TSPSC - AEE-2017-Questions Paper-2017

TSPSC-AEE- 2017 Questions with Solutions
(CIVIL ENGINEERING)
01. A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ is subjected 03. The inside diameter of a hollow shaft is
to a clockwise moment at free end. What is one-third of its outside diameter. The ratio
the ratio of deflection to rotation at the free of its torque carrying capacity to that of a
end? solid shaft of the same material and the
(a) 2L (b) 3L/2 (c) L (d) L/2 same outside diameter is
01. Ans: (d) (a) 2/3 (b) 8/9 (c) 26/27 (d) 80/81
Sol: 03. Ans: (d)
M
Sol: Torque T =   ZP (Section modulus)
T  ZP
ML2  3
Deflection at free end   D
2EI Ts Zs 16
 

Rotation at free end  
ML Th Z h
16D
D4  d 4  
EI
ML2 D4
 4
 2EI L D  d4
 
 ML 2 D4
EI
 4
D
D  
4
3
02. A thin cylinder is subjected to an internal
81
pressure of 40 MPa. If the longitudinal 
80
stress is 60 MPa, then the circumferential h 80

stress is Ts 81
(a) 120 MPa (b) 30 MPa
(c) 20 MPa (d) 10 MPa 04. The buckling load for a column fixed at
02. Ans: (a) both ends is 50 kN. If the ends of same
Sol: column are changed to hinged condition,
Internal pressure P = 40 MPa then the buckling load will be
Longitudinal stress l = 60 MPa (a) 37.5 kN (b) 25 kN
Circumferential stress h = 2l (c) 12.5 kN (d) 100 kN
= 120 MPa 04. Ans: (c)
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:2: TSPSC-AEE-2017 Questions with Solutions
Sol: Sol:
If both ends fixed Total elongation of the bar due to its self
weight.
Pcr 1  4 2EI  50 kN
2
 WL

If both ends hinged 2AE
1
Pcr 2   EI
2
50 =
2
 20
 4
= 12.5 kN = 0.05 mm
05. The units of proof resilience are 08. A short hollow cylindrical column has 200
(a) N/m2 (b) N-m mm external diameter and 100 mm internal
(c) N/m3 (d) N-m2 diameter. What is the diameter of core for
05. Ans: (a) the column?
(a) 62.5 mm (b) 25 mm
06. If the load does NOT passes through shear (c) 50 mm (d) 33.3 mm
centre of the section of the beam, then there 08. Ans: (a)
will be Sol:
(a) No bending of the beam Diameter of the core
(b) Only bending of the beam = 2eccentricity
(c) Only twisting of the beam D2  d2
 2
(d) Both bending and twisting of the beam 8D
06. Ans: (d) D2  d2

4D
07. A rod of length 1 m, area 300 sq.mm and 200 2  100 2

self weight 6 kN is suspended vertically and 800
is firmly fixed at the top. Modulus of 500
  62.5 mm
elasticity is 200 GPa. What is the total 8
elongation of the bar due to its self weight?
(a) 1 mm (b) 0.1 mm 09. The degree of redundancy of a fixed beam
(c) 0.05 mm (d) 0.5 mm subjecting to vertical loads only is
07. Ans: (c) (a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four

09. Ans: (b) 11. Ans: (a)

Sol: Sol: 40 kN-m
A L
2 B
No. of reactions ‘r’ = 4 M

No. of equilibrium equations ‘s’ = 2 B 1
Degree of redundancy 2L
Ds = Dse + Dsi – Releases
4EI B
Dse = r – s = 4 – 2 = 2 L
 40
Dsi = 0 [For beams] B

L
Releases = 0 [No internal hinges]
Ds = 2 4EI(2)
 40
L
10. The basic unknowns of slope deflection EI
5 3EI B
method are L 2L
2L
B =1
(a) Slopes of joints only 3EI
M B  B  1
(b) Deflections of joints only L

(c) Both slopes and deflections of joints 3 5

(d) Moments at joints 2
10. Ans: (c) M = 7.5 kN-m
Sol:
Both slopes and deflections of joints 12. A two span simply supported continuous
beam ‘ABC’ of constant flexural rigidity
11. Moment required to rotate prop end of a ‘EI’ is subjected to transverse loading. The
propped cantilever beam by 2 radians is 40 span length of the members ‘AB’ and ‘BC’
kNm. What will be the moment required to are 5m and 10 m respectively. What is the
rotate the same end by 1radian if length of rotation factor at joint B for the member
the beam is doubled and the other end of the ‘BA’?
beam is changed to hinge? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/3
(a) 7.5 kN-m (b) 20 kN-m (c) –1/6 (d) –1/3
(c) 10 kN-m (d) 5 kN-m 12. Ans: (d)

Sol: 13. Ans: (b)

A B C Sol:
5m 10 m
Area of analogous column for the fixed beam
Rotation factor for member BA L
=
 DFBA EI
i.e.  BA 
2 L = 3m, E = 200 GPa = 200106 KPa
DF = Distribution factor 108 10 4 4
I  m
K BA 12 12
DFBA  K = Stiffness
K B L 3  12
  4
 18  10 4 m / kNm 2
KB = KBA + KBC EI 200  10  10
6
3EI 3EI
 
5 10 14. Which principle is used for finding the
9 influence lines for determinate and
 EI
10 indeterminate structures?
3EI (a) Castigliano’s theorem
2 (b) Principle of virtual work
DFBA  5 
9 3 (c) Muller-Breslau principle
EI
10
(d) Theorem of least work
DFBA 2 14. Ans: (c)
 BA   
2 6
1
 BA   15. A horizontal thrust ‘H’ is developed in a
3
two-hinged semi-circular arch of radius ‘R’
carrying a concentrated load ‘W’ at the
13. A square beam of cross sectional size 100
crown. What will be the horizontal thrust if
mm and span 3 m is fixed at both the ends.
radius of the arch is doubled?
Young’s modulus of the beam material is
(a) H (b) 2H (c) H/2 (d) H/4
200 GPa. What is the area of analogous
15. Ans: (a)
column for the beam?
Sol:
(a) 6  10–4 m/kN-m2
In semicircular 2-hinged arch horizontal
(b) 18  10–4 m/kN-m2 thrust is not depend on radius
4 2
(c) 6  10 m/kN-m w 2
4 2 H sin 
(d) 18  10 m/kN-m 


16. What is the size of stiffness matrix for a 18. The minimum nominal concrete cover to all
single-bay single-story rigid-jointed plane steel reinforcements for footings is
frame? Neglect axial deformations. (a) 20 mm (b) 30 mm
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3 (c) 40 mm (d) 50 mm
16. Ans: (d) 18. Ans: (d)
Sol: Sol: As per IS:456-2000, clause 26.4.2.2 for
B C
footings minimum cover shall be 50 mm
19. What is the minimum area of tension

D reinforcement required for a concrete beam
A of width 200 mm, effective depth 500 mm
Size of stiffness matrix = Degree of freedom and with Fe 250 grade steel?
[Neglecting axial deformation] (a) 340 sq.mm (b) 170 sq.mm
2
3 = 3 [B, c & sway] (c) 3400 sq.mm (d) 1700 sq.mm
1
19. Ans: (a)
Sol: Minimum are of tension reinforcement
A s 0.85

bd fy
As 0.85

17. The anchorage value of 90 bend for the bar 200  500 250
of 20 mm diameter is As = 340 mm2
(a) 80 mm (b) 160 mm
20. A reinforced concrete slab is 100 mm thick.
(c) 240 mm (d) 320 mm
The maximum diameter of reinforcement
17. Ans: (b)
bar that can be used is
Sol:
(a) 6 mm (b) 8 mm
As per IS:456-2000, the anchorage value for
(c) 12 mm (d) 14 mm
each 45o bend is 4
20. Ans: (c)
 = 20 mm
Sol: Slab thickness = 100 mm
For 90o bend = 8
Max diameter = ?
A.V = 8  20
As per IS:456-2000, Clause 26.5.2.2, the
= 160 mm
diameter of reinforcing bars shall not exceed
one eight of the total thickness of slab
1 Minimum eccentricity (emin) = ?

