SEC : SR N40-CHAINA NEET MODEL Date: 31-12-2018

Time : 3 Hrs GRAND TEST Max. Marks: 720M

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Note: Important Instructions
 Duration of test is 3 hours and question paper contains 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
 Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
Guessing of answer is harmful.
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
with the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted
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PHYSICS
1. Find the deviation of the ray, in diagram as shown in figure. The refractive index of the
prism is 2 . Mark the correct option

1) The ray finally retraces its path. 2) The ray will emerges from both faces
3) The ray will suffer total internal reflection from bottom face
4) None
2. In the figure, a point source of light is placed 20cm before a plane mirror. Find the distance
between image formed by mirrors.

1) 100 cm 2) 120 cm 3) 110 cm 4) 130 cm

3. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance “C” is connected to a cell of emf V and then
disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap
of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?
1) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
2) The change in energy stored is ( − 1).
3) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
4) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.

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4. The power dissipated across 4 Ω resistor in watts, in the circuit shown here is________

1) 54 2) 36 3) 18 4) 9
5. Consider the following two statements.
(a) Kirchoff’s junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
(b) Kirchoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of energy.
Which of the following is correct?
1) Botha (a) and (b) are wrong 2) Both (a) and (b) are correct
3) (a) is correct and (b) is wrong 4) (a) is wrong and (b) is correct
6. A cell having an emf “ε’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance “R” is increased, the plot of potential difference “V” across
“R” is given by

1) 2) 3) 4)

7. Determine the electric field strength vector, if the potential of this field depends upon x-and
y-coordinates as v=a(x2-y2)
1) 4a xi  yj
  2) a xi  yj  3) 2a xi  yj
 4) 2a xi  yj   
8. Radius of a conductor increases from one end to other gradually as shown. Its ends are
maintained at constant temperatures, and and curved surface is insulated. If H is heat
flow rate and is distance from hot end, then which of the following graphs is correct,
when steady state is reached.

1) 2) 3) 4)

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9. In the cycle ABCA, choose the correct option.

1) Work done by the gas is 20J 2) Work done on the gas is 20J
3) In process A to B, work done is negative 4) In process B to C, work done is positive
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) All reversible cycles have same efficiency
2) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.
3) Carnot cycle is a reversible one
4) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.
11. A gas mixture contains three type of molecules A, B and C with masses > > .
Then which of the following options is correct?
(K indicates kinetic energy and V indicates rms speed)
1) = = , = = 2) > > ; > >
3) = = , < < 4) < < ; = =
12. First overtone frequency of a closed organ pipe is equal to the first overtone frequency of an
open organ pipe. Further nth harmonic of closed organ pipe is also equal to the mth
harmonic of open pipe, where n and m are
1) 7, 3 2) 9, 6 3) 7, 5 4) 5, 4
13. An engine running at speed sounds a whistle of frequency 600Hz. A passenger in a train
coming from the opposite side at a speed experiences this whistle to be of frequency f'. If
is the speed of sound in air and there is no wind, f' is nearest to
1) 711 Hz 2) 630 Hz 3) 580 Hz 4) 610 Hz
14. Figure shows the acceleration, displacement graph of a particle in SHM. The time period (in
seconds) is

1) 2) 2 3) √2 4)
√
15. In Young’s double slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one
colour at a time. The fringe width recorded are , and respectively. Then
1) > > 2) > > 3) > > 4) > >
16. A beam of unpolarised light of intensities Io is passed through a Polaroid “A” and then
through another Polaroid “B” which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle
of 45 relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is-

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 I0 I I
1) I0 2) 3) 0 4) 0
2 4 8
17. A particle having a mass of “m” kg carries a charge of “q” C. The particle is given an initial
horizontal velocities of “v” in the presence of electric field and magnetic field . To
keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that
a) should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and should be along the
direction of velocity.
b) Both and should be along the direction of velocity.
c) Both and are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
d) should be along the direction of velocity and should be perpendicular to the
direction of velocity.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?
1) (c ) and (d) 2) (b) and (c) 3) (b) and (d) 4) (a) and (c)
18. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i is placed near and coplanar with a long straight
conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be

1) 2) 3) 4)
19. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side “ ” is suspended between the pole
pieces of a permanent magnet such that is in plane of the coil. If due to a current “i” in the
triangle, a torque “τ” acts on it, the side “ " of the triangle is –
1) 2( )/ 2) ( ) 3) 4) ( )/
√ √ √ √
20. In a coil of resistance 5Ω, the induced current developed by changing magnetic flux
through it, is shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude of change in flux
through the coil in weber is-

1) 6 2) 4 3)8 4) 1.5
21. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 30 days. The time interval ( − ) between the time
when of it has decayed and the time when of it had decayed is –
1) 15 days 2) 60 days 3) 30 days 4) 75 days
22. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
1) molecules breakup at high temperature 2) nuclei break up at high temperature
3) atoms get ionized at high temperature
4) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei.
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23. The blocks of masses 1kg an 2kg are connected through a light string “B”. The hanging
block is connected with 2kg block kept on a smooth horizontal surface through a light
string “A” passing over a smooth fixed pulley. The ratio of magnitudes of tension in light
strings A and B is

