NSEJS Mock Test- I_1

BIG BANG EDGE TEST

October 20 – 2019

FIITJEE
NSEJS MOCK TEST – I
Date: October 07, 2019
QP CODE: 124446
Maximum Marks: 240 Time Duration: 2 hours

Write the question paper code mentioned above on YOUR answer sheet (in the space
provided), otherwise your answer sheet will NOT be assessed.

Instructions to candidates:

1. Use of mobile phones, calculators, smart phones, ipads during examination is STRICTLY PROHIBITED.
2. In addition to this question paper, you are given OMR sheet.
3. On the OMR, make all the entries carefully in the space provided ONLY in BLOCK CAPITALS as well as
darkening the appropriate bubbles. Incomplete / incorrect / carelessly filled information may disqualify your
OMR.
4. On the answer sheet, use only BLUE or BLACK ball point pen for making entries and filling the bubbles.
5. Question paper has 80 multiple choice questions. Each question has four alternatives, out of which only
one is correct.
6. A correct answer carries 3 marks whereas –1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
7. Any rough work should be done only in the space provided.
8. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the space
provided on the OMR sheet.

Answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT ALLOWED.

Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_2

1. How many four – digit numbers (base 10), N = abc d , satisfy all three of the following
conditions?
(i) 4000  N  6000; (ii) N is a multiple of 5, (iii) 3  b  c  6
(A) 10 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 36

2. The addition below is incorrect. The display can be made correct by changing one digit d, wherever it
occurs, to another digit e. Find the sum of d and e
742586
+8 2 9 4 3 0
__________
12 1 2 0 16
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

1
3. Five points on a circle are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 in
clockwise order. A bug jumps in a clockwise direction
from one point to another around the circle; if it is on an
odd – numbered point, it moves one point, and if it is on
an even – numbered point, it moves two points. If the bug 5 2
begins on point 5, after 1995 jumps it will be on which
point
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 4 3
o
4. Two rays with common endpoint O form a 30 angle. Point A lies on one ray, point B on the other
ray, and AB = 1. The maximum possible length of OB is
1+ 3
(A) 1 (B) (C) 3 (D) 2
2
5. If a, b and c are three (not necessarily different) numbers chosen randomly and with replacement
from the set 1,2,3,4,5, the probability that ab + c is even is
2 59 1 64
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 125 2 125
6. A pentagon is formed by cutting a triangular corner from a rectangular piece of paper. The five sides
of the pentagon have lengths 13, 19, 20, 25 and 31, although this is not necessarily their order around
the pentagon. The area of the pentagon is
(A) 459 (B) 600 (C) 680 (D) 745

7. Six numbers from a list of nine integers are 7, 8, 3, 5, 9 and 5. The largest possible value of the
median of all nine numbers in this list is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_3

8. How many line segments have both their endpoints located at the vertices of a given cube?
(A) 12 (B) 15 (C) 24 (D) 28

9. The sum of seven integers is –1. What is the maximum number of the seven integers that can be
larger than 13?
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

10. A parabola has vertex at (4, –5) and has two x intercepts, one positive and one negative. If this
parabola is the graph of y = ax + bx + c , which of a, b and c must be positive?
2

(A) only a (B) only b (C) only c (D) a and b only

11. How many triangles have area 10 and vertices at (–5, 0), (5, 0), and (5cos ,5sin ) for some
angle ?
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

12. What is the sum of the digits of the decimal form of the product 21999  52001?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 10 (D) 15

13. At the end of 1994 Walter was half as old as his grandmother. The sum of the years in which they
were born is 3844. How old will Walter be at the end of 1999?
(A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 53 (D) 55

14. All even numbers from 2 to 98 inclusive, except those ending in 0, are multiplied together. What is the
rightmost digit (the units digit) of the product?
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

15. A point is chosen at random from within a circular region. What is the probability that the point is
closer to the center of the region than it is to the boundary of the region?
1 1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 3 2 3
16. Let J, S and O be distinct positive integers such that the product J . S . O = 2001. What is the largest
possible value of the sum J + S + O?
(A) 23 (B) 55 (C) 99 (D) 671

o
17. An arc of 45 on circle A has the same length as an arc of 30o on circle B. What is the ratio of the
area of circle A to the area of circle B?
4 2 5 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 3 6 2
(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_4

18. Suppose A, B and C are three numbers for which 1001C − 2002A = 4004 and
1001B + 3003A = 5005 . What is the average of 3 numbers A, B and C?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9

19. Both roots of the quadratic equation x2 − 63x + k = 0 are prime numbers. What is the number of
possible values of k?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

20. Equilateral ABC has side length 2, M is the A

midpoint of AC, and C is the midpoint of BD .

