Chapter 1: ANS: 5. No. of spinal nerves arising from

each segment of spinal cord :

Physiology of ANS: a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
1. Nervous system is divided
d. 4
functionally into
a. Somatic and central
6. All of the following is controlled
b. Somatic and peripheral
by autonomic nervous system :
c. Somatic and Autonomic
a. Heart
d. Peripheral and Autonomic
b. Viscera
c. Moving hands
2. Choose one odd out word :
d. Glands
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebrum
7. Unit of function is :
c. Cerebellum
a. Reflex action
d. Spinal cord
b. Neuron
c. All of the above
3. No of segments of spinal cord :
d. Non of the above
a. 31
b. 32 True and false Questions:

c. 33
8. Ganglia aren't surrounded by any
d. 34
capsule
9. Autonomic ganglia are arised from
4. Which parts of spinal cord has
cranial and spinal origin
most number of segments :
10. Cranio spinal ganglia are larger
a. Cervical
than Autonomic ganglia
b. Thoracic
c. Lumber
11. Ganglion cells of Craniospinal
d. Sacral
ganglia are
e. Coccygeal
a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Dipolar
  

d. Multipolar d. Thick Capsule surrounding it

all
12. Septa in the craniospinal ganglia 17. Pons Varolli is a part of :
are ____ to the capsule a. Cerebrum
a. Parallel b. Cerebellum
b. Perpendicular c. Brain stem
c. Scattered d. Non of the above
d. Non of the above
18. Which of them has motor function
13. Nerve fibres in Craniospinal ??
ganglia are : a. Autonomic ganglia
a. Unipolar b. Craniospinal ganglia
b. Myelinated
c. Non myelinated 19. Where does synapse lie?
d. Dipolar a. Bet ganglion and
postganglionic fibres
14. Shape of autonomic ganglia : b. Bet preganglionic fibres and
a. Oval ganglion
b. Spherical c. Bet ganglion cells
c. Rounded d. In craniospinal ganglia
d. Polyhedral
15. All of the following are present in 20. Craniospinal ganglia exists in :
the cranio spinal ganglia except a. All cranial nerves
a. Synapse b. Spinal nerves as dorsal ganglia
b. Nerve fibers c. Spinal nerves as ventral ganglia
c. Ganglion cells d. All of the above
d. Capsule
21. Stimulus is any ___ change in the
16. All of the following are present in environment
the autonomic ganglia except : a. Internal
a. Synapse b. External
b. Nerve fibers c. All of the above
c. Ganglion cells
  

d. Non of the above a. Anterior horn cell

b. Lateral horn cell
22. What happens after stretching of c. Medial horn cell
the urinary bladder ? d. Posterior horn cell
a. Contraction of bladder and 27. Receptor of autonomic reflex is
Relaxation of sphincter a. Skin
b. Contraction of bladder and b. Viscus of organ
sphincter c. All of the above
c. Relaxation of bladder and d. None of the above
contraction of sphincter
d. Relaxation of both 28. Efferent in somatic arc is __
neuron
23. All of the following are acting by a. 1
autonomic reflex except : b. 2
a. Viscera c. 3
b. Skeletal muscle d. 4
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Gland 29. All of the following are effector in
autonomic except:
st
24. 1 component of reflex arc is a. Gland
a. Effector b. Plain muscles
b. Efferent c. Skeletal muscles
c. Afferenet d. Cradiac muscle
d. Receptor
30. Synapse between axon and cell
25. All of the following are effector body is :
except : a. Axodendretic synapse
a. Gland b. Axosomatic synapse
b. Skeletal Muscle c. Axo-axonic synapse
c. Skin d. Dendrodendretic synapse
d. Smooth muscle
True or False

26. Center of somatic reflex is :

  

31. Inhibitory synapse is one in which 39. Order of spinal sacral segments
neurotransmitter hyperpolarize from which parasympathetic
postsynaptic membrane nerves originate:
32. Electrical synapse is most common a. 1st
33. Chemical synapse is specialized in b. 3rd
movement of ion from one cell to c. 5th
another d. None of the above
34. Presynaptic membrane is electron 40. In sympathetic nervous system ,
lucent preganglionic cells rely on ganglia
35. Synaptic cleft is about 20 mm near to
36. Postsynaptic membrane lies on a. Brain
target neuron b. Spinal cord
c. Effector
37. Ion responsible for mediating d. Receptor
function of chemical synapse
a. Calcium 41. Site of rely of parasympathetic
b. Phosphorous nerve fibres is :
c. Potassium a. Lateral ganglion
d. Sodium b. Collateral ganglion
c. Terminal ganglion
38. Sympathetic Nervous system d. All of the above
originate from :
a. Ventral root of Thoracic spinal 42. All of the following may be site of
segments rely for sympathetic preganglionic
b. Ventral root of lower lumber fibre except :
segments of spinal cord a. Lateral ganglion
c. Dorsal root of thoracic spinal b. Collateral ganglion
segments c. Terminal ganglion
d. Dorsal root of upper lumber d. Non of the above
spinal segments
43. Which of them in which
presynaptic nerves synapse with
more postsynaptic nerves

a. Sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic
True or false:
44. Autonomic ganglia are site of rely
of preganglionic nerves coming
from PNS
45. Preganglionic fibres rely once
though it can pass through much
ganglia
46. Sympathetic nervous system
originates from brain and sacral
segments of the spinal cord
47. Lateral sympathetic chain lie
between sympathetic chain and
organ
48. Ganglions are aggregation of
nerve cell bodies outside CNS
49. Parasympathetic nerves originate
st
from 1 sacral spinal segment
50. Parasympathetic and sympathetic
are considered as somatic nervous
system
51. Parasympathetic nervous system
forms craniosacral outflow
52. Craniospinal ganglia are sites of
rely of autonomic nerves
53. Increasing power of lens is the
function of…….
a. 3th cranial nerve
b. 7th cranial nerve
c. 9th cranial nerve
d. 10th cranial nerve
54. All the following are functions of
the facial nerve except:
a. Secretory and vasodilator to the
lacrimal glands to cause shedding
of tears.
b. Secretory and vasodilator to the
blood vessel of the nasopharyngeal
glands and soft palate.
c. Secretory and vasodilator to the
sublingual and submaxillary
salivary glands to give copious
watery saliva rich in electrolytes.
d. Vasodilatation of the blood vessels
in the anterior 1/3 of the tongue
55. The postganglionic fibres of 9th
cranial nerve supply the parotid
gland and posterior 2/3 of the
tongue
a. True
b. False
56. The preganglionic neurons of the
vagus nerve originate in the dorsal
motor nucleus of the vagus in the
medulla oblongata.
a. True
b. False
57. The postganglionic fibres of the
vagus nerve innervate all of the
following except:
a. Heart
b. Lungs
c. Liver
  

d. Bladder 62. Sacral autonomic nerves provide

motor supply to all of the
58. All of the following are functions following except
of the vagus supplying the heart a. wall of the distal half of the colon
except b. wall of the rectum
a. Inhibition of all properties of the c. the internal anal sphincter
heart
b. Reduction of the 02 consumption 63. the wall of urinary bladder
of the cardiac muscle. ………… is called nervous
c. Vasodilatation of coronary erigens.
vessels a. Facial nerve
d. Inhibition of conductivity b. Vagus nerve
c. Sacral autonomic nerve
59. Bronchoconstriction is one of the d. Glossopharygeal
effects of the vagud nerve on the
lungs 64. Adrenergic autonomic fibers
a. True secrete ……… at their
b. False terminations
a. Acetylcholine
60. The vagus nerve provides motor
b. Norepinephrine
supply to all of the following
except: c. Both of them
a. Smooth muscles of stomach d. None of them
b. Smooth muscles of small
intestine 65. Adrenergic fibers include all the
c. the sphincters
synapses of all autonomic ganglia
d. proximal half of large intestine
a. True
smooth muscles
b. False

61. Proximal half of the colon

supplied by ……. While the distal 66. Cholinergic fibers supply
half supplied by …………. preganglionic fibres supplying the
a. Vagus , sacral autonomic adrenal medulla.
b. Sacral autonomic , vagus
a. True
c. Facial , vagus
b. False
d. Vagus , facial
  

67. Preganglionic nerve endings that 70. Acetylcholine is synthesized by

innervate sweat glands and blood …………. and hydrolysed into
vessels in the skeletal muscles are choline and acelic acid
cholinergic fibers by…………
a. True a. Choline acetyl transferase ,
b. False cholinesterase
b. Cholinesterase , choline acetyl
68. Nicotinic receptors are found in transferase
all of the following sites except:
a. The synapses between the pre- 71. Pseudocholinesterase destroys
and postganglionic neurons of acetylcholine in the cholinergic
both the sympathetic and nerve terminals
parasympathetic systems. a. True
b. In the membranes of skeletal b. False
muscle fibres at the
neuromuscular junction. 72. The transmitters in sympathetic
c. Supra-renal medulla. nervous system are
d. Sweat glands and blood vessels catecholamines, chiefly
of skeletal muscle innervated by norepinephrine and epinephrine
postganglionic cholinergic a. True
neurons of the sympathetic b. False
system.
73. The starting substance for
69. All of the following are nicotine- noradrenaline synthesis is……….
like action of acetylcholine except: a. Glycine
a. Stimulation of the autonomic b. Alanine
ganglia. c. Tyrosine
b. stimulation of all d. Lysine
postganglionic
parasympathetic endings 74. Adrenaline is synthesized by
c. Secretion of adrenaline and methylation of noradrenaline in
noradrenaline at adrenal the adrenal cortex
medulla. a. True
d. Contraction of skeletal muscles b. False
due to stimulation at the motor
end plates. 75. All of the following are true
concerning the fate of adrenaline
except:
  

a. Diffusion away from the nerve a. True

endings into the surroundings b. False
body fluids and thence into the 80. Noradrenaline has to a great
blood. extent more metabolic effect than
b. Reuptake into the adrenergic adrenaline.
nerve endings themselves by an a. True
passive transport process. b. False
c. Oxidation by monoamine
oxidase enzyme 81. Adrenaline has more inhibitory
d. Methylation by catechol-O- effects on the smooth muscles of
methyl tarnsferase the bronchioles and intestinal
wall. So it is more useful in the
76. Alpha adrenergic receptors treatment of bronchial asthma.
responding to noradrenaline and a. True
adrenaline, but they have higher b. False
affinity for adrenaline
a. True 82. The autonomic nervous system is
b. False
activated mainly by centres
located in ………..
77. Beta 1 receptors are present in the
smooth muscle of: bronchioles, a. the spinal cord
gastrointestinal tract, urinary b. brain stem
bladder while Beta2 receptors they c. Hypothalamus
are present chiefly in the heart d. All of the above
a. True
b. False 83. Spinal cord controls all of the
following except …….
78. Adrenaline has a greater effect on a. Micturition
cardiac stimulation than b. Defection
noradrenaline. c. Arterial blood pressure
a. True regulation
b. False d. Relaxation of the urinary
sphincter
79. Adrenaline causes only weak
constriction of the blood vessels, in 84. Brain stem controls all of the
comparison with the much following except………..
stronger constriction caused by a. arterial blood pressure
noradrenaline. b. heart rate

c. glandular secretion in the
gastrointestinal tract
d. none of the above
85. Medulla oblongata contains
centers of …………
a. centres for swallowing, coughing
and vomiting
b. medullary centres for the
autonomic reflex control of heart
circulation
c. centre of gastrointestinal
peristalsis
d. all of the above
86. The pons contains centres for
pupillary reflexes and
accommodation for near vision.
a. True
b. False
87. Stimulation of the posterior
hypothalamic nuclei result in
parasympathetic effects while
stimulation of the anterior
hypothalamic nuclei result in
sympathetic effects
a. True
b. False
88. All of the following are
sympathetic effects resulting from
stimulation of posterior
hypothalamus except:
a. dilatation of pupils and palpebral
fissure
b. increasing heart rate
c. increasing motility of
gastrointestinal tract
d. vasoconstriction and increased
arterial blood pressure
89. The limbic system plus the
hypothalamus are concerned with
emotions whether their genesis or
their expression (mental and
physical)
a. True
b. False
90. All of the following are severe
induced autonomic diseases
except……..
a. peptic ulcer
b. constipation or diarrhea
c. heart palpitation
d. Hypotension.
91. What is number of courses that
preganglionic nerve has on
entering the ganglionic chain :
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
92. Coleic ganglia is considered :
a. Lateral ganglia
b. Collateral ganglia
c. Terminal ganglia
d. Non of the above
  

93. Which of the following has its 100. Sympathetic nerves causes
sympathetic supply directly from secretions in lacrimal glands
splanchinic nerve ? 101. Increasing heart rate and
a. Adrenal cortex vasoconstriction of coronaries are
b. Adrenal medulla one of the functions of the
sympathetic NS
c. Renal Medulla
102. Bronchodilatation intense
d. Renal cortex
vasoconstriction of the pulmonary
blood vessels are mediated by
94. What is sympathetic action on eye sympathetic NS
pupil ? 103. Innervation of the adrenal
a. Dilatation medulla is preganglionic.

b. Constriction
104. All of the following are
c. Expansion
functions of sympathetic supply to
d. Conraction
the abdominal viscera except:
a. increasing the blood glucose
95. What is sympathetic action on level by conversion of liver
palepebral fissure ? glycogen into blood glucose
a. Narrowing b. Retention of bile.
c. Vasodilatation of the blood
b. Widening
vessels of the viscera
c. Retraction
d. secretion of adrenaline and
d. Protraction noradrenaline in the blood

True and False

105.
96. Sympathetic nerves cause strong
vasoconstriction of cerebral vessels
97. Sympathetic nerves cause
vasodilatation of vessels of salivary
gland
98. Parasympathetic nerves causes
erection of the fair follicle
99. Adrenal medulla is directly
supplied by preganglionic nerve
all of the following are
functions of sympathetic fibres to
the pelvis except:
a. retention of faeces and urine
b. Vasoconstrictor to the blood
vessels of pelvic viscera
c. Motor to the smooth muscle
of male sex organs
d. Inhibitory to the smooth
muscle of the proximal half
of the colon

fibres

106. All of the following are effects
of sympathetic fibers to the limbs,
thoracic and abdominal parities
except:
a. Increase of muscle
glycogenolysis
b. Vasoconstrictor to cutaneous
blood vessels
c. Vasoconstriction to the blood
vessels of the skeletal muscles
d. Secretory to the sweat glands
107. Orbelli Phenomenon is ……..
a. Better contraction, and early
fatigue of skeletal muscles
b. delayed fatigue and early
recovery of skeletal muscles
after fatigue
c. Better contraction and delayed
fatigue of the skeletal muscles
d. delayed fatigue and delayed
recovery of skeletal muscles
after fatigue
e. b and c
108. Orbelli Phenomenon occurs
due to:
a. Activation of phosphorylase
enzyme needed for glycogen
breakdown and release of
energy in muscles.
b. Increase sensitivity of motor
end-plate to acetylcholine.
c. Increase oxygen consumption
and increased heat production.
d. Improvement of blood supply
to the muscles by
vasodilatation
e. All of the above
109. The sympathetic discharge is
increased in fasting animals and
decreased when fasted animals are
reefed
a. True
b. False
True and false Qs concerning the
role of sympathetic nervous
system in emergencies:
110. Acceleration of the heart beat,
decreases the force of myocardial
contraction and raised blood
pressure
111. Increasing glycogenolysis in
the liver and elevation of blood
glucose and free fatty acid level
112. Bronchoconstriction of
bronchioles
113. Increased strength of muscle
contraction and early onset of
fatigue
114. Increased mental activity and
increased sweat secretion
115. When a small child's finger
was stimulated or burned by a
candle flame , he withdrew his
hand so fast and began to cry,
which of the following of event
likely to be true :

a. Spinal cord is responsible for the
all response of the child
b. Spinal cord and Brain mediated
this response
c. Medulla oblongata took part in
this response
d. This reflex action is considered to
be autonomic reflex
116. Micturition has occurred to a
young child , which of the
following centers is likely to have
mediated this action :
a. Brain
b. Anterior horn cell of the spinal
cord
c. Lateral horn cell of the spinal
cord
d. None of the above
117. Sympathetic nerves whose
pregangilionic fibers originate
from all thoracic segments of the
spinal cord mediate all of the
following except :
a. Inhibition to the smooth muscles
on wall of gall bladder
b. Stimulation of adrenal medulla
c. Dilatation of eye pupil
d. Inhibition to smooth muscle of
the wall of urinary bladder
118. Regarding what happens in the
body during fasting state , Which
of the following is True and False ?
a. When fasting occurs , at first
blood pressure decrease , then
gradually it becomes stable at
normal range
b. Decrease in level of fatty acids in
blood
c. Stimulation of glycogenesis in
liver
d. Stimulation of hypothalamus
119. A worker is holding a large
load in the factory , which of the
following can be observed in this
worker :
a. Red face
b. Dry skin without sweat
c. Eye ball protruded
d. None of the above
120. If injury occurred to the
autonomic nerve originated from
the sacral segment , which of the
following is likely to occur :
a. Paralysis of wall of gall bladder
b. Paralysis in the wall of the
stomach
c. Difficulty in the fecal discharge
d. Contraction of external urinary
sphincter
  

121. When you are having your d. Hard worker

lunch , all of the following can
occur except : 125. Chemical transmitter
a. Fast rate of heart beats mediating transmission on
b. Liability to urinate external sphincter muscle of the
c. Accommodation of near vision urinary bladder :
d. HCL secretion in stomach a. Acetylcholine
b. Nor adrenaline
122. A young child trying to joke c. Adrenaline
with a friend , he tries to frighten d. Muscarine
him , to his surprise ,, his friend
has died of fear , which of the 126. Which of the following
following is the main cause of substances can contribute to the
death : stimulation of sweat gland ?
a. Rupture of the respiratory a. Nicotine
pathway due to strong dilatation b. Adrenaline
b. Respiratory failure due to c. Nor adrenaline
collapse of bronchi d. Muscarine
c. Drop in blood pressure
d. Obstruction in GIT 127. All of the following are
different between Nor adrenaline
123. In case of sleeping which of and acetylcholine :
the following is most true : a. Synthesis steps
a. High level of glucose in the blood b. Site of initiation of synthesis
b. Contraction of eye pupil and c. Target
decrease power of lens d. Receptors
c. Fatty acids synthesis increases
d. Nor adrenaline level increases 128. Prolongation of the erection of
124. Miosis is likely observed in : the hair is due to alteration and
a. Angry man defect in :
b. Man returned from a tiring a. Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors
travel b. Alpha 2 adrenergic receptors
c. Student having exam c. Beta 1 adrenergic receptors
  

d. Beta 2 adrenergic receptors 132. Peptic ulcer is originated by

higher centers in nervous system
129. In the excitation of the heart due to :
,adrenaline is the more effective a. Rise in Sympathetic tones
excitant than Nor adrenaline due b. Rise in Parasympathetic tones
to : c. Abnormality in medulla
a. Greater ability of adrenaline to oblongata
excite Beta 1 receptors d. Defect in Limbic system
b. Lesser ability of Nor adrenaline
to excite Beta 2 receptors 133. Most common site for
c. Greater ability of adrenaline to enzymatic breaking of
excite Alpha 1 receptors Catcholamines is :
d. Lesser metabolic effects of a. Kidney
Adrenaline b. Liver
c. Spleen
130. Any destruction in the medulla d. Stomach
oblongata causes death mainly due
to: 134. Concerning hypothalamus put
a. Its ability to control GI peristalsis true or false :
b. Its effect on respiration a. Anterior part is stimulated
c. Its effect on regulation of the during stress
heart beat b. Posterior part causes
d. Both (a) and (b) hypertension
c. Anterior part causes erection of
131. Main centre of the nervous the hair
system controlling sympathetic d. It is considered the main vital
and parasympathetic tones is : center
a. Cerebral cortex indirectly
b. Hypothalamus
c. Mid brain
d. Cerebral cortex directly
  

Answers:
1. C 37. A
2. D 38. A
3. A 39. B
4. B 40. B
5. B 41. C
6. C 42. C
7. A 43. A
8. F 44. F
9. F 45. T
10. T 46. F
11. B 47. F
12. A 48. T
13. B 49. F
14. C 50. F
15. A 51. T
16. D 52. F
17. C 53. A
18. A 54. D
19. B 55. B
20. B 56. A
21. C 57. D
22. A 58. C
23. B 59. A
24. D 60. C
25. C 61. A
26. A 62. C
27. B 63. C
28. A 64. B
29. C 65. B
30. B 66. A
31. T 67. A
32. F 68. D
33. F 69. B
34. F 70. A
35. F 71. B
36. T 72. A
  

73. C 111. T
74. B 112. F
75. B 113. F
76. B 114. T
77. B 115. B
78. A 116. C
79. A 117. D
80. B
118.
81. A
a. T
82. D
83. C b. F
84. D c. F
85. D d. T
86. B 119. C
87. B
120. C
88. C
121. A
89. A
122. A
90. D
91. C 123. C
92. B 124. B
93. B 125. A
94. A 126. D
95. B
127. B
96. F
128. B
97. F
98. F 129. A
99. T 130. D
100. F 131. A
101. F 132. B
102. F 133. B
103. T
134.
104. C
a. F
105. D
106. C b. T
107. E c. T
108. E d. F
109. B
110. F

Pharmacology of ANS :
1. The mechanism of transduction in
nicotinic receptors is:-
a. G – protein coupled
b. Inhibition of cAMP
c. Na+ influx
d. K+ influx
2. M3 receptors found in:-
a. exocrine glands
b. smooth muscle
c. vascular endothelium
d. all of the above
3. All of the following are direct M –
stimulant except :-
a. carbachol
b. bethanecol
c. pilocarpine
d. neostigmine
4. The irreversible anticholinesterase
is :
a. organophosphorus
b. physostigmine
c. neostigmine substitutes
d. neostigmine
5. The effect of acetylcholine on the
eye :
a. myosis
b. ciliary muscle contraction
c. stimulation of dilator pupillae
muscle
d. a and b
6. Atropine is :-
a. muscarinic receptor blocker
b. nicotinic receptor blocker
c. reversible anticholinesterase
d. none of the above
7. Hydrolysis of acetylcholine in the
plasma is carried by :-
a. true cholinesterase
b. pseudocholinesterase
c. atropine
d. MAO
8. Carbachol is used for the
treatment of :-
a. postoperative retention of
urine
b. paralytic ileus
c. glaucoma
d. peptic ulcer
9. All of the following are
contraindications to choline esters
except :-
a. hyperthyroidism
b. coronary insufficiency
c. bronchial asthma
d. pregnancy
10. Pilocarpine is used systemically
for :-
a. atropine overdose
b. glucoma
c. myasthenia gravis
d. Alzheimer
11. the drug used for treating
Alzheimer is : -
  

a. neostigmine b. Nicotine
b. carbachol c. Acetylcholine
c. physostigmine d. Scopolamine
d. edrophonium

