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Questions 1‐4 are for objectives 3 and 4 at the analysis/application level.
1. How many bacteria are present after 51 generations if a culture is inoculated with 1 bacterium?
N0= 1 cell
n= 51 generations
Nt= ?
Nt= N0 x 2n
Nt= 1 cell x 251= 2.25 x 1015 cells
2. If in 8 hours an exponentially growing cell population increases from 4.5 x 106 cells/mL to 5.8 x 108 cells/mL, what is the growth rate and
generation time for this organism?
g? k?
t= 8 hr N0= 4.5 x 106 cells/mL Nt= 5.8 x 108 cells/mL
k= log Nt – log N0 = log 5.8x108 – log 4.5x106 = 8.76‐6.65 = 2.11 = 0.876 generations/hour
0.301t 0.301(8 hr) 2.408 2.408
g= 1/k= 1/0.876= 1.14 hours/generation
3. One milliliter of a bacterial suspension containing 5 X 103 cells/mL is transferred to sterile nutrient broth. They grow for 32 hours, dividing
a total of 789 times. What is the final number of cells?
Nt = ?
Nt= N0 x 2n
t= 32 hr N0= 5 x 103 cells/mL n= 789
Nt= 5 x 103 cells/mL x 2789= 1.63 x 10241 cells
4. Over the span of 10 hours, an exponentially growing cell population increases from 2 x 103 cells/mL to 2 x 107 cells/mL, what are the
generation time and number of generations that have occurred?
g? k?
t= 10 hr N0= 2 x 103 cells/mL Nt= 2 x 107 cells/mL
k= log Nt – log N0 = log 2x107 – log 2x103 = 4 = 1.3289 generations/hour
0.301t 0.301(10 hr) 3.01
g= 1/k= 1/1.3289= 0.75 hours/generation= 45 min/gen
5. In 2001, endospores of Bacillus anthracis, the causative agent of anthrax, were sent to government officials and news agencies via the mail.
In response, the US Postal Service began to irradiate mail with UV light. Was this an effective strategy? Why or why not? (6‐8;U)
Your answer should include something along these lines:
No because species in the genus Bacillus form spores and spores are resistant to UV light.
6. In considering the cell structure of prokaryotes compared with that of eukaryotes, propose one possible reason for side effects in humans
due to treatment of bacterial infections with protein synthesis inhibitors. Hint: think back to Unit 1 on how eukaryotic cells are theorized to
have evolved. (6‐9; E)
Your answer should include something along these lines:
Protein synthesis occurs by the ribosome and we know that humans have 80S ribosomes and bacteria have 70S
ribosomes so these shape differences should mean that the human’s 80S ribosomes wouldn’t be affected by the antibiotics.
However, we know that based on the SET theory the mitochondria evolved from prokaryotes and thus the mitochondria have
70S ribosomes. So the side effects of protein inhibitors in humans could be due to the drug inhibiting mitochondria ribosomes.
(6‐5; U) 1. Shown are three agar tubes, which have been inoculated with different bacteria and incubated for
48 hours. Which bacteria should grow in an aerobic environment (assuming all other metabolic
requirements are satisfied)?
a. The bacteria in Tube 1 d. Bacteria in 1 and 2
b. The bacteria in Tube 2 e. Bacteria in 2 and 3
c. The bacteria in Tube 3
(6‐5; K) 2. Which term best describes the organism growing in Tube B in Question #1?
a. psychrophile d. obligate anaerobe
b. halophile e. obligate aerobe
c. facultative anaerobe
(6‐5; E) 3. Assume you inoculated 100 facultatively anaerobic cells onto nutrient agar and incubated the plate aerobically. You then inoculated
100 cells of the same species onto nutrient agar and incubated the second plate anaerobically. After incubation for 24 hours, there are
a. More colonies on the aerobic plate.
b. More colonies on the anaerobic plate.
c. The same number of colonies on both plates. (no matter what you started with 100 cells= 100 colonies; facultative
anaerobes can grow in both aerobic and anaerobic environments; we would expect the aerobically grown colonies to
possibly be bigger)
(6‐5; U) 4. Which temperature would most likely kill a mesophile (not just slow growth)?
a. ‐50C d. 37C
b. 0C e. 60C (heat kills, cold slows or stops growth)
c. 9C
Use the following paragraph to answer questions 5‐6.
You’ve discovered a new organism and begin testing it to gain more insight. The organism was found growing in hot water springs containing high
amounts of sulfur and sodium chloride. When studying in the lab, you notice the organism grows better when in sunlight at 25C than in the
incubator at 37C.
(6‐5; A) 5. This organism is likely a
a. Mesophile. d. hyperthermophile.
b. Psychrophile. e. cannot tell from the tests performed so far.
c. Thermophile.
(6‐5; A) 6. This organism likely
a. Requires high osmotic pressure to survive. (Due to sodium chloride salt environment)
b. Does not required high osmotic pressure to survive.
(6‐8; U) 7. Which of the following does not kill endospores?
a. Autoclaving c. Ultraviolet radiation
b. Incineration d. All of these kill endospores
(6‐9; A) 8. Chemical germicides
a. may react irreversibly with proteins/enzymes.
b. may react with cytoplasmic membranes or viral envelopes.
c. may be disinfecting or even sterilizing.
d. are sensitive to dilution factor, time of contact, and temperature of use.
e. All of the choices are true.
(6‐10; U) 9. Beta‐lactamases
a. bind to penicillin‐binding proteins.
b. bind to peptides.
c. prevent the linking of glycan chains in peptidoglycan.
d. break the beta‐lactam ring.