1) 3 : 1 2) 2 : 3 3) 3 : 2 4) 3 : 5
24. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is 5 , find the
frictional force acting on the block
1) 10N 2) 2N 3) 4N 4) 5N
25. Which of the following best represents the plot of the centripetal acceleration , against
speed V for a particle moving with an increasing speed on a circular path

1) 2) 3) 4)
26. A force = (3 ̂ + 4 ̂) is acting on a block. The block displaces from A(1, 1) to B(2, 3) and
finally reaches at C(4, 5). All quantities are in S.I units. Find the work done by the force on
the block.
1) 10J 2) 15J 3) 25J 4) 45J
27. Power applied to a particle of mass “m” is = 3 − 2 + 1, where t is in second. The
change in kinetic energy from t=2 sec to 4 sec is ____
1) Zero 2) 22 J 3) 46 J 4) 72 J
28. The equation of stationary wave is Y = A sinkx cos t where, y and x are in metre and t in
second. Choose the correct option.
1) The dimensions of A and K are same 2) The dimensions of A, K and  are same
3) The dimensions of K and  are same 4) The dimensions of (Kx) and (t) are same
29. Find the co-ordinates of centre of mass of the uniform lamina (shaded region) shown in the
figure

a   a   a  a 
1)  ,0  2)  ,0  3)  ,0  4)  ,0 
6   6   4  4 

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30. A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a platform rotating about its centreal
axis. The kinetic energy of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so that the
moment of inertia of the system doubles. What is the kinetic energy of the system, now?
1) K/4 2) K/3 3) K /5 4) K/2
31. Three bodies, a ring, a solid cylinder and a solid sphere roll down the same inclined plane
without slipping. They start from rest. Which of the body reaches the ground with
maximum velocity.
1) Ring 2) Solid cylinder
3) Sphere
4) Both ring and cylinder reach the ground with maximum velocity.
32. The height at which the gravitational field of the earth becomes one-fourth the field at the
surface is (where, R = radius of the earth)
R 2R
1) 3R 2) 3) R 4)
2 3
33. Two bodies of masses ‘m’ and ‘4m’ are placed at a distance ‘r’. The gravitational potential at
a point on the line joining them, where the gravitational field is zero is
4Gm 6Gm 9Gm
1)  2)  3)  4) Zero
r r r
34. A wire elongates by ‘l’ units, when a load ‘w’ is suspended from it. If the wire gets over a
pulley(equally on both the sides) and two weights ‘w’ each are hang at the two ends, the
elongation of wire(in units) will be
1) Zero 2) l/2 3) l 4) 2l
35. In a LCR circuit the pd between the terminals of the inductance is 60 V, between the
terminals of the capacitor is 30V and that between the terminals of resistance is 40V. the
supply voltage will be equal to ……
1) 70 V 2) 50 V 3)130 V 4) 10 V
36. In a horizontal pipeline of uniform area of cross – section, the pressure falls by 8 Nm-2
between two points separated by 1m. What is change in KE per kg of the oil flowing at
these points? (Given, oil = 800 kgm-3)
1) 0.1 J kg-1 2) 0.001 Jkg-1 3) 1 JKg-1 4) 0.01 JKg-1
37. A marble of mass x and diameter 2r is gently released in a tall cylinder containing honey. If
the marble displaces mass y(<x) of the liquid, then the terminal velocity is proportional to
xy xy
1) x  y 2) x  y 3) 4)
r r
 
38. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations y 1  0.1sin  100t  
 3
and y 2  0.1cos t. The phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with respect to the
velocity of particle 2 is
   
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 6 6 3
39. A bird is flying 3m in East, then 4m in North and finally 5m in upward direction. The angle
made by displacement of bird with upward direction is . Find the value of 
1) 00 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
40. A particle moves along X-axis. The velocity of the particle as function of x is v 2  12x  3x 3
(in SI). Find the velocity of the particle at the instant, when acceleration is 1.5 ms-2.
1) 3 ms-1 2) 4 ms-1 3) 1.5 ms-1 4) Zero

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 
41. The input signal given to CE amplifier having a voltage gain 100 is vi =2cos(10t+ ). The
3
corresponding output signal will be
 4       4 
1) 200 cos  10t   2) 200 cos  10t   3) 100 cos  10t   4) 100 cos  10t  
 3   3  3  3 
42. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