max ≯ D
8 As per IS:456-2000, clause 25.4
1 Unsupported length of column Lateral dimension
 max   100 e min  
8 500 30
max  12.5 mm (or) subjected to minimum of 20 mm
3000 150
max = 12 mm    11 mm  20 mm
500 30
emin = 20 mm
21. The limiting value of depth of neutral axis
for concrete beam of overall depth 300 mm
23. The structural steel cross-section which can
and Fe 415 grade steel with effective over
develop plastic moment of resistance but
50 mm is
have inadequate plastic hinge rotation
(a) 144 mm (b) 132 mm
capacity is classified as
(c) 115 mm (d) 120 mm
(a) Plastic (b) Compact
21. Ans: (d)
(c) Semi-compact (d) Slender
Sol:
23. Ans: (b)
Limiting depth of N.A = ?
Sol:
Overall depth D = 300 mm
Classifications of cross sections (clause
Fe-415, effective cover = 50 mm
3.7.2 of IS800:2007)
Effective depth ‘d’ = 300 – 50 = 250 mm
Depending on yield moment, plastic moment
xu max = 0.48d  for Fe-415
and rotational capacities, the four classes of
= 0.48  250 = 120 mm
sections are the plastic, the compact, the semi
compact and slender sections)
22. The unsupported length of column of size
 Plastic section: Cross sections which can
150 mm  300 mm is 3.0 m. What is the
develop plastic hinges and have rotation
minimum eccentricity for which the column
capacity required for failure of the section by
has to be designed?
formation of plastic mechanism are called
(a) 11 mm (b) 16 mm
plastic section.
(c) 20 mm (d) 25 mm
 Compact section: Cross sections which can
22. Ans: (c)
develop plastic moment resistance but have
Sol:
inadequate plastic hinge rotation capacity for
Unsupported length, l = 3m
formation of a plastic mechanism before
Size of column = 150 mm  300 mm
buckling are called as compact section
 Semi compact section: Cross sections in 25. A steel plate is 200 mm wide and 10 mm
which the extreme fiber in compression can thick. A bolt of nominal diameter 16 mm is
reach yield stress, but can’t develop the driven. The net effective sectional area of the
plastic moment of resistance due to local plate is
buckling are called semi compact section. (a) 2000 sq.mm (b) 1840 sq.mm
 Slender section: Cross sections in which (c) 1820 sq.mm (d) 1740 sq.mm
elements buckle locally even before attaining 25: Ans: (c)
of yield stress are called as slender sections. Sol:
Width of Plate B=200mm
24. The recommended limit of vertical Thickness of plate t = 10mm
deflection for gantry girder carrying EOT For M16 bolt, Shank diameter of bolt d = 16mm
crane of capacity 50 tons is Diameter of bolt hole do = 16+2 = 18 mm
(a) Span/750 (b) Span/500 Net effective Sectional area of plate = An
(c) Span/300 (d) Span/240 =(B–do)×t = (200-18)×10 = 1820 mm2
24. Ans: (a)
Sol: 26. The stiffener which prevents local crushing
Limiting Vertical Deflections (clause 5.6.1 of the web of a plate girder due to
Table 6 of IS800:2007) concentrated loading is
The vertical deflection of a gantry girder (a) Diagonal stiffener
should not exceed the values specified below: (b) Intermediate transverse stiffener
Type of crane Limiting (c) Load carrying stiffener
Deflection (d) Bearing stiffener
Where the cranes are manually L/500 26: Ans: (c)
operated
Where the cranes are overhead L / 750 27. A compression member is subjected to an
travelling and operated electrically axial force of 2000 kN. The lacings shall be
up to 500 kN or 50ton
designed to resist a transverse shear of
Where the cranes are overhead L / 1000
(a) 50 kN (b) 40 kN
travelling and operated electrically
more than 500 kN or 50ton (c) 30 kN (d) 20 kN
(d) Other moving loads, such as L / 600 27: Ans: (a)
charging cars, battery trolley etc.
Where L = Span of the gantry girder.

Sol: Effective throat thickness tt = K× S

(Clause 7.6.6.1 of IS800:2007) =0.7 × 5
The lacing shall be proportioned to resist a = 3.5mm
total transverse shear, V, at any point in the Effective area of fillet weld Ae = Lw × tt
member, equal to at least 2.5 percent of the = 90 × 3.5
axial force in the compression member = 315 mm2
Axial force in the compression member
P=2000 kN 29. Which movements of the bridge deck will
Transverse shear force V=(2.5/100) × 2000 be permitted by an elastomeric bearing?
= 50kN (a) No movement is permitted
(b) Translation only
28. A fillet weld of size 5 mm and total length (c) Rotation only
100 mm is used to connect two steel plates. (d) Both translation and rotation
What is the effective area of fillet weld? 29. Ans: (d)
(a) 500 sq.mm (b) 315 sq.mm Sol:
(c) 350 sq.mm (d) 450 sq.mm
28: Ans: (b)
Sol: Elastomer
(Clause 10.5.4.1 of IS800:2007)
The effective length of fillet weld shall
betaken as only that length which is of the
specified size and required throat thickness, Elastomer
In practice the actual length of weld is made
of the effective length shown in drawing plus
two times the weld size, but not less than Steel plates
four times the size of the weld.
Total or actual Length of weld L = 100mm
Size of fillet weld S = 5mm
Effective length of fillet weld Lw = L – 2 × S
= 100 – 2×5
Electrometric bearing pads compress on vertical
= 90 mm
load and accommodate horizontal rotation and
provide lateral shear movement.
: 10 : TSPSC-AEE-2017 Questions with Solutions
30. The minimum grade of concrete to be used (d) Inversely proportional to rate of angular
for pre-tensioned and post-tensioned deformation
prestressed concrete work respectively is 32. Ans: (b)
(a) M30, M30 (b) M40, M40 Sol:
(c) M40, M30 (d) M30, M40 As per Newton’s law of viscosity, shear
30. Ans: (c) stress is directly proportional rate of shear
Sol: strain or rate of angular deformation or
As per IS: 1343-1980, min grade of concrete velocity gradient.
for pretensioning and post tensioning are
M40 and M30 respectively N S
33. A flow of a viscous fluid with   1.0
m2
31. The type of prestressed concrete member in has a velocity distribution given by
which tensile stresses are allowed but no u = 0.9 y – y2. The shear stress at y = 0.45 m
visible cracking is is
(a) Type 1 (b) Type 2 (a) 0.90 N/m2 (b) 
(c) Type 3 (d) Type 4 (c) zero (d) –0.90 N/m2
31. Ans: (b) 33. Ans: (c)
Sol: Sol:
Type-I: No tensile stress developed du d
   (0.9 y  y 2 )  (0.9  2 y)
Type-II: Tensile stresses allowed but not dy dy
visible cracking  = 1  (0.9 – 2  0.45)
Type-III: Tensile stresses allowed but =0
cracking width shall be with
permissible limit 34. When the barometer reads 740.0 mm of
mercury, a pressure of 10 kPa suction at that
32. Newton’s law of viscosity for a fluid states location is equivalent to
that the shear stress is (a) 10.02 m of water (abs)
(a) Proportional to angular deformation (b) 9.87 m of water (abs)
(b) Proportional to rate of angular (c) 88.72 kPa (abs)
deformation (d) 0.043 kPa (abs)
(c) Inversely proportional to angular 34. Ans: (c)
deformation