What is the area of CDM ?
M
2
(A)
2
3
(B)
4
B C D
3
(C)
2
(D) 1

21. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial speed vo. The distance and displacement
4v o
respectively of the stone in time is
3g
4v 02 5v 02 5v 02 4v 02 5v 02 2v 02 4v 02 v 02
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
9g 9g 9g 9g 9g g 3g 2g

22. In the figure shown the minimum value of F to be applied

perpendicular to the inclined so that the block of mass 10 kg does  = 0.5
not slides and remains in contact with inclined plane is
(A) 0 (B) 40 N
(C) 120 N (D) 200 N 0
37 F

23. If three particles each of mass M are placed at the three corners of a equilateral triangle of side a, the
forces exerted by this system on another particle of mass M placed (i) at the mid point of a side and
(ii) at the centre of the triangle are respectively
4GM2 4GM2 GM2 GM2
(A) 0, 0 (B) ,0 (C) 0, (D) 3 , 2
3a2 3a2 a2 a
(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_5

24. A body of mass m is falling freely through a height h from the top of a tower. The velocity just before
3
touching the ground is gh . The work done by air drag is
2
mgh mgh
(A) − (B) + (C) Zero (D) None
4 4

25. A small ball of density  is immersed in a liquid of density ( > ) to a depth h and then released.
The height above the surface of water up to which the ball will jump is
h     h
(A) (B)  − 1 h (C)  1 − h (D)
     

26. A small stream lined body with relative density 1 falls into air from a height h1 on the surface of a
liquid of relative density 2 (if 2 > 1). Find the time of immersion of body into liquid.
2 + 1 2h1 2 − 1 2h1 1 2h1 1 2h1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 g 1 g 2 + 1 g 2 − 1 g

27. A stone is dropped in a well of depth 500 m and a sound is heard after 45/4 seconds. Then speed of
sound is (if g = 10 m/s2):
(A) 340 m/s (B) 350 m/s (C) 380 m/s (D) 400 m/s

28. A current of 2 A flows in a system of conductors shown in the figure. The potential difference
VB – VD will be
B

2 3

2A 2A
A C

3 2

D
(A) –1 V (B) 2 V (C) 1 V (D) –2 V

29. A proton of energy 8 eV is moving in a circular path in a uniform magnetic field. The energy of an
alpha particle moving in the same magnetic field and along the same path will be
(A) 4 eV (B) 2 eV (C) 8 eV (D) 6 eV

30. A small bar magnet falling vertically downward from certain height
through a conducting coil shown in figure. The acceleration of bar
magnet will be
(A) Equal to acceleration due to gravity
(B) Greater than acceleration due to gravity
(C) Less than acceleration due to gravity
(D) First less than then greater than acceleration due to gravity

(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_6

31. The half life period of radioactive element is 14 hours. The fraction of the radioactive element that
disintegrates in 56 hours is
(A) 0.125 (B) 0.0625 (C) 0.9025 (D) 0.9375

32. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other as 2 3
o m B
shown in the figure. A light ray is incident at angle of 30 at
point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides
0.2m
with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the 30o
ray undergoes reflections (excluding the first one) before it
comes out is A
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 24
4
33. Light takes 8 min 20sec to reach from sun on earth. If whole space was filled with water
3
then time taken by light to reach earth will be
(A) 8 min 20 sec (B) 11 min 6 sec (C) 13 min 10 sec (D) 6 min 11 sec

34. A thin rod of length f/3 lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f. One end of its
magnified image touches an end of the rod. The length of the image is
1 1
(A) f (B) f (C) 2f (D) f
2 4

35. A person who can see things most clearly at a distance of 10 cm, requires spectacles to enable to see
clearly things at a distance of 30 cm. What should be the focal length of the spectacles?
(A) 15 cm (concave) (B) 15 cm (convex) (C) 10 cm (D) 0