1) NAND 2) AND 3) NOR 4) OR

43. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photo electrons emitted from a metal surface increases from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
function of the metal is
1) 1.5 eV 2) 1.3 eV 3) 0.65 eV 4) 1.0 eV
44. Electrons of mass ‘m’ with de Broglie wavelength ‘’ fall on the target in an x-ray tube. The
cut off wavelength (0) of the emitted x-ray is
2h 2mc 2 2m 2 c2 2
1)  0  2) 0  3) 0  4) 0  
mc h h2
45. The wave length of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the
second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen like
ion is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 1
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following regarding ‘Alkenes’ is a wrong statement?
1) Kharash effect is not observed in addition of HCl to an unsymmetrical alkene
2) All alkenes except Ethene are odorless substances
3) Alkynes on reduction with sodium in liquid ammonia form Cis- alkene
4) If dipole moment of Trans – but -2 – ene is zero, Cis – but – 2 –ene might be 0.33D
47. Which of the following pairs represent Isotones
1) 32 Ce 76 , 34 Se76 2) 16 S 36 ,17 Cl 35 3) 18 Ar 38 ,19 K 39 4) 19 K 39 , 20 Ca 42
3 3
48. What is true for  Fe  CN  6  and  FeF6 
3
1) Both are paramagnetic 2) Only  Fe  CN  6  is paramagnetic
3
3) Only  FeF6  is paramagnetic 4) Both are diamagnetic
49. Which of the following derivatives can be used as a tranquilizer?
1) Methyl ester of dipeptide formed from aspartic acid and phenyl alanine
2) Derivatives of Barbituric acid
3) Synthetic estrogen and progesterone derivatives
4) Butylated hydroxy toluene and butylated hydroxyl anisole
50. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
1) MgFe 2O 4 is a ferrimagnetic substance and becomes paramagnetic on heating
2) Gadolinium is a diamagnetic substance
3) O2 & Fe+3 show paramagnetism
4) In a ferromagnetic substance each domain possesses a resultant magnetic moment

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51. The solubility of X2Y3 in pure water if the Ksp of X2Y3 is1.1 × 10–23 is
1) 1 × 10–3mol/l 2) 1.1 × 10–23mol/l 3) 1 × 10–5mol/l 4) 1.1 × 10–8mol/l
52. The product of the following reaction is
NaOCl
CH3  CH  C|  COCH 3  ?
CH3
1) CH3  CH  C|  COONa and HCOONa 2) CH 3  CH  C|  CHO and HCOONa
CH3 CH3

3) CH3  CH 2  CH
|
 COONa HCHO 4) CH3  CH  C|  COONa and CHCl3
CH3 CH3

53. The correct order of Bond angles of NH 4 , BF3 and HgCl 2
1) BF3  NH 4   HgCl 2 2) HgCl 2  BF3  NH 4 
3) BF3  HgCl 2  NH 4  4) HgCl 2  NH 4   BF3
54. The molar mass calculated on the basis of Tb (elevation in boiling point) will be twice that
of expected value in the case of
1) Aqueous solution of NaCl
2) Aqueous solution of potassium permanganate
3) Ethanoic acid in benzene 4) Aqueous solution of Ethanoic acid
55. A highly concentrated solution of potassium sulphate in water is electrolyzed using inert
electrodes. The products at cathode and anode are respectively
1) H2 and O2 2) O2 and H2 3) O2 and Na 4) H2 and S2O8-2
56. Which of the following is incorrect statement?
3
1) In the complex ion Al  H2O 6  , Al under goes sp3d3 hybridization
2) Tl+3 is a powerful oxidizing agent in aqueous solution
3) Oxides of Al & Ga are amphoteric in nature
4) Halides of 13th group are Lewis acids in general
57. Which of the following is false about benzene
1) Benzene on catalytic reduction gives cyclohexane
2) It burns with non-sooty flame
3) It gives Benzene hexachloride with Cl2 in presence of light at 500K
4) Benzene is converted to Acetophenone by Friedel–Craft’s reaction
58. According to quantum mechanical model of atom which is not true.
1) The energy of electron in an atom is quantized
2) An atomic orbit is the wave function,  of an electron in an atom
3) From the value of 2 , it is possible to find the probability of electron around the nucleus
with in the atom
4) Both the exact position and exact velocity of an electron in an atom cannot be determined
simultaneously
59. What will be the order of reaction for a chemical change having log t1/2 vs log a?(where a =
initial concentration of reactant, t1/2= half - life)

1) Zero order 2) Second order 3) First order 4) Third order

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60.

X, Y and Z are respectively

1) An aldehyde, a 20 amine, an acid 2) a 10Amine, a 20 amine, an acid
3) An aldehyde, a 10 amine, an acid 4) An acid, a 10 amine, an aldehyde
Kolbe's Mn  CH COO 
61. CH 3 COO Na  
Electrolysis
 A  
3 2
B then ‘B’ is
 Major 
1) CH3CHO 2) CH3COOH 3) CH3CH2OH 4) HCOOH
62. Calculate the standard voltage that can be obtained from an ethane oxygen fuel cell at 250 C.
C 2 H 6  g   7 /2O 2  g   2CO 2  g   3H 2O  l  ; G 0  1467 kJ / mol
1) + 0.91V 2) + 0.54V 3) +0.72V 4) + 1.08V
63. st nd
In which of the following pairs 1 compound is more acidic than 2 compound

1)

2) CH3COOH andCl 3C  COOH

3) HCOOH and C6H 5COOH
4) NC  CH2 COOH andNO 2  CH 2COOH
64. In which of the following P-O-P bond is not present?
1)  HPO 3 n 2) H 4P2 O7 3) H 4P2 O5 4) H 4P2 O6
n
65. A purple colour complex of Co (III),  Co Cl x  NH 3  y  z Cl  gives two moles of AgCl
 
precipitate on treatment with AgNO3(aq). What is the value of x in the complex?
1) 2 2) 5 3) 1 4) 3
66. Which of the following is correct statement/s regarding He?
1) He has the lowest boiling point of any known substance
2) Helium has an unusual property of diffusing through most commonly used laboratory
materials such as rubber, glass etc
3) The inter atomic attractions in Helium are weak dispersion forces
4) All of these
67. Match the following
Column- I Column –II
A) XeOF4 I) Linear
B) XeO3 II) Pyramidal
C) XeF2 III) Distorted Octahedral
D) XeF6 IV) Square pyramidal
1) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D - I 2) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D - III
3) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D - II 4) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
68. Transition elements show variable oxidation states. They show lower oxidation states
1) When they are in aqueous state 2) When they are complexed with  - acceptor ligands
3) Due to inert pair effect 4) In all the above situations
69. I 2  aq   I  aq   I 3  aq  .We started with 1 mole of I2 and 0.5 mole I in one litre flask.
 