Sol: (d) When the flow satisfies the equations of

P = 0.74  13600  9.81 – 10  103 continuity
= 88.73 kPa 37. Ans: (c)
= 9.04 m of water Sol:
The condition of irrotationality implies
35. The pressure represented by a column of 5 existence of velocity potential and vise versa.
cm of oil of relative density 0.75 is
(a) 7357.5 N/m2 (b) 367.87 N/m2 38. The total head in a flow is the sum of
(c) 0.0225 N/m2 (d) 3.75 N/m2 (a) Piezometric head and datum head
35. Ans: (b) (b) Piezometric head and pressure head
Sol: (c) Piezometric head and velocity head
P = hg = 0.05  750  9.81 = 367.9 N/m2 (d) Piezomtric head, velocity head and
datum head
36. If stream function  = 2xy, the magnitude 38. Ans: (c)
of the velocity vector at (2, –2) is Sol:
(a) 4 2 (b) 4 (c) – 8 (d) 2 P V2

Total head =  Z
g 2g
36. Ans: (a)
Sol:  P  V2
=   Z  
 g  2g
    = Piezometric head + velocity head
u  (2xy)  2x  2(2)  4 units
y y
39. A water jet has an area of 0.03 m2 and
  impinges normally on a plate. If a force of 1
v  (2 xy)  2 y  2(2)  4 units
x x kN is produced as a result of this impact, the

V  u 2  v 2  (4) 2  (4) 2  4 2 units velocity of the jet in m/s is
(a) 15 (b) 33.4 (c) 3.4 (d) 5.78
39. Ans: (d)
37. A velocity potential exist
Sol:
(a) Whenever the real fluid flow exist
(b) When the flow is real and rotational F = av2
(c) When the flow satisfies the condition of 1000 = 1000  0.03  v2
irrotational motion v = 5.77 m/s

40. If Froude law of similitude exists between a 42. A laminar boundary layer has a velocity
model and prototype, then the force ratio u y
distribution given by  . The
(Fr) is U 
(a) L3r (b) L r  r (c) L3r  r (d) L3r  r 1 displacement thickness * for this boundary
40. Ans: (c) layer is
Sol: (a)  (b) /2 (c) /4 (d) /6
For Froude’s law 42. Ans: (b)
(Fr)m = (Fr)P Sol:

 V     u 
i.e.    V     1 
*
dy
 gL    0
U  
  m  gL  p

 y
Vr  L r   1  dy
0

Lr
Tr   Lr  y2 

 2   
Vr   y          
 2  0  2   2
Vr
ar  1
Tr 

Fr = mr ar 2
= r Lr3  1= rLr3
43. Separation of boundary layer takes place
41. The pressure drop in an 8 cm diameter when
horizontal pipe is 75 kPa in a distance of 15  u    2u 
(a)    0 (b)  2  0
m. The shear stress at the pipe wall, in kPa  y  y0  y  y  0
is  u   u 
(a) 0.2 (b) 2.0 (c) 5.0 (d) 0.4 (c)    0 (d)    0
 y  y0  u  y
41. Ans: (*)
43. Ans: (c)
Sol:
Sol:
 dp R
w   For the boundary layer separation
dx 2
 u 
75  10 3 0.04    0
   y  y 0
15 2
= 100 Pa = 0.1 kPa
Correct option is not available

44. In a pipe flow the shear velocity u* is  2Q 2 

1/ 5
related to friction factor f and mean velocity y c   2


 gm 
u*
V as   2  22 
1/ 5
V   
 9.81  1.5
2

f 8
(a) (b)
8 f  yc = 0.816 m
8g 1
(c) (d) 46. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a
f f
horizontal rectangular channel, the sequent
44. Ans: (a)
depth are 0.25 m and 1.25 m. The energy
Sol:
loss in this jump is
w
V*  (a) 0.8 m (b) 1.0 m

(c) 1.25m (d) 1.50 m
i.e. w = V*2 …………….(1)
46. Ans: (a)
f' 2 Sol:
w  v
2
y1 = 0.25, y2 = 1.25
f
Or  w  v 2 ………….(2) ( y 2  y1 ) 3
8 E 
4.y1 y 2
From (1) & (2)
f (1.25  0.25) 3
V *2
 V 2 
8 4  1.25  0.25
E = 0.8 m
V* f

V 8
47. The flow will be in supercritical state in the
following profiles:
45. A triangular channel with side slopes of 1.5
(a) M3, S3 and M1 (b) M2, S1 and M3
horizontal:1 vertical carries a discharge of
(c) S2, S3 and M3 (d) S1, S2 and S3
2.0 m3/s. The critical depth for this flow is
47. Ans: (c)
(a) 1.129 m (b) 0.816 m
Sol: Sub critical
S1
(c) 0.742 m (d) 0.711 m M1
Sub yc
yn
45. Ans: (b) M2
Sub
S2 Super critical
yc yn
Sol: M3 S3
Super Super critical
1V : mH Mid
1V : 1.5H  m = 1.5 M3, S2, S3
48. A positive surge travels upstream in a canal 50. The unit power Pu of a turbine developing a
with an absolute velocity Vw. With suffixes power P under a head H is equal to
1 and 2 referring to sections upstream and P P
(a) (b)
downstream of the surge respectively, the H5/ 2 H
continuity equation is written as P
(c) P.H3/2 (d)
(a) A1V1 = A2V2 H3/ 2
(b) A1(V1 + Vw) = A2 (V2 – Vw) 50. Ans: (d)
(c) A2(Vw – V2) = A1 (Vw + V1) Sol:
(d) A1(V1 + Vw) = A2 (V2 + Vw) P  gQH
48. Ans: (d) U/S  (D 2 H )H
Sol: P
Vw = constant
Vw D H3/ 2
2
y2 Unit quantities are used to predict

y1 performance of same turbine under different
V1 V2
conditions.
(V1 + Vw) (Vw+V2) i.e. D = constant
A1 (V1 + Vw) = A2 (Vw + V2) P
  const  Pu
H3/ 2
49. An aircraft moves at 1580 km/h in an P
i.e. Pu 
atmosphere where the temperature is –60C. H3/ 2
If k = 1.4 and R = 287 J/(kg-K) the Mach
number of the plane is 51. If two pumps identical in all respects and
(a) 0.67 (b) 1.50 each capable of delivering a discharge ‘Q’
(c) 2.10 (d) 5.4 against a head H are connected in parallel,
49. Ans: (b) the resulting discharge is
Sol: (a) 2Q against a head 2H
5 (b) 2Q against a head H
V  1580   438.9 m / s
18 (c) Q against a head 2H
C  KRT  1.4  287  213  292.5 m / s (d) Q against a head H
V 51. Ans: (b)
Ma   1.5
C