17. I.V. injection of atropine at first

12. all of the following is true about
produces
neostigmine except : -
a. Tachycardia
a. used in diagnosis of
b. Bradycardia
myasthenia gravis
c. Both of them
b. antidote to curare
c. used in glaucoma d. Non of the above
d. paralytic ileus
18. Because most vascular beds lack
13. The drug used in treatment of parasympathetic innervation.
chronic myasthenia gravis is :- atropine has no action on
a. neostigmine a. Blood vessels
b. physiostigmine b. Blood pressure
c. atropine c. Both of them
d. pyridostigmine
d. Non of the above

14. all of the following used in the

19. ......... doses of atropine in children
treatment of irreversible
produce cutaneous vasodilatation
anticholenesterases poisoning
and flushing of the blush area
except
a. Therapeutic
a. atropine
b. neostigmine b. Toxic
c. oximes c. Small
d. anticonvulsant d. Non of the above

15. Atropine is absorbed from all sites 20. Atropine cause .......... of gastric
of administration. secretion
a. True a. Increasing
b. False b. Decreasing
c. No effect
16. Atropine blocks the muscarinic d. Non of the above
receptors by competing with
a. Muscarin

21. Atropine has an effect on urinary
bladder as it cause
a. Relax wall of bladder
b. Contraction of sphincter
c. Both of them
d. Relax of sphincter
22. Atropine cause reduction of
salivary, lachrymal, gastric,
bronchial and sweat secretion.
a. True
b. False
23. paralysis of the constrictor
pupillae muscle is one of the
effects of atropine on the eye and
it is called
a. miosis
b. passive mydriasis
c. active mydriasis
d. all of the above
24. cycloplegia is Paralysis of the
............ leading to loss of
accommodation to near objects.
a. ciliary muscle
b. constrictor pupillae muscle
c. both of them
d. non of the above
25. The duration of action of atropine
following its local application to
the eye is
a. 7-11 days
b. 6-10 days
c. 7-10 days
d. 8-10 days
26. Local application of atropine in
the eye, or its systemic
administration produces:
a. Loss of the light reflex.
b. Inhibition of lachrymation.
c. Cycloplegia
d. All of the above
27. When atropine is given
systemically, it takes
a. Few seconds
b. Few minutes
c. Few hours
d. Few days
28. An atropine injection is given half
an hour before general
anaesthesia in order to:
a. Decrease salivary and
bronchial secretions
b. Protect against the inhibitory
effect of morphine
c. Protect the heart from
excessive vagal tone
d. All of the above
29. All of the following are from side
effects of atropine except
a. Dryness of mouth, blurred
vision and tachycardia.
b. Depression of CNS.
c. Acute glaucoma
  

d. elevation of body temperature b. Buscopan

in children c. Pirenzepine
d. Eucatropine
30. we shouldn't use atropine in all
these condition except 35. .............. has no antisecretory
a. Fever action(not for peptic ulcer).
b. Cardiac patients. a. Hyoscine butyl bromide
c. Thyrotoxicosis b. Pirenzepine
d. Antispasmodic c. Oxyphenonium
d. Cyclopentolate
31. All of These compounds have the
advantage of shorter duration of 36. ................ cross to CNS with less
action than atropine except peripheral side effects
a. Cyclopentolate a. Eucatropine
b. Tropicamide b. Benztropine
c. Pirenzepine c. Oxyphenonium
d. Eucatropine d. Cyclopentolate

32. Hyoscine is preferred to atropine 37. ............. used to relax bladder and
in preanaesthetic medication increase its capacity in cases of
a. True urinary incontinence.
b. False a. Emepronium
b. Buscopan
33. ........... is used for For peptic ulcer c. Pirenzepine
(anti-secretory) and colics d. Eucatropine
(antispasmodic).
a. Cyclopentolate 38. Unlike atropine, ........ doesn.t
b. Tropicamide increase viscosity of bronchial
c. Oxyphenonium secretion.
d. Buscopan a. Emepronium
b. Buscopan
34. ............. Doesn.t affect the eye and c. Pirenzepine
its accommodation, therefore, may d. Ipratropium
be used in glaucoma.
a. Oxyphenonium
  

39. Pirenzepine doesn't not slow 44. Trimetaphan main use is to

gastric emptying so doesn' t produce controlled hypertension
prolong exposure of ulcer bed to in anaesthesia during plastic and
acid neurosurgery
a. True a. True
b. False b. False

40. ......... is a very short acting 45. All of the following are effects of
competitive ganglion blocker and histamine release except:
is a histamine liberator. a. Bronchospasm
a. Emepronium b. Hypertension
b. Buscopan c. Excessive bronchial and gastric
c. Trimetaphan
secretion.
d. Eucatropine
d. None of the above

41. Trimetaphan is administered by

46. All of the following give
I.V. drip infusion of ...... solution
synergistic effect with competitive
a. 1:100
blockers except:
b. 1:1000
c. 1:10000 a. Aminoglycosides

d. Non of the above b. Chlorpromazine

c. Neostigmine
42. Inhaled ipratropium has a d. quinidine
selective bronchodilator action.
a. True 47. ……….. agument paralysis
b. False a. inhalational anaesthetics
b. quinidine
43. The vasodilator effect of c. Chlorpromazine
trimetaphan is mostly due to: d. All of the above
a. ganglionic blocking effect.
b. A histamine releaser. 48. An overdose of curare produces:
c. A direct vasodilator effect. a. Failure of respiration due to
d. All of the above paralysis of respiratory muscles.
b. Hypotension.
c. Histamine release leading to
bronchospasm …..
  

d. All of the above c. ATRACURIUM

d. VECURONIUM
49. Precautions should be considered
in treatment of curare alkaloids 53. Which drug of these is the most
toxicity with antidotes include: potent:
a. atropine must be given few a. GALLAMINE
minutes before neostigmine b. PANCURONIUM
b. avoid overdosage of c. ATRACURIUM
neostigmine d. VECURONIUM
c. both of them
d. none of them 54. Which of the following has no
histamine releasing action:
50. all of the following are true about a. GALLAMINE
gallamine except: b. PANCURONIUM
c. ATRACURIUM
a. It has about 1/5 the activity of d. VECURONIUM
d-tubocurarine as a
neuromuscular blocker. 55. ............. a hormone secreted from
adrenal medulla that releases
b. It has a longer duration of
substrates for metabolism, and in
action
emergencies promotes blood flow
c. It has a much weaker to skeletal muscles.
ganglionic blocking activity. a. Noradrenaline
b. Adrenaline
d. It has a much weaker histamine
c. Dopamine
releasing action.
d. Non of the above
51. Which of the following has the
longer duration of action: 56. The main functions of ............. are
a. GALLAMINE maintenance of normal
b. PANCURONIUM sympathetic tone & adjustment of
c. ATRACURIUM circulatory dynamics.
d. TUBOCURANINE a. Noradrenaline
b. Adrenaline
52. Which of the following is c. Dopamine
metabolized by the liver: d. non of the above
a. GALLAMINE
b. PANCURONIUM
  

57. When we use an intermediate dose b. Beta1 . receptors

of dopamine as a drug it will c. Alpha 2 receptors
activate d. Beta 2 receptors
a. Alpha . receptors
b. Beta . receptors 62. All the subtypes of alpha-
c. D1 receptors adrenoceptors act by stimulation
d. D2 receptors of adenylate cyclase.
a. True
58. Adrenergic innervated organs and b. False
tissues tend to have only one
subtype of adrenergic receptors 63. ........ is a Presynaptic adrenergic
a. True receptor that inhibits release of
b. False Noradrenaline from the nerve
terminals
59. Stimulation of............ by a. Alpha 1
catecholamines activates b. Alpha 2
phospholipase C c. Beta 1
a. Alpha 1. receptors d. Beta 2
b. Beta1 . receptors
c. Alpha 2 receptors 64. Modulation of neurotransmission
d. Beta 2 receptors in central & sympathetic nervous
system is the action of ....... receptor
60. Increasing of cytoplasmic calcium a. Beta 1
may be due to release of ............ b. Beta 2
after stimulation of alpha 1 c. D1
receptor d. D2
a. Diacylglycerol
b. inositol triphosphate 65. Beta 2 receptor stimulate
c. adrenalin micturition
d. noradrenalin a. True
b. False
61. stimulation of ............ causes
feedback inhibition of the ongoing 66. Using large dose of dopamine as a
release of noradrenaline from the drug activate ............ receptors
stimulated adrenergic neuron. a. Alpha
a. Alpha 1. receptors b. Beta
  

c. D1 a. Mode of action
d. D2 b. Chemical structure
c. Spectrum
67. Beta 2 receptor increase glucose d. Non of the above
level in the blood
a. True 72. Catecholamines are compounds
b. False that contain a catechol nucleus
and may be natural as
68. All of the following are from the a. Adrenaline
direct acting b. Noradrenaline
SYMPATHOMIMETICS except c. Dopamine
a. Noradrenaline d. All of the above
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amphetamine 73. When endogenous catecholamines
d. Phenylephrine given parenterally, they enter the
CNS in significant amounts.
69. .............. increase the concentration a. True
of catcholamines in the synapses.to b. False
inhibt the reuptake of
noradrenalin into the nerve 74. ............... is a synthetic
ending catecholamine, is similar to
a. Cocaine endogenous transmitters but not
b. Isoprenaline readily taken up into nerve
c. Amphetamine endings.
d. Phenylephrine a. Noradrenaline
b. Dopamine
70. All of the following are dual c. Isoprenaline
SYMPATHOMIMETICS except d. Adrenaline
a. Dopamine
b. Pseudoepherine 75. Non-catecholamines do not resist
c. Ephedrine MAO and COMT enzymes and so
d. Amphetamine they are active orally
a. True
71. According to ............ we can b. False
classify SYMPATHOMIMETICS
into selective and non- selective

76. Inactivation of adrenaline and
noradrenaline occurs by
a. Neuronal Uptake
b. Extraneuronal uptake
c. Enzyme Destruction
d. All of the following
77. The normal level of VMP in urine
is ........ mg /24 hours urine
a. 2.5 . 5
b. 2 - 6.5
c. 3.5 . 6
d. 5.5 . 6
78. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of
adrenal medulla secreting
noradrenaline and adrenaline.
a. True
b. False
79. Both enzymes (MAO &COMT) are
present in all of the following
except
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Spleen
d. Intestinal mucosa
80. Oral administration of adrenaline
is effective
a. True
b. False
81. We can use adrenaline by all
routes of administration
a. True
b. False
82. Adrenaline acting on beta 1-
adrenoceptors exerts positive
a. chronotropic effect
b. inotropic effect
c. dromotropic effect
d. all of the above
83. Adrenaline causes elevation of
............blood pressure due to
increased cardiac output
a. Systolic
b. Diastolic
c. Both of them
d. Non of the above
84. When we use higher dose of
adrenalinet4 it will .......... diastolic
blood pressure
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Have no effect
d. Non of the above
85. Adrenaline always used during
delivery to cause contraction of
the uterus
a. True
b. False
86. Adrenaline can be used for
treatment of glaucoma
a. True
b. False

87. Adrenaline increases blood
glucose level by all of the
following except
a. Inhibition of insulin secretion
b. decreasing release of glucagon
c. Increase in hepatic
glycogenolysis
d. transient increase in blood K+
followed by a prolonged fall
88. adrenaline delays fatigability by
increasing blood flow.
a. True
b. False
89. Adrenaline is the physiological
antagonist of histamine.
a. True
b. False
90. Adrenaline is not given with local
anesthetics subcutaneously
because it increases bleeding from
the site of operation.
a. True
b. False
91. Adrenaline is given in cases of
cardiac arrest
a. True
b. False
92. ........ is a prodrug that is
hydrolyzed to adrenaline, are used
topically in treatment of open-
angle glaucoma.
a. Beta 2-agonists
b. Ephidrin
c. Dipivefrin
d. All of the above
93. All of the following are adverse
effects of adrenaline except
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b. Anxiety and restlessness.
c. Hypotension
d. Headache, weakness and
tremors.
94. Extravasation of parenterally
administered adrenaline causes
severe vasoconstriction , resulting
in
a. tissue necrosis
b. gangrene
c. both of them
d. non of the above
95. noradrenaline cause increase of
........... blood pressure
a. systolic
b. diastolic
c. both of them
d. non of the above
96. Noradrenaline has limited
therapeutic value, it can use for
a. acute hypotensive
b. septic shock
c. both of them
d. non of the above
  

97. using ...... infusion rates of 102. The moderate infusion rates of
dopamine, it dilates renal and dopamine (5-10
mesenteric blood vessels micrograms/kg/minute ) is called
a. low a. Renal dose
b. moderate b. Cardiac dose
c. high c. vasopressor dose
d. all of the above d. all of the above

98. At moderate infusion rates of 103. vasopressor dose of dopamine

dopamine , it stimulates ....... cause
receptors a. vasodilatation
a. Alpha 1 b. vasoconstriction
b. Beta 1 c. both of them
c. Alpha 2 d. non of the above
d. Beta 2
104. dopamine is preferred to take
99. Dopamine drug is less liable to orally because it highly absorbed
cause tachycardia and arrhythmia a. true
than other catecholamines. b. false
a. True
b. False 105. Isoprenaline stimulates beta
receptors by :
100. Dopamine is used in treatment a. Acting directly on them
of all of the following except
b. Increasing release of
a. Acute heart failure.
noradrenaline
b. open-angle glaucoma.
c. Inhibiting reuptake of
c. Hypovolaemic shock
noradrenaline by nerve
d. septic shock.
endings
d. All of the above
101. Dopamine .......... cardiac output
and renal blood flow e. B & C

a. Increase
b. Decrease 106. The duration of action of
c. Has no effect isoprenaline is longer than
d. Non of the above

adrenaline and noradrenaline
because :
a. It cannot be given orally
b. It’s not reuptaken by nerve
endings
c. It’s stable and not metabolized
d. It stimulates releasing of
noradrenaline
107. Isoprenaline is a synthetic
catecholamine which can be
given orally or parentrally :
a. True
b. False
108. All of the following can be one
of the pharmacological actions of
isoprenaline EXCEPT :
a. Tachycardia
b. Increase in the force of heart
contraction
c. Mydriasis
d. Bronchodilatation
109. All of the following are correct
about Dobutamine EXCEPT :
a. It’s a synthetic catecholamine
b. It acts on dopamine receptors
c. It stimulates mainly beta 1
receptors
d. it acts directly on adrenergic
receptors
110. The major advantage of
Dobutamine over than other
sympathomimetics is that :
a. It increases the cardiac output
and stroke volume
b. It has a little effect on the heart
rate
c. It doesn’t significatly elevate
myocardium oxygen demands
d. All of the above
111. Dobutamine is given by :
a. Intravenous infusion
b. Intravenous injection
c. Oral adminstration
d. Sublingual administration
112. Although Phenylephrine is an
alfa 1 selective agonist , it has no
direct stimulant effect on the heart
because :
a. Phenylephrine directly causes
vasodilatation which indirectly
produce reflex bradycardia
b. Phenylephrine directly causes
vasodilatation which indirectly
produce reflex tachycardia
c. Phenylephrine directly causes
vasoconstriction which
indirectly produce reflex
tachycardia
d. Phenylephrine directly causes
vasoconstriction which
  

indirectly produce reflex c. Inhibiton of central

bradycardia sympathatic outflow
d. Non of the above
113. Unlike directly acting e. A & C
catcholamines Phenylephrine :
a. Can be given orally 116. in order to reduce the IOP in
b. Has prologed duration of chronic open-angle glaucoma we
action use :
c. Can cause mydriasis without a. Brimonidine
cycloplegia b. Clonidine
d. All of the above c. Phenylephrine
e. A & B d. Apraclonidine
e. A & D
114. All of the following can be one
of the therapeutic uses of 117. All of the following are
Phenylephrine EXCEPT : Sympathomimetics which are used
a. As a topical ocular preparation as nasal decomgestants EXCEPT :
because it doesn’t cause a. Phenylephrine
cycloplegia b. Brimonidine
b. As nasal decongestant in c. Ephedrine
allergic and viral rhinitis d. Pseudoephedrine
c. Hypotention caused by spinal
anaesthesia 118. Sympathomimetics are used as
d. As a mydriatic for fundus nasal decomgestants because they :
examination a. Produce vasoconstriction of
mucosal BVs
115. Clonidine and alfa- b. Reduces oedema of the nasal
methylnoradrenaline decrease mucosa
blood pressure by : c. Improve ventilation and nasal
a. inhibition of noradrenaline stuffuness
release d. Cause relief of allergic rhinitis,
b. Bradycardia sinusitis and common cold

e. All of the above
119. Rebound congestion is an
adverse effect of
Sympathomimetics are used as
nasal decomgestants caused by :
a. Secondery vasodilatation
b. Subsequent temporary
increase in nasal congestion
c. Atrophy of the cilia of the
nasal mucosa
d. A & B
e. A & C
120. All of the following are adverse
effects of Sympathomimetics are
used as nasal decomgestants
EXCEPT :
a. Stinging , burning and drying
of the nostrils
b. Vasoconstriction of mucosal
blood vessels
c. Atrophy of the cilia of the
nasal mucosa
d. Restlessness and anxiety
121. Unlike non-selective beta
adregenic agonists beta 2 selective
adrenergic agonists can be used in
the Treatment of bronchial asthma
because :
a. They don’t stimulate the heart
b. They cause bronchodilatation
c. They decrease the brochial
secretions
d. All of the above
122. All of the following are true
about Salbutamol EXCEPT :
a. It Has a little effect on the
heart
b. Its effect lasts about 4 hours
c. It’s stable and not metbolized
d. It cannot be given orally
123. Salmetrol and Formoterol are :
a. Long –acting beta2 agonists
b. Can be given by inhalation
c. Used for the relief of acute
asthma attack
d. All of the following
e. A & B
124. Salbutamol and Terbutaline are
the same in all of the following
EXCEPT :
a. Duration of action
b. Way of adminstration
c. Selectivty to beta2 adreginc
receptors
d. Theraputic uses
125. All beta 2 selective
adrenergic agonists are given
  

orally , parentrally or by c. Inhibiting reuptake of

inhalation : noradrenaline by nerve
endings
a. True
d. All of the above
b. False
e. B & C
126. Ritodrine and Terbutaline have a
130. Tachyphylaxis is common with
common theraputic use which is :
amphetamine due to noradrenaline
a. Postponing premature labour depletion :
b. Treatment of bronchial asthma
a. True
c. Treatment of obstructive lung
b. False
diseases
d. B & C 131. Amphetamine produces weight
loss by :
127. Serious hyperkalaemia may
result from beta2 agonist therapy : a. Depressant action on appetite
b. Increasing energy expenditure
a. True
c. Decreasing absorbtion of food
b. False
d. A & B
128. All of the following are adverse e. A & C
effects of beta2 agonists EXCEPT :
132. Amphetamine is used for
a. Skeletal muscle tremor ( sympathomimetic and CNS effects :
particularly in hands )
a. True
b. Bradycardia and palpitation
b. False
c. Headache and nervousness
d. Peripheral vasodilatation 133. Amphetamine can be used for
treatment of :
129. Sympathomimetics actions of
Amphetamine on alfa and beta a. Nacrolepsy
receptors are caused by : b. Attention deficit syndrome
c. Depression
a. Direct stimulation
d. All of the above
b. Increasing release of
e. A & B
noradrenaline
  

134. All of the following are side d. They cause hypertention

effects of Amphetamine EXCEPT :

a. Insomania, anxiety, restless 137. Amphetamine and Ephedrine

and hyperactive reflexes share the following adverse effects
b. Tolerance and addiction Except :
c. Weight loss
a. Tachyphylaxis
d. Hypertention, palpitation and
b. Insomnia
anginal pain
c. Cardiac stimulation
e. Cardiac arrhythmia
d. Anxiety
e. Urine retention in old patients
135. Sympathomimetics actions of with enlarged prostate
Cocaine on alfa and beta receptors are
caused by :
138. Mechanism of action of
a. Direct stimulation Ephedrine is :
b. Increasing release of
a. Direct stimulation of alfa and
noradrenaline
beta receptors
c. Inhibiting reuptake of
b. Increasing release of
noradrenaline at both
noradrenaline
peripheral and central neurons
c. Inhibiting reuptake of
d. All of the above
noradrenaline by nerve
e. B & C
endings
d. A & B
136. Amphetamine and Cocaine are
139. Ephedrine has a good oral
similar in all of the following except :
absorption and it enters the CNS :
a. They have the same indirect
a. True
Sympathomimetic mechanism
b. False
of action
b. They cause vasoconstriction 140. Ephedrine and Pseudoephedrine
and cardiac stimulation are used for :
c. They can lead to addiction

a. Symptomatic relief of nasal
congestions
b. Prevention or reversing
hypotention accompany with
spinal anesthesia
c. Control of urinary
incontinence
d. All of the above
141. Pseudoephedrine is similar to
Ephedrine but :
a. With Less pressor and CNS
action
b. It cannot be given orally
c. It causes urine retention
d. Non of the above
142. alpha (d) methyl dopa is a:
a. sympatholytic drug.
b. adrenolytic drug.
c. sympatomimetic drug.
d. none of the above.
143. the most potent ergot al kaloids
in B-receptor bloking is:
a. ergotamine.
b. ergometrine.
c. dihydro ergotoxine.
d. methyl ergometrine.
144. ergotamine is used in:
a. hypertension.
b. acute attack of migraine.
c. alzheimers.
d. pvd.
145. methyl ergometrine is used in:
a. post partum haemorrhage.
b. hypertension.
c. induction of labour.
d. a and c.
146. All of the following are uses of
bromocriptine except:
a. parkinsonism.
b. acromegaly.
c. hypertension.
d. hyper prolactinaemia.
147. the mechanism of action of
ergotamine on alpha receptors is:
a. antagonism.
b. partial agonism.
c. competitive inhibition.
d. none of the above.
148. the ergot alkaloid used in
cerebral ischaemia is:
a. dihydro ergotoxine.
b. ergotamine.
c. methyl ergometrine.
d. all of the above
149. selective alfa 1- blocker include:
a. prazosion.
b. labetalol.
c. alpha methyl dopa.
d. ergotamine.
150. the therap eutic uses of selective
alfa 1-blockers include:
  

a. hypertension. b. membrane stabilizing

b. benign prostatic hyperplasia. activity
c. peptic ulcer. c. central depressant effect
d. a and b. d. high lipid solubility

151. the adverse effects of selective 156. ……………… blocks both beta
alfa 1 blockers don't include: & alpha receptor:
a. syncope. a. prapanolol
b. failure of ejaculation. b. atenolol
c. hypertension. c. acebutalol
d. salt and water retention. d. carvedilol

152. the antihypertensive drug chosen 157. all of the following is a lipophilc
in pregnancy is: b-blocker except:
a. dihydroergotoxine. a. atenolol
b. alpha methyl l dopa. b. pindolol
c. drazosin. c. carvedilol
d. terazosin. d. labetalol

153. …………….. has a cardio
selective property:
a. atenolol.
b. propanolol.
c. pinodolol.
d. all of the above.
154. all of the following is true about
ISA except:
a. help in preventing heart
failure.
b. caused by pindolol.
c. Inclued exert signs of
sympathetic stimulation.
d. it is a beta antagonist action.
155. the antiarrhymic activity of some
beta blocker is due to:
a. ISA
158. all of the following is true about
propranolol except:
a. it has a membrane
stabilizing action
b. it has a positive chronotropic
effect
c. it can cross BBB
159. the mechanisms involved in
lowering the B.P with the use of
propranolol include:
a. lowering the cardiac output
b. reduce rennin and
aldosterone
c. reducing sympathetic
outflow
d. all of the above
  