After equilibrium is reached, excess of AgNO3 gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate.
Equilibrium constant is
1)1.33 2) 2.66 3) 2.0 4) 3.0
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70. Excess of nitrate ion concentration in drinking water causes
1) Kidney damage 2) Anemia
3) Blue baby syndrome 4)Harmful effect on teeth and bones
71. The element belonging to VI B group and 4th period is
th

1) Chalcogen 2) Halogen
3) d – Block element 4) f – Block element
Cl2 Na2CO3 (aq ) H 2O ,excess CO2
72. oxide(A )   B   C   D . ‘D’ is

1) precipitate 2) in solution
3) 4) precipitate
73. Incorrect statement among the following?
1) Testosterone is the sex hormone of males and is responsible for the development of
secondary male characteristics
2) Glucocorticoids control carbohydrate metabolism
3) Thyroxine produced in the thyroid glands is an iodinated derivative of the amino acid
tyrosine
4) Insulin is released when glucose level in blood is decreased
74. Which of the following has lowest boiling point?
1) CH3CH2OH 2) Methoxy methane 3) Phenol 4) Propane
75. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
1) Quartz is a piezoelectric substance
2) Both silica and silicones contain Si-O-Si linkages
3) SiO2 is resistant to hot, conc. NaOH and HF
4) Crystobalite and Tridymite are crystalline allotropes of silica which are interconvertible
at suitable temperature
dilute
76. CH 3CHO  CH 3 COCH 3  alkali
 no. of possible products
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 6
77. Which of the following reaction is an example for halogen exchange reaction?