Sol: 54. The Theissen weights of 4 rain gauges A, B,

For pumps in parallel total head remains C and D covering a river basin are 0.15,
same but the discharge sum of discharges of 0.25, 0.30 and 0.30 respectively. If the
individual pumps average depth of rainfall for the basin is 5
i.e. H = H1 = H2 cm and the rainfalls recorded at B, C and D
Q = Q1 + Q2 = 2Q are 5cm, 4 cm and 5 cm respectively, what
Q is the rainfall at A?
(a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 8 cm
P1
54. Ans: (c)
2Q
Sol:
P2 P  Pi x i
Q
5 = P1 (0.15) + 5 (0.25) + 4 (0.3) + 5 (0.3)
52. The science which deals with occurrence, P1 (0.15) = 5 – 5(0.25) – 4(0.3) – 5 (0.3)
distribution and circulation of water is P1 = 7 cm
called
(a) Hydrography (b) Hydrometry 55. A 6 hr storm with hourly intensities of 7,
(c) Hydrology (d) Hydraulics 18, 25, 12, 10 and 3 mm/hr produced a
52. Ans: (c) runoff of 33 mm. Then the -index is
(a) 7 mm/hr (b) 3 mm/hr
53. The rainfall mass curve shows the variation (c) 10 mm/hr (d) 8 mm/hr
of 55. Ans: (d)
(a) Rainfall intensity with time Sol:
(b) Rainfall intensity with cumulative P: 7, 18, 25, 12, 10, 3  75 mm
rainfall P  R 75  33
W-index   = 7 mm/hr
(c) Rainfall excess with time T 6
(d) Cumulative rainfall with time Pe = 18, 25, 12, 10 mm  65 mm
53. Ans: (d) Te = 4 hrs
Sol: Pe  R 65  33
  Index  
Cumulative rainfall Vs time Te 4
32
 = 8 mm/hr
4

56. A 6 hr storm with a uniform intensity of 1.5 (a) 0.66 m/day (b) 0.45 m/day
cm/hr produced a runoff depth of 72 mm. (c) 0.96 m/day (d) 0.85 m/day
the average infiltration rate during this 58. Ans: (c)
storm is Sol:
(a) 3 mm/hr (b) 6 mm/hr dh
V = Ki = K 
(c) 9 mm/hr (d) 12 mm/hr dL
56. Ans: (a)  1.2 / 100 
 12    m/day
Sol:  15 / 100 
P = 1.5  6 = 9 cm = 90 mm Actual velocity
R = 72 mm V 12(1.2)
Va   100
Infiltration = P – R = 18 mm n 100(15)
Infiltration 18 mm 4.8
f   = 3 mm/hr   0.96 m/day
time 6 5
57. The dimensions of transmissibility (T) of 59. The term unit in the unit hydrograph refers
the aquifer are to
(a) LT–1 (b) L2T–1 (a) Unit depth of runoff
2 2 2 –2
(c) L T (d) L T (b) Unit duration of the storm
57. Ans: (b) (c) Unit base period of the hydrograph
Sol: (d) Unit area of the basin
Transmissibility 59. Ans: (a)
T = KB
m 60. The direct runoff hydrograph of a basin can
(m)  m 2 / s  [L2 T 1 ]
s be approximated as a triangle with a base
period of 80 hr and peak flow of 200 m3/s
58. The elevation of water table in an occurring at 16th hour. If the area of the
unconfined aquifer at two locations basin is 1440 km2, what is the depth of
separated by a distance of 100 m is 1028.2 runoff indicated by the hydrograph?
m and 1027.0 m respectively, If the (a) 1 cm (b) 10 cm
permeability of the aquifer is 12 m/day and (c) 2 cm (d) 20 cm
porosity is 15 percent, what is the actual 60. Ans: (c)
velocity of flow in the aquifer?

Sol: 63. For the irrigation of a crop, the base period

200 m3/s B in days and delta (∆) in metres are related
to duty D in ha/(m3/sec) at the field as
16th 80 hr
(a) D = (0.864 B/∆)
Area of DRH (b) D = (8.64 B/∆)
R
catchment area (c) D = (0.864 ∆/B)
1 (80)200  3600 (d) ∆ = (8.64 D/B)

2 1440  10 6 63. Ans: (b)
2  10 4 Sol:
  100 = 2 cm
10 6 B
D  8.64

61. In Gumbel’s distribution the relation
between the reduced variate y and the return 64. The centre of pressure of wave pressure due
period Tr is given by to a wave of height hw acting on a gravity
y 1 y 1 dam will be at a height above the maximum
(a) e e  1  (b) e e 
Tr Tr still water level of
y 1 y 1 (a) hw/2 (b) 3 hw/8
(c) e e  1  (d) e e  1
Tr Tr (c) hw/3 (d) 2 hw/3
61. Ans: (a) 64. Ans: (b)
65. Provision of a filter and a rock toe in an

62. Rational formula is used to arrive at the
earthern dam is done
designated peak flow of Qs. If a storm
(a) to prevent the piping action in the dam
intensity is doubled and the duration is
section
increased three times, the resulting peak
(b) to collect and drain out the seeping
discharge is
water
(a) Qp (b) 2.Qp
(c) to reduce the seepage velocity
Qp
(c) 3 Qp (d) (d) to have the resultant in the middle third
2
of the base
62. Ans: (b)
65. Ans: (b)
Sol:
Sol:
Qmax = AIR
Option (b) and (d) are correct but appropriate
As intensity is doubled Qmax doubles
answer is b

66. If the head of water over an Ogee a true regime channel for silt laden flow in
spillway is less than the design head, fine alluvium?
(a) the pressure on the spillway crest will be (a) Kennedy’ method
negative. (b) Tractive force method
(b) the coefficient of discharge will be less (c) Lacey’s method
than the design coefficient of discharge (d) Manning’s formula and Kennedy’s
(c) the coefficient of discharge will be equation
larger than the design coefficient of 67. Ans: (c)
discharge Sol:
(d) the cavitation phenomenon will occur Regime channel
66. Ans: (b) 
Sol: Lacey’s method
H
 H = Hd
Cd = 2.2 68. The following data are available for a cross
When H < Hd drainage project:
H
 1  C d  2.2
hd Item Canal Drainage
So, when H < Hd, ‘Cd’ is less than design FSL/HFL 105.00 m 104.00 m
coefficient Bed level 100.00 m 102.00 m
3
Discharge 80 m /s 12 m3/s
Proof:
The most appropriate cross drainage works
for this situation is
1 1
H
Hd
(a) Aqueduct
0.6
0.2 (b) Syphon aqueduct
1.8 2.0 2.2 Cd
(c) Syphon
(d) Super passage
67. A stable channel has three degrees of 68. Ans: (c)
freedom in a sense that the depth, width and
slope can adjust to the given discharge and
sediment condition. In this sense which of
the following methods of canal design gives

69. A surge tank is provided in a hydropower 71. In an irrigation plot the net irrigation
scheme to requirement of a crop is found to be 14.9
(a) Provide additional storage close to the cm, the application efficiency is 80% and
penstock the water conveyance efficiency is 70%.
(b) Take care of change of slope alignment The gross irrigation requirement is
or size of the water conductor system (a) 8.3 cm (b) 26.6 cm
(c) Reduce the pressure under transient (c) 17.0 cm (d) 21.3 cm
conditions 71. Ans: (b)
(d) Provide convenient overspills Sol:
69. Ans: (c) NIR = 14.9 cm
Sol: NIR
GIR 
Surge tank is provided to reduce the excess a  c
pressure 14.9

0.8  0.7
70. A regime channel has a full supply depth of = 26.6 cm
2.0 m and a bed width of 8.0 m. The full
supply discharge in this channel is 72. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2
3 3
(a) 6.9 m /s (b) 18.0 m /s mg/l after incubating 3 ml of sewage diluted
3 3
(c) 2.8 m /s (d) 1.8 m /s to 300 ml at 20 C for 5 days, then the
70. Ans: (a) (BOD)5 of the sewage would be
Sol: (a) 200 mg/l (b) 300 mg/l
P  BD 5 (c) 500 mg/l (d) 600 mg/l
82 5 72. Ans: (a)