160. the metabolic effect of a. atenolol and acebutalol

propranolol includes: b. atenolol and metoprolol
a. increased glucagon secretion c. acebutalol and metoprolol
b. hyperglycemia d. none of the above
c. hypoglycemia
d. anaemia True or false

161. the therapeutic uses of 166. propranolol cause

propranolol include: bronchodilation
a. effort induced angina
b. hypertension 167. quinidine like actions appears
c. cardiac arrhythmia only in high doses of propranolol
d. all of the above
168. heart block is a contraindication
162. The bradycharida caused by beta in beta blockers treatment
blockers is treated by:
a. digitalis 169. all beta blockers possess
b. atropine membrane stabilizing activity
c. pindolol
d. insulin

163. An important side effect of beta 2

blockade is:
a. heart failure
b. depression
c. symptomless hypoglycemic
coma
d. hypotension

164. The beta blocker used in

treatment of chronic glaucoma is:
a. pendolol
b. nadolol
c. atenolol
d. timolol

165. which of the following drugs has

local anaesthetic action:
  

Answers: 33. C

1. C 34. C

2. D 35. A

3. D 36. B

4. A 37. A

5. D 38. D

6. A 39. A

7. B 40. C

8. C 41. C

9. D 42. A

10. A 43. D

11. C 44. B

12. C 45. B

13. D 46. C

14. B 47. D

15. A 48. D

16. C 49. C

17. B 50. B

18. C 51. B

19. A 52. D

20. B 53. B

21. C 54. B

22. A 55. B

23. B 56. A

24. A 57. B

25. C 58. B

26. D 59. A

27. C 60. B

28. D 61. C

29. B 62. B

30. D 63. B

31. C 64. D

32. A 65. B
66. A
  

67. A 101. A
68. C 102. B
69. A 103. B
70. D 104. B
71. C 105. A
72. D 106. B
73. B 107. B
74. C 108. C
75. B 109. B
76. D 110. D
77. B 111. A
78. A 112. D
79. C 113. D
80. B 114. A
81. B 115. E
82. D 116. E
83. A 117. B
84. A 118. E
85. B 119. D
86. A 120. B
87. B 121. D
88. A 122. D
89. A 123. E
90. B 124. D
91. A 125. B
92. C 126. A
93. C 127. B
94. C 128. B
95. C 129. B
96. C 130. A
97. A 131. D
98. B 132. B
99. A 133. E
100. B 134. C
  

135. C 169. F
136. A
137. E
138. D
139. A
140. D
141. A
142. A
143. C
144. B
145. D
146. C
147. B
148. A
149. A
150. D
151. C
152. B
153. A
154. D
155. B
156. D
157. A
158. B
159. D
160. C
161. D
162. B
163. C
164. D
165. C
166. F
167. T
168. T
 
  

Chapter 2 : CNS a. Medulla oblongata

b. Mid brain
Physiology of CNS:
c. Spinal cord
d. Pons
1. Ability of the CNS to recognize the
type of the change it received is : 6. Which of the following does Pons
a. Integrative function have sensory and motor nerves to :
b. Sensory function a. Mouth
c. Motor function b. Neck
d. All of the above c. Throat
d. Face
2. Inner most layer of the meningies
is : 7. All of the following cranial nerves
a. Dura Mater emerge from the hind brain except
b. Pia Mater :
c. Arachnoid space a. III
d. Subarachnoid space b. V
c. VI
3. CSF exists in which of the d. VII
following :
a. Pia mater 8. All of the following are parts of the
b. Dura matar forebrain except :
c. Arachnoid layer a. Hypothalamus
d. Subarachnoid space b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
4. Which of the following contains d. Thalamus
venous sinuses to drain CSF :
a. Pia mater 9. Grey matter is formed of :
b. Dura matar a. Myelin sheath
c. Arachnoid b. Nerve cell bodies
d. All of the above c. Nerve fibres
d. Dendrites
5. The most important vital centre is :

10. Which of the following part of
skin isn’t innervated by spinal
nerves ?
a. Hand
b. Foot
c. Face
d. Abdomen
11. Deramatome is supplied by :
a. Ventral root of spinal cord
b. Dorsal root of the spinal cord
12. Blood brain barrier :
a. Controls rate by which
substance passes from EC fluid
b. Controls kind of substances
passing from EC fluid
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
True or false:
13. Blood brain barrier isn’t
permeable to O2
14. Efferent nerve is considered the
sensory nerve
15. Diencephalon includes pituitary
glands
16. Ridges in the surface of cerebral
cortex is called sulci
17. No of peduncles connected
between each of cerebellar
hemisphere and brain stem parts
is 2
18. 12th Cranial nerve merges from
medulla oblongata
19. Spinal cord passes through
foramina transversorium of
vertebrae
20. There are 12 cranial nerves
21. The energy of the change in external
or internal environment of the body is
converted to nerve impulse by
a. Detectors
b. Transducers
c. Both of them
d. Non of the above
22. Proprioceptors respond to
mechanical stimuli and located in
a. Muscle
b. Tendon
c. Joint
d. All of the above
23. In the aortic and carotid sinus
there are mechanoreceptors called
a. Stretch receptors
b. Proprioceptors
c. Baroreceptors
d. All of the above
24. All of the following are
mechanoreceptors except
a. Touch
b. Stretch receptors
c. Taste receptors
  

d. Baroreceptors d. Irris

25. Stretch receptors are located in the 30. The sensation perceived as a result
alveoli of the lung and .... of stimulation of a receptor is
a. Right atrium called
b. Left atrium a. Adequate stimulus
c. Both of them b. Modality of sensation
d. Aorta c. Action potential
d. Non of the above
26. The thermoreceptors that
stimulated by thermal form of 31. The method of stimulation affect
energy include warmth receptors on the type of sensation
only a. True
a. True b. False
b. False
32. ............ is the ability of the receptor
27. All of the following are chemical to respond to stimuli
receptors except a. Action potential
a. Taste receptors b. Adequate stimulus
b. Pressure receptors c. Excitabilty
c. Olfactory receptors d. All of the above
d. Glucoreceptors
33. The potential that result from
28. ............ stimulated by any form of opening of Na + channels in the
energy potent enough to cause receptor membrane is called
tissue damage a. receptor potential
a. Proprioceptors b. Generator potential
b. Barorecptors c. Graded potential
c. Stretch receptors d. All of the above
d. Nociceptors
34. An increase in the amplitude of
29. Electromagnetic receptors include the receptor potential produced by
: …….. stimulus intensity
a. Rods in retina a. Decreased
b. Cons in retina b. Increased
c. Both of them
  

c. No effect 39. The modality discrimination

depends on
35. The receptor potential has the a. Adequate stimulus
following properties except b. Area of brain activated
a. Local c. Both of them
b. Propagated d. Non of the above
c. No refractory period
d. No block by anaesthetics 40. .............. discrimination Depends on
the fact that each receptor has a
36. In adaptation all the following are specific pathway to the sensory
true except cortex where different parts of the
a. Increase number of nerve body are represented
impulses a. Modality
b. Constant maintaned stimulus b. Locality
c. decline in the amplitude of the c. Intesity
receptor potential d. Non of the above
d. decrease number of nerve
impulses 41. Discrimination of intensity also
depends on
37. All of the following are rapidly a. Frequency of discharge of
adapting receptors except action potentials
a. Touch b. number of receptors
b. Baroreceptors stimulated
c. Olfactory c. both of them
d. Non of the above d. non of the above

38. Coding of sensory information is 42. when you can determine your
the ability of the brain to position , it is a
discriminate the ........ of different a. Conscious proprioceptive
stimuli sensations
a. Modality b. Unconscious proprioceptive
b. Locality sensations
c. Intesity c. Tactile sensations
d. All of the above d. Non of the above
  

43. All of the following are from d. All of the above

Unconscious proprioceptive
sensations except 48. gracile and cuneate tracts
a. Movement of joints Transmits the following sensations
b. Muscle length except
c. Muscle tension a. Vibration sense
d. Non of the above b. Conscious proprioceptive
sensations
44. Crude touch is a touch sensation c. Fine touch
that is sharply localized and needs d. Pressure sense
a relatively strong stimulus to be
elicited 49. In Patients with lesions in the
a. True dorsal column pathway all of the
b. False following are true except
a. Loss of proproceptive
45. ............ is the ability to localize a sensations
touched cutaneous spot while the b. Cannot identify objects by
eyes are closed hands when eyes are closed
a. Tactile discrimination c. Identify their position when
b. Tactile localization eyes are opened
c. Stereognosis d. Knowing if their joints is in
d. Pressure sense flexion or extension

46. In Stereognosis. All of the 50. Ventral spinothalamic tract

following are true except Transmits the following sensations
a. Recognize an object by touch except
b. Eyes are opened a. Vibration sense
c. Recognize an object by size b. Crude touch
d. Recognize an object by weight c. Pressure sense
d. Itch and tickle
47. ……… Results from rapidly
repetitive sensory signals from 51. Mechanoreceptive sensations are
tactile receptors transmitted by the following
a. Pressure sense pathways except:
b. Itch and tickle sensations a. Dorsal column lemniscal
c. Vibration sense pathway

b. Lateral spinothalamic tract
c. Ventral spinothalamic tract
d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
52. All of the following sensations are
transmitted by dorsal column
lemniscal pathway except:
a. Stereognosis
b. Vibration sensation
c. Joint movements and position
d. Pressure sensation
53. All of the following are true
concerning the dorsal column
lemniscal pathway except:
st
a. 1 order neuron pass to the
dorsal white column of the
spinal cord
b. Fibers from the upper part of
the body ascend in the medial
part of the dorsal white column
forming the fasiculus gracilis
c. Medial lemnicsus terminate in
the thalamus
d. 3rd order neuron terminate in
the sensory cortex
54. Astereognosis results from lesion
in the ……….
a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract
c. Ventral spinothalamic tract
d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
55. Crude touch is transmitted by
………..
a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract
c. Ventral spinothalamic tract
d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
56. Proprioceptive sensations are
transmitted by
a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway
b. Ventral spinothalamic tract
c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
d. a and c
57. the 1st order neuron in the
spinocerebellar pathway are thick
myelinated A delta fibers which
relay in the clark’s column at the
base of the dorsal horn of the
spinal cord
a. true
b. false
58. 2nd order neurons of the dorsal
spinocerebellar tract ascend in the
anterolateral white column of the
spinal cord reaching the medulla
a. True

b. False
59. All of the following terminate in
the sensory cortex except:
a. Dorsal column lemniscal
pathway
b. Ventral spinothalamic tract
c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
d. Lateral spinothalamic tract
60. 2nd order neurons of the ventral
spinocerebellar tract pass through
the superior peduncle to reach the
vermis while those of the dorsal
tract pass through the inferior
peduncle
a. True
b. False
61. All of the following have receptors
to stimulate the deep pain except
a. Muscles
b. Tendons
c. Joints
d. Skin
62. Ischemia of the muscle is
produced in the deep pain due to :
a. Prolonged muscle contraction
b. Prolonged vasoconstriction of
blood vessels
c. Sympathetic effects
d. Hypertension
63. Which type of the following fibers
transmit deep pain?
a. Non myelinated A fibers
b. Myelinated B fibres
c. Non Myelinated C fibers
d. Myelinated C fibers
64. All of the following participates in
the muscle ischaemic pain except :
a. Arterial occlusion
b. Maintained muscle relaxation
c. Increase in Lewis P factor
d. Trauma of the deep structures
65. All of the following have fast rate
of transmission of the pain except
a. Parietal layer of pericardium
b. Parietal layer of pleura
c. Brain
d. Parietal layer of peritoneum
66. All of the following are properties
of the visceral pain except
a. Dull aching
b. Radiates to the other structures
c. Sharp
d. Poorly localized
67. One of the following its afferent is
vagus nerve:
a. Colon
b. Urinary bladder
  

c. Rectum c. 6
d. Trachea d. 8

68. All of the following are properties 73. The somatosensory cortical areas
are located in the ....... lope
of the referred pain except :
a. Frontal
a. Can be felt in diseased viscus
b. Temporal
only
c. Parietal
b. Felt away from its original site
d. Occipital
c. Referred to somatic structure
with the same origin as viscus
74. Somatic sensory area I occupies
d. Felt in the dermatomes the brodman’s areas

69.The cerebral cortex contains a. 1,2,3

............. neurons b. 2,3,5

a. 100 milion c. 1,3,5

b. 100 bilion d. 5,7

c. 100 thousands
d. Non of the above 75. In somatic sensory area I all of the
following are true except
a. The foot & leg are represented
70.The cerebral cortex is composed of
medially
....... hemispheres
b. The lips & fingers occupy smaller
a. 2
areas than the trunk
b. 4
c. This area show modality
c. 6
separation of different sensation
d. 8
d. It receives sensations from the
opposite side of the body
71.The surface of each hemispheres is
formed of elevations called gyri
76. somatic sensory area I act as a
a. True
centre for the perception of the
b. False
following sensations except
a. stereognosis
72. Each hemisphere in cerebral
b. vibration sense
cortex contains........... Lobes
c. discrimination of weights
a. 2
d. pain
b. 4
  

77. The representation of the different 82. The mechanism of primary

parts of the body in the somatosensory hyperalgesia depends on
area II is much more sharp than in a. vasodilatation
somatosensory area I b. lowering the threshold of pain
a. true receptors
b. false c. both of them
d. non of the above
78. somatosensory area II receive .........
fibres from the spinothalamic than the 83. All of the following reduce pain
dorsal column pathway except
a. more a. rubbing
b. less b. electrical stimulation of certain
c. long areas of the brain
d. short c. the absence of receptors for
opiates in the brain
79. the patient with damage in d. acupuncture 
brodman’s areas 5 , 7 can recognize
84. The neurotransmitter act on
objects by touch
postsynaptic neuron to
a. true
modify its activity either
b. false
exciting or inhibiting

80. Area of flare that surrounds an according to the nature of the

inflammed or injured skin area is the postsynaptic receptors.
site of occurring
a. True
a. primary hyperalgesia
b. False
b. secondary hyperalgesia
c. analgesia 85. The threshold for the
d. hypoalgesia postsynaptic neuron
excitation is about
81. Releasing of ....... from the injured
skin area to neighbouring healthy skin a. -59 mv
cause primary hyperalgesia except b. -70 mv
a. serotonin c. -50 mv
b. histamine 86. gamma aminobutyric acid is
c. proteolytic enzymes :
d. kinins

a. an excitatory neurotransmitter
b. an inhibitory neurotransmitter
c. inhibits the release of the
excitatory transmitter from the
excitatory presynaptic fiber.
d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c
87. Binding of the excitatory
transmitter to postsynaptic
receptors increases the
permeability of the
postsynaptic membrane to
a. Na only
b. K only
c. K and CL
d. all ions
88. All of the following are
correct about The EPSP
except:
a. propagating
b. lasts for about 15
milliseconds.
c. A single EPSP is not enough to
increase the neuronal
potential to threshold value
instead it must add up to
trigger an action potential.
89. Which of the following is
incorrect about Electrical
events in inhibitory synapses:
a. increases the permeability of
the postsynaptic membrane to
K+ / Cl
b. increases the degree of
intracellular negativity
c. leading to a state of
hyperdepolarisation
90. stimulation of several
presynaptic fibers on the
postsynaptic neuron at the
sametime to raise the
postsynaptic membrane
potential to the threshold
level is called:
a. Temporal summation
b. Spatial summation
91. Which of the following
properties serves in cessation
of an epileptic fit:
a. Synaptic delay
b. Synaptic fatigue
c. Post-tetanic facilitation
d. Summation
92. Which of the following
properties serves in the recall
of information after a short
time of its reading:
a. Synaptic delay
b. Synaptic fatigue
c. Post-tetanic facilitation

d. Summation
93. coma in uraemic patients is
mainly due to :
a. acidosis that has inhibitory
effect on synaptic
transmission
b. alkalosis that has inhibitory
effect on synaptic
transmission
c. acidosis that has excitatory
effect on synaptic
transmission
d. acidosis that has excitatory
effect on synaptic
transmission
94. if the cerebral circulation is
temporarily interrupted for
3-6 seconds that may lead to
a. death
b. loss of consciousness
c. epilepsy
95. caffeine enhance synaptic
transmission by (choose the
best answer):
a. increasing the discharge of
neurotransmitters
b. decreasing fatiguability of
the nerve
c. decreasing the threshold
for excitation of neurons
d. accumulation of ions in
the synaptic cleft
True or false:
96. Nuclear chains have sensory
innervations by primary and
secondary fibers while the nuclear
bags are innervated by primary
fibers only
97. Motor fibers innervate the central
receptor areas of intrafusal fibers
while the sensory fibers innervate
the peripheral contractile parts of
the intrafusal fibers
98. Nuclear bags are supplied by
static gamma efferents while the
nuclear chains are supplied by
dynamic gamma efferents
99. Gamma motor neurons are the
centers of stretch reflex
100. The dynamic response of the
primary sensory endings informs
the CNS about the rate of muscle
stretch while the static response of
the secondary sensory endings
informs the CNS about the
amount of stretch
101. All of the followings
concerning the nuclear bags are
true except:

a. Are innervated by primary
sensory fibers
b. Are innervated by dynamic
gamma fibers
c. Their stretch gives information
about the amout of stretch
d. They are rapidly adapting
receptors
102. ………… increase gamma
fibers discharge :
a. Anxiety
b. Painful cutaneous stimulation
c. Hooking of fingers together
d. All of the above
103. All of the following are true
concerning the stretch reflex
except:
a. Its total time is short
b. There is no irradiation or
fatigue
c. There is after discharge due to
the presence of the
interneurons
d. There is reciprocal
innervations
104. All of the following are
antigravity muscles except:
a. Flexors of the upper limb
b. Extensors of the lower limb
c. Extensors of the back
d. Flexors of the neck
105. The muscle tone increases in
cold weathers while it decreases
in hot weather
a. True
b. False
106. All of the following is true
concerning the muscle tone
except:
a. The receptor is rapidly
adapting
b. The afferent fibers are
secondary while the motor
fibers are alpha motor fibers
c. The effectors are extrafusal
fibers
d. It’s responsible for
maintaining the erect posture
against gravity
107. All of the following is true
concerning the tendon jerk
except:
a. The receptor is rapidly
adapting
b. The afferent fibers are
primary while the motor
fibers are alpha motor fibers
c. The effectors are intrafusal
fibers

d. It’s responsible for diagnosing
neurological disorders
108. All of the following is true
concerning clast knife spasticity
except:
a. It’s upper motor neuron
lesion
b. It’s example of hypertonia
c. There is exaggerated tendon
jerks
d. There is no tendon jerks
109. All of the following are
inhibitory centers of stretch reflex
except:
a. Paleocerebellum
b. Inhibitory reticular formation
center
c. Basal ganglia
d. Primary motor area of the
cortex
110. All of the following is true
concerning the inverse stretch
reflex except:
a. It’s relaxation of the over
stretched muscle
b. It occurs by stimulation of the
inhibitory interneurons which
stimulate the antagonistic
muscle
c. Stimulated muscle spindles
cause stimulation of the
antagonistic muscle via
inhibition of the alpha motor
neuron supplying the over
stretched muscle
d. It’s a protective reflex
protecting the muscle from
tearing as a result of over
stretch
111. Clonus occurs as a result of
stretch reflex-inverse stretch
reflex sequence resulting in
alternating mucles contractions
and relaxations
a. True
b. False
112. the primary motor area is
found in:
a. frontal lope
b. parietal lope
c. temporal lope
d. occipital lope
113. all of the following are parts of
the temporal lope except:
a. auditory centre
b. auditory association area
c. hippocamus
d. brocas area
  

114. the area occupying the

precentral gyrus in the frontal 119. the following areas sharing in
lope is: planning of voluntery movements
a. premotor area except:
b. primary motor area a. premotor area
c. supplementary motor area b. primary motor area
d. suppresor area c. supplementry motor area
d. prefrontal association area
115. all of the following are
bilateraly represented in the brain 120. area 6 inhibits all of the
except: following except:
a. upper part of the face a. gross movements
b. lower part of the face b. spinal reflexes
c. abdominal wall muscles c. muscle tone
d. respiratory muscle d. grasp reflex

116. the cells presented in the
primary motor area are:
a. betz cells
b. martinotti cells
c. horizontal cell of cajal
d. none of the above
121. the area responsible for
conjugate eye movements is:
a. brocas area
b. head rotation area
c. frontal eye field
d. exners area

117. the area responsible for 122. motor apraxia is a lesion of:
initiating delicate voluntery a. brocas area
movements is; b. head rotation area
a. supplementary area c. frontal eye field
b. supressor area d. area of hand skills
c. primary motor area
d. premotor area 123. brocas area is essential for:
a. walking
118. area 4 and 6 share the b. speech
function of: c. involuntery movements
a. initiation of delicate d. muscle tone
movements
b. facilitation of spinal reflexes 124. the area lying between area 4
c. inhibition of spinal reflex and 6 is:
d. initiation of gross movements a. supplementary motor area
  

b. prefrontal association area 132. All of the following are

c. suppressor area
d. none of the above
125. all of the following are
function of the prefrontal
association area except;
a. provide the ability to
concentrate
b. plays arole in immediate
memory
c. control behaviour
d. initiate fine movements
considered direct tracts except :
a. Corticospinal tract
b. Corticobulber tract
c. Corticonuclear tract
d. Rubrospinal tract
133. Most of the corticospinal tracts
are :
a. Anterior
b. Lateral
c. Ipsilateral

126. the area responsible for d. Medial

elaboration of thoughts is:
a. primary motor area 134. All of the following have
b. broadmanns areas 9:14 bilateral parts in the motor center
c. premotor area
except :
d. suppresor area
a. Upper face

127. the most excitable area of the b. Intercostal muscles

following is: c. Abdominal wall
a. primary motor area d. Back muscles
b. premotor area
c. suppresor area 135. Which of the following is
d. supplementary motor area
supplied by the corticobulber
tract :
TRUE OR FALSE
128. the premotor area gives origin a. Head
to pyramidal tracts. b. Hand
129. motor area 4 is responsible c. Foot
for delicate voluntery movements. d. Abdomen
130. motor apraxia is a lesion of
brocas area.
136. The corticonuclear tract arises
131. motor area 6 is responsible
from the motor centre :
for facilitation of spinal reflexes.
a. 4
  

b. 6 141. Which of the following is

c. 8
d. 10
137. All of the following tracts pass
to the basal ganglia except :
a. Rubrospinal tract
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Olivospinal tract
d. Tectospinal tract
138. Indirect pathway most of it is :
a. Crossed
b. Uncrossed
c. Excitatory
d. Long
139. All of the following occupy the
pyramid in medulla oblongata
except :
a. Corticospinal tract
b. Tectospinal tract
c. Corticonuclear tract
d. Corticobulbar tract
140. Where does the rubrospinal
tract join the corticospinal ?
a. Lateral column
b. Medial colum
c. Dorsal horn
d. Ventral horn
concerned with audiospinal
reflexes ?
a. Medial tectospinal
b. Lateral tectospinal
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Lateral reticulospinal tract
142. All of the following are
considered to be short tracts
except :
a. Olivospinal tract
b. Tectospinal tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Reticulospinal tract
143. All of the following facilitates
the muscle tone except:
a. Lateral reticulospinal tract
b. Medial reticulospinal tract
c. Olivospinal tract
d. Vestibulospinal tract
True and false :
144. Most of pyramidal tracts are
crossed
145. Most of extra pyramidal are
inhibitory
146. Pyramidal tracts are earlier in
life
147. Cortical control of pyramidal is
wider
  