NaOH ,300atm ,623K

1)   Hg 2F2
2) CH3  CH2  Br   CH3  CH2  F

KI
3)   4) All of these

78. CH3  O  CH2CH 3  HI  CH3I  C 2H 5OH . Pick up the correct statement

1) The reaction proceeds through an oxonium ion as an intermediate
2) I ion attacks on the least substituted alkyl group
3) It follows SN2 mechanism 4)All of these
79. Which of the following compound has an oxygen – oxygen bond order as 1.5?
1) Molecular oxygen 2) Hydrogen peroxide
3) Potassium super oxide 4) Water
80. 3.6 g of O2 is adsorbed on 1.2 g of metal powder. What volume of oxygen is adsorbed per
gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 273K?
1)0.19 L g-1 2)1L g-1 3) 2.1 L g-1 4)0.6 L g-1
81. If 0.1 mole H3POx is completely neutralized by 5.6g KOH then select the true statement.
1) x=3 and given acid is dibasic
2) x=4 and given acid has no P – H linkage
3) x= 2 and given acid does not form acid salt
4) x= 2 and given acid is dibasic
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 Fusion
82. i) Pyrolusite  4KOH  O 2   2X  2H 2 O
 2 moles 
ii) 3X  4H  2Y  MnO 2  2H2 O
Incorrect statement about the above reaction sequence is
1) X is a dark green colored K2MnO4 2) Y is purple colored KMnO4
3) Reaction (ii) is a disproportionation reaction
4) X is colorless MnSO4
83. The type/s of isomerism shown by C7H16
a) Chain isomerism b) Optical isomerism c) Functional isomerism
d) Geometrical isomerism e) Position isomerism f) Conformational isomerism
1) a, b, d,e 2) a,d, e, f 3)a, b, e, f 4) b, d, e, f
84. For the determination of molecular mass of a substance through colligative properties
1) Solute must be volatile 2) Solution must be very dilute
3) Solution must be formed by always a non-polar solvent
4) Solution must be concentrated
85. Under which of the following sets of conditions is a real gas behaves as an ideal gas?
1) High pressure, small volume 2) High temperature, low pressure
3) High temperature, high pressure 4) Low temperature, high pressure
86. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and B atoms whose A atoms are at the corner of
the unit cell and B atoms at the face centers. One of the B atoms is missing from one of the
faces in the unit cell. The simplest formula of the compound is
1) AB3 2) A3B5 3) A2B5 4) A5B2
87. Correct order of melting points of halides II A group elements is
1) Fluorides< Chlorides<Bromides<Iodides 2) Chlorides<Bromides<Iodides< Fluorides
3) Fluorides>Chlorides>Bromides>Iodides 4) Fluorides<Bromides < Chlorides <Iodides
88. A conductance cell was filled with a 0.02 M KCl solution which has a specific conductance
of 2.768 × 10 ℎ . If its resistance is 82.4 ohm at 250C, the cell constant is:
1)0.2182 2) 0.2281 3) 0.2821 4) 0.2381
89. Glucose does not react with
1) Phenyl hydrazine 2) NaHSO3 3) Br2/H2O 4) Hydroxyl amine
90. Which of the following metal is purified by Zone refining?
1) Ti 2) Cu 3) In 4) Fe
BOTANY
91. Solanum, Triticum and Panthera
1) Belong to three different orders 2) Represent genera of same kingdom
3) Belong to the same family 4) Represent monotypic genera
92. In which of the following fungi fruiting bodies act as site of reduction division leading to
formation of endogenous haploid sexual spores.
1) Bread mold, Alternaria 2) Mushrooms, Toadstools
3) Claviceps, Aspergillus 4) Mucor, Trichoderma
93. Archaebacteria present in the gut of several ruminants
1) Have cell wall similar to other bacteria
2) Produce biogas under anaerobic conditions
3) Produce methane at very low pH and high temperature
4) Are found in highly saline conditions
94. A decrease in lichen population of an area is indicative of
1) Soil pollution 2) Water pollution
3) Air pollution 4) Insecticidal pollution
95. Find odd one out with respect to life cycle pattern
1) Pinus 2) Ficus 3) Fucus 4) Polytrichum
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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
96. Sporophyte is multicellular and not free living in
1) Adiantum 2) Sequoia 3) Marchantia 4) Cedrus
97. How many of the given statements are concerned with respect to vascular cryptogams of
the plant kingdom
i) PEN formation ii) Free living gametophyte
iii) Presence of mostly heterosporous genera iv) Flagellated male gametes
v) Macrophylls as in Selaginella
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) One
98. Axillary buds develop into slender and spirally coiled structure and help plants to climb as
in:-
1) Euphorbia 2) Jasmine 3) Watermelon 4) Bougainvillea
99. How many of the following plants have didelphous and epiphyllous condition respectively
Lupin, lily, Petunia, Gloriosa, Sweet pea, Mulaithi, Mustard, Tulip
1) 3, 2 2) 3, 3 3) 4, 3 4) 2, 4
100. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
A) Drupe of coconut has a fibrous mesocarp.
B) Indigofera is a dye yielding plant of Fabaceae.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct 2) Only ‘A’ is correct
3) ‘B’ is incorrect 4) Both are incorrect
101. Find out the correct set of secondary metabolites which are toxins
1) Monoterpenes, Diterpenes 2) Abrin, Ricin
3) Morphine, Codeine 4) Viniblastin, Carotenoids
102. Vascular, cambium is completely secondary in origin
1) Dicot stem 2) Dicot root 3) Monocot stem 4) Monocot root
103. Identify the given figure as well as alphabetically marked structures.

1) Fibre : A-Lumen, B-Thick cell wall 2) Sclereid : A – Pits, B-Thick cell wall
3) Scelerid : A-Simple pit, B-Lumen 4) Collenchyma : A-Protoplasm, B-Vacuole
104. The core of eukaryotic flagellum is
1) Axoneme with 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules.
2) Made up of number of microtubules running parallel to long axis.
3) Having triplets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules.
4) Having a pair of centrally located doublet microtubules.
105. Select the correct match w.r.t. function of cell organelles
Column I Column II
a. Protein synthesis i) Glyoxy somes
b. Gluconeogenesis ii) Cytoskeleton
c. RubisCO activity iii) Palade particles
d. Maintenance of shape of cell iv) Chloroplast
1) a – ii, b – iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
3) a – iii, b – i, c-iv, d – ii 4) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii

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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
106. At which stage of meiosis do these events occur:-
Bivalents more clearly Formation of synaptonemal Terminalisation of
visible complex chiasmata
1) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene
2) Pachytene Zygotene Diakinesis
3) Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene
4) Diplotene Diakenesis Pachytene
107. The figures below show 3 phases of mitosis. Select the option giving correct identification
together with the correct event

(A) (B) (C)

1) C – Metaphase – Movement of chromosome towards opposite poles
2) A – Prophase – Condensation of chromatin to form compact mitotic chromosomes.
3) B – Anaphase – Arrangement of chromosomes at equatorial plate.
4) A – Prophase – Splitting of centromere to form sister chromatids.
108. The upward flow of water through the xylem in plants can achieve fairly high rates upto-
1) 15 metres per hour 2) 50 metres per hour
3) 130 metres per hour 4) 200 metres per hour
109. Find out correct match from the following table
Column I Column II Column III
i) Apoplast Non living pathway Plasmodesmata
ii) Symplast Living pathway Cell membrane
iii) Xylem Water and minerals Undirectional movement
1) i only 2) i and iii 3) ii and iii 4) ii only
110. Which of the following essential elements of plants is needed in amount less than 10mmole
of dry matter?
1) Manganese 2) Magnesium 3) Calcium 4) Phosphorus
111. In plants, cycle/Calvin cycle occur in bundle sheath cells because
1) fixing enzyme RubisCO is present only in bundle sheath cells.
2) Primary acceptor of for plants is present in bundle sheath cells.
3) Photorespiration occurs in its mesophyll cells due to presence of RubisCO enzyme.
4) PEP Case enzyme is present in bundle sheath cells.