Sol:
P = 12.472 m
Depletion of oxygen = [DOi – DOf]
P  4.75 Q
= 2 mg/l
2
 12.47  A = raw sewage = 3 mL
Q   
 4.75  A + B = Dilution sewage = 300 mL
3
Q = 6.89 m /s A  B 300
Dilution factor =   100
A 3
 BOD5 = [DOi – DOf]  Dilution factor
= 2  100 = 200 mg/L

73. The natural process under which the 75. The phenomenon by virtue of which soil
flowing river water gets cleaned is known pores gets clogged with sewage matter is
as called
(a) Oxidation (b) Photosynthesis (a) Sewage farming
(c) Reduction (d) Self-purification (b) Sewage bulking
73. Ans: (d) (c) Sewage sickness
Sol: (d) Sewage irrigation
Self purification of river/streams will 75. Ans: (c)
perform the activities of
(a) Dispersion (b) Dilution 76. Surface loading for rectangular
(c) Oxidation (d) Reduction sedimentation tank of length L, width B and
(e) Sedimentation height H is given by
All these processes occur naturally and river Q Q
(a) (b)
water gets cleaned after disposal of effluents. BH BL
BH BL
(c) (d)
74. If a sewer carrying a discharge of 3 cumec Q Q
outfalls into a river having a discharge of 76. Ans: (b)
10 cumec and DO equal to 9.1 mg/l, the Sol:
resultant DO of the mix will be equal to Q
Surface loading rate Vo 
(a) 5 mg/l (b) 6 mg/l LB
(c) 7 mg/l (d) 8 mg/l
74. Ans: (c) 77. For a grit chamber if the recommended
Sol: velocity is 0.2 m/s and detention time is 1
Qe = 3 m3/s minute, the length of the grit chamber is
QR = 10 m3/s (a) 8 m (b) 10 m (c) 12 m (d) 15 m
DOR = 9.1 mg/L 77. Ans: (c)
Assume DO from sewer as zero Sol:
DOe = 0 Velocity = 0.2 m/s
(Q e  DO e )  (Q R  DO R ) Detention time = 1 min
DO mix 
Qe  QR Length = V.Dt = 0.2  60 = 12 m
3  0  10  9.1
DO mix  = 7 mg/L
3  10

F 82. The true specific gravity (G) of a given soil

78. Lower ratio in a conventional activated
M sample was determined in the laboratory at
sludge treatment plant will mean 10 C and 45 C. Answer which of the
(a) Lower BOD removal following is true?
(b) Higher BOD removal (a) G10 C > G45 C (b) G10 C < G45 C
(c) No effect on BOD removal (c) G10 C = G45 C (d) G10 C = 2G45 C
(d) Sometimes is lower and sometimes 82. Ans: (b)
higher removal Sol:
78. Ans: (a)
G 45  Sp. gravity of water at 45 o C
G 10o C 
Sp. gravity of water at 10 o C
79. Leachate is a colored liquid that comes out
Specific gravity of water at 45oC < Specific
of
gravity of water at 10oC
(a) Septic tanks (b) Sanitary land fills
 G10 < G45
(c) Aerated lagoons (d) Compost plants
79. Ans: (b) 83. In a sieve analysis, 70% of the soil mass is
retained on ISS 2.00 mm and 60% is finer
80. During temperature inversion in atmosphere than ISS 4.00 mm. Determine effective size
air pollutants tends to of the soil mass if its coefficient of
(a) Accumulate above inversion layer curvature Cc = 2.00.
(b) Accumulate below inversion layer (a) 0.50 mm (b) 1.00 mm
(c) Disperse laterally (c) 1.50 mm (d) 2.00 mm
(d) Disperse vertically 83. Ans: (a)
80. Ans: (b) Sol:
Explanation:
81. If P represents the pressure of sound ware D30 = 2 mm, D60 = 4 mm
and Pref represent the reference pressure Cc = 2
then Sound Pressure Level (SPL) is equal to 2
D 30
 P   P 
Cc 
1 D 60 .D10
(a) 20 log10   (b) log10  
 Pref  20  Pref 
22
2
P  1 P  4  D10
(c) 20 log10  ref  (d) log10  ref 
 P  20  P  1
81. Ans: (a)  D10   0.5 mm
2
84. At a site, the ground water table is the major and minor principal stresses at
coinciding with the ground level. If failure respectively are
saturated unit weight of soil is 20 kN/cum, (a) 120 kPa, 60 kPa (b) 120 kPa, 0 kPa
determine the effective stress at 3 m below (c) 60 kPa, 120 kPa (d) 120 kPa, 120 kPa
the ground level. 86. Ans: (b)
(a) 30 kPa (b) 60 kPa Sol:
(c) 45 kPa (d) 100 kPa If u = 0; S = Cu = 60 kPa (given)
84. Ans: (a) In UCC test, 3 = 0
Sol: 1 = 2 Cu = 2  60 = 120 kPa
1
 = Z
= (20 – 10) 3 = 30 kPa 87. The load carrying capacity of an end
bearing pile is found to be 400 kN. All other
85. The time required for a consolidating parameters remaining same, what will be
medium with single drainage to undergo the capacity if its diameter is halved.
90% of its primary consolidation settlement (a) 100 kN (b) 500 kN
was estimated as 36 years. All other (c) 1000 kN (d) 2000 kN
conditions remaining same, estimate the 87. Ans: (a)
time required if the medium has double Sol:
drainage. 1
th
(a) 3.6 years (b) 36 years If drain is halved, area becomes

4
(c) 72 years (d) 9 years 1
 Capacity   400  100 kN
85. Ans: (d) 4
Sol:
th
1 88. Which type of caissons are preferred in
Double drained condition takes of time
4 emergency conditions where time for
required for a single drained condition sinking of caissons is not available?
36 (a) Box caissons
t   9 years
4 (b) Pneumatic caissons
(c) Open caissons
86. The shear strength of a Clayey soil ( = 0) (d) Box, Pneumatic and Open caissons
is found to be 60 kPa when tested in an 88. Ans: (a)
unconfined compressive strength test. Then,

89. In a field compaction process, if maximum 91. What is the following statements is
dry density, field bulk density and field incorrect?
3 3
moisture content are 20 kN/m , 22 kN/m (a) Even the slight movement of wall away
and 10% respectively, the relative from backfill develops full active earth
compaction is: pressure.
(a) 90% (b) 95% (c) 100% (d) 85% (b) Earth pressure at rest will be present
89. Ans: (c) when the wall does not move relative to
Sol: the backfill.
 d max  20 kN/m3 (c) Full passive earth pressure develops
 = 22 kN/m3 only after considerable movement of
W = 10% wall towards the backfill.
 22 (d) For a given wall and backfill conditions,

d   = 20 kN/m3 the magnitude of active earth pressure
1  w 1  0.1
Relative compaction will always be higher than passive earth
d 20 pressure.
  100   100  100% 91. Ans: (d)
 d max 20
Sol:
Active pressure is the least compared to at
90. A 10 m thick clay layer with single drainage
rest and passive earth pressures
undergone 90% of primary consolidation
settlement in 10 years. Considering the
92. In a direct shear test on a dry clean sandy
corresponding time factor as 0.848, the
coefficient of consolidation is: soil specimen with c = 0 kPa,  = 45,
(a) 1.0 m2/year (b) 10 m2/year determine the shear stress at failure when
(c) 8.48 m2/year (d) 84.8 m2/year the normal stress was 100 kPa.
90. Ans: (c) (a) 45 kPa (b) 75 kPa
Sol: (c) 145 kPa (d) 100 kPa