148. Pyramidal occupy olive of 155. Hypertonia occurs due to the :

spinal cord a. Sparing for inhibitory
149. Extrapyramidal fibres descending tracts
decaussate at the lower border of b. Loss of the crossing inhibitory
the medulla oblongata tracts
150. Pyramidal are most important c. Intact inhibitory tracts
in the equilibrium d. Lesion in uncrossed excitatory
151. Extrapyramidal are concerned tract
with body posture
156. Injury in cranial nerve nuclei
152. All of the following are causes causes :
of lower motor neuron lesion a. LMNL
except : b. UMNL
a. Anterior horn cell c. Both
b. Somatic nerve d. None
c. Cranial nerve nuclei
True or false about UMNL :
d. Motor cortex
157. Localized paralysis
153. One of the following is correct 158. Lesion in higher centres
about LMNL : 159. Atonia
a. Accompanied by widespread 160. Normal Deep reflex
paralysis 161. Positive Babriniski
b. Due to lesion in motor cortex
162. The striatum is ………….
c. Deep spinal reflex is lost
a. Caudate and globus pallidus
d. No muscle wasting
b. Caudate and putamen
c. Globus pallidus and putamen
154. Positive Babiniski test includes
:
163. The receiving center of the basal
a. Planter flexion of the toes ganglia is …………
b. Dorsiflexion of all toes
a. Caudate and putamen.
c. Fanning of 4 smaller toes only
b. Globus pallidus
d. None of the above
c. Globus pallidus and putamen
  

a. Excitatory, prevent the

164. The discharge center of the unwanted involuntary
basal ganglia is …………. movement.
a. Caudate and putamen b. Inhibitory, facilitate the target
b. Globus pallidus and putamen movement

c. Globus pallidus c. Excitatory, facilitate the target

movement
165. Strioto-pallidal projection d. Inhibitory, prevent the
utilizes ……….. as a unwanted involuntary
neurotransmitter movement
a. GABA
169. Glutamate is released from
b. ACL
………….
c. Dopamine
a. Cortex
d. Glutamate
b. Striatum

166. Nigro-striatal projection utilizes c. Globus pallidus

……….. as a neurotransmitter d. Thalamus
a. GABA
170. The hyperkinetic features of
b. ACL
Parkinsonism are all except
c. Dopamine
……..
d. Glutamate
a. Brady kinesia and akinesia
b. Tremors
167. Globus pallidus may project to
all except ……….. c. Rigidity

a. Thalamus
171. We can use dopamine is
b. Subthalamus treatment of Parkinsonism
c. Brain stem a. True
d. Striatum b. False

168. The direct circuit is ……… and 172. Sensation can be consciously
its importance is …………
perceived by the cerebellum
a. true
b. false

173. The part of the cerebellum
concerned mainly with
equilibrium is:
a. archicerebellum
b. paleocerebellum
c. Neocerebellum
174. Output from the
cerebrocerebellum passes
a. through the fastigial nucleus
then to the brain stem
b. To the dentate nucleus and
then to the ventrolateral
nucleus of the thalamus
c. to emboliform and globose,
then to the brainstem.
175. the limbs & head are
represented in the vermis of the
spinocerebellum
a. True
b. False
176. To stop the movement precisely
at the intended point by
subconscious signals is called
…...and it's achieved by ……
a. Servocomparator function…
spinocerebellum
b. Damping of movement…
spinocerebellum
c. Damping of movement…
cerebrocerebellum
d. Servocomparator function…
cerebrocerebellum
177. Which of the following centers
is responsible for the
coordination of movement
during writing ?
a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Cerebrocerebellum
c. Spinocerebellum
178. The following center is
important for preventing the
decomposition of the movement
:
a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Cerebrocerebellum
c. Spinocerebellum
179. The cerebrocellebellum has a
leading role in all the following
actions except:
a. Timing of movements
b. coordinates the automatic
associated subconscious
movements
c. Planning of movements
d. Prediction of movements
180. The flocculonodular lobe is
considered as:
a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Cerebrocerebellum

c. Spinocerebellum
181. The following tracts are
involved in the process of
maintaining the equilibrium
through the vestibulocerebellum
except :
a. reticulospinal
b. vestibulospinal
c. tectospinal
182. The output of the cerebellum is
generally excitatory to muscle
tone
a. True
b. False
183. Which of the following
statements is incorrect about
The vermis syndrome:
a. the flocculo-nodular lobe is
affected
b. Symptoms are often absent
when the child is lying down
c. There is nystagmus
d. There is hypotonia
e. There is raised intracranial
pressure
184. The perilymph is present within
the membranous labyrinth
while the endolymph is present
between it and the bony
labyrinth
a. True
b. False
185. The macula of ……. is
concerned with equilibrium
a. Utricle
b. Saccule
186. The macula of ……… is
concerned with vertical linear
acceleration while the macula of
……. is concerned with
horizontal linear acceleration
a. Utricle / Saccule
b. Saccule / Utricle
187. All of the following are
stimulants to the SCC except:
a. Caloric stimulation
b. Rotation
c. Faradic stimulation
d. Vestibular neuritis
188. SCCs are active at …………..
a. The beginning of rotation
b. The end of rotation
c. Both of them
d. None of the above

True or false:
189. Sudden forward horizontal
movement results in
displacement of the otoconia
forwards stretching all the hair
cells of the macula
190. Stereocilium is located at one
side of the hair cell
191. In case of horizontal SCC
displacement of the cupula
towards the utricle the crista
becomes stimulated
192. The kinocilium of the superior
SCC lies towards the utricle
193. In the start of rotation from
right to left the endolymph
moves in the same direction but
after 30 sec. in starts to move in
the opposite direction
194. When the individual starts to
rotate in horizontal plane from
left to right , the endolymph
moves in the same direction
a. True
b. False
195. SCC are active only at the
beginning and ending of
rotation or if rate or direction of
rotation is changed
a. True
b. False
196. All of the following are from the
autonomic changes that result
from stimulation of SCC except
a. Nausea
b. Vomiting
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypertension
197. In stimulation of SCC , muscle
tone changes help to
a. Support the posture during
rotation
b. Guard against falling down
towards the activated side
c. Cause motion sickness
d. Both a & b
198. Stimulation of reticular
formation in the brain stem can
cause bradycardia
a. True
b. False
199. ........... is the sensation of rotation
in the absence of actual rotation
a. Autonomic changes
b. Muscle tone changes
c. Vertigo
d. All of the above
200. All of the following can cause
vertigo except
a. Motion sickness
b. Chronic alcoholism
c. Errors of refraction

d. Beginning of rotation
201. .............is repetitive rhythmic
movement of the eye observed at
the start of rotation
a. Vertigo
b. Rotatory nystagmus
c. Post rotatory nystagmus
d. All of the above
202. .............is repetitive rhythmic
movement of the eye observed at
the end of period of rotation
a. Vertigo
b. Rotatory nystagmus
c. Post rotatory nystagmus
d. All of the above
203. Angular acceleration is one of
the pathological causes of
nystagmus
a. True
b. False
204. All of the following are from the
pathologic causes of nystagmus
except
a. Cerebellar diseases
b. Inner ear disorders
c. Optokinetic nystagmus
d. Defective vision
205. In slow component of
nystagmus both eyes move
toward the same direction of
rotation
a. True
b. False
206. Rapid component of nystagmus
is controlled by brainstem
circuits
a. True
b. False
207. When you look from a window
of a rapidly moving car ,it
considers as
a. Physiological nystagmus
b. Pathological nystagmus
c. Optokinetic nystagmus
d. Both a & c
208. Slow component of nystagmus
occurs when the vestibular
nucleus discharges in secondary
direction
a. True
b. False
209. Output from other thalamic
nuclei passes to be regulated
before reaching the cortex.
a. The medial group of nuclei
b. The reticular nuclei
c. The intralaminar nuclei
210. All of the following statements
are correctly describing the
intralaminar nuclei except
  

a. scattered along the internal c. 3

medullary lamina,
b. They are connected with the 213. lateral part of the structure 3
reticular activating system. recieves :
c. It receives fibers carrying slow a. medial leminiscus
pain and thermal sensation b. trigeminal leminiscus
d. Site of relay of the c. input from the basal ganglia
neospinocerebellar tract
e. It is one of the Nonspecific 214. all of the following statements
thalamic-nuclei about the medial geniculate
body are true except:
211. Both the anterior and medial a. projects auditory impulses to
groups of thalamic nuclei the temporal lobe
receive impulses from the b. connected to inferior colliculus
hypothalamus and have a role in c. one of the Posterior group of
controlling emotions thalamic nuclei
a. True d. connected to superior
b. False colliculus

Notice the following picture and

215. The structure A is related to the
answer the questions:
integration of somatic, visual
and auditory information.
a. True
b. False

216. Which of the following isn't one

of the functions of the thalamus

212. Which of the pointed nuclei is a. It is a relay center in circuits of

the Main thalamic motor the basal ganglia.

nucleus b. It is a relay center for visual

a. 1 and auditory pathways

b. 2

c. It is a relay center for epicritic
sensations from the opposite
side of the body to the cortex
d. It is a primitive center for
protopathic sensations from
the same side of the body
217. The most affected part in the
thalamic syndrome is:
a. medial division of the
posteroventral nucleus
b. lateral division of the
posteroventral nucleus
c. lateral ventral thalamic nuclei
d. anterior-nuclei
218. what's meant by the thalamic
hyperpathia:
a. the pain felt is following the all
or nothing relationship
b. the pain felt is poorly localized
c. the pain felt is Having a high
threshold
219. patient suffering from thalamic
syndrome may have sensory and
motor ataxia
a. true
b. false
220. patient suffering from
thrombosis of the artery
supplying the right thalamus
cann't identify a pen in his
…hand with closed eyes
a. right
b. left
221. All of the following are
functions of the anterior
hypothalamus except:
a. Regulation of body
temperature
b. Water balance
c. Controlling of sleeping
d. Wakefulness
222. Destruction of the 2
ventromedial nuclei of
hypothalamus leads to:
a. Hypothalamic obesity
b. Hyperphagia
c. Sham rage reaction
d. all of the above
223. Endocrine functions are
controlled by……………..nuclei
of hypothalamus:
a. Anterior group
b. Posterior group
c. Medial group
d. Lateral group
224. Bilateral amagdaloid lesion leads
to:
a. Placidity
  

b. Sham rage reaction b. Supraoptic nucleus

c. Aphagia c. suprachiasmic nucleus
d. None of the above d. None of the above

225. Stimulation of ventromedial 230. Thirst centre is stimulated by:

nuclei of hypothalamus leads to: a. Increased blood volume
a. Aphagia b. Decreased osmolarity
b. Anorexia c. Decreased blood volume
c. Placidity d. None of the above
d. Both A and c
231. Cells of supraoptic nucleus are
226. Placidity can be produced by: sensitive to:
a. Stimulation of ventromedial a. Temperature
nuclei b. Blood volume
b. Bilateral lesion of amygdaloid c. Osmolairty
c. Removal of neocortex d. B & c
d. Both a & b
232. Sleep is mediated by:
227. Central thermo receptors a. Cholinergic neurons
present in: b. GABA releasing inhibitory
a. Supraoptic nucleus neurons
b. Preoptic nucleus c. Histaminergic neurons
c. Suprachiasmic nucleus d. None of the above
d. None of the above
233. Arousal is produced by:
228. Feeding center presents in: a. Inhibition of reticular
a. Anterior nuclei formation
b. Posterior nuclei b. Stimulation of anterior
c. Medial nuclei hypothalamus
d. Lateral nuclei c. Stimulation of posterior
hypothalamus
229. Thirst center presents in: d. None of the above
a. Preoptic nucleus

234. …… center is present in
ventromedial nucleus:
a. Thirst center
b. Feeding center
c. Satiety center
d. None of the above
235. Stimulation of anterior
hypothalamus leads to:
a. Sleeping
b. Sedation
c. Arousal
d. None of the above
236. Anorexia results from:
a. Stimulation of feeding center
b. Destruction of satiety center
c. Stimulation if satiety center
d. Destruction of feeding center
237. Aphagia results from
a. Stimulation of feeding center
b. Destruction of satiety center
c. Stimulation of satiety center
d. Destruction of feeding center
238. Destruction of satiety center
leads to:
a. Hyperphagia
b. Aphagia
c. Anorexia
d. None of the above
239. mamillothalamic tract connects:
a. lateral nuclei of the thalamus and
mamillary bodies
b. anterior nuclei of the thalamus
and mamillary bodies
c. lateral nuclei of the
hypothalamus and mamillary
bodies
d. anterior nuclei of the
hypothalamus and mamillary
bodies
240. which of the following is the
correct sequence of the papez
circuit
a. Hippocampus >> Cingulate
gyrus >>Anterior thalamus >>
Mamillary bodies
b. Anterior thalamus >>Mamillary
bodies >>
Hippocampus>>Cingulate gyrus
c. Hippocampus >> Anterior
thalamus >> Mamillary bodies
>>Cingulate gyrus
d. Hippocampus >>Mamillary
bodies >>Anterior thalamus
>>Cingulate gyrus
241. the fornix connects:
a. The hippocampus to the
mamillary bodies
b. Hippocampus to the Anterior
thalamus
c. Mamillary bodies to the Cingulate
gyrus
242. Its lesions cause moderate
hyperphagia with indisciminate
ingestion of all kinds of food

a. hippocampus
b. Cingulate gyrus
c. mamillary bodies
d. amygdale
243. a structure is concerned with the
formation and storage of memories
associated with fear and love
a. hippocampus
b. Cingulate gyrus
c. mamillary bodies
d. amygdaloid nucleus
244. The limbic system and the
hypothalamus can play a role in
regulating our autonomic
functions
a. true
b. false
245. the following are functions of the
limbic system except
a. Motivation
b. Olfaction
c. relay center for visual and
auditory pathways
d. Regulation of autonomic
functions
246. All the following are true
regarding to the alpha waves
recorded by the EEG except:
a. are most marked in the
parieto-occipital lobe
b. Are recorded in an awake
active person
c. Occurring at frequency of 8-
13/sec
d. They are with amplitude of
about 50 μV
247. The following waves are
markedly seen in patients with
brain diseases:
a. theta waves
b. Beta waves
c. Delta waves
d. a & c
e. b & c
248. Which of the following
statements is true regarding to
the Beta waves?
a. are seen in the parietal region
b. Are recorded in an awake
person regardless the mental
activity.
c. They have amplitude lower
than 50 mV
d. They are not recorded during
sleep
e. None of the above
249. Which of the following
statements is false about the
Theta waves?
a. They have frequency less than
that of Alpha waves
b. Physiologically, the occur in
children
c. Pathologically, they are seen in
many brain disorders
d. They are seen during stage I of
slow wave sleep

e. None of the above
250. Regarding to the Delta waves,
which of the following
statements is false?
a. they have the lowest frequency
of EEG waves
b. They are recorded only in
stage III of slow wave sleep
c. Normally, they occur in
infancy
d. They are the waves of very
deep sleep
e. None of the above
251. Slow wave sleep is characterized
by the following EXCEPT:
a. Drop in the blood pressure
b. Decrease in the BMR
c. Sympathetic tone on the blood
vessels is lowered
d. This is the stage of no dreams
e. None of the above
252. Regarding to the NREM sleep, all
of the following are false EXEPT:
a. It occurs at the beginning of
the sleep.
b. the passage from wakefulness
to it is characterized by an
increase in frequencies and
voltage activities
c. It is of duration less than REM
sleep
d. a &b
e. None of the above
253. REM sleep is characterized by:
a. Atonia
b. Variable heart rate
c. Active dreaming
d. a & b
e. None of the above
254. Which of the following
statements about REM sleep is
false:
a. It shows activity similar to the
waking state.
b. Apnea may occurs in this stage
due to reduction in the
homeostatic mechanism
c. The Beta waves are mainly
recorded in this stage & other
slow waves are also recorded.
d. Known as paradoxical sleep
and occurs in episodes of 5-
30min
e. None of the above
255. Each of the following produce
sleep EXCEPT:
a. Adenosine
b. GABA
c. Serotonin antagonists
d. None of the above
Put (True) or (False) in front of the
following statements (from 11-15):
256. Stage II of the NREM sleep is
characterized by sleep spindles
superimposed on Beta waves.
257. NREM sleep is characterized by
marked decrease in muscle tone.
  

258. REM sleep is known as

paradoxical sleep and shows
only Beta waves.
259. The sleep cycle consists of one
episode of REM and 4 episodes
of NREM.
260. During REM sleep, the slow
waves are inhibited by
cholinergic neurons in the
brainstem.
  

Answers: 32. C
33. D
1. B
34. B
2. B
35. B
3. D
36. A
4. B
37. B
5. A
38. D
6. D
39. C
7. A
40. B
8. C
41. C
9. B
42. A
10. C
43. A
11. B
44. B
12. C
45. B
13. F
46. B
14. F
47. C
15. F
48. D
16. F
49. D
17. F
50. A
18. T
51. B
19. F
52. D
20. F
53. B
21. B
54. A
22. D
55. C
23. C
56. D
24. C
57. B
25. A
58. B
26. B
59. C
27. B
60. A
28. D
61. D
29. C
62. A
30. B
63. C
31. B
64. B
  

65. C 98. F
66. C 99. F
67. D 100. T
68. A 101. C
69. B 102. D
70. A 103. C
71. A 104. D
72. B 105. T
73. C 106. A
74. A 107. C
75. B 108. D
76. D 109. D
77. B 110. C
78. A 111. A
79. B 112. A
80. B 113. D
81. A 114. B
82. C 115. B
83. C 116. A
84. A 117. C
85. A 118. D
86. D 119. B
87. D 120. A
88. A 121. C
89. C 122. D
90. B 123. B
91. B 124. C
92. C 125. D
93. A 126. B
94. B 127. A
95. C 128. F
96. T 129. T
97. F 130. F
  

131. F 164. C
132. D 165. A
133. B 166. C
134. D 167. D
135. A 168. C
136. C 169. A
137. B 170. A
138. B 171. B
139. B 172. B
140. A 173. A
141. A 174. B
142. D 175. B
143. A 176. B
144. T 177. C
145. T 178. B
146. F 179. B
147. F 180. A
148. F 181. C
149. F 182. A
150. F 183. D
151. T 184. B
152. D 185. B
153. C 186. B
154. D 187. C
155. B 188. C
156. A 189. F
157. F 190. F
158. T 191. T
159. F 192. F
160. F 193. F
161. T 194. B
162. B 195. A
163. A 196. D
  

197. D 230. C
198. A 231. D
199. C 232. B
200. D 233. C
201. B 234. C
202. C 235. A
203. B 236. D
204. C 237. C
205. B 238. A
206. A 239. B
207. D 240. D
208. B 241. A
209. B 242. D
210. D 243. D
211. A 244. A
212. B 245. C
213. A 246. B
214. D 247. C
215. A 248. C
216. D 249. E
217. B 250. B
218. A 251. D
219. A 252. A
220. B 253. D
221. D 254. C
222. D 255. D
223. A 256. F
224. A 257. F
225. D 258. T
226. D 259. F
227. B 260. T
228. D
229. B

Anatomy of the CNS:
I. Anatomy of head and neck:
1. From the attachment of falx
cerebri all except ………
a. crista galli.
b. Upper surface of tentorium
cerebelli.
c. to the lips of the sagittal sulcus
on the inner aspect of skull
cap.
d. Upper border of petrous
temporal bone
2. Venous sinuses found in falx
cerebri all except ………
a. Superior sagittal sinus
b. Inferior sagittal sinus
c. Superior petrosal sinus
d. Straight sinus
3. The attached margin of Tentorium
cerebelli is attached to all except
……….
a. crista galli.
b. posterior clinoid process
c. upper border of petrous
temporal bone
d. the margin of the groove for
transverse sinus.
4. Venous sinuses related to
tentorium are all except ………
a. Straight
b. superior sagittal
c. Superior petrosal sinus in the
attached margin.
d. Transverse sinus in the
attached margin.
5. from the single sinuses found in
the cranial cavity are all except
……
a. Superior sagittal.
b. Inferior sagittal.
c. Straight sinus.
d. Cavernous
6. from the paired sinuses are all
except ………
a. Superior petrosal.
b. Inferior petrosal.
c. Occipital
d. Transverse sinus.
7. It begins at the apex of falx cerebri
above the crista galli and ends a
little to the right of the internal
occipital protuberance by turning
to the right side and becoming the
right transverse sinus. This is ……
a. superior sagittal
b. inferior sagittal
c. straight
d. transverse
8. Uniting with the great cerebral
vein to form the straight sinus this
is ….
a. superior sagittal
b. inferior sagittal
c. straight
d. transverse
  

9. It is situated at the line of junction

of the falx cerebri with the 14. blue eye is caused by bleeding in:-
tentorium cerebelli this is ………. a. aponeurosis of occipitofrontalis
a. superior sagittal muscle
b. inferior sagittal b. periosteum
c. straight c. dense C.T
d. transverse d. loose connective tissue

10. at the roof of the cavernous sinus
there is ……….
a. internal carotid artery
b. Body of sphenoid
c. Pituitary gland
d. temporal lobe of the brain
15. which of the following is a branch
from the internal carotid artery:-
a. supra orpital artery
b. superficial temporal artery
c. posterior auricular artery
d. occipital artery

11. nerves found at the lateral wall of 16. the area of the scalp in front of the
the cavernous sinus are all except auricle is supplied by all of the
…….. folowing except:-
a. a.Oculomotor (III) a. supra orpital artery
b. trochlear (IV b. supra trochlear artery
c. abducent (VI) c. occipital artery
d. d.Maxillary (V2) d. superficial temporal artery

12. The dense connective tissue layer 17. the motor nerve to the
of the scalp is called:- preauricular part of the scalp is:-
a. Peripheral layer. a. posterior auricular nerve
b. Fatty layer b. temporal branch of fascial nerve
c. Vascular layer c. trigimenal nerve
d. Central layer d. maxillary nerve

