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
 Q.71
The volume (cubic units) of a sphere whose surface area is 50% more than the total
surface area of a cylinder of unit radius as well as unit height, is

a √2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.72
Rekha and Kallu have a certain number of red and black marbles with them. The ratio
of red to black marbles with Rekha is 7 : 1 and that of those with Kallu is 9 : 1. If the
total number of black and red marbles with the two is 90, the number of red marbles
with Kallu is

a 9 or 45

b 10 or 50

c 36 or 72

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.73

a (–2, 1)
b (5, 0)

c (3, 1)

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.74
In the month of January, what is the ratio of probability of someone’s birthday falling
on a date that is a prime number to the probability of the birthday falling on a date that
is the square of a prime number?

a 11/4

b 11/3

c 4/11

d 3/11

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.75

a x>3

b x≤3

c x<3

d –2<x≤3

o Bookmark
 o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.76
The area of the region bounded by y = |x – 1| and y = 3 – |x| is

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 4

Q.77

a 240

b 196

c 244

d 256

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.78
Raman mixes a 20% milk solution and a 30% milk solution in the ratio of a : b. The
new solution thus obtained is mixed with an equal quantity of a 60% milk solution, to
obtain a 42% milk solution. Find the ratio of a to b.

a 4:1

b 3:2

c 5:2

d Data inconsistent
 o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.79
Ram distributed a certain number of chocolates among a few kids, such that the sum of
the number of chocolates received by the kid who received the minimum number of
chocolates and that by the kid who received the maximum number of chocolates is 10.
Each kid got a distinct number of chocolates, which did not have a common factor with
10, except 1. The number of chocolates with Ram could not be more than

a 19

b 18

c 40

d 20

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.80
Only three horses – Kanishka, Silver Streak and Arabian Knight – are competing in a
race. If Kanishka is twice as likely to win as Silver Streak and Sliver Streak is twice as
likely to win as Arabian Knight, what is the probability of Arabian Knight losing the
race? (Assume that no two horses finish the race simultaneously.)

a 4/7

b 6/7

c 5/7

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.81
If the LCM of 1, 2, 3, …, 60 is n, the LCM of 1, 2, 3, …, 65 is

a 61n

b 63n

c 122n

d 126n

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.82
If x, y > 0 and 2x + 3y = 7, find the maximum value of x y .
3 4

a 32/3

b 16/3

c 64/3

d 8

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.83
Two runners A and B started running simultaneously from points P and Q for Q and P
respectively. They met at a point, S, and after that they took 18/5 min and 10 min
respectively to reach their respective destinations. After how much time, from the start,
did they meet each other at point S?

a 6.4 min

b 3.2 min

c 6 min
d 3 min

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.84
If AAA + AA + A + A + A = 10 , where A and n are single digit integers, then what is the
n

value of A?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 8

Q.85
Find the number of composite factors of 6 × 4096.
19

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 637

Q.86
A circular sheet C of the maximum possible area is cut out from a metal sheet, which is
in the shape of a square. Similarly, maximum possible number of circular sheets – C , C ,
1 2

C , … – of varying radii are cut out from another identical metal sheet, such that the
3

leftover area is the minimum possible. What is the approximate value of the ratio of the
area of C to the sum of the areas of C , C , C , …?
1 2 3

a 1:1

b 1 : √2

c :4

d (4 – ):4

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o Answer key/Solution
 Correct Answer : c

Q.87

In the above diagram, drawn to scale, the points A, B, C and D have coordinates as A(5,
0), B(7, 0), C (7, 9) and D(5, 4). Which of the following is closest to the area of the
shaded region?

a 12 sq. units

b 18 sq. units

c 17 sq. units

d 14 sq. units

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.88
In the performance appraisal report of a company, six exams – p , p , p , p , p and p –
1 2 3 4 5 6

were considered for evaluation. Each exam was of 100 marks. The report of the exams
is given below:

Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p

1 2 3 4 5 = 10
Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p
2 3 4 5 6 = 15
Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p
3 4 5 6 1 = 20
Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p
4 5 6 1 2 = 10
Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p
5 6 1 2 3 = 15
Number of employees passed in p , p , p , p , p
6 1 2 3 4 = 10

If the number of employees who passed in all the six exams is 10, find the number of
employees who passed in exactly five exams.
a 20

b 10

c 15

d Data Insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.89
Find the digit at the tens place of the number 25 . 89

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 2

Q.90
AB is a common chord of two circles – C and C – with radius r and r respectively.
1 2 1 2

S denotes the statement: AB divides the C into two parts of equal area. Which of the
1

following statements is definitely true?

a S is true if C C > r
1 2 2

b If S is true then C C > r

1 2 2

c If S is true then it is possible that C C > r .

1 2 2

d If S is true then it is necessary that C C < r . 1 2 2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.91
a 45

b 1/4032

c 81

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.92
Natural numbers from 1 to m are written one after another as 1234567…….m. If the
number thus formed is divisible by 3, then m is of the form
I. 3n, where n is a natural number
II. 3n – 1, where n is a natural number
III. 3n – 2, where n is a natural number

a I only

b I or II only

c I or III only

d Cannot be determined

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.93
Tarun, Gautam and Prakash went to an ice-cream Parlour to buy one ice-cream, each.
Gautam bought an icecream costing Rs. 71, but he had only Rs. 500 notes so Prakash
paid the bill. Prakash had 3 wallets – A, B and C – the amount in each of which was an
integer. He took some money from wallet A, some from B and rest from C. In how many
ways could he withdraw money from three wallets such that money taken out from A
was more than that from B, and money taken out from B was more than that from C?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.94
The number of mangoes with Sonu is a multiple of 3 and the number of bananas with
Sohan is a multiple of 5. If the total number of fruits with the two is 103, what is the
absolute difference between the maximum possible number of mangoes with Sonu and
the minimum possible number of bananas with Sohan?

a 83

b 93

c 95

d 85

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.95
A can complete a piece of work in ‘a’ days by working ‘m’ hrs per day, and B can
complete the same work in ‘b’ days by working ‘n’ hrs per day. If each of them reduces
his working hours per day by 4 hrs, each of them would take 5 days more to finish the
job (a, b, m and n are distinct natural numbers and m, n < 16). How long would it take
to complete the work, if A and B started working together such that A worked for ‘m’
hrs per day and B worked for ‘n’ hrs per day?

a 10/3 days

b 4 days

c 5 days

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.96
Let T be a point on the side PS of square PQRS of area 256 sq cm. The perpendicular to
the line TR at R meets the line segment PQ, when extended, at U. If the area of the
ΔRUT is 200 sq cm, then the length of QU is

a 12 cm

b 4 cm

c 8 cm

d 9 cm

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.97
A table clock loses 5 min per hour. A wall clock loses 5 min per hour with respect to the
table clock. A wrist watch gains 5 min per hour with respect to the wall clock. All the
watches and clocks are set correctly at 12:00 pm. What will be the time shown by the
wrist watch, when it is 2:00 pm for the first time after 12:00 pm?

a 1 : 49 : 14 pm

b 1 : 47 : 57 pm

c 1 : 40 : 11 pm
d 1 : 41 : 57 pm

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.98

a 6

b 5

c 4

d 3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.99

a 4

b 3

c 2

d No solution

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.100
Four black cows and three brown cows give as much milk in five days as three black
cows and five brown cows give in four days. If a black cow gives 10 L of milk per day,
what is the amount of milk that a brown cow gives per day?

a 1.3 L

b 6.25 L

c 10 L

d 16 L

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d