d = 10 m, t = 10 years, Tv = 0.848 92. Ans: (d)
Sol:
C v .t
Tv   = 45o, C = 0,  = 100 kPa
d2
Tv .d 2 0.848  10 2 f = C +  tan
Cv   =8.48 m2/years
t 10 = 0 + 100 tan 45
= 100 kPa
93. In a standard penetration test, the blows are 95. The co-efficient of permeability (k) of a soil
recorded as 12/20/30. If correction factor mass was found to be 1  10–3 cm/s for flow
for overburden is 0.90, the standard of water when the test was performed at
penetration resistance, N-value corrected for 20 C. When the test was repeated at 50 C,
overburden and dilatancy is what will be the “k” if viscosity and unit
(a) 57 (b) 32 (c) 37 (d) 30 weight of the fluid are decreased to 60%
93. Ans: (d) and 90% respectively?
Sol: (a) 1  10–3 cm/s (b) 1.50  10–3 cm/s
NF = 20 + 30 = 50 (c) 0.50  10–3 cm/s (d) 2  10–3 cm/s
Corrected for overburden pressure 95. Ans: (b)
N = CN. NF Sol:
= 0.9  50 = 45 k = 1  10–3 cm/s
Corrected for dilatancy, k 2  w 2 1
N = 15 + 0.5 [N – 15]  .
k 1  w1  2
= 15 + 0.5 [45 – 15] = 30
k2 0 .9  w 1  1
3
 .
1  10  w1 0.61
94. A vertically upward seepage flow is taking
place under a head of 3 m in a cohesionless  k2 = 1.5  10–3 cm/s
medium of 2m thick having G = 2.65 and
e = 0.65. Determine factor of safety against 96. The flow net of an earthen dam consists of 7
quicksand. flow lines and 12 potential drops. What is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0.67 (d) 0.50 the discharge per meter length if k = 0.1
94. Ans: (c) m/s, H = 10 m?
Sol: (a) 0.50 cum/sec (b) 1.0 cum/sec
h = 3 m, z = 2m (c) 0.25 cum/sec (d) 2 cum/sec
G = 2.65, e = 0.65 96. Ans: (a)
G  1 2.65  1 Sol:
ic   1
1  e 1  0.65 No. of flow channels, Nf = (no. of flow lines –1)
h 3 =7–1=6
i   1.5
z 2 No. of drops, Nd = 12
ic 1 Nf 6
F   0.67 Q  KH  0.1  10  = 0.5 m3/s/m
i 1 .5 Nd 12

97. In a laboratory compaction test, it was Sol:

required to use 1600 cc capacity mould in 3 Q
z 
place of the standard 1000 cc mould. To 2 z 2
ensure application of standard compaction Q
 z  0.4775
effort, how many blows do you recommend z2
in place of the standard 25 blows per layer? Q
477.5  0.4775 
(a) 15 (b) 56 (c) 40 (d) 100 12
97. Ans: (c) Q = 1000 kN
Sol: 100. The net ultimate bearing capacity of a 2 m
25 wide square footing laid on pure cohesive
 1600  40
1000
soil is estimated at 400 kPa. All other
parameters remaining same what will be the
98. In a tri-axial compression test, a specimen
net ultimate bearing capacity if size of the
failed at a deviatoric stress of 180 kPa when
footing is doubled?
the cell pressure was 100 kPa. Determine
(a) 100 kPa (b) 200 kPa
the major and minor principal stresses.
(c) 400 kPa (d) 50 kPa
(a) 180,100 (b) 80, 20
100. Ans: (c)
(c) 280, 100 (d) 100, 80
Sol:
98. Ans: (c)
For clays, the bearing capacity is independent
Sol:
of width of footing
3 = 100 kPa, d
101. As per IS:3955-1967, tilt of a well
= 180 kPa
foundation should generally be limited to
 1 = 3 + d
(a) 1 in 20 (b) 1 in 40
= 280 kPa
(c) 1 in 60 (d) 1 in 100
101. Ans: (c)
99. The increment in vertical stress (z) directly
1m below a point load was found to be 102. The ability of soil particles to undergo
477.50 kPa. Determine the magnitude of the rehabilitation and regain a part of the lost
point load strength when left undisturbed is known sas
(a) 100 kN (b) 500 kN (a) Dilation (b) Thixotropy
(c) 1000 kN (d) 2000 kN (c) Plasticity (d) Swelling
99. Ans: (c) 102. Ans: (b)

103. Which of the following statements 106. Groups of small sized faults that overlap
about Dynamic Formulae is correct? each other are named as:
(a) Applicable for the bored cast in situ (a) Parallel faults (b) Peripheral faults
piles only. (c) Radial faults (d) Enechelon faults
(b) Overestimate the capacity in sensitive 106. Ans: (d)
clays. Sol:
(c) Underestimate the capacity where in These may be defined as a group of small
localized momentary liquefaction takes sized faults that overlap each other in the
place while driving the pile. region of their occurrence. A second fault
(d) Set value is average of the first few appears on the surface at a distance before
blows. the first fault ends and so on.
103. Ans: (c)
107. Which of the following conditions is not
104. The end product of weathering that has been favourable for construction of a Tunnel?
transported down slope under the influence (a) Tunnels parallel to the strike with beds
of gravity and is accumulated at the base of dip in the tunnel
the hills and bare slopes is known as (b) Tunnel parallel to the dip direction
(a) Eluvium (b) Deluvium (c) Small sized tunnel in massive thick
(c) Sediments (d) Peat horizontal layers normal to the tunnel
104. Ans: (a) direction.
Sol: (d) Tunnels in Hard, Crystalline, Massive
Eluvium: Geological deposits and soils that rocks.
are derived by in-situ weathering or 107. Ans: (a)
weathering plus gravitational movement Sol:
When the tunnel is driven parallel to strike of
105. Which of the following is deposit of glacial the beds which amounts to same thing as at
origin consisting of un-assorted mixture of right angles to the dip, the pressure
boulders and clay particles? distributed to the exposes layers is
(a) Loess (b) Talus unsymmetrical along the periphery of the
(c) Till (d) Eskers tunnel opening, Bedding planes opening into
105. Ans: (c) the tunnel and hence offer potential planes
and conditions for sliding into the opening.