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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
112. Choose the incorrect statement for given diagram

1) Splitting of water is associated with ‘X’

2) In this process ATP and NADPH are produced.
3) ‘Y’ participate in cyclic process also.
4) By this process conc. increases in stroma.
113. Electron transport system (ETS) consisting of cytochromes in plants occurs in
1) In chloroplast, mitochondria 2) Only in chloroplast
3) Only in mitochondria 4) In chloroplast, peroxisome, mitochondria
114. During aerobic respiration all of these occur in the conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl
CoA except
1) Production of
2) Conversion of 3 carbon molecule into 2 C - molecule
3) Requirement of pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex and several co-enzymes
4) Site of the reaction is cytoplasm in eukaryotes.
115. Which of the following hormone causes fruits of apple to elongate and improve its shape
1) Gibberlin 2) ABA 3) Ethylene 4) Auxin
116. Avena curvature test is suitable bio assay test for
1) Auxin 2) Gibberlin 3) Cytokinin 4) ABA
117. In Lac operon-
1) A monocistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and regulatory
genes
2) Glucose and galactose can act as inducer
3) The ‘y’ gene codes for permease which increases permeability of cell to β-galactosides.
4) Allolactose can also act as inducer.
118. Transcription and Translation are coupled with each other in
1) Chlorella and Drosophila 2) Chlamydomonas and Aspergillus
3) Chlorobium and Rhizobium 4) Garden pea and Blue green mold
119. Select the odd one out w.r.t DNA replication
1) Deoxyribonucleoside triphophates act as substrate and energy source.
2) The template with polarity 3' → 5' shows continuous replication.
3) Toposiomerases relieves tension caused due to super coiling.
4) DNA polymerase can initiate replication on its own.
120. If a mulatto man (AaBb) is married to a white woman (aabb) find the possible phenotypic
ratio in their progeny . [w.r.t. skin colour in humans]
1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : 7 : 7 : 1 3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 1
121. Dihybrid test cross ratio with 87.5% parental types and 12.5% recombinant types show that
genes have
1) Complete linkage 2) Independent Assortment
3) Incomplete linkage 4) More than one option is correct
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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
122. (heterozygous organism) does not resemble a single parent in which of the following
characters
1) Pod colour in pea 2) Flower colour in Mirablilis Jalapa
3) Seed colour in garden pea 4) Flower colour in Pisum sativum
123. Asexual reproduction is the
1) Rapid and complex mode of reproduction
2) Rapid production of genetically variable population
3) Production of large number of individuals and does not involve alteration of generation
4) Formation of genetically and morphologically similar individuals from a zygote.
124. Embryo sac of most angiosperms
1) Develops from micropylar megaspore of linear tetrad
2) Is 7-celled and 8-nucleate female gametophyte
3) Has 3+3+1 arrangement of nuclei
4) Has 3-celled egg apparatus at chalazal end.
125. Select odd one our w.r.t hydrophily
1) Tape grass 2) Sea grass 3) Hydrilla 4) Water hyacinth
126. Match the Columns (w.r.t pollengrain)
Column I Column II
(a) Vegetative cell (i) Abundant reserve food and irregular nucleus
(b) Germ pore (ii) Spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm
(c ) Exine (iii) Where the sporopollenin is absent
(iv) Variable patterns of designs
(v) Continuous layer made of cellulose and pectin.
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i 2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii 3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv 4) a-i, b-ii, c-v
127. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads to resistance in maize
against
1) Aphids 2) Stem sawfly 3) Jassids 4) Stem borers
128. Select the wrongly matched pair
1) Monascus purpureus - Statins
2) Clostridium butylicum - Citric acid
3) Streptococcus - Streptokinase
4) Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin A
129. Microbial bio control agent that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars
is
1) Bacillus thuringiensis 2) Baculo viruses 3) Trichoderma 4) Dragon flies
130. In hydrarch successon floating stage is followed by
1) Marsh meadow stage 2) Reed swamp 3) Scrub stage 4) Forest
131. Read the following statements w.r.t nutrient cycling and choose the correct option
i) The oceanic reservoir of carbon regulates the amount of in atmosphere.
ii) In phosphorous cycle atmospheric inputs through rainfall is very high.
iii) 4 X 10 kg of carbon is fixed annually by photosynthesis.
1) All are correct 2) only ii is incorrect
3) Both i and ii are correct 4) Only iii is incorrect
132. Find the correct statement w.r.t secondary succession
1) Occurs on bare area
2) Rate of succession is much slower
3) Lichen acts as pioneer species
4) Rate of succession is faster, due to presence of some soil