36. Four charges equal to −Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If
the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(A) −
Q
4
(
1+ 2 2 ) (B)
Q
4
(
1+ 2 2 ) (C) −
Q
2
(
1+ 2 2 ) (D)
Q
2
(
1+ 2 2 )
37. An electric charge 10−3 C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of X – Y coordinate system. Two points A and
B are situated at ( )
2, 2 and (2, 0), respectively. The potential difference between the points A and
B will be
(A) 9 V (B) zero (C) 2 V (D) 4.5 V

38. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10 V and −4 V, respectively. The work done in
moving 100 electrons from P to Q is
(A) −19 × 10−17 J (B) 9.60 × 10−17 J (C) −2.24 × 10−16 J (D) 2.24 × 10−16 J

39. A thin metal square plate has length . When it is heated from 0°C to 100°C, its length increases by
1%. What is the percentage increase in the area of the plate?
(A) 2.00% (B) 2.02% (C) 2.03% (D) 2.01%

40. How many grams of ice at 0°C should be mixed with 240 g of water at 40°C so that the ice completely
melts and the final temperature is of 0°C?
(A) 120 g (B) 240 g (C) 360 g (D) 480 g
(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_7

41. The density of a gas at 27oC and 1 atm is d. pressure remaining constant at which of the following
temperature will its density become 0.75 d?
(A) 20oC (B) 30oC (C) 400 K (D) 300 K

42. A balloon filled with ethyne is pricked with a sharp point and quickly dropped in a tank of H2 gas under
identical conditions. After a while the balloon will
(A) shrink (B) enlarge
(C) completely collapse (D) remain unchanged in size

43. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is

h h h
(A) (B) Zero (C) (D) 2
4 2 2

44. Which of the following is not a property of x-ray?

(A) the radiation can ionize gas (B) it cause ZnS to fluorescence
(C) deflected by electric and magnetic fields (D) have wavelength shorter than ultraviolet ray

45. Isoelectronic species among the following are

(I) CH3+ (II) H3O+
(III) NH3 (IV) CH3−
(A) I & II (B) III & IV (C) I & II (D) II, III & IV

46. For which of the following, the radius will be same as for hydrogen atom having n = 1?
(A) He+, n = 2 (B) Li2+, n = 2 (C) Be3+, n = 2 (D) Li2+, n = 3

47. The value of X and Y in the following redox reaction are

XCl2 + 6 OH− ⎯⎯→ ClO3− + YCl− + 3H2O
(A) X = 2, Y = 4 (B) X = 5, Y = 3 (C) X = 3, Y = 5 (D) X = 4, Y = 2
48. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3PO2, H3PO4, H3PO3 & H4P2O6 is
(A) H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 (B) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6
(C) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4 (D) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6

−
49. In the reaction, As2S3 + NO3 ⎯⎯→ AsO34− + NO2 + S the element oxidized is/are
(A) As (B) S (C) both S & N (D) both As & S

50. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following group 13 element is
(A) Al < Ga < In < Tl (B) Ga < Al < In < Tl (C) Al < In < Ga < Tl (D) Al < Ga < Tl < In

51. The increasing order of polarizing power is

(A) Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ (B) Mg2+ < Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+
(C) Be2+ < K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ (D) K+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+

52. The correct order of second ionization potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen & fluorine is
(A) C > N > O > F (B) O > N > F > C (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N > C
(Space for rough work)

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_8

53. The correct order of acidic nature is

(A) HClO4 > H2SO4 > H3PO4 (B) HClO4 > H3PO4 > H2SO4
(C) H2SO4 > HClO4 > H3PO4 (D) H2SO4 > H3PO4 > HClO4

54. Among the colloids of cheese(C), milk(M) and smoke(S), the correct combination of the dispersed
phase and dispersion medium respectively is:
(A) C: liquid in solid, M: liquid in solid, S: solid in gas
(B) C: liquid in solid, M: liquid in liquid, S: solid in gas
(C) C: solid in liquid, M: liquid in liquid, S: gas in solid
(D) C: solid in liquid, M: solid in liquid, S: solid in gas

55. The weakest base among the following is

(A) H– (B) CH3− (C) CH3O– (D) Cl–

56. Soaps essentially form a colloidal solution in water and remove the greasy matter by
(A) adsorption (B) emulsification (C) coagulation (D) absorption