108. Which of the following is not ideal as (d) Both compressive and tensile strength is
foundation of Dams as it is prone to 100 to 120 kPa
dissolution and results in formation of 110. Ans: (c)
cavities? Sol:
(a) Granites (b) Limestones Bitumen grade is represented by its
(c) Dolerites (d) Sandstones penetration value measured in the units of
108. Ans: (b) 1/10 th of mm.
Sol: Therefore bitumen grade of 100/120 means
Limestone is not easily soluble in pure water penetration value is in between 100 to 200
but carbonated water dissolves the rock units i.e., 10 to 12 mm.
effectively. Limestone gets pitted and porous
due to chemical weathering. 111. The transition curve adopted by Indian
Railways with standard notation is of the
109. The super elevation (in meters) for mixed form
traffic conditions with a design speed of 100 (a) y = 6RLx (b) y = x3/6 RL
kmph for a horizontal curve of 738 m, is (c) y = 64 RL ex (d) y = 36 RL x2
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.06 111. Ans: (b)
(c) 0.10 (d) 0.45 Sol:
109. Ans: (b) As per Indian Railways cubic parabola is
Sol: preferred for transition curves.
Given Mixed traffic conditions Its equation is y= x3/6RL
Design speed, V=100kmph
Radius, R=738m. 112. What is track capacity of a permanent way
V2 100 2 if 360 trains pass in a day?
Super Elevation, e  = e
225R 225x 738 (a) 3.6 (b) 36
= 0.0602 (c) 1.5 (d) 15
112. Ans: (d)
110. Bitumen of grade 100/120 means Sol:
(a) Its compressive strength is 100 to 120 Track capacity =No. of train running per
kPa hour = 360/24 =15trains per hour.
(b) Its tensile strength is 100 to 120 kPa
(c) Its penetration value is 10 to 12 mm

113. The maximum design gradient for vertical Let gauge, G=1.676m (BG)
profile of a road is GV 2
Equilibrium Super Elevation (SE), e 
(a) Exceptional gradient 127R
(b) Ruling gradient 1.676  60 2
=
(c) Limiting gradient 127  344
(d) Hydraulic gradient = 0.1381m
113. Ans: (b)
116. The maximum speed on a 3 broad gauge
114. Which of the following tests measures the curve according to Martin’s formula is
toughness of road aggregates? (a) 67.45 kmph (b) 88.97 kmph
(a) Shape test (b) Crushing strength test (c) 97.88 kmph (d) 122.59 kmph
(c) Impact test (d) Abrasion test 116 Ans: (c)
114. Ans: (c) Sol:
Sol: Degree of curve, D0=30,
1. To measure percentage of flaky, Radius, R = 1720/3 = 573.33 m
elongated material and to know the Since nothing is mentioned it is assumed as
shape (Angular or spherical) shape test is Normal speed track.
used. As per martins Maximum speed on Broad
2. To measure strength crushing strength is Gauge (BG) track, V= 4.35(R-67)0.5
used. = 4.35(573.33-67)0.5
3. Toughness is measured by Impact test. = 97.88 kmph
4. Hardness is measured by Abrasion test.
117. Enoscope is used to find
115. The equilibrium cant for a railway curve of (a) Average speed
radius 344 m for an average speed of 60 (b) Time mean speed
kmph is (c) Space mean speed
(a) 6.88 cm (b) 8.24 cm (d) Spot speed
(c) 9.36 cm (d) 5.43 cm 117. Ans: (d)
115. No answer Sol:
Sol: Spot speed studies are conducted by
Radius of curve, R=344m Enoscope and Radar gun.
Avg speed, V=60kmph

118. In cement concrete pavements tie bars are = 22.5cm

provided at (Options are given in ‘mm’ but should be
(a) Warping joints given in ‘cm’)
(b) Longitudinal joints
(c) Contraction joints 121. In normal landing conditions, the aircraft
(d) Expansion joints should come to stop within_______
118. Ans: (b) percentage of the landing distance.
Sol: (a) 50 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90
Tie bars are located at longitudinal joints and 121. Ans: (b)
Dowel bars are provided at Transverse Sol:
(Expansion and Contraction) joints. When aircraft comes to stop within 60% of
total distance it is called as normal landing
119. In an electric railway line, the height of case.
catenary contact above the rail to is
(a) 4.35 m (b) 6.78 m 122. The width of runway pavement for a
(c) 5.70 m (d) 3.12 m runway of 1500 m length (Classified as
119. Ans: (c) Airport Type-B of ICAO) is
(a) 45 m (b) 30 m
120. In a permanent way, the cement concrete (c) 22.5 m (d) 18 m
sleepers of 250 mm width are placed at a 122. Ans: (a)
spacing of 700 mm. Determine the depth of Sol:
ballast Runway Min. Pavement Longitudinal
(a) 15 mm (b) 17.5 mm Type Runway width Gradient
(c) 20 mm (d) 22.5 mm length (%)
120. Ans: (*) A 2100 45 1.5
Sol: B 1500 45 1.5
Width of sleepers, W=250mm C 900 30 1.5
Spacing of sleepers, S=700mm D 750 22.5 2
Min. depth of Ballast, D min = (S-W)/2 E 600 18 2
=(700-250)/2
=450/2
= 225mm

123. Mud Jacking is a type of failure of rigid (c) Cooling the old surface
pavements due to (d) Providing a layer separator
(a) Stagnation of water and hence softening 125. Ans: (b)
of clayey subgrade
(b) The rigid pavement transformed into the 126. The magnetic declination at a place if the
form of mud. magnetic bearing of sun at noon is 35240
(c) Jack used to lift the mud beneath the is
rigid pavement. (a) 35240E (b) 17240W
(d) Mud injected beneath the rigid (c) 720E (d) 720W
pavement 126. Ans: (b)
123. Ans: (a) Sol:
Sol: Magnetic bearing of Sun at Noon is 352o40
When water travels to bottom of Rigid True bearing of Sun at Noon is 180o00
Pavement through Temperature joints, it will TB = MB  Declination
be mixed with water to form a soil slurry or
180o = 352o40  D
juice.
180 – 352o40 =  D
– 172o40  172o40W
124. Which of the following pavement layers
serve the drainage function?
127. The operation of forming the clear image of
(a) Wearing course
the object in the plane of cross hairs is
(b) Subgrade
known as
(c) Granular sub base
(a) Elimination of parallax (b) Focussing
(d) Wet mix macadam
(c) Ranging (d) Traversing
124. Ans: (c)
127. Ans: (a)
125. When a new topping (wearing surface) is

128. Which of the following statements is
proposed on an old wearing surface, which
incorrect?
of the following measure is recommended
(a) Two contour lines having the same
to ensure bond between the old and new
elevation cannot unite and continue as a
layers?
single line.
(a) Heating the old surface
(b) A single contour line cannot split into
(b) Scarifying the old surface
two lines.
(c) A series of straight, parallel and equally 131. A ring type of foundation is constructed
spaced contours represent a steep with internal and external diameter of 8 m
undulating surface. and 12 m respectively. IF thickness of the
(d) Contour lines of different elevations can slab is 10 cm and cost of RCC per cubic
unite to form one line only in the case of meter is Rs 1000, the cost of RCC used in
a vertical cliff. the slab is
128. Ans: (c) (a) Rs 8628 (b) Rs 6280
Sol: (c) Rs 2680 (d) Rs 1000
A series of straight, parallel and equally 131. Ans: (b)
spaces contours represent a plane surface. Sol:
Given:
129. The vertical distance between the line of Internal diameter ‘d’, = 8 m
sight and the horizontal line (V) in an External diameter ‘d2’ = 12 m
inclined sight using a Tacheometer with Slab thickness, ‘t’ = 10 cm
staff held vertical (in standard notations) is Cost or RCC/cubic meter = Rs. 1000
given by: Cost of RCC = ?
(a) V = ks cos . sin  + C sin  8m
(b) V = ks tan 2 + C sin 
(c) V = ks cos . sin  – C sin 
GL
(d) V = ks cot  + C sin  0.1 m
129. Ans: (a)
12 m
130. The operation “plunging” of a theodolite is Net area of Cross section

also known as  2
(d 2  d 12 )
4
(a) Swinging
(b) Transiting 
A net  (12 2  8 2 )
4
(c) Centering
Anet = 62.831 sq.m
(d) Changing face
Volume = Anet  t
130. Ans: (b)
Sol: V = 62.831  0.1 = 6.2831
Plunging or Reversing or Transiting Cost = Rate  Volume