13. The third layer of the scalp is the 18. the occipitofrontalis muscle is
aponeurosis of:- supplied by:
a. buccinator muscle a. temporal branch of fascial nerve
b. occipitofrontalis muscle b. posterior auricular branch of
c. masseter muscle fasial nerve
d. none of the above c. occipital nerve
  

d. A and B b. internal juglar vein

19. all of the following are sensory
supply to the preauricular area of
the scalp except:-
a. auriclo temporal nerve
b. zygomatico temporal nerve
c. great auricular nerve
d. supra orbital nerve
20. all of the following are branches
from cervical spinal nerves
except:-
a. supra orbital nerve
b. lesser occipital nerve
c. great auricular nerve
d. none of the above
c. anterior fascial vein
d. posterior fascial vein
24. the only tributary of the
subclavian vein is:-
a. external nasal vein
b. external juglar vein
c. occipital vein
d. common fascial vein
25. lymphatic drainage of
preauricular part of the scalp:-
a. parotid L.N
b. mastoid L.N
c. occipital L.N
d. submental L.N

21. occipitofrontalis muscle:-

a. has frontal and occipital bellies 26. the orbicularis oculi muscle is
b. supplied by branches of fascial formed of :-
nerve a. orbital part
c. move the scalp forward and b. palpebral part
backward c. lacrimal part
d. all of the above d. all of the above

22. the occipital vein ends in:- 27. which of the following musles is
a. internal juglar vein pierced by:-
b. external juglar vein a. buccinator muscle
c. suboccipital venous plexus b. orbicularis oris muscle
d. subclavian vein c. frontalis muscle
d. mentalis muscle

23. superficial temporal vein unites

with the maxillary vein forming:- 28. the middle fibers of the buccinator
a. external juglar vein muscle is inserted into:-
  

a. upper lip b. zygomatico facial

b. lower lip c. infraorbital
c. a and b d. external nasal
d. none of the above

34. the upper eyelid is supplied by the

29. the motor supply of the face is following nerves except:-
carried by: a. supratrochlear nerve
a. trigeminal lerve b. supra orbital nerve
b. facial nerve c. palpebral branch of lacrimal
c. vagus nerve nerve
d. maxillary nerve d. palpebral branch of infra orbital
nerve
30. all of the following are branches
of the facial nerve except:- 35. the buccal nerve is abranch
a. temporal nerve from:-
b. mandibular nerve a. opthalmic nerve
c. buccal nerve b. mandibular nerve
d. maxillary nerve c. maxillary nerve
d. facial nerve
31. the platysma muscle is supplied by
which branch of the facial nerve:- 36. all of the following are branches
a. cervical branch of the facial artery except:-
b. buccal branch a. superior labial
c. temporal branch b. inferior labial
d. zygomatic branch c. angular
d. mental
32. all the face is is sensory supplied
by the trigeminal nerve except:- 37. the transverse facial artery is
a. the upper lip abranch from:-
b. the lower lip a. facial artery
c. the area over the angle of the b. occipital artery
mandible c. superficial temporal artery
d. the mental area d. internal carotid artery

33. the maxillary nerve gives the 38. the common facial vein ends in
following branch except:- a. internal juglar vein
a. zygomaticotemporal b. external juglar vein
  

c. subclavian vein b. splenius capitus

d. maxillary vein c. levator scabulae
d. omohyoid muscle

39. the lymph drainage of the medial 44. all of the following pierce the
part of the face is into investing layer of the deep fascia
a. submental L.N except:-
b. submandibular L.N a. external juglar vein
c. parotid L.N b. L.V
d. mastoid L.N c. internal juglar vein
d. supraclavicular nerve
40. the side of the neck is divided into
anterior and posterior triangles 45. the posterior triangle contain the
by:- following nerves except:-
a. platysma muscle a. spinal part of accessory nerve
b. sternomastiod muscle b. glossopharyngeal nerve
c. trapezius muscle c. roots and trunks of brachial
d. levator scabulae plexus
d. cutaneous branches of cervical
41. the posterior border of the plexus
posterior triangle is:
a. sternomastoid muscle 46. all of the following are cutaneous
b. scalenius muscle branches of the cervical plexus
c. trapezius muscle except:-
d. clavicle a. great occipital nerve
b. great auricular nerve
42. the following muscle is a part of c. lesser occipital
the roof of posterior triangle d. transverse cervical
muscle:-
a. platysma muscle 47. the nerve running paralel to rhe
b. omohyoid muscle sternomastoid muscle is:-
c. splenius capitus muscle a. great auricular nerve
d. trapezius muscle b. supra cavicular nerve
c. transverse cervical nerve
43. the following muscles form the d. lesser occipital nerve
floor of the posterior triangle
except:- 48. the supra scapular artery is a
a. semispinalis capitis branch from:-
  

a. common carotid artery d. Carotid triangle and digastrics

b. facial artery
c. subclavian artery
d. transverse cervical artery
49. the supra scapular vein end in:-
a. internal juglar vein
b. external juglar vein
c. subclavian vein
d. none of the above
triangle
53. All of the following are contents of
carotid triangle except :
a. External carotid artery
b. Carotid sheath
c. Superficial cervical lymph nodes
d. Sympathetic trunk

50. All of the following are the

54. Ansa cervicalis supply all the
boundries of anterior triangle of
following except :
the neck except :
a. Sternohyoid muscle
a. Mid line of the neck
b. Sternothyroid muscle
b. Inferior border of the maxilla
c. Thyrohyoid muscle
c. Inferior border of the mandible
d. Infrahyoid muscle
d. Anterior border of the
steromastoid
55. A salivary gland can be seen in
which of the following :
51. A structure is found in both
a. Digastric triangle
digastric and submental triangle :
b. Submental triangle
a. Omohyoid muscle
c. Carotid triangle
b. Hypoglossus
d. Muscular triangle
c. Sternihyoid muscle
d. Mylohyoid muscle
56. All of the following are found in
pairs except :
52. Superior bellies of omohyoid
a. Submental triangle
muscle is a common boundry of :
b. Diagastric triangle
a. Digastric and submental triangle
c. Carotid triangle
b. Digastric and muscular triangle
d. Muscular triangle
c. Muscular triangle and carotid
triangle
57. All of the following muscles are
attached to hyoid bone except :
  

a. Sternomastoid muscle b. false

b. Anterior bellies of Digastric
muscles 62. Ansa cervicalis nerve supplies all
the following muscles except:
c. Superior bellies of omohyoid
a. sternohyoid
muscles
b. sternothyroid
d. Posterior bellies of Digastric c. thyrohyoid
muscles d. superior belly of omohyoid

58. The base of the submental triangle 63. The inferior root of ansa cervicalis
nerve arises from:
is :
a. c1
a. Thyroid cartilage
b. c5
b. Maxilla
c. c3
c. Hyoid bone d. c2 &c3
d. Mandible
64. Nerve to thyrohyoid arise from :
59. All of the following can be a. c2
b. c1
considered a part of the neck
c. c3
triangles except :
d. none of the above
a. Scalenus medias
b. Scalenus anterior
65. Hypoglossus and thyrohyoid form
c. Splenius capitis the floor of muscular triangle:
d. Semispinalis capitis a. true
b. false
60. All of the following are boundaries
of the carotid triangle except: 66. Inferior belly of omohyoid is one
a. anterior border of sternomastoi of carotid triangle boundaries:
b. anterior belly of digastric muscle a. true
c. superior belly of omohyoid b. false
d. posterior belly of digastric muscle
67. The floor of carotid triangle is
61. sympathetic trunk is one of the formed by:
carotid triangle contents: a. hypoglossus
a. true b. thyrohyoid
  

c. middle and inferior constrictors of b. auricular to the skin of the

the pharynx external auditory meatus
d. all of the above c. pharyngeal
d. tympanic branch forming lesser
68. Vagus nerve is one of the carotid superficial petrosal nerve
sheath contents:
a. true 74. Descends in the neck within the
b. false carotid sheath :
a. glossopharyngeal nerve
69. All of the following are contents of b. vagus
the carotid sheath except: c. accessory
a. common carotid artery d. all of the above
b. vagus nerve
c. internal jugular vein 75. The cervical part of accessory
d. external carotid artery nerve arises from medulla
oblongata:
70. superior belly of omohyoid is one a. true
of the muscular triangle b. false
boundaries:
a. true 76. Hypoglossal nerve is a pure motor
b. false nerve:
a. true
71. sternohyoid is one of the muscles b. False
forming the deep layer of
infrahyoid muscles : 77. The terminal destination of the
a. true lymph drainage in the face and
b. false neck is the junction between
subclavian vein and ……
72. Ninth cranial nerve is :
a. Internal jugular vien
a. glossopharyngeal
b. External jugular vein
b. vagus
c. accessory c. Anterior facial vein
d. none of the above d. Retromandibular vein

73. All of the following are branches
of the vagus nerve except:
a. meningeal
78. The jugular trunk in the right side
drains into :
a. Internal jugular vien

b. Right lymphatic duct
c. Thoracic duct
d. Subclavian vein
79. Which of the following ducts is
related to the brachial plexus :
a. Tubal tonsil
b. Upper deep cervical lymph node
c. Lower deep cervical lymph nodes
d. Lingual tonsil
80. Which of the following is one of
the tributaries of the jugulo
omohyoid lymph nodes :
a. Back of the tongue
b. Tonsils
c. Lower part of the pharynx
d. Upper part of the pharynx
True and false :
81. Jugulo digastrics lymph nodes lie
behind the internal jugular vein
82. Jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes lie
behind the intermediate tendon of
omohyiod
83. Thyroid gland drains directly to
the jugular trunk
84. Adenoid is one of the transverse
superficial lymph nodes
85. Deep cervical lymph nodes lie
superficial to sternomastoid
muscle
86. Upper deep cervical lymph nodes
can extend beyond the
sternomastoid muscle
87. Posterior region of the scalp is
drained to :
a. Occipital lymph node
b. Postauricular lymph node
c. Parotid lymph node
d. Submadibular lymph node
88. Mastoid nodes receives afferent
from all of the following except :
a. Floor of the meatus
b. Auricle
c. Angle of jaw skin
d. Upper part of parotid region
89. Parotid lymph nodes efferent is :
a. Sub mandibular lymph node
b. Sub mental lymph nodes
c. Jugulo digastrics node
d. Jugulo omohyoid node
90. All of the following drains to the
submandibular node except :
a. Parotid nodes
b. Submental nodes
c. Postauricular nodes
d. Upper part of the anterior
triangle of the neck
True and false :

91. Nasopharynx can drain directly to
the deep lymph nodes
92. Atlanto occipital joint drains to the
paratracheal lymph nodes
93. Cervical part of the trachea is
drained to the paratracheal lymph
nodes
94. Postauricular lymph nodes lie
deep to the mastoid
95. Submental lymph nodes are
contents of the submental triangle
of the neck
96. Lateral column of the superficial
lymph nodes lies on internal
jugular vien
97. All of the following drain to the
submandibular nodes except :
a. Anterior part of nasal cavityw
b. Tip of the tongue
c. Centre of the tongue
d. Vessels of the gum
98. Above the vocal cord in the larynx
drains to :
a. Upper deep cervical lymph
nodes
b. Lower deep cervical lymph
nodes
c. Submandibular lymph nodes
d. Submental lymph nodes
99. All of the following can drain to
the upper deep cervical lymph
node except :
a. Occipital lymph nodes
b. Floor of the mouth
c. Parotid of the mouth
d. Mastoid lymph nodes
100. All of the following are
considered transverse lymph
nodes except :
a. Lower deep lymph nodes
b. Lingual tonsils
c. Occipital nodes
d. Periauricular lymph nodes
101. Middle ear drains to :
a. Mastoid lymph nodes
b. Periauricular lymph nodes
c. Submandibular lymph nodes
d. Sbmental lymph nodes
102. Platysma Muscle is supplied by
:
a. Temporal branch of facial nerve
b. Zygomatic branch of the facial
nerve
c. Mandibular branch of the facial
nerve
d. Cervical branch of the facial
nerve
  

103. Great auricular nerve is a 107. Which of the following lymph

branch from : nodes is the site of drainage of the
a. Facial nerve scalp and lies in the posterior
b. Cervical plexus triangle of the neck?
c. Brachial plexus a. Mastoid lymph node
d. Accessory nerve b. Occipital lymph node
c. Supraclavicular lymph node
104. The foramena through which d. Parotid lymph node
cavernous sinuses can be
connected to the anterior facial 108. The site of meeting between
vein : free and attached margin of the
a. Foramen Lacerum tentorium cerebelli :
b. Foramen Ovale a. All petrous part of temporal
c. Foramen rotundum bone
d. Both a and b b. Petrous apex
e. Both b and c c. Petrous base
f. All of the above d. Anterior clinoid process

105. All of the following can end to 109. Which of the following
the confluence of sinuses except : muscles insert on the skin of eye
a. Superior sagittal sinuses borrows
b. Inferior sagittal sinuses a. Palpepral part of Orbicularis
c. Straight sinuses oculi
d. None of the above b. Frontalis
c. Orbital part of Orbicularis oculi
106. Which of the following is the d. Lacrimal part of Orbicularis
most superficial muscle : oculi
a. Semi spinalis capitis e. Both a and b
b. Splenius capitis f. Both b and c
c. Scalenus medias g. Both a , c and d
d. Levator Scapulae h. All of the above

110. Which of the following sinuses
has meningeal branches?
a. Occipital sinuses
b. Transverse sinuses
c. Sigmoid sinuses
d. Cvernous sinuses
111. The medial branch of the
external carotid artery is :
a. Superior thyroid artery
b. Ascending pharyngeal artery
c. Facial artery
d. Lingual artery
112. Which of the following nerves
has a secremotor branch to the
patotid salivary gland :
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Accessory nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
113. Which of the following gives
motor supply to the laryngeal
mucosa above vocal cords?
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. Pharyngeal branch of the vagus
nerve
c. External laryngeal nerve
d. Internal laryngeal nerve
114. The type of Zygapo physeal
joint is :
a. Plane synovial joint
b. Fibro cartilage
c. Pivot joint
d. Ellipsoid joint
115. Which of the following
vertebrae is more related to the
vertebral artery ?
a. Atlas
b. Axis
c. 3rd cervical vertebrae
d. 7th cervical vertebrae
116. Whaldyer's ring is considered :
a. Deep vertical lymph nodes
b. Deep transverse lymph nodes
c. Superficial transverse lymph
nodes
d. Superficial vertical lymph
nodes
117. All of the following ligaments
are related to the odntoid bone in
axis except:
a. Apical ligament
b. Alar ligament
c. Cruciform ligament
d. Ligamentum nuchae
118. One of the following lies in the
pathway of the drainage of the
lower part of parotid region :
a. Occipital lymph nodes
  

b. Upper deep lymph nodes

c. Parotid lymph nodes
d. Sub mandibular group of
lymph nodes

119. One of the following drain to

the submandibular lymph node :
a. Sides of the tongue
b. Centre of the tongue
c. Lateral sides of the tongue
d. Soft palate

120. Which of the following arches

have branches through the
accessory nerve :
a. 3rd
b. 4th
c. 6th
d. All of the above
  

Answers: 29. B
30. D
1. D
31. A
2. C
32. C
3. A
33. D
4. B
34. D
5. D
35. D
6. C
36. D
7. A
37. C
8. B
38. A
9. C
39. A
10. A
40. B
11. C
41. C
12. C
42. A
13. B
43. D
14. D
44. C
15. A
45. B
16. C
46. A
17. B
47. D
18. D
48. C
19. C
49. B
20. A
50. B
21. D
51. D
22. C
52. C
23. D
53. C
24. B
54. C
25. A
55. A
26. D
56. A
27. A
57. A
28. C
58. C
  

59. B 89. A
60. B 90. C
61. A 91. T
62. C 92. F
63. D 93. T
64. B 94. F
65. B 95. T
66. B 96. F
67. D 97. C
68. A 98. A
69. D 99. A
70. A 100. A
71. B 101. B
72. A 102. D
73. D 103. B
74. B 104. D
75. B 105. B
76. A 106. A
77. A 107. B
78. B 108. B
79. C 109. F
80. C 110. A
81. F 111. B
82. F 112. A
83. F 113. A
84. F 114. A
85. F 115. A
86. T 116. B
87. A 117. D
88. D 118. B
  

119. A
120. D
  

II. Neuroanatomy: 5. Posteromediate septum is present

in all spinal cord in all of these

1. The length of the spinal cord is regions except :

about : a. All thoracic vertebrae

a. 10 cm b. All cervical vertebrae

b. 20 cm c. All lumber vertebrae

c. 30 cm d. All sacral vertebrae

d. 45 cm
6. All of the following can be found

2. The cervical enlargement clearly in the gray matter except :

corresponds to : a. Blood capillaries

a. Lumber plexus b. Neuroglia

b. Brachial plexus c. Myelinated nerve fibres

c. Sacral plexus d. Nerve soma

d. Cervical plexus
7. Median group in anterior grey

3. The period in which the spinal matter is present in all of the

cord occupy all the vertebral canal following except

is : a. T1

a. 1st month b. T2

b. 1st two months c. L5

c. 1st three months d. L4

d. 1st four months

8. Lumberosacral nucleus in central

4. Meningies surrounding the spinal group is present in :

cord end at the level of : a. C1

a. S1 b. C2

b. S2 c. S1

c. S3 d. C7

d. S4
9. Spinal Accessory nerve nuclei are
present in which position:
a. Medial
  

b. Lateral a. Craniosacral outflow

c. Central b. Thoracolumber flow
d. Posterior c. Thoracosacral flow
d. Lumbrosecral flow
10. Lateral group of anterior gray
matter can't be found in : 15. Anterior spinal artery arises from
a. Thoracic a. Basilar artery
b. Lumber b. Subclavian artery
c. Cervical c. Vertebral arteries
d. Sacral d. Aorta

11. Dorsal funicular group is absent 16. Which of the following where
from all of the following xcept : longitudinal branches of posterior
a. Cervical vertebrae spinal aretery branches :
b. Thoracic vertebrae a. Ventral root
c. Lumbar vertebrae b. Dorsal root
d. None of the above c. Gray matter
d. White matter
12. One of the following can be found
in the C8 vertebrae spinal cord : 17. Radicularis magna supply origin
a. Ventromedial group of
b. Dorsomedial group a. Cervical plexus
c. Both of the above b. Pharyngeal plexus
d. Central group c. Brachial plexus
d. Lumber plexus
13. T1 has all of the following except :
a. Visceral gray 18. Anterior spinal vein passes
b. Medial group through :
c. Lateral group a. Anteromedian sulcus
d. Nucleus dorsalis b. Posteromedian septum
c. Ventral root
14. Interomediolateral is concerened d. Dorsal root
with

19. Internal venous plexus lies inside :
a. Dura mattar
b. Extra dural space
c. Periosteum
d. Tubular sheath
20. Lumber cistern is found in :
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Pia matar
c. Dura matar
d. Arachnoid matar
21. Linea splinders lies in :
a. Dorsal root
b. Ventral root
c. Anteromedian sulcus
d. Posteromedial septum
22. Last process of ligamneta
denticulata is attached to
a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. L4
23. Posteromedian sulcus in the
medulla oblongata continues as :
a. Intermediate sulcus
b. Anteriomedian fissure
c. Posteromedian septum
d. Dorsal root
24. Which of the following form the
pyramid ?
a. Corticospinal nuclei
b. Inferior olivary nuclei
c. Corticospinal fibres
d. Cuneate nuclei
25. All of the following pass through
the posterolateral sulcus except :
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Cranial accessory nerve
26. The groove found in the pontine
transwerse fibres is for
a. Basilar artery
b. Basal vein
c. Vertebral artery
d. Superior cerebellar artery
27. Which of the following nerves exit
through the junction between
pons and pyramid :
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Abducent nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Vestibualr nerve
28. Cereberal penduncle is formed of
all except :
a. Crus cerebri
b. Substantia nigra

c. Tegmentum
d. Tectum
29. Colliculi are separated by :
a. Cruiciform sulcus
b. Posteromediaum sulcus
c. Anetromedian sulcus
d. Intermediate sulcus
30. Corpora quadrigemina is :
a. Cruiciform sulcus
b. Colliculi
c. Frenulum velli
d. Brachium
31. Superior coliculi is associated with
: d. Rostrum
a. Inferior brachium
b. Lateral geniculate
c. Frenulum villum
d. Medial geniculate
32. All of the following enters in the
dorsal surface of the pons except :
a. Lateral vestibular nucleus
b. Medial vestibular nucleus
c. Facial nerve
d. Abducent nerve
True and False
33. Trigeminal nerve has large medial
sensory root
34. Basal vein crosses the cerebral
peduncle
35. Substania nigra is a layer of
white matter
36. Hypoglossal trigone is the most
lateral part of inferior floor of the
4th ventricle
37. Groove between pyramid and olive
is called is posterolateral sulcus
38. The roof of the anterior horn of
the lateral ventricle is :
a. Anterior part of body of corpus
callosum
b. Genu of corpus callosum
c. Head of caudate Nucleus
39. The medial wall of the body of
lateral ventricle posteriorly is :
a. Septum Pellucidum
b. Head of caudate nucleus
c. Fornix
d. Tapetum
40. Floor of the posterior horn of the
lateral ventricle is formed by :
a. Forceps
b. Calcarivis
c. Tapetum
d. Rostrum

41. Which of the following lies in both
floor and lateral wall of the
anterior horn of lateral ventricle:
a. Tail of cauduate nucleus
b. Rosterum
c. Septum pellucidum
d. Head of cauduate nucleus
42. Which of the following is most
medial in the floor of body of
lateral ventricle:
a. Striathalamic vein
b. Stria terminalis
c. Body of fornix
d. Chroid plexus
43. Which part of the caudate nucleus
can be found in the inferior horn
of Lateral ventricle:
a. Body
b. Head
c. Tail
d. All of the above
44. Amygloid nucleus lies in the roof
of :
a. Anterior horn of lateral
ventricle
b. Body of lateral ventricle
c. Inferior horn of lateral
ventricle
d. Posterior horn of lateral
ventricle
45. Which of the following is the
cavity of Diencephalon ?
a. Lateral ventricle
b. Third ventricle
c. 4th ventricle
d. All of the above
46. All of the following are situated in
the anterior wall of the third
ventricle except :
a. Anterior commisure
b. Anterior column of the fornix
c. Lamina terminalis
d. Habenular commisure
47. Lateral ventricle is connected to
the 3rd ventricle by
a. Interventricular foramen of
Monoro
b. Aqueduct of sylvius
c. Optic recess
d. Pineal recess
48. The upper lateral wall of the 4th
ventricle is formed of :
a. Superior cerebellar peduncle
b. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
c. Cuneate
d. Gracile
49. The cerebellum occupy the middle
part of the roof of:
a. 3rd ventricle
  

b. 4th ventricle 53. The body of Caudate nucleus is

c. Body of lateral ventricle related to:
d. All of the above
a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior
horn of lateral ventricle
50. All of the following can contribute
b. Floor of central part of lateral
to the increase in CSF pressure
ventricle
except :
a. Straining c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral
b. Cough ventricle

c. Relaxation of the internal d. Lentiform nucleus

jugular vein
54. The tail of Caudate nucleus is
d. None of the above
related to:
51. Caudate nucleus formed of:
a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior
a. Head , body , lateral wall , horn of lateral ventricle
medial wall
b. Floor of central part of lateral
b. Head, lateral wall , medial wall ventricle
, tail
c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral
c. Head , body, tail ventricle

d. None of the above d. Lentiform nucleus

52. The head of Caudate nucleus is 55. The anteroinferior part of Caudate
related to: nucleus is related to:

a. Floor & lateral wall of anterior a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior
horn of lateral ventricle horn of lateral ventricle

b. Floor of central part of lateral b. Floor of central part of lateral

ventricle ventricle

c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral c. Roof of inferior horn of lateral

ventricle ventricle

d. Lentiform nucleus d. Lentiform nucleus

  