(6‐10; E) 10. Why would co‐administration of a bacteriostatic drug interfere with the effects of penicillin?
a. Since most bacteriostatic drugs are produced from bacteria, but penicillin is produced from mold, the two drugs are
incompatible with each other.
b. A bacteriostatic drug produces interference in the ability of a bacterial cell to take in compounds from the outside
environment. Penicillin must be taken in by the cell in order to have its effect, so this would directly inhibit it.
c. Penicillin interferes with cell wall production/stabilization by cross‐linking of peptidoglycan. As such, it only works when the
cells are actively replicating and MAKING new peptidoglycan. A bacteriostatic drug works by shutting down replication,
holding the cells "static." This would interfere with the mode of action required by the penicillin.
d. The bacteriostatic drugs would bind directly to the penicillin, preventing both its uptake and function within the bacterial cell.
(6‐10; K) 11. Which of the following drugs target the ribosome?
a. Beta‐lactams
b. Macrolides
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Aminoglycosides
e. Options 1 and 3
f. Options 2 and 4
(6‐10; U) 12. All members of the penicillin family have
a. Phenolic rings.
b. Sulfanilic rings.
c. Beta‐lactam rings.
(6‐10; U) 13. In a hospital setting when spores are present, which chemical germicide should be used?
a. Alcohols
b. Ammonium compounds
c. Metal‐based antimicrobials
d. Chlorines
e. Phenolics
(6‐11; U) 14. Will the antibiotic penicillin be successful treatment for an Influenza infection? Why or why not?
a. Yes, the penicillin will stop the virus from replicating by targeting the peptidoglycan.
b. No, the penicillin targets peptidoglycan which is not found in the Influenza virus.
c. Possibly, some versions of Influenza viruses have peptidoglycan so the penicillin will inhibit those versions.
(6‐10; A) 15. In reference to the growth curve, when would adding an antibiotic be most effective?
a. Lag
b. Exponential
c. Stationary
d. Death
UNIT 7
H3C‐CO‐COO‐ + CoA + NAD+ H3C‐CO‐S‐CoA + NADH H+ + CO2
1. In the above reaction, what is happening to the oxidation state of the carbon containing reactant molecule turning into CO2? How do you
know? (7‐3; A)
Your answer should include something like this
NAD is reduced to NADH because it gained a H so that means the other half of the reaction must be oxidized.
2. In reference to the Carbon containing reactant molecule turning into CO2, is this an anabolic or catabolic reaction? How can you tell? (7‐1;
A)
Your answer should include something like this
This reaction is catabolic because we are making the carbon molecule smaller as it becomes CO2. Also, we produced an
energy related molecule which means energy was released so that goes with catabolic reactions.
3. An antibiotic was discovered to inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase. How many ATP would be produced per glucose after the addition of the
antibiotic? (7‐9; E)
Your answer should include something like this
Pyruvate dehydrogenase performs the chemical reaction where pyruvate become acetyl‐CoA, this means that the
pyruvate oxidation step and citric acid cycle steps do not occur. So all that happens is glycolysis‐ where we make 2 NADH’s and 2
ATP total. Those NADH’s convert into ATP: 2 NADH’s x 3 ATP= 6 ATP‐ then in total we make 6 + 2 = 8 total ATP.
(7‐1; U) 1. Examine the metabolic pathway: A B C D
Which describes Compound A?
a. reactant d. endergonic
b. intermediate e. catabolic
c. product
(7‐2; U) 2. Which describes the energy‐releasing reaction involving ATP?
a. It is exergonic. d. It is catabolic.
b. It produces ADP+Pi e. All of these are true.
c. It can be coupled to synthesis reactions.
(7‐1,4,12; E) 3. Nitrogen fixation occurs by the following process:
N2 + 8H+ + 8e– + 16ATP 2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
Based on this equation, nitrogen fixation
a. is highly exergonic. d. stores less than 117 Kcal of energy.
b. is performed only by chemotrophs. e. requires more than 117 Kcal of energy to store 117 Kcal.
c. is performed only by heterotrophs.
(7‐1; A) 4. Examine the reaction below.
Glutamate + NH3 + ATP Glutamine + ADP + Pi
With respect to the glutamate and glutamine, this reaction is:
a. endergonic. d. catabolic and exergonic
b. exergonic. e. anabolic and endergonic (energy is a reactant)
c. anabolic.
(7‐1; E) 5. Examine the reaction below. (The circled “P” is a phosphate group.)
H P O H O O
H
Phosphoenolpyruvat e Py ruvic Acid
With respect to the phosphoenolpyruvate and pyruvic acid, this reaction is:
a. endergonic. d. catabolic and exergonic. (energy is a product)
b. exergonic. e. anabolic and endergonic.
c. anabolic.
(7‐1, 3; E) 6. Examine the reaction below.
Glucose 6‐phosphate + NADP+ 6‐Phosphogluconic Acid + NADPH + H+
With respect to the conversion of Glucose 6‐phosphate to 6‐Phosphogluconic acid, which is true?
a. Glucose 6‐phosphate is being oxidized.
b. The reaction is endergonic.
c. Glucose 6‐phosphate has less energy than 6‐phosphogluconic acid.
d. “a” and “b” are true.
e. “b” and “c” are true.
(7‐3; E) 7. Examine the reaction below.
H
C7 H15 CH 2OH + NAD+ C7 H15 C O + NADH + H+