Cost = 1000  6.2831 = 6283.1 = Rs. 6280

132. A fund which is gradually accumulated and Sol:

set aside to reconstruct the property after the Tower Crane: The cranes that are used on
expiry of its period of utility is known as top of tall buildings, high rise buildings are
(a) Annuity (b) Dividend called Tower Cranes.
(c) Mutual fund (d) Sinking fund
132. Ans: (d) 135. In compaction specification if MDD, FDD
Sol: stands for maximum dry density and field
Sinking Fund definition: dry density, the term “Relative
A fund which is saved monthly/regular Compaction” is defined as
interval to replace the property after it’s life (a) MDD + FDD (b) MDD – FDD
time. (c) MDD/FDD (d) FDD/MDD
135. Ans: (d)
133. The system in which the owner acquires
land, prepare drawings & estimation and the 136. When additional works were found
contractor execute the work, operate and necessary during construction, which were
collect fee from the users till the full cost is not contemplated at the beginning the
realized, is known as estimate prepared for such items is known
(a) Rate Contract (b) BOT as
(c) Lumpsum contract (d) Turnkey (a) Preliminary estimate
133. Ans: (b) (b) Complementary estimate
Sol: (c) Supplementary estimate
Definition of BOT: (d) Revised estimate
Build Operate Transfer: Contractor builds 136. Ans: (c)
project, operates for some time & transfer to Sol:
client. Supplementary Estimation:
 ‘Supply’ stands for additional
134. The most commonly used cranes in high  Supplementary estimation stands for
rise construction sites where concentration estimation of additional work,.
of work is in a limited area of the site
(a) Tower cranes (b) Overhead cranes
(c) Crawler cranes (d) Goliat cranes
134. Ans: (a)

137. The standard modular size of common 141. The degree of workability of concrete for
building bricks shall be heavily reinforced sections of slab should be
(a) 190 mm  90 mm  90 mm (a) Very high (b) High
(b) 200 mm  100 mm  100 mm (c) Low (d) Medium
(c) 200 mm  90 mm  90 mm 141. Ans: (d)
(d) 190 mm  100 mm  100 mm Sol:
137. Ans: (a) Clause 7.1(from table), for heavily reinforced
sections in slabs - medium workability.
138. For a beam of cross sectional size 100 mm
 200 mm, the nominal maximum size of 142. The short term static modulus of elasticity
for concrete of grade M25 is
coarse aggregate should not be greater than
(a) 25 GPa (b) 2500 MPa
(a) 10 mm (b) 20 mm
(c) 2.5 GPa (d) 250 MPa
(c) 25 mm (d) 40 mm
142. Ans: (a)
138. Ans: (b)
Sol:
Sol:
As per IS:456-2000, maximum size coarse E c  5000 f ck N/mm2
aggregate ≯ 20 mm  5000 25
= 25000 MPa
139. The pH value of water used for mixing and = 25 GPa
curing of concrete shall Not be less than
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8 143. The target mean strength of concrete mix
139. Ans: (b) for characteristic compressive strength of 40
MPa is
140. The minimum grade of concrete for (a) 45.8 MPa (b) 48.3 MPa
reinforced concrete in sea water and (c) 46.6 MPa (d) 49.9 MPa
exposing to coastal environment is 143. Ans: (b)
(a) M20 (b) M25 Sol:
(c) M30 (d) M35 fm = fck + 1.645
140. Ans: (c) = 40 + 1.645  5
= 48.2 MPa

144. Nominal mix concrete can be used for 147. If the elastic modulus for the material is two
concrete of grade times its shear modulus, then its bulk
(a) M35 (b) M30 modulus is
(c) M25 (d) M20 (a) Equal to elastic modulus
144. Ans: (d) (b) One-third of elastic modulus
(c) Three times of elastic modulus
145. For compressive strength determination the (d) Indeterminate
minimum number of cubes required in a 147. Ans: (b)
sample are Sol:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 E = 2G
145. Ans: (b) E = 2G (1+µ)
Sol: u=0
As per IS:456-2000, clause 15.4 E=3K (12µ)
The test results of the sample shall be the K = E/3
average of the strength of three specimens
The individual variation shall not be more 148. The shape of the shear force diagram for a
than  15% of the average. cantilever beam carrying a uniformly
distributed load throughout its length is
146. What will be the compressive strength of (a) a straight line (b) a parabola
concrete if the flexural tensile strength of (c) a hyperbola (d) an ellipse
concrete is 3.5 MPa? 148. Ans: (a)
(a) 25 MPa (b) 12.5 MPa Sol:
(c) 5 MPa (d) 2.5 MPa
146. Ans: (a)
Sol:
fcr = 3.5
fck = ?
f cr  0.7 f ck
3.5  0.7 f ck
fck = 25 MPa

149. A simply supported beam of rectangular 150. The radius of Mohr’s circle of stress is 35
cross-section 100 mm  200 mm carrying a MPa and minor principle stress is –20 MPa.
concentrated load at mid-span. If the The major principle stress is
maximum shear stress developed in the (a) 15 MPa (b) 50 MPa
beam is 3 MPa, what is the magnitude of (c) 60 MPa (d) 95 MPa
concentrated load? 150. Ans: (b)
(a) 20 kN (b) 40 kN Sol: Radius of Mohr’s circle = maximum shear
(c) 80 kN (d) 160 kN stress
149. Ans: (c) 1   2
35 
Sol: 2
W 1  20
35 
2
1 = 50 MPa
3
Maximum shear stress  max   ave
2
3
3  ave
2
 ave  2 MPa
load
2
c / s area
W
2
2  100  200
W = 80 kN

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TSPSC-AEE- 2017 Questions with Solutions

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09. Ans: (b) 11. Ans: (a)

No. of reactions ‘r’ = 4 M

Dsi = 0 [For beams] B

(b) Deflections of joints only L

10. Ans: (c) M = 7.5 kN-m

the beam is doubled and the other end of the ‘BA’?

beam is changed to hinge? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/3

(a) 7.5 kN-m (b) 20 kN-m (c) –1/6 (d) –1/3

(c) 10 kN-m (d) 5 kN-m 12. Ans: (d)

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Sol: 13. Ans: (b)

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19. What is the minimum area of tension

1 Minimum eccentricity (emin) = ?

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Sol: Effective throat thickness tt = K× S

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Sol: (d) When the flow satisfies the equations of

(a) 4 2 (b) 4 (c) – 8 (d) 2 P V2

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44. In a pipe flow the shear velocity u* is  2Q 2 

related to friction factor f and mean velocity y c   2

y2 Unit quantities are used to predict

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Sol: 54. The Theissen weights of 4 rain gauges A, B,

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Sol: 63. For the irrigation of a crop, the base period

61. Ans: (a) 64. Ans: (b)

65. Provision of a filter and a rock toe in an

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82 5 72. Ans: (a)

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F 82. The true specific gravity (G) of a given soil

(a) 3.6 years (b) 36 years If drain is halved, area becomes

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W = 10% wall towards the backfill.

 22 (d) For a given wall and backfill conditions,

90. Ans: (c) (a) 45 kPa (b) 75 kPa

Sol: (c) 145 kPa (d) 100 kPa

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97. In a laboratory compaction test, it was Sol:

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118. In cement concrete pavements tie bars are = 22.5cm

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125. When a new topping (wearing surface) is

130. The operation “plunging” of a theodolite is Net area of Cross section

Plunging or Reversing or Transiting Cost = Rate  Volume

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132. A fund which is gradually accumulated and Sol:

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