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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
133. Elution is the technique of
1) Separating DNA fragments of various sizes through gel matrix under electric field.
2) Observing bright orange DNA bands in a stained gel under UV-radiation.
3) Extraction of DNA bands from gel piece.
4) Construction of r-DNA by joining fragments with cloning vector.
134. In r-DNA technology after restriction digestion the DNA fragments can be prevented from
self ligation by treating with
1) Alkaline phosphatases 2) Ligases
3) Exo nucleases 4) Taq polymerases
135. pBR322 has/have which of the following selection marker(s)
1) 2) 3) lac Z 4) Both (1) and (2)
ZOOLOGY
136. When the infected female Anophelous mosquito bites a normal human being, the infective
stages of Plasmodium to human first entered into his
1) RBCs 2) WBCs 3) Blood plasma 4) hepatocytes
137. Statement I : Highly intensified secondary response is not elicited for passive immunity.
Statement II : Preformed antibodies are given during passive immunisation.
1) Statement I is true & Statement II is false 2) Both the statements I and II are true
3) Statement I is false & Statement II is true 4) Both the statement I and II are false
138. Endothermic amniote among these
1) Testuda 2) Pristis 3) Delphinus 4) Ichthyophis
139. Lamark’s view about organic evolution is based on
1) Natural selection 2) Mutation
3) Inheritance of acquired character 4) Saltation
140. Triploblastic, Bilaterally symmetrical, Schizocoelomate, unsegmented animals are
1) Annelids 2) Arthropodes 3) Ctenophores 4) Molluscans
141. Percent cover or Biomass is a more meaningful measure of population size with respect to
this plant
1) Parthenium 2) Bamboo 3) Banyan 4) Paddy
142. Choose the incorrect one
1) Archaebacteria – They flourish in hot springs
2) Kangaroo Rat – Capable of meeting all its water requirements through its internal fat
oxidation
3) Desert Lizard – Bask in the sun to emit out heat
4) Seal – Possess blubber to reduce the body heat loss
143. The pyramid obtained w.r.t. energy flow in the Tree ecosystem comprising Tree → Insects
→ Small birds → large birds is.
1) Inverted 2) Upright
3) Sometimes upright, sometime inverted 4) Bell shaped
144. Match the items given in Column A and Column B
Column A Column B
1) Catalytic converter a) Solid waste
2) Electrostatic precipitator b) High noise level
3) Earmuffs c) Particulate matter
4) Land fills d) Carbon monoxide & Nitrogen oxide
1. 2. 3. 4.
1) d c a b
2) d c b a
3) c d b a
4) d b c a
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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
145. Statement I : Male honeybees do not have father and cannot have sons.
Statement II: In haplo-diploidy sex determination method of honeybees, male and female
organisms are diploid, their gametes are haploid and their zygotes are diploid
1) Both statements are false 2) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
3) Both statements are true 4) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
146. Choose the correct one
1) Chipko movement – 1980 2) Joint Forest Management – 1974
3) Montreal protocol – 1992 4) World summit on sustainable development – 2002
147. The ecological relationship between Barnacle and whale is same as that
1) Between cuscuta and hedge plant
2) Between Fungus and roots of higher plants
3) Between Sea anemone and clown fish
4) Between Liver fluke and Snail
148. Immigration may contribute more significantly to population growth than birth rates if
1) a new habitat is first being formed
2) a new habitat is first becoming extinct
3) a new habitat is first being colonized
4) a new habitat is first becoming non productive
149. These are related to carbohydrate metabolism
A) Gluconeogenesis B) Glycogenolysis C) Reduced glucose uptake by the cells
D) Glycogenesis E) Enhanced uptake of glucose by cells
F) Enhanced glucose utilization by cells
Choose which events occur due to the action of Glucagon
1) A, B, C, E 2) A, B, C, F 3) A, B, C, D 4) A, B, C
150. The hormone that helps in maintaining the normal rhythms, sleep wake cycle, body
temperature is secreted by
1) Pituitary gland located on dorsal side of Fore Brain
2) Peneal gland located on dorsal side of Mid Brain
3) Pituitary gland located on ventral side of fore Brain
4) Peneal gland located on dorsal side of fore Brain
151. Which joints allow considerable movements during locomotion
1) Fibrous Joints 2) Cartilage Joints 3) Synarthroses 4) Synovial Joints
152. Homology is exhibited by
1) Wings of Butterfly and Birds 2) Flippers of Penguin and Dolphins
3) Eyes of Octopus and Mammal 4) Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human
153. The nerve cord of cockroach is
1) Single, dorsal & solid 2) Double, dorsal & hollow
3) Double, ventral & solid 4) Single, ventral & hollow
154. Which is the incorrect statement for areolar connective tissue?
1) Present below the skin
2) Most widely distributed connective tissue
3) Fibres are densely packed
4) Works as support framework for epithelium
155. The second most abundant formed element in human blood
1) Erythrocytes 2) Thrombocytes 3) Leucocytes 4) Neutrophils
156. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion of food in human?
1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
3) Dipeptides are the end products of trypsin, pepsin and Dipeptidase action on protein
4) Bile contains bile salts
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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
157 Which of the following factors favour the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in lungs?
1) ↓ ↑, Temperature ↑ ⊕ concentration ↑
2) ↑ ↑, Temperature ↑ ⊕ concentration ↓
3) ↓ ↓, Temperature ↓ ⊕ concentration ↓
4) ↑ ↓, Temperature ↓ ⊕ concentration ↓
158. In a medico-legal case of accidental interchange between two babies in a hospital, the baby
of blood group ‘A’ could not be rightly given to a couple:-
1) With both husband and wife of group ‘O’
2) Husband of group ‘O’ and wife of group ‘A’
3) Husband of group ‘AB’ and wife of group ‘O’
4) Both husband and wife of group ‘A’
159. Which points are not correct about angiotensin-II?
A) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure
B) Activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
C) Powerful vasoconstrictor
D) Decreases the GFR and decreases the blood volume
E) Activates the J.G. cells to release rennin
1) A, B, C 2) A, D, E 3) C, D, E 4) B, C, E
160. Given below are two statements (A-B). Select the option which correctly fills up the blank:-
A) …(i)….is a condition of accumulation of urea in blood which is highly harmful and may
lead to kidney failure
B) Ultimate method in correction of acute renal failures is ….(ii)…
1) (i) Uremia, (ii) Hemodialysis 2) (i) Uremia, (ii) Kidney transplantation
3) (i) Ketonuria, (ii) Hemodialysis 4) (i) Glycosuria, (ii) Kidney transplantation
161. Choose incorrect statement about axoplasm close to axonal membrane
1) It has low concentration of 2) It has high concentration of
3 ) It has negatively charged proteins which diffuse out through axonal membrane
4) It is negatively charged at rest
162. The major threat to biodiversity hot spots is
1) habitat loss 2) Reforestation
3) Co-evolution 4) competition
163. Menstrual cycle become irregular and simple Goitre are due to
1) Over secretion of thyroxin
2) Over secretion of growth hormone in adult
3) Hypo secretion of Thyroxine
4) Excess secretion of TSH
164. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from
the statements given below:-
a) They are introduced into the uterus
b) They are placed to cover the cervical region
c) They act as physical barrier for sperm entry
d) They mainly function as spermicidal agents
The correct options are:-
1) a & b 2) b & c 3) a & c 4) c, d& a
165. st
The karyotype of human ovum is n+1 due to non disjunction of 21 pair of chromosomes.
If, it is fertilized by a normal sperm with ‘y’ chromosome, it develops into
1) Turner’s female 2) Klinerfelter syndrome male
3) Super female 4) Down syndrome – female