56. Corpus striatum are: b. Basolateral & Central

a. Caudate & Claustrum c. Internal capsule & external

capsule
b. Caudate & Lentiform
d. Putamen & Globus pallidas
c. Caudate & Amygdaloid
61. The medial relation of The
d. Caudate & corpus callosum
Lentiform nucleus:
57. Corpus striatum is:
a. Internal capsule
a. Blank
b. External capsule
b. White
c. Corona radiata
c. Striated
d. Anterior comissure
d. All of the above
62. The lateral relation of The
58. The Lentiform nucleus is: Lentiform nucleus:

a. Biconvex lens like a. Internal capsule

b. Biconcave lens like b. External capsule

c. Unicovex lens like c. Corona radiata

d. Uniconcave lens like d. Anterior comissure

59. The Lentiform nucleus is divided 63. The inferior relation of The
by: Lentiform nucleus:

a. Medial medullary lamina a. Internal capsule

b. Medial pallidal segment b. External capsule

c. Lateral medullary lamina c. Corona radiata

d. Lateral pallidal segment d. Anterior comissure

60. The subdivision of The Lentiform 64. The anterior relation of The
nucleus are: Lentiform nucleus:

a. Corticomedial & Basolateral a. Internal capsule

  

b. External capsule c. Above tip of anterior horn of

lateral ventricle
c. Corona radiata
d. Below tip of anterior horn of
d. Anterior comissure
lateral ventricle
65. The superior relation of The
69. Corticomedial group of
Lentiform nucleus:
Amygdaloid is connected with:
a. Internal capsule
a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem
b. External capsule
b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem
c. Corona radiata
c. Olfactory structures
d. Anterior comissure
d. All of the above
66. Clastrum is located between:
e. Both A & B
a. Caudate & Lentiform
70. Central group of Amygdaloid is
b. Lentiform & amygdaloidal connected with:

c. Lentiform & insula a. Motor Nuclei of brain stem

d. None of the above b. Sensory Nuclei of brain stem

67. Clastrum is separated from c. Olfactory structures

Lentiform by:
d. All of the above
a. Internal capsule
e. Both A & B
b. External capsule
71. One of the following lies in the
c. Cerebral cortex anterior limb of the internal

d. Internal pallidal segment capsule :

a. Anterior thalamic radiation
68. Amygdaloid is located:
b. Posterior thalamic
a. Above tip of inferior horn of radiation
lateral ventricle c. Superior thalamic
radiation
b. Below tip of inferior horn of
lateral ventricle d. Inferior thalamic radiation

72. Where can occipitopontine fibres
be found :
a. Anterior limb of internal
capsule
b. Genu of the internal capsule
c. Thalamolentiform part of
posterior limb
d. Retrolentiform part of
posterior limb of internal
capsule
73. How internal capsule is related to
the lentiform nucleus ?
a. Medially
b. Superiorly
c. Laterally
d. Inferioirly
74. Blood supply of the genu is :
a. Anterior cerebral artery
b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Internal carotid artery
d. None of the above
75. All of the following receive two
arterial blood supplies except :
a. Anterimedial part of the
anterior limb of internal
capsule
b. Genu of the internal capsule
c. Thalamolentifrom part of
posterior limb
d. Retro lentiform part of
posterior limb
76. Which of the following is
concerned with connection
between two different sides in the
cortex :
a. Commissural fibres
b. Association fibres
c. Projection fibres
d. All of the above
77. Long association fibres lying in the
medial surface is :
a. Uncinate fibres
b. Cingulum
c. Superior longitudinal
fasciculus
d. Fronto occipital fasciculus
78. The lateral boundary of corona
radiata is :
a. Uncinate fibres
b. Cingulum
c. Fronto occipital fasiculus
d. Superior Longitudinal
fasiculus
79. The long association fibre
connecting between occipital lobe
and temporal lobe is :
a. Superior longitudinal
fasiculus
  

b. Inferior longitudinal fasiculus 84. All of the following are connected

c. Fronto occipital fasiculus by the anterior commissure except
d. Cingulum :
a. Olfactory bulb
80. Which of the following are b. Amygdaloid body
associated with orbital surface of c. Posterior perforated body
the frontal lobe? d. Pyriform body
a. Cingulum
b. Rostrum of corporus callosum 85. special visceral efferent fibers
c. Both secremotor supply to:
d. Non of the above a. muscles of somites
b. muscles of branchial arches
c. smooth muscles
81. Forceps minor radiates from :
d. exocrine glands
a. Rostrum
b. Genu 86. taste and olfaction sensation is
c. Body carries by:
d. Splenium a. G.V.E
b. G.V.A
c. S.V.A
82. Splenium of the copus callosum
d. S.S.A
radiate fibres related to :
a. Posterior horn of lateral 87. the following nuclei are presented
ventricle in the midbrain except:
b. Anterior horn of lateral a. oculomotor nucleus
ventricle b. edinger westphal nucleus
c. trochlear nucleus
c. 3rd ventricle
d. facial nucleus
d. 4th ventricle

88. nucleus ambiguous is found in:

83. Which of the following is most a. medulla oblongata
superior ? b. midbrain
a. Cerebral aqueduct c. pons
b. Posterior commissure d. spinal cord

c. Habenular commissure
d. None of the above

89. the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
is supplied from:
a. oculomotor nucleus
b. abducent nucleus
c. trochlear nucleus
d. hypoglossal nucleus
90. the trochlear nucleus supplies:
a. lateral rectus muscle
b. superipr oblique muscle
c. palatoglossus muscle
d. none of the above
91. the motor nucleus of trigeminal
nerve supplies all of the following
except:
a. anterior belly of digastrics
b. mylohyoid
c. stylohyoid
d. tensor tympani
92. nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to
the following nerve:
a. accessory nerve
b. facial nerve
c. trigeminal nerve
d. hypoglossal nerve
93. the only muscle derived from the
third branchial arch is:
a. tensor palate
b. mylohyoid
c. platysma
d. stylopharyngreus
94. the facial nucleus supplies the
following muscles except:
a. muscles of the face
b. occipitofrontalis muscle
c. stylopharyngeal muscle
d. stylohyoid
95. the fibers forming the cranial
outflow of the parathympathatic
nervous system:
a. G.S.E
b. S.V.E
c. G.V.E
d. G.V.A
96. the parathympathatic part of the
occulomotor nerve is:
a. superior salivary nucleus
b. inferior salivary nucleus
c. solitary nucleus
d. edinger westiphal nucleus
97. inferior salivary nucleus gives
preganglionic fibers to:
a. lacrimal glands
b. parotid gland
c. submandibular gland
d. buccal gland
98. the following nucleus gives rise to
general visceral efferent fibers:
a. edinger westphal nucleus
b. superior salivary nucleus
c. inferior salivary nucleus
d. all of the above
99. which of the following nuclei
receive visceral afferent fibers:
a. solitary nucleus
b. olivary nucleus
c. hypoglossal nucleus
  

d. none of the above 105. the nucleus responsible for

receiving pain and temperature
100. solitary nucleus receive from the head is:
general sensory fibers running in: a. spinal nucleus of trigeminal
a. vagus nerve b. main sensory nucleus
b. glossopharyngeal nerve c. superior salivary nucleus
c. trigeminal nerve d. mesencephalic nucleus
d. both a and b
106. S.S.A include the following
101. sensation from the respiratory except:
tract, abdominal viscera and GIT a. vestibular nucleus
are received by: b. cochlear nucleus
a. facial nucleus c. solitary nucleus
b. superior salivary nucleus d. all of the above
c. solitary nucleus
d. trochlear nucleus 107. the cerebellum is the posterior
part of the midbrain
102. taste sensation is carried by the a. True
following except: b. False
a. facial nerve
b. glossopharyngeal nerve 108. The cerebellum lies in the
c. vagus nerve ………. Cranial fossa
d. trigeminal nerve a. Anterior
b. Posterior
103. cardiorespiratory nucleus c. Inferior
mediates reflex control of: d. Superior
a. cardiovascular system
b. respiratory system 109. The pons and medulla are
c. gastrointestinal system separated from the cerebellum
d. all of the above anteriorly by the
a. Lateral ventricle
104. which of the following is not a b. Third ventricle
sensory trigeminal nucleus: c. Fourth ventricle
a. mesencephalic nucleus
d. All of the above
b. solitary nucleus
c. main sensory nucleus
d. none of tne above
  

110. ……….. covers superiorly the 115. …………. Separates the

cerebellum and separates it from anterior lope from the posterior
cerebrum lobe of cerebellum
a. Falx cerebelli a. Fissure prima
b. Falx cerebri b. Horizontal fissure
c. Tentorium cerebelli c. Postpyramidal fissure
d. None of the above d. Retrotonsillar fissure

111. …………. Is the most anterior 116. …………. Is the fissure that
part of the superior vermis separates the nodule from the
a. Nodule uvula in the cerebellum
b. Uvula a. Fissure prima
c. Pyramid b. Horizontal fissure
d. Lingula c. Posterolateral fissure
d. Retrotonsillar fissure
112. The inferior medullary velum
forms the bed of ………. In 117. all of the following are found
cerebellum in inferior surface of cerebellum
a. Tube vermis except
b. Vermis a. Fissura secunda
c. Cerebellar tonsil b. V- shaped fissure
d. Medullary vella c. Retrotosillar
d. Posterolateral fissures
113. superior medullary vella is a
thin sheet of white matter forming 118. The components of the
the tonsillar bed diencephalon are all except :
a. True a. thalamus
b. False b. hypothalamus
c. stria habenularis
114. the cerebellum shows a wide U
shape anterior notch that lodges
119. The lateral boundary of the
the falx cerebelli
thalamus is the:
a. True
a. the posterior limb of the
b. False internal capsule
b. the cavity of the third ventricle
c. the lentiform nucleus

120. The superior relations to the
thalamus are
a. the body of lateral ventricle
b. the thalamostriate vein
c. the choroid plexus
d. all of the above
121. The inferior relations are
including all of the following
except
a. tegmentum of the midbrain
b. the hypothalamus
c. fornix
122. The superior white matter of
the thalamus is called :
a. external medullary lamina
b. stratum zonale
c. internal medullary lamina
123. The lateral part of the
thalamus lying lateral to the
internal medullary stria is
subdivided into
a. dorsolateral part
b. ventromedial
c. both
124. The function of the thalamus is
integration of the information
from the
a. cerebellum
b. basal ganglia
c. reticular formation of the
brain stem
d. all of the above
125. The anterior thalamic
radiation connects the anterior
and medial nuclei with the
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. occipital lobe
126. The superior thalamic
radiation connects the lateral and
the ventral nuclei with the
a. temporal lobe
b. the parietal lobe
c. pre and post central gyri
127. The blood supply of the
thalamus is the
a. posterior cerebral artery
b. anterior cerebral artery
c. basilar artery
d. a and c
128. Epithalamus consists of all of
the following except :
a. pineal body
b. habenular nuclei
c. habenular commissure
d. the choroid plexus
129. The medial geniculate body is
a relay nucleus in the
a. pathway of hearing
b. pathway of vision
c. pathway of smelling
  

130. The metathalamus consists of

the
a. medial geniculate body
b. lateral geniculate body
c. both
  

Answers: 32. B
33. T
1. D 34. T
2. B 35. F
3. C 36. F
4. B 37. F
5. C 38. A
6. C 39. C
7. C 40. B
8. C 41. D
9. C 42. C
10. A 43. C
11. D 44. C
12. A 45. B
13. C 46. D
14. B 47. A
15. C 48. A
16. B 49. B
17. D 50. C
18. A 51. C
19. B 52. A
20. A 53. B
21. C 54. C
22. A 55. D
23. C 56. B
24. C 57. C
25. A 58. A
26. A 59. C
27. B 60. D
28. D 61. A
29. A 62. B
30. B 63. D
31. B 64. C
  

65. C 98. D
66. C 99. A
67. B 100. D
68. A 101. C
69. C 102. D
70. E 103. D
71. A 104. B
72. D 105. A
73. A 106. C
74. C 107. B
75. C 108. B
76. A 109. C
77. B 110. C
78. D 111. D
79. B 112. C
80. B 113. B
81. B 114. B
82. A 115. A
83. C 116. C
84. C 117. B
85. B 118. C
86. C 119. A
87. D 120. D
88. A 121. C
89. B 122. B
90. B 123. C
91. C 124. D
92. A 125. A
93. D 126. C
94. C 127. D
95. C 128. D
96. D 129. A
97. B 130. C
  

Pharmacology of the CNS: 5. It’s not necessary to perform

gastric lavage in case of Morphine
poisoning due to parentral over
1. Analgesics are :
dose :
a. Drugs that relieve pain due to
a. True
multiple causes
b. False
b. Drugs that relieve pain due to
a single cause
6. All of the following centers are
c. Classified into opioid and non-
depressed by Morphine EXCEPT :
opioid analgesics
a. Cortical pain center
d. Can produce addiction
b. Respiratory center
e. A & C
c. Cough center
d. Vasomotor center
2. All opium alkaloids can be used
clinically : e. Occulomotor center
a. True
7. Morphine analgesic effect is done
b. False
through :
a. Decrease in the threshold of
3. All of the following are opioid
pain perception in the sensory
receptors on which opium
areas
alkaloids act EXCEPT :
a. Mu receptors b. Alteration in the response to
pain
b. Kappa receptors
c. Alpha receptors c. Reducing the pains effect on
the behavior
d. Sigma receptors
d. A& B
e. Delta receptors
e. B & C

4. Morphine can be absorbed by all

8. Large doses of Morphine can lead
of the following methods of
to vasodilatation due to :
administration except :
a. Release of histamine
a. Oral administration
b. Inhibition of vasomotor center
b. Topical adminstration
c. Respiratory depression which
c. Intramusclar injection
increases the level of CO2
d. Inhalation
d. All of the above
e. Subcutanous injection
e. A & B

9. Morphine reduces the rate and
depth of respiration by :
a. Depression of respiration
b. Reduction of the senstivity of
the respiratory center to CO2
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. All of the above
e. A & B
10. An old male patient came to the
hospital with cancer of bronchial
tree suffering from severe cough ,
the doctor took the patient’s
history and figured out that he has
a prostatic hypertrophy, which of
the following drugs should be
given to the patient :
a. Morphine
b. Methadone
c. Codeine
d. Meperidine
11. Which of these drugs is contra-
indicated to the previous case:
a. Morphine
b. Methadone
c. Codeine
d. Merperidine
12. The reason why the doctor didn't
give it to the patient:
a. It has a side effect of urine
retention more than the
prescribed drug
b. It’s not preferable to patient
with the bronchial tree cancer
due to its respiratory
depression
c. It’s not preferable to patient
with the bronchial tree cancer
due to its histamine release
and bronchoconstriction
d. All of the above
13. Morphine indirectly stimulates the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the
oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )
and cause severe mydriasis :
a. True
b. False
14. The indirect stimulation of the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the
oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) by
Morphine is produced by :
a. Cortical inhibitory effect on
the the Edinger-Westphal
nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd
cranial nerve )
b. Stimulation of Cortical
inhibitory effect on the the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of
the oculomotor (3rd cranial
nerve )
c. Inhibition of Cortical
inhibitory effect on the the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of
the oculomotor (3rd cranial
nerve )
d. All of the above
15. One the morphine’s side effects is
constipation which is produced by
all of the following EXCEPT :

a. Decrease in the peristaltic
activity and increase in
segmetation movement
b. Increase in the tone of
intestinal smooth muscles
c. Spasm of biliary passages
d. Spasm of sphincters
e. Decrease in the perception of
defecation reflex
16. All of the following are caused by
Morphine as a result of histamine
release EXCEPT :
a. Urine retention
b. Sweating and itching
c. Vasodilatation
d. Bronchoconstriction
e. Hypotention
17. Urine retention is a side effect of
Morphine due to :
a. Spasm of the urinary bladder
sphincter
b. Stimulation of the micturation
reflex
c. Decrease in urine formation
due to central release of anti-
diuretic hormone
d. All of the above
e. A & C
18. Tolarence to Morphine is not
developed to :
a. Respiratory depression
b. Constipition
c. Miosis
d. B & C
e. A & C
19. Which of the following conditions
Morphine should be given with
atropine :
a. Renal colic
b. Biliary colic
c. Coronary thromposis
d. A & C
e. A & B
20. Morphine can be used in all of the
following conditions EXCEPT :
a. Certain cases of severe
diarrhea
b. Acute left ventricular failure
c. Pre-anaethetic medication
d. Relieving of severe pain in
acute abdomen
21. All of the following can be Minor
side effects of Morphine EXCEPT :
a. Nausea, vomiting and
constipation
b. Hypotention
c. Urine retention
d. Addiction
e. Increased intracranial tention
22. Morphine is contra-indicated in
case of head injuries due to :
a. Increase levels of CO2
b. Respiratory depression
c. Cerebral vasodilatation
d. Increase in the CSF pressure
e. All of the above

23. The cause of withdrawal syptoms
following sudden stoppage of
morphine addiction is :
a. Endogenous opioid is deficient
b. Opioid receptors becomes free
of endogenous and exogenous
opioids
c. Opioid receptors are saturated
by exogenous opioids
d. A & C
e. A & B
24. Morphine like compounds in the
brain are called enkephalids and
in pituitary gland are called
amdrophins :
a. True
b. False
25. Methadone is used in the in the
treatment of Morphine addiction
because :
a. It has minor side effects
b. It’s also an addicting drug
c. Its withdrawal symptoms are
less than those of morphine
d. A & B
e. B & C
26. Meperidine is characterized by
papaverine-like action because :
a. It has a parasympatholytic
effect
b. It has an analgesic effect
c. It has a smooth muscle
relaxant effect
d. None of the above
27. Morphine and Meperdine are
similar in :
a. Causing Severe Miosis effect
b. Causing Cough center
depression
c. Causing Respiratory
depression
d. Analgesic effect
e. Causing Histamine release
28. Meperidine is used in obstetrics to
relive labour pain instead of
Morphine because :
a. Morphine can cross blood-
placental barrier while
Meperidine can't
b. Morphine causes respiratory
depression in newly born
infant while Meperidine
doesn’t
c. Both of them cross blood-
placental barrier but
Meperidine doesn’t cause
respiratory depression unlike
Morphine
d. A & B
29. All of the following are true about
Naloxone EXCEPT :
a. It’s a competitve narcotic
antagonist at all opioid
receptors

b. It has a rapid onset (1-5
minutes)
c. It has a short duration of
action
d. It can be given orally or by IM
or subcutanous injection
30. The difference between
Naltrexone and Naloxone is that :
a. Naltrexone has a longer
duration of action than
Naloxone
b. Naltrexone can be given orally
while Naloxone can't
c. Naltrexone has more rapid
onset than Naloxone
d. A & B
e. A & C
31. Therapeutic uses of Opioid
antagonists are :
a. Treatment of acute morphine
poisoning
b. Treatment of morphine
addiction
c. Diagnosis of morphine
addiction
d. All of the above
e. A & C
32. Mixed agonist-antagonist opioid
analgesics are :
a. Drugs that acts on only one
opioid receptors
b. Drugs that stimulate one
receptor but block another
c. Pentazocine is an example of
these drugs
d. All of the above
e. A & C
33. All of the following are true about
Pentazocine EXCEPT :
a. It’s an agonist on kappa
receptors
b. It’s a weak antagonist at Mu
receptors
c. It’s an effective analgesic by
itself
d. It behaves as an antagonist
when given in combination
with Naloxone
34. NSAIDs are a group of drugs that
share in common the capacity to
induce
a. Analgesic effect
b. Antipyretic effect
c. Anti – inflammatory effect
d. All of the above
35. Any drug has analgesic antipyretic
effect classified as NSAIDs
a. True
b. False
36. NSAIDs that inhibit cyclo –
oxgenase enzyme centrally
produce .......
a. Analgesic effect
b. Antipyretic effect
c. Anti – inflammatory effect
  

d. Both a , b b. PGE2
c. IL-1
37. NSAIDs that produce the anti – d. All of the above
inflammatory effect inhibit cyclo –
oxgenase enzyme ..... 42. Salicylates lower the elevated body
a. Centrally temperature to normal by
b. Periphery a. Inhibiting prostaglandins
c. Both of them centrally
d. Non of the above b. Inhibiting prostaglandins
periphery
38. Non selective COX inhibitors c. Inhibiting IL-1 synthesis
associated with gastrointestinal d. Both a ,c
tract upset and renal impairment
on long term use 43. All of the following are the
a. True mechanism that salicylates use to
b. False loss heat by acting on heat
regulating center except
39. salicylates act on ......... level to a. Vasoconstriction of cutaneous
produce their analgesic action blood vessels
a. Thalamus b. Increasing sweating
b. Hypothalamus c. Encouraging evaporation
c. Subcortical d. VD of cutaneous blood vessels
d. All of the above
44. Decreasing of prostaglandins and
40. Raising of the threshold to painful inhibition of chemotaxis is the
stimuli relayed from the thalamus mechanism by which salicylates
to the sensory cortex is the way by produce
which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect
a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect
b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect
c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above
d. Both a , b
45. NSAIDs gastritis is always due to
41. During fever .there is release of .... direct irritation of gastric mucosa
by the released salicyclic acid
a. PGE1
a. True
  

b. False a. Visual disturbances

b. Ringing in the ear
46. ........is/ are produced due to c. Confusion
prolonged use of salicylates except d. All of the above
a. Gasric ulceration
b. Peptic bleeding 51. Aspirin allergy may be manifested
c. Both of them in the form of urticaria only
d. Non of the above a. True
b. False
47. In gout patient , salicylates are
used in ........ doses 52. Salicyltes is the best choice for
a. Small treating chicken pox in children
b. Large a. True
c. Less than 5 g /day b. False
d. All of the above
53. .......... is preferred in treatment of
48. In the effect of salicylates on the influenza in children
blood .all of the following are true a. Morphine
except b. Aspirin
a. Inhibition of COX platelet c. Paracetamol
b. Reduce production of TXA2 d. All of the above
c. Increase sedimentation rate
d. Prolongation of bleeding time 54. Paracetamol shouldn’t use in
pregnancy
49. Salicylates is used in all the a. True
following cases except b. False
a. Common cold
b. Coronary thrombosis 55. Therapeutic doses of paracetamol
c. Cardiac complication of acute may lead to acute hepatic necrosis
rheumatic fever a. True
d. Toothache b. False