57. The haemoglobin from the red blood corpuscles of most mammals contains approximately 0.34% of
iron by mass. The molar mass of haemoglobin as 67,200. The number of iron atom in each molecule
of haemoglobin is (at mass of Fe = 56)
(A) 2 NA (B) 3 NA (C) 4 NA (D) 5 NA

58. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorus acid(H 3PO3) the volume of
0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is
(A) 60 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 40 mL (D) 10 mL

59. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralize 25 mL of NaOH solution. The amount of NaOH is
50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide solution is
(A) 4 g (B) 10 g (C) 20 g (D) 40 g

60. The reaction that does not define calcination is

 
(A) Fe2O3 .xH2O ⎯⎯→ Fe2O3 + xH2O (B) 2Cu2S + O2 ⎯⎯→ 2Cu2O + 2SO2
 
(C) ZnCO3 ⎯⎯→ ZnO + CO2 (D) CaCO3 .MgCO3 ⎯⎯→ CaO + MgO + CO2

61. The Golgi complex plays a major role

(A) in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy
(B) in digesting proteins and carbohydrates
(C) as energy transferring organelles
(D) in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

62. Metagenesis refers to

(A) the presence of different morphic forms
(B) alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
(C) occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
(D) the presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(Space for rough work)

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63. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis
of animals cells. If APC is defective in a human cells, which of the following is expected to occur?
(A) Chromosomes will not condense (B) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(C) Chromosomes will not segregate (D) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur

64. Simple epithelium is a tissue in which the cells are

(A) hardened and provide support to the organ
(B) cemented directly to one another to form a single layer
(C) continuously dividing to provide form to a cell
(D) loosely connected to one another to form an irregular organ
65. Mutations can be induced with
(A) IAA (B) ethylene
(C) gamma radiations (D) infra red radiations

66. Montreal protocol aims at

(A) reduction of ozone depleting substances (B) biodiversity conservation
(C) control of water pollution (D) control of CO2 emission

67. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?

(A) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(B) These are produced in thyroid
(C) There are three main types – cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(D) These originate in thymus

68. Identify the likely organisms I, II, III and IV in the food web shown below.

I II III IV
(A) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
(B) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(C) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
(D) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon

69. Which one of the following is not characteristic of phylum–Annelida?

(A) closed circulatory system (B) Segmentation
(C) Pseudocoelom (D) Ventral nerve cord
70. Bryophytes are depended on water because
(A) archegonium has to remain filled with water for fertilisation
(B) water is essential for their vegetative propagation
(C) the sperms can easily reach up to egg in the archegonium
(D) none of these

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 NSEJS Mock Test- I_10

71. The carbon dioxide acceptor in Calvin cycle/C3-plants is

(A) Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP) (B) Ribulose 1, 5-Biphosphate (RuBP)
(C) Phosphoglyceric Acid (PGA) (D) Ribulose Monophosphate (RMP)
72. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chloroplast and mitochondria is based on
(A) membrane potential (B) accumulation of Na+ ions
+
(C) accumulation of K ions (D) proton gradient
73. The closing and opening of the leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to
(A) thermonastic movement (B) hydrotrophic movement
(C) seismonastic movement (D) phototrophic movement
74. Rennin acts on
(A) milk changing casein into calcium paracasseinate at 7.2 – 8.2 pH
(B) protein in stomach
(C) fat in intestine
(D) milk protein casein into calcium paracaseinate at 1–3 pH

75. Bundle of His is a network of

(A) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(B) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(C) muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
(D) muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
76. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(A) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(B) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO 3
(C) Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(D) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
77. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the
(A) Ovulation →
secretion of estrogen.
Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation
(B) Proliferative phase →
of Graffian follicle.
Secretory phase and increased secretion of
(C) Development of corpus luteum →
progesterone.
Breakdown of myometrium and ovum which is not
(D) Menstruation →
fertilized.

78. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene . It has three alleles A, B and i. Since there
are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possible. How many phenotypes are possible?
How many phenotypes can occur?
(A) Three (B) One (C) Four (D) Two
79. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
(A) result in translation
(B) polymerise in 5’ to 3’ direction and forms lagging strand
(C) prove conservative nature of DNA replication
(D) all of the above
80. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution?
Convergent Evolution Divergent Evolution

(A) Eyes of Octopus and mammals Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates

(B) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Wings of butterflies and birds

(C) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterfly and birds

(D) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Eyes of Octopus and mammals

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