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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
166. Observe the pedigree chart given below

What is the genotype of II(3):-

1) AA 2) aa 3) AA or Aa 4) Aa
167. The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of
1) Anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating 2) Reckless behavior, vandalism, violence
3) Death 4) Fever
168. Which one is not required in success of kidney transplantation?
1) Immunosuppressant 2) Blood matching
3) Tissue matching 4) Over activity of CMI
169. − 1 antitrypsin, synthesized by genetic engineering is used to treat :-
1) Phenylketonuria 2) Cystic fibrosis
3) Emphysema 4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
170. TCT is secreted during
1) Increased blood calcium level 2) Decreased blood calcium level
3) Increased blood sugar level 4) Decreased blood sugar level
171. At the point of fusion of ilium, ischium and pubis, a cavity is formed, which is known as:-
1) Glenod cavity 2) Acetabulum 3) Olecranon fossa 4) Odontoid
172. In the given four statements (A-D), select the options which includes all the correct ones:-
A) LNG-20 makes uterus unsuitable for implantation.
B) Rete testis, testis, epididymis are male accessory ducts.
C) Placenta is formed only by maternal tissues.
D) By the end of second month of pregnancy foetus develops limbs and digits.
1) A, B, C 2) B, C 3) A, D 4) B, D
173. “Similar habitat that has resulted in selection of similar adaptive features in different
groups of organism but toward the same function, “is valid for:-
1) Homologous organs 2) Analogous organs 3) Vestigeal organs 4) Atavism
174. In mammalian ear, a membranous structure which separate the scala media and scala
tympani is:-
1) Basilar membrane 2) Reissner’s membrane
3) Autolith membrane 4) Tectorial membrane
175. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1) Oxygen dissociation curve is obtained when % saturation of haemoglobin with is
plotted against the
2) When pH decreases, oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right.
3) In tissues, where there is low , high , lesser concentration and high
temperature support dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.
4) 100ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of to the tissues under normal
physiological conditions.
176. In the following statements choose wrong options:-
a) Wasp laying egg in fig fruit is an example of mutual relationship.
b) Mycorrhiza is an example of ectoparasitism
c) Physiological ecology is ecology at organisms level
d) Competitive exclusion principle was given by Connell
1) a & c 2) a, c, d 3) b and d 4) b, c and d
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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship
177. The central body cavity of poriferans is called-
1) Gastro vascular cavity 2) Spongocoel 3) Coelom 4) Hypostome
178. Read the following (A-D) statements:-
A) Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex
organism.
B) Connective tissue helps in linking and supporting other tissue or organs in the body.
C) Cartilage is a type of dense connective tissue.
D) Connective tissue does not secrete its matrix.
Choose the correct statements is:
1) A, C and D 2) A and B 3) C and D 4) Only D
179. When faeces are retained with in the rectum as bowel movement occur irregularly, it is
called:-
1) Diarrhoea 2) Vomiting 3) Constipation 4) Jaundice
180. Study the Diagram and choose the option which includes all the incorrect ones:-

1) Urethra, Vas deferens, Rete testis

2) Seminal vesicle, Bulbo urethral glands
3) Seminal vesicle, Bulbo urethral glands & Urethra
4) Vas deferens, Seminal vesicle, Rete testis

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Your strength doesn’t come from winning. It comes from struggles and hardship