50. Repeated administration of large

doses of salicylates as in rheumatic
fever result in
  

56. Cardiac depression and serious 62. Lipid solubility enhances the
arrhythmia is one of the side a. onset
effects of b. duration of action
a. isoflurane c. intensity of the local anesthesia
b. sevoflurane
c. halothane 63. As the amount of the unionized
fragment increases the duration of
57. Malignant hyperthermia is a onset
genetic disease at which the a. increases
patient have taken b. decreases
a. succinylcholine c. remains constant
b. halothane
c. both 64. The onset of action is faster by
a. increasing
58. at which it is treated by b. decreasing the gap between
a. dantrolene the PKa and the PH of the
b. propofol tissue

59. Cause of the vomiting is the 65. we ought not to use a

stimulation of the sympthatomimetic with a local
a. CTZ anethetics because of the resulting
b. CIC a. vasodilatation
b. vasoconstriction
60. Relaxation of the skeletal muscles
as a side effect of the inhalational 66. which may cause local ischemia in
anesthesia is enhancing the effect the
of the a. digits
a. neuromuscular blockers b. abdomen
b. sympthatomimetics
c. sympthatolitics 67. We use cocaine topically in
a. otolaryngeal
61. Mechanism of action of all local b. nasopharyngeal use to reduce
anesthetics is by the mucosal bleeding
a. binding to the Na+ channel
from outside 68. One of the systemic side effects of
b. binding to the Na+ channel the local anesthetics is the
from inside a. convulsions
  

b. arrhythmia
c. allergy produced by the
lignocaine

69. The metabolism of the esters is

through the
a. liver
b. pseudo cholinesterase

70. The half life time of the amides is

a. longer
b. shorter than that of esters

71. The metabolism of the procaine

leads to the formation of the
a. benzoic acid
b. para amino benzoic acid

72. Allergy is more common in the

a. esters
b. amides 
  

Answers: 36. D
37. B
38. A
1. E
39. D
2. B
40. A
3. C
41. D
4. B
42. D
5. B
43. D
6. E
44. C
7. E
45. B
8. E
46. C
9. E
47. B
10. C
48. C
11. A
49. C
12. A
50. D
13. B
51. B
14. C
52. B
15. C
53. C
16. A
54. B
17. E
55. B
18. D
56. C
19. E
57. C
20. D
58. A
21. D
59. A
22. D
60. A
23. E
61. B
24. B
62. A
25. E
63. B
26. C
64. B
27. D
65. B
28. C
66. A
29. D
67. A
30. D
68. A
31. E
69. B
32. D
70. A
33. D
71. B
34. D
72. A
35. B

Histology of the CNS:
1. When a synapse is formed
between an axon and a
dendritic spine then it is
called:
a. Axodendritic
b. Axosomatic
c. Dendrodendritic
d. Axo-axonic
2. synapses are which are
commonly found in the
nervous system are
a. Axodendritic and axosomatic
b. Axoaxonic and dendrodendritic
c. Axodendritic and
dendrodendritic
d. Axosomatic and axoaxonic
3. Which of the following is
incorrect about electrical
synapses:
a. It is a gap junction
b. providing for cells electrical
coupling
c. Transmission of impulse is
Direct and unidirectional
d. Less commonly present in the
nervous system than chemical
synapses
4. an electron dense membrane
of the target neuron at the
site of synapse.
a. Synaptic cleft
b. Postsynaptic membrane
c. Presynaptic membrane
5. During anaesthesia in order to
avoid paralysis caused by
injecting substances in the spinal
cord doctors prefer to inject the
patient with the anaesthetic
substance in
a. Below L2
b. In thoracic region
c. Bet C4 & C5
6. The no. of cervical segments of
the spinal cord is:
a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 8
7. What is the structure that is
almost absent in the Gray Matter
a. nerve cells
b. myelinated nerve fibers
c. neuroglia
d. capillary bed

8. all of the following is corrct
concerning the anterior horn
except:
a. broad in the cervical and
lumbosacral segments
b. contains large multipolar
motor neurons
c. called the motor nuclei
d. axons of these cells form the
sensory fibers emerging in the
dorsal root of spinal nerves
9. the following nuclei are only
present in the cervical and
lumbar enlargements.
a. antero-medial
b. postero-medial
c. antero-lateral
d. postero-lateral
10. which of the following
statements is incorrectly
describing substantia gelatinosa
of Rolandi
a. Represented in all segments of
the spinal cord.
b. One of the anterior horn cells
c. Impulses from it are carried by
the lateral spinothalamic
tracts.
d. Important cell station for
impulses of pain and
temperature
11. Which of the following nuclei
gives rise to the ventral
spinothalamic tracts?
a. The substantia gelatinosa of
Rolandi,
b. The nucleus proprius
c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke
12. Which of the following nuclei is
absent in L5?
a. The substantia gelatinosa of
Rolandi,
b. The nucleus proprius
c. The nucleus dorsalis of Clarke
13. All of the following statements
are correct about the lateral horn
of the spinal cord except:
a. Present in all thoracic
segments
b. The cells are small multipolar
neurons
c. belonging to the somatic
nervous system
14. They are formed of small nerve
cells with short axons that
ascend and descend for few
segments on the same side.:
a. nucleus proprius
b. sympathetic nuclei
c. commissural neurons
d. intersegmental neurons

15. all of the followings statements
are correctly describing coma
tracts except:
a. present in the dorsal white
column of the cervical
segments.
b. It lies between the gracile and
cuneate tracts.
c. It carries proprioceptive fibers
to the anterior horn cells
d. It control the function Of the
lower part of the body
through the actions of the
reflex arcs.
16. One of the similarities between
The Septomarginal tract and The
Comma-Shaped tract is
a. Site in the spinal cord
b. Function
c. Side of the body it controls
17. Gracile & Cuneate tracts carry
impulses of :
a. proprioceptive sensations
b. crude touch
c. pain & temperature
d. simple touch
18. One of the Tracts carrying pain
impulses, which will not reach
the cerebral cortex but end in the
subconscious level of the
cerebellum or midbrain:
a. Gracile & Cuneate
b. Spino-tectal tract
c. Ventral spino-thalamic
d. ventral spino-cerebellar
19. the Olivospinal tract is absent in
all the following segments
except:
a. Cervical level
b. Thoracic level
c. Lumbar level
d. Sacral level
20. The lateral horn cell is found in :
a. Cervical level
b. Thoracic level
c. Lumbar level
d. All of the above
21. The only tract that is absent in
the cervical segments of the
spinal cord is:
a. Septomarginal
b. Olivospinal
c. Cuneate
d. Lateral tecto-spinal
22. The central canal of the spinal
cord is posteriorly situated at :
a. Cervical level
b. Thoracic level
  

c. Lumbar level b. It's One of the huge upper

motor neurons
d. Sacral level
c. It's of stellate type

23. The deep grooves that can be d. It's found in the motor cortex

seen in cerebrum are called:

a. Sulci 27. The stellate cells transmit motor

b. Gyri and sensory impulses from and

to the cerebrum

24. The two cerebral hemispheres a. True

are connected together by thick b. False

band of grey matter called

corpus callosum. 28. The following are examples of

a. True stellate cells except:

b. False a. Horizontal cells of Cajal

b. Fusiform cells

25. All of the following statements c. Cells of Martinotti

are correctly describing the d. Astrocytes

pyramidal cells except:

a. The apex is directed to the 29. the molecular layer is formed

cortical surface. a thick mainly of :

branching dendrite arises from a. small stellate cells

the base of the cell and passes b. neuroglia

into the underlying white c. Axons and Dendrites

matter. d. small horizontal neurons

b. Small cells are usually

superficial 30. the inner granular layer is

c. they are well developed in formed mainly of :

motor centers a. small stellate nerve cell bodies

b. neuroglia

26. Which of the following is in c. Axons and Dendrites

incorrect about Betz cells d. small horizontal neurons

a. It's The largest cells of the

cortex

31. The large pyramidal cells with
their long dendrites running
towards the molecular layer are
mainly found in :
a. Molecular layer
b. The outer pyramidal cell layer
c. The pleomorphic layer
d. The inner pyramidal cell layer
35. Which of the following is
32. All of the following statements
are right about Martinotti cells
except:
a. They are present in the The
pleomorphic layer
b. They are small and unipolar
c. Their axons proceed towards
the surface giving collaterals
on their way.
36. ventral cortico-spinal tract is
33. The area called the striate area as
it appears striated by the naked
eye:
a. The motor area
b. The sensory area
c. The visual area
d. The olfactory area
37. All
34. All of the following statements
about the medulla oblongata are
correct except:
a. It is continuous above with the
pons
b. It is connected with the
cerebellum by means of the
inferior cerebellar peduncles.
c. In the closed medulla, there
are motor decussation of the
cortico-spinal tracts in the
upper level
incorrect about the trigeminal
(5th) cranial nerve nucleus
a. homologous to substantia
gelatinosa of Rolandi
b. carry pain and temperature
from the face
c. starts to appear at the level of
closed Medulla at the level of
Sensory Decussation
uncrossed fibers that descend on
the same side as direct pyramidal
tract
a. true
b. false
the descending extra
pyramidal tracts are present in
the Closed Medulla at the level of
Motor Decussation except:
a. sulcomarginal tract
b. septomarginal tract

c. rubrospinal tract
38. The crossed internal arcuate
fibers ascend on the opposite side
of the brain stem and continue as
the Medial Lemniscus.
a. True
b. False
39. Cranial nerve nuclei of the
hypoglossal and of the vagus
appear in the gray matter around
the central canal at the level of
open medulla.
a. True
b. False
40. ..act as relay station for the
proprioceptive pathway coming
from the spinal cord to the
cerebellum
a. Cuneate nuclei
b. Medial Lemniscus.
c. lateral cuneate nuclei
d. arcuate nuclei
41. All of the following are
properties of blood brain barrier
except :
a. Endothelium with occluding
junction
b. Neuroglia can be found
c. Gap junction can be observed
d. Protect the brain from foreign
particles
42. All of the following can be found
or related to the arachnoid
except :
a. CSF
b. Dense fibrous connective
tissue
c. Delicate tissue trabaculae
d. Thin epithelial tissue
43. One of the following can be
found in the granular layer of
cerebellum :
a. Axon of Purkinjie cells
b. Purkinjie cell bodies
c. Granule cell bodies
d. Dendrites of Pukinjie cells
44. Neuroglia is found in one of the
following layers :
a. Molecular cell layer
b. Granular cell layer
c. Purkinjie cell layer
d. All of the above
45. All of the following synapse with
the dendrites of the Purkinje cells
except :
a. Mossy fibres
b. Granular cells axon
c. Climbing fibres
d. Neurons of molecular layer
  

46. The most medial cerebellar 50. Which of the following nerve
nucleus is : nuclei appears in upper mid
a. Nucleus Dentate brain :
b. Nucleus Fastigii a. 3rd cranial nerve
c. Nucleus emboli b. 4th cranial nerve
d. Nucleus Globosus c. 6th cranial nerve
d. 7th cranial nerve
47. All of the following can be seen
in a section of the mid brain
except :
a. 4th ventricle
b. Cerebral aqueduct
c. Tectum
d. Cerebral peduncle

48. Middle longitudinal bundle can

be found in all of the following
except :
a. Closed medulla
b. Open medulla
c. Tectum of mid brain
d. Pons

49. The main function of inferior

colliculus is :
a. Hearing in relation to
movement
b. Vision reflex
c. Gag reflex
d. Stretch reflex
  

Answers: 31. D
32. B
33. C
1. A
34. C
2. A
35. C
3. C
36. A
4. B
37. A
5. A
38. A
6. D
39. B
7. B
40. D
8. D
41. C
9. D
42. B
10. B
43. C
11. B
44. A
12. C
45. A
13. C
46. B
14. D
47. A
15. D
48. C
16. B
49. A
17. A
50. A
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
 
  

Chapter 3: Special senses: b. Frontal nerve

c. Trochlear nerve

Anatomy of special d. Abducent nerve

senses:
5. All of the following openings
are found in the lateral wall of
1. All of the following are related the orbit except:
to the roof of the orbit except : a. Superior orbital fissure
a. Trochlea b. Ethmoid fissure
b. Optic nerve c. Zygomatotemporal canal
c. Infra orbital vessels d. Zygomatofacial canal
d. Lacrimal gland

6. All of the following can be

2. All of the following forms the found in the orbit except :
medial wall of the orbit except a. Vessels
: b. Muscles
a. Lacrimal bone c. Nerves
b. Ethmoid bone d. Lymph nodes
c. Body of sphenoid
d. Greater wing of sphenoid 7. All of the following are
intrinsic muscles in the eye
3. Which of the following bones ball except :
forms a part of two boundries a. Sphincter papillae
of the orbit : b. Dilator papillae
a. Zygoma c. Lateral rectus
b. Maxilla d. Ciliary body
c. Lacrimal bone
d. Ethmoid 8. One of the following has
different nerve supply from
4. Most lateral structure passing the others :
inside the superior orbital a. Superior rectus
fissure : b. Lateral rectus
a. Lacrimal nerve c. Medial rectus
  

d. Inferior rectus a. Optic nerve

b. Frontal nerve
9. If both superior and inferior c. Lacrimal nerve
rectus contract together : d. Nasociliary nerve
a. No motion occurs
b. Deviation to lateral side 14. Length of optic nerve is :
c. Deviation to medial side a. 1 cm
d. Protrusion of eye ball b. 2 cm
c. 3 cm
10. Optic nerve is the cranial d. 4 cm
nerve number :
a. 1 15. Terminal branch of the
b. 2 ophthalamic artery is
c. 3 a. Dorsal nasal
d. 4 b. Superotrochlear
c. Both
11. Optic nerve is connected to the d. None
other side by :
a. Optic chiasma 16. The sinus to which orbit is
b. Anterior perforating drained to is :
process a. Cavernous sinuses
c. Mamillary body b. Superior sagittal sinuses
d. Optic tract c. Inferior sagittal sinuses
d. Transverse sinuses
12. Zygomatic nerve is a branch of
: 17. The check ligaments extends
a. Ophthalamic nerve from :
b. Maxillary nerve a. Bulbar fascia
c. Mandibular nerve b. Optical periosteum
d. None of the above c. Optical septum
d. Suspensory ligament
13. Supratrochlear nerve is a
branch from :
  

18. The smallest and most a. True

important branch of b. False
ophthalamic artery is :
a. Lacrimal artery 23. The subcutaneous tissues of the

b. Central artery of retina cartilaginous part of The external

c. Palpebral artery acoustic meatus are rich in

seruminous glands which secrete
d. Meningeal branch
serumin
a. True
19. Lateral palpebral artery is
b. False
branched from :
a. Ophthalamic artery
24. Which of the following
b. Lacrimal artery
statements about the tympanic
c. Central artery of the retina
membrane is incorrect?
d. Dorsal nasal artery
a. When examined by autoscope
or direct light the
20. Apex of the orbit is directed :
anteroinferior part of the
a. Posteriorly
membrane appears bright
b. Anteriorly
b. Its Middle is containing
c. Laterally
chorda tympani nerve
d. Medially
c. Its inner layer is Formed of
fibrous tissue
21. The nerve supplies the skin of the
d. The outer surface of its inner
auricle near the external acoustic
layer is innervated by branch
meatus
of-vagus-nerve
a. A branch of vagus
b. Hypoglossal nerve
25. All of the following about the
c. Vestibulocochlear nerve
relations of the middle ear are
d. Glossopharyngeal-nerve
correct except:
a. The Medial wall is related to
22. In the bony part ( lateral 1/3) of
the facial canal
The external acoustic meatus
b. The anterior wall is related to
There is a constriction called
aditus to mastoid antrum
isthmus
  

c. The Floor is related to the c. It is composed of: Utricle,

tympanic branch of the Saccule , semi circular duct
glossopharyngeal nerve and tympanic membrane
d. The mastoid wall is Related to d. Formed of a sac is filled with a
facial canal viscous fluid with low Na
content
26. A branch of the vagus nerve
supplies:
a. the skin of the auricle near the
external acoustic meatus.
b. the outer surface of the
tympanic membrane
c. the inner surface of the
tympanic membrane
d. the middle ear
e. a and b
f. and c
g. all of the above
27. hyperacusis can occur In cases of
facial paralysis due to paralysis
of the tensor tympani muscle
a. true
b. false

28. Which of the following

statements about the
membranous labyrinth is
incorrect :
a. It is in the form of
membranous sac inside the
bony labyrinth
b. Outside the sac lies the
perilymph between the sac and
the bony labyrinth
  

Answers:

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. E
27. B
28. C
 
  

Histology of special d. The basal cell layer

responsible for the epithelial
senses:
regeneration

1. All of the following are contents of 5. ……………. Protects the cornea

the orbit except: from trauma or bacterial invasion
a. Eye ball a. Bowman’s membrane
b. Lacrimal glands b. Descemet’s membrane
c. Orbital lymph nodes
d. Conjunctiva 6. All of the following are true
concerning the substantia propria
2. All of the following are parts of the except:
uvea except: a. It’s the thickest layer of the
a. Choroid cornea
b. Ciliary body b. It contains 60 regular
c. Cornea lamellae of parallel collagen
d. Iris bundles that cross parallel to
each other
3. The cornea contains: c. Characterized by the presence
a. Blood vessels of the butterfly cells
b. Lymphatics d. The fibers and the cells are
c. Nerve endings embedded into the corneal
d. Muscles proteoglycans

4. All of the following are true
concerning the corneal epithelium
except:
a. The basal cell layer shows
microvilli embedded into the
percorneal tear film
b. It contains plenty of free
nerve endings
c. Sensitive to pain and touch
7. All of the following are factors
contributing into the corneal
transparency except:
a. The absences of blood vessels
b. The equal spacing between el
collagen bundles
c. The collagen bundles are
oriented at right angles to
each other

d. None of the above
8. All of the following changes
occurs at the limbus except:
a. The corneal epithelium
becomes continuous with the
bulbar conjunctiva
b. The regular lamellae of
collagen fibers of the cornea
merge with the irregular
collagen bundles of the sclera
c. The bowman’s membrane is
replaced by subconjunctival
connective tissue
d. The descemt’s membrane and
corneal endothelium become
continuous with the
discontinuous layer of
fibroblasts and melanocytes of
the sclera
9. ………….. pierces the sclera :
a. Optic nerve fibers
b. Ciliary nerves and vessels
c. Central artery of the retina
d. All of the above
10. All of the following are related to
the sclera except:
a. Conjunctiva
b. Choroid
c. Ciliary vessels
d. Venae verticosae
11. ……………. Is responsible for
nutrition and blood supply of the
retina
a. Ciliary body
b. Aqueous humor
c. Choroid
d. Vitreous body
12. All of the following are true
concerning the ciliary body
except:
a. It’s present at the limbus
b. The apex of the triangle is
continuous anteriorly with
the choroid
c. The base faces the anterior
chamber
d. The outer surface faces the
sclera
13. The ciliary epithelium is arranged
into 2 layers outer non-pigmented
layer and inner pigmented one
a. True
b. False
14. All of the following is true
concerning the ciliary muscles
except:
a. Arranged into 3 groups
meridional, circular and radial

b. Responsible for
accommodation for near vision
c. Receive parasympathetic
supply from the occulomotor
nerve
d. Attached to the lens via the
zonules
15. The anterior chamber lies between
the lens and the iris while the
posterior chamber lies between
the iris and the cornea
a. True
b. False
16. ………… are arranged in circules
concentric to the pupil
a. Dilator pupillae muscles
b. Constrictor pupillae muscles
17. …………….. forms the capsule of
the lens
a. Basement membrane material
b. Reticular fibers
c. Collagen fibers
d. a and b
e. a and c
18. The retina extends from …………
posteriorly to ……………..
anteriorly
a. optic disk, orra serrata
b. orra serrata, optic disk
19. the temporal and nasal branches
of the superior division of the
central artery of the retina
anatomize with those of the
inferior division to supply the
different parts of the retina
a. true
b. false
20. The circulus arteriosus major and
minor supply …………..
a. choroid
b. ciliary body
c. sclera
d. iris
21. Which of the following statements
isn't correct about the outer
portion of the retina:
a. Formed of pigmented
epithelium
b. it is photosensitive
c. it is firmly attached to the
choriocapillary layer of the
choroid.
22. All of the following statements
about the fovea centralis are
correct except
a. shallow depression
b. located 2.5 mm lateral to the
optic disc

c. It is the area of greatest visual
acuity.
d. called also optic papilla
23. tight junctions in the Retinal
Pigmented epithelial cells are
present between:
a. numerous invaginations of the
cell base and basal lamina
b. The adjacent cell membranes
of cells
c. The cell apex and the rods and
cones
24. the blood retinal barrier is formed
from tight junctions between
adjacent cells of Retinal Pigmented
epithelial cells with the tight
junctions between endothelial cells
of retinal blood vessels
a. true
b. false
25. the layer of the retina that has a
role in Participation in restoration
of photosensitivity to visual
pigments is
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium
b. Inner plexiform layer
c. The outer plexiform layer
d. The outer limiting membrane
26. Which of the following statements
is incorrect about the Rod cells
present in the retina
a. mediate night vision
b. contains rhodopsin
c. extremely sensitive to light
d. doesn't have outer fibers
27. It contains the synapses between
the synaptic processes of rod and
cone cells and the dendrites of the
bipolar cells and horizontal cells.
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium
b. Inner plexiform layer
c. The outer plexiform layer
d. The outer limiting membrane
28. cell bodies with the nuclei of the
bipolar cells are present in
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium
b. Inner nuclear layer
c. The outer nuclear layer
d. The outer limiting membrane
29. Cells that extend from the outer to
the inner limiting membranes. It
has supportive, protective and
nutritive functions.
a. Horizontal cells
b. Muller cells
c. Amacrine cells
30. few large cells with vesicular
nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm
and The retinal blood capillaries
are present between them
  

a. Ganglion nerve cells. 35. Muller muscle is inserted in the

b. Horizontal cells superior border of the tarsal plate
and is supplied by
c. Supporting cells
parasympathetic nerves
d. Amacrine cells
a. True

31. myelin of the optic nerve fiber is b. False

formed by
a. melanocytes 36. The following are modified
b. oligodendrocytes sebaceous glands except:
c. muller cells a. Meibomian glands

d. Schwann cells. b. Zeis gland

c. Glands of Moll

32. Conjunctiva is made up of

37. Between the vestibular scala and
a. non keratinized stratified
the middle scala is:
squamous epithelium
b. keratinized stratified squamous a. Reissner's membrane.
epithelium b. The basilar membrane.
c. The stria vascularis.
c. simple columnar epithelium
d. The spiral ganglion.
d. simple cuboidal epithelium

38. Between the middle scala and the

33. Conjunctiva helps in defending
tympanic scala is:
the eye against infection.
a. True a. Reissner's membrane
b. False b. The basilar membrane
c. The stria vascularis.
d. The spiral ganglion.
34. Levator palpebrae superioris
muscle is supplied by
a. Occulomotor nerve 39. The stria vascularis is found in:
b. Optic nerve
a. The middle scala.
c. Trochlear nerve
b. The vestibular scala.
d. Abduscent nerve c. The tympanic scala.
d. The modiolus..
  

40. The ogan of Corti is found in:

a. The middle scala.

b. The vestibular scala.
c. The tympanic scala.
d. The modiolus.
  

Answers: 32. A
33. A
1. C 34. A
2. C 35. B
3. C 36. C
4. A 37. A
5. A 38. B
6. B 39. A
7. D 40. A
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. B
  

6. The distance between the lens and

the principale focus is :
a. principale focal distance
b. principale axis
c. principale focus
d. none of the above
Physiology of special senses:
7. The rays from an object less than 6
meters are parallel:
1. Bouncing of light rays of a surface:
a. true
a. refraction
b. false
b. reflection
c. absorption
8. The refractive power of a lens is
d. none of the above
measured in :
a. m
2. The transfer of L ight energy to a
b. mm
particle or surface:
c. nm
a. refraction
d. diopters
b. absorption
c. reflection
9. The refractive media of the eye is
d. none of the above
formed of :
a. cornea
3. When light passes from one
b. lens
transparent medium to another ,its
c. aqueous and vitreous humor
speed is constant:
d. all of the above
a. true
b. false
10. The refractive index of cornea is :
a. 1.38
4. The greater the incident angle and
b. 1.4
the greater the difference in
c. 1.33
refractive indices ,the lesser is the
d. 1.36
bending or refraction
a. true
11. The refractive power of cornea is
b. false
…….diopters:
a. 20
5. A line passing through the centers
b. 40
of curvature of the lens :
c. 30
a. principale focus
d. none of the above
b. principale focal distance
c. principale axis
12. The refractive index of lens is ….
d. none of the above
a. 1.36
  

b. 1.38 b. false
c. 1.4
d. 1.33 19. The center of corneal reflex is
located in :
a. midbrain
13. The refractive power of lens is b. pons
……..diopters: c. medulla oblongata
a. 20 d. none of the above
b. 40
c. 30 20. The effector of the corneal reflex is
d. none of the above :
a. orbicularis oculi
14. The total refractive power of the b. medial rectus
human eye during accommodation c. ciliary
is 60 diopters: d. all of the above
a. true
b. false 21. The aqueous humor controls the
intraocular volume and pressure:
15. Cornea and lens are the chief a. true
refractive media of the eye : b. false
a. true
b. false 22. The lens is vascular transparent
biconvex structure :
16. The most important part of the a. a.true
refractive power of the eye is : b. b.false
a. lens
b. cornea 23. Clear gelatinous material filling
c. aqueous humor the space between the posterior
d. all of the above surface of the lens and the retina :
a. vitreous humor
b. aqueous humor
17. The refractive index of the cornea
c. all of the above
is slightly different from that of the
d. none of the above
air:
a. true
b. false 24. Blurred vision is the stimulus for
accommodation reflex:
18. Protection is the main importance a. true
of corneal reflex: b. false
a. true
  

25. The recession of the near vision e. All of the above

with age is called:
a. myopia
28. At maximal light intensity the
b. hyperopia
c. presbypia membrane potential can reach
d. none of the above - 70 mV. this inhibits the
release of neurotransmitter
glutamate Thus in bipolar cells

26. All of the following events can fire an action potential

occur during darkness except: a. True

a. cGMP binds to cation channels b. False

in the outer segments of

photoreceptors 29. All of the following statements

b. photoreceptors are depolarized about the retinal adaptation are

c. there is continuous glutamate correct except:

release by photoreceptors at a. It depends on the

their synapses with the bipolar concentration of the

cells. . photosensitive chemicals in the

d. channels in rod's outer rods and cones

segment close. b. Light adaptation can occur

e. Cation influx in the outer more rapid than dark

segment now decreases, while adaptation

Na+ ions continue to be c. The sensitivity of the retina In

pumped out from the inner darkess is lower than its

segment sensitivity in light

f. Ca+2 ions are removed by the d. Light adaptation is due to the

Na+-Ca2+ exchange carrier. break down of the

photosensitive chemicals in the

27. The output neuron of the retina rods and cones

a. The photoreceptors
b. bipolar cells 30. All of the following occurs

c. The ganglion cells during dark adaptation except:

d. A and b a. Visual acuity is small


b. all the retinal and opsins in
rods and cones are converted
into light sensitive pigments
c. Increase in retinal sensitivity to
light
d. the retinal is converted into
vitamin A
31. which of the following
statements is correctly
describing nyctalopia
a. optic nerve function is
seriously hampered
b. the most common cause of
night blindness is prolonged
vitamin A deficiency
c. the rods and cons cann't
perform their normal
functions
d. occurs due to abnormal gene
on the X-chromosome
32. Exposure to light activates
phosphodiestrase enzyme PDE
that breaks cGMP into 5' GMP
a. True
b. False
33. Dark adaptation occurs four
times as rapidly in rods as in
cons
a. True
b. False
34. The scala vestibuli and the
media are separated from each
other by the
a. Reissner's membrane
b. basilar membrane
c. tympanic membrane
d. tectorial membrane
35. The endolymph:
a. formed by stria vascularis
b. present in scalae vestibule and
tympani
c. electronegative compared to
perilymph
d. similar in composition to the
extracellular fluid
36. The primary auditory cortex:
a. is called broca's area
b. receives information from both
cochlea
c. show no regional localization of
the cochlea
d. can appreciate significance of
the spoken words
e. present in the parietal lobe in
the floor of the central sulcus
37. About the intensity of sound all
of the following is true except:
a. measured in decibels
b. determined by amplitude of
sound waves
c. perceived as loudness of sound

d. not affected by the frequency of
sound waves
38. The basilar membrane of the
cochlea
a. cover oval and round windows
b. separates scalae vestibule and
tympani
c. vibrates in pattern determined
by the form of travelling waves
in the cochlear perilymph
39. Auditory discrimination of a
certain sound pich depends
upon:
a. part of the basilar membrane
maximally displaced by the
sound wave
b. frequency of sound waves
c. difference in the middle ear
amplification of sounds of
different piches
d. a and b but not c
e. a,b and c
40. Attenuation reflex caused by
loud voice leads to:
a. contraction of both stapedius
and tensor tympani muscles
b. relaxation of the above 2
muscles
c. contraction of stapedius and
relaxation of tympani
d. contraction of tympani and
relaxation of stapedius
e. none of the above
41. The length of the fibers of the
The basilar membrane decrease
progressively from the base
towards the apex of the cochlea
a. True
b. False
42. The rods of corti support:
a. The reticular lamina
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Basilar membrane
43. Helicotrema is an opening that
connects:
a. scalae vestibule and tympani
b. scalae vestibule and media
c. scalae media and tympani
44. When the basilar membrane
moves up, the reticular lamina
moves up and in away from the
modiolus
a. True
b. False
45. Depolarization of the hair cells
depends mainly on:
a. Outflux of Cl
b. Influx of Na
c. Influx of K
d. Outflux of K
  

46. (Choose the incorrect answer) 49. The tonotopic organization

Sound localization In the present in the organ of Corti is
horizontal plane : preserved within the cochlear
a. Doesn't Require bilateral nuclei, the inferior colliculus
hearing and the primary auditory area
b. It is a function of the superior a. True
olivary nucleus and the primary b. False
auditory cortex
c. Detect the difference in the
50. Most of the information leaving
intensity of sound between the
the cochlea to the auditory
two ears.
pathway comes from
d. detect the time lag between the
a. the inner hair cells
entry of sound into one ear and
b. the outer hair cells
its entry into opposite ear
c. both of the hair cells are equally
through the presence of time lag
discharging
neurons

47. It is a center for (audiospinal 51. olfactory sensory receptors

reflexes). located in:
a. Auditory cortex a. in a ganglion
b. Inferior colliculus
b. in olfactory mucosa
c. Superior olivary nucleus
d. Cochlea c. in taste mucous membrane

48. Unilateral lesion of the primary

auditory cortex 52. surface area covered by the
a. gives total deafness yellowish pigmented olfactory
b. unilateral deafness on the mucous membrane in
ipsilateral side microsomatic animals:
c. does not lead to deafness in
a. large area
either ear
d. The person cannot interpret the b. 10 squares cm
meaning of the sound.
c. 5 squares cm
  

d. None of the above 56. The dendrites of neurons of

olfactory receptors:

53. surface area covered by the a. Thick & long

yellowish pigmented olfactory
b. Thick & short
mucous membrane in
macrosomatic animals: c. Thin & long

a. large area d. Thin & short

b. 10 squares cm
57. Cilia of olfactory receptors:
c. 5 squares cm
a. Myelinated with 0.1µm in
d. None of the above
diameter

b. Myelinated with 2µm in

54. pigmented olfactory mucous
diameter
membrane contain:
c. Unmyelinated with 0.1µm
a. supporting cells
in diameter
b. progenitor cells
d. Un myelinated with 2 µm
c. both A & B in diameter

d. none of the above

58. Olfactory membrane covered
by mucous membrane secreted
55. between supporting &
by:
progenitor cells of pigmented
olfactory mucous membrane: a. Schwann cells

a. 10-20 thousands receptors b. Olfactory cells

b. 10-20 millions receptors c. Nasal membrane

c. 10-20 hundreds receptors d. Bowman's glands

d. 10-20 receptors
59. Olfactory cells can't regenerate:
  

a. True b. by drugs

b. False c. by conditions

d. all of the above

60. Olfactory cells stimulated by:

a. Odorant molecules 64. the main structure responsible

for discriminate odors:
b. Taste molecules
a. olfactory mucosa
c. None of the above
b. olfactory genes

61. Receptor-odorant complex c. olfactory glomeruli

stimulate:
d. all of the above
a. adenylate cyclase

b. Odorant molecule 65. Olfactory signals become

topographically organized
c. G-protein ( Golf )
within:
d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels
a. olfactory glomeruli

b. olfactory mucosa
62. adenylate cyclase cause:
c. both A & B
a. adenylate cyclase
d. olfactory bulb
b. formation cAMP

c. G-protein ( Golf )
66. adaptation of olfactory system:
d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels
a. rapid and at CNS level

b. rapid and at receptor level

63. spasticity of olfactory
epithelium controlled by: c. slow and at CNS level

a. genetically d. both A & B

  

67. the constitutions of chemical e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols

sense: & Alcohols

a. Olfaction
70. sweet taste caused by:
b. Gustation
a. ionized salts
c. Both A & B
b. acids
d. None of the above
c. long chain organic
substances contain
68. the common character of smell
alkaloids
& taste:
d. foods containing glutamate
a. provide information
regarding the external e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols
environment & Alcohols

b. replaced with a half-time

of a few weeks 71. Sour taste caused by:

c. specialized sensory a. ionized salts

receptors are stimulated by
b. acids
chemical molecules
c. long chain organic
d. all of the above
substances contain
alkaloids
69. sweet taste caused by:
d. foods containing glutamate
a. ionized salts
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols
b. acids & Alcohols

c. long chain organic

substances contain
alkaloids
d. foods containing glutamate
72. Bitter taste caused by:
a. ionized salts
b. acids
  

c. long chain organic b. palate, pharynx

substances contain
c. epiglottis
alkaloids
d. All of the above
d. foods containing glutamate

e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols

76. Damage to the nerves
& Alcohols
innervating the taste buds
cause:
73. Umami taste caused by:
a. Total ageusia
a. ionized salts b. Partial ageusia
c. Both A & B
b. acids
d. None of the above
c. long chain organic
substances contain
77. innervation of taste buds on
alkaloids
anterior 2/3 of tongue:
d. foods containing glutamate
a. facial nerve (CN VII)
e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols b. glossopharyngeal nerve
& Alcohols ( CN IX )
c. Vagus nerve (CN X).
74. receptors of taste sensation
located in:
78. the innervation of taste buds on
a. taste buds
posterior 1/3 of tongue:
b. olfactory epithelium
a. facial nerve (CN VII)
c. skin
b. glossopharyngeal nerve
d. all of the above ( CN IX )

c. Vagus nerve (CN X)

75. taste buds located in:

a. papillae 79. the innervation of taste buds on

epiglottis
  

a. facial nerve (CN VII)

b. glossopharyngeal nerve (
CN IX )

c. Vagus nerve (CN X)

  

Answers: 31. B
32. A
33. B
1. B
34. A
2. B
35. A
3. B
36. B
4. B
37. D
5. C
38. C
6. A
39. D
7. B
40. A
8. D
41. B
9. D
42. A
10. A
43. A
11. B
44. B
12. C
45. C
13. A
46. A
14. B
47. B
15. A
48. C
16. B
49. A
17. B
50. A
18. A
19. B 51. B
20. A
52. C
21. A
22. B 53. A
23. A
54. C
24. A
25. C 55. B
26. E
56. B
27. C
28. B 57. C
29. C
58. D
30. D
  

59. B

60. A

61. C

62. B

63. A

64. C

65. D

66. D

67. C

68. D

69. E

70. A

71. B

72. C

73. D

74. A

75. D

76. C

77. A

78. B

79. C
 
  

Chapter 4: d. terbutaline (Brethine)

6. Nerve terminal reuptake inhibitor

Pharmacology bank Qs ;)
a. methoxamine (Vasoxyl)
b. cocaine
1. ANS:
c. reserpine
1. Drugs activating this receptor are d. timolol (Blocadren)
used in treating asthma:
a. beta1 adrenergic 7. Alpha adrenoceptor COVALENT
b. muscarinic cholinergic blocker:
c. beta2 adrenergic a. propranolol (Inderal)
d. nicotinic cholinergic b. phenoxybenzamine
(Dibenzyline)
2. Epinephrine effects on the heart c. phentolamine (Regitine)
a. increased rate d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)
b. decreased contractility
c. coronary vasodilation 8. Orthostatic (postural)
d. A & C hypotension
a. beta receptor activation
3. Receptor activation mainly b. alpha receptor activation
responsible for positive c. alpha receptor blocker
inotropism: d. dopamine receptor blockade
a. alpha1
b. beta1 9. Norepinephrine pressor response
c. dopamine D1 blocked by:
d. muscarinic cholinergic a. mecamylamine (Inversine)
b. prazosin (Minipress)
4. Epinephrine effects on c. atropine
respiration: d. propranolol (Inderal)
a. stimulation
b. Inhibition 10. Positive chronotropic effects of
epinephrine:
5. Activates alpha receptors a. increased SA nodal potassium
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) current
b. propranolol (Inderal) b. beta1 receptor activation
c. phenylephrine (Neo- c. mediated by G protein
Synephrine) d. B&C
  

11. Pressor effects of epinephrine are b. cocaine increases conversion

blocked by this drug of norepinephrine to
("epinephrine reversal") phenylephrine
a. propranolol (Inderal) c. cocaine decreases cholinergic
b. phentolamine (Regitine) receptor number
c. phenylephrine (Neo- d. cocaine decreases N.E.
Synephrine) metabolism by MAO
d. metoprolol (Lopressor) e. cocaine increases N.E.
receptor number
12. Decreases blood pressure
a. propranolol (Inderal) 16. Immediate biosynthetic precursor
b. mecamylamine (Inversine) of epinephrine:
c. phentolamine (Regitine) a. L-DOPA
d. all of the above b. doapmine
c. norepinephrine
13. Centrally-acting antihypertensive d. metaraminol
drug e. Isoproterenol
a. nitroprusside sodium
(Nipride) 17. Epinephrine:
b. clonidine (Catapres) a. limited effect on alpha
c. methoxamine (Vasoxyl) receptors
d. captopril (Capoten) b. increases heart rate,
contributing to increase blood
14. Therapeutic use of esmolol pressure
(Brevibloc): c. epinephrine often reduces
a. bronchial asthma peripheral vascular resistance,
b. renal vasodilator especially at high
c. antihypertensive concentration
d. antiarrhythmic drug d. epinephrine tends to exhibit
e. positive inotrope in CHF negative inotropic effects
e. all of the above
15. The magnitude of the
cardiovascular response to 18. Vasoconstrictive effects of
norepinephrine is increased by epinephrine:
cocaine because: a. alpha-1 adrenergic receptor-
a. cocaine inhibits mediated affecting precapillary
norepinephrine reuptake resistance vessels of the skin,
kidney, and mucosa
  

b. veins e. all of the above

c. both
d. Neither
19. A decrease in diastolic pressures
associated with epinephrine
administration would most likely
occur in which dosage?
a. relatively high doses
b. relatively low doses
20. Most probable BP effect of
epinephrine, if epinephrine is
administered after an alpha-
receptor antagonist:
a. previous administration of
the alpha-receptor antagonist
will not influence the blood-
pressure response to
epinephrine
b. increased blood-pressure
response to epinephrine
c. decreased blood-pressure
response to epinephrine
23. Significant respiratory tract
effects of epinephrine:
a. beta-2 receptor mediated
bronchoconstriction
b. alpha-1 receptor-mediated
bronchodilation
c. beta-1 receptor-mediated
bronchodilation
d. beta-2 receptor-mediated
bronchodilation
24. Examples of epinephrine
metabolic effects
a. insulin secretion reduced by
beta2 adrenergic receptor
activation
b. glucagon secretion:
diminished by beta adrenergic
receptor activation
c. free fatty acids: increased
d. minimal calorigenic effect
e. glycolysis inhibition

21. Prominent cardiac beta- 25. Toxicities/adverse reactions

adrenergic receptor type: associated with
a. beta-1 sympathomimetics
b. beta-2 a. angina
c. beta-3 b. hypertension; cerebral
hemorrhage
22. Cardiac effects associated with c. cardiac arrhythmias
epinephrine: d. anxiety reactions
a. positive chronotropic e. all the above
b. positive inotropic
c. increased cardiac output 26. Drugs antagonize epinephrine
d. increased oxygen pressor effects:
consumption a. phentolamine (Regitine)
  

b. terbutaline (Brethine) b. heart rate cannot decrease

c. dopamine (Intropin) following norepinephrine
d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion because
e. Atropine norepinephrine activates beta-
1 adrenergic receptors
27. Epinephrine effects on AV nodall c. activation of the baroreceptor
conduction: system causing a reflex-
a. increased conduction velocity mediated decrease in heart
b. decreased conduction velocity rate
c. promotes AV block d. peripheral vasodilation
e. none of the above
28. Ventricular effects associated
with epinephrine administration: 31. Vascular effects of
a. increased automaticity norepinephrine (Levophed):
b. increased ectopic pacemaker a. significantly decreases
activity glomerularl filtration rates
c. increased conduction b. effective in treating variant
philosophy (Prinzmetal's) angina
d. increased contractility c. norepinephrine pressor
e. all the above effects blocked by prazosin
(Minipress)
29. Primary neurotransmitter d. increased blood flow to liver,
released by postganglionic kidney, and skeletal muscle
neurons of the autonomic
sympathetic system: 32. Immediate synthetic precursor of
a. epinephrine norepinephrine:
b. dopamine a. Epinephrine
c. dobutamine b. tyrosine
d. norepinephrine c. tyrosine hydroxylase
e. Phenylephrine d. dopamine
e. Dopa
30. Decreased heart rate following
norepinephrine infusion is most 33. CNS neurotransmitter associated
likely due to: with the basal ganglia and motor
a. direct norepinephrine control:
activation of muscarinic a. dopamine
receptors at the SA node b. acetylcholine
c. both
  

d. Neither a. low systemic blood pressure

b. decreased atrial filling
34. Low doses, this precursor of pressures
norepinephrine causes c. high urinary output
renovascular dilation:
a. epinephrine 38. Simultaneous increases in
b. dopa myocardial contractility,
c. dopamine (Intropin) glomerular filtration rate, sodium
d. dobutamine (Dobutrex) excretion, urine output, and renal
e. nitroprusside sodium blood flow are associated most
(Nipride) likely with:
a. epinephrine
35. Pharmacological action(s) of b. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
dopamine (Intropin): c. phenylephrine (Neo-
a. positive inotropism Synephrine)
b. promotes myocardial d. dopamine (Intropin)
norepinephrine release e. norepinephrine (Levophed)
c. increases glomerular
filtration rates (low-dose) 39. Properties of dobutamine
d. vasoconstriction by alpha-1 (Dobutrex):
receptor activation (high-dose) a. positive inotropic agent;
e. all the above causes significant increase in
heart rate
36. Significant therapeutic use for b. promotes catecholamine
dopamine: release
a. management of sleep cycles c. mainly acts through
b. treatment of Raynaud's dopamine receptors
phenomenon d. positive inotropic effect is
c. treatment of mediated through beta-
cardiogenic/hypovolemic adrenergic receptor activation
shock e. appropriate for long-term
d. management of management of myocardial
tachyarrhythmias pump-failure following
surgery
37. Cardiovascular characteristics of
patients who might benefit from 40. Examples of beta-2 selective
IV dopamine (Intropin) adrenergic agonists
administration: a. metaproterenol (Alupent)
  

b. terbutaline (Brethine) c. cardiac output obstruction

c. albuterol (Ventolin,Proventil) d. loss of peripheral vascular
d. A&B tone
e. A, B & C e. all of the above

41. Clinical use(s) of alpha-1- 45. Most likely to reduce myocardial

receptor agonists: performance in a damaged heart
a. management hypotensive by increasing afterload:
states a. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
b. termination of paroxysmal b. phenylephrine (Neo-
atrial tachycardia Synephrine)
c. nasal decongestant c. low-dose dopamine
d. A&B (Intropin)
e. A,B & C d. low-dose epinephrine

42. Primary use for alpha-2-selective
adrenergic agonists:
a. to manage hypotensive states
b. to increase myocardial
contractility
c. to reduce blood pressure
d. A & B
e. A,B & C
43. Major mechanism of
antihypertensive effects
associated with alpha-2-selective
adrenergic agonists:
a. competitive inhibition of
vascular alpha receptors
b. reduced sympathetic outflow
44. Clinical uses for
sympathomimetic drugs:
a. hypovolemic shock caused
by dehydration or blood loss
b. cardiogenic shock (pump
failure)
46. Receptor system most likely
responsible for improved
myocardial contractility when
dopamine is administered at low
concentrations:
a. muscarinic cholinergic
receptors
b. alpha adrenergic receptors
c. beta adrenergic receptors
d. dopamine receptors (D1)
e. leukotriene receptors
47. Clinical applications of beta-
adrenergic antagonists:
a. management of coronary
vascular disease
b. treatment of arrhythmias
c. treatment of hypertension
d. all the above
48. A non-selective beta-adrenergic
receptor blocker:
a. metoprolol (Lopressor)

b. atenolol (Tenormin)
c. timolol (Blocadren)
d. esmolol (Brevibloc)
49. Beta-adrenergic receptor
blockers: effects on the heart --
a. increase heart rate
b. increased AV nodal refractory
period
c. increased contractility
d. increased myocardial oxygen
demand
e. increased phase 4
depolarization
50. Most likely to cause dangerous
bronchiolar constriction in
asthmatic patients or patients
with COPD
a. metoprolol (Lopressor)
b. propranolol (Inderal)
c. esmolol (Brevibloc)
d. atenolol (Tenormin)
51. Very potent beta adrenergic
receptor agonists with minimal
effects on alpha adrenergic
receptors:
a. propranolol (Inderal)
propranolol (Inderal)
b. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
c. epinephrine
d. yohimbine (Yocon)
e. phentolamine (Regitine)
52. Beta-2 selective agonist--
typically administered by aerosol
for asthma management:
a. epinephrine
b. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
c. cromolyn sodium (Intal)
d. beclomethasone (Banceril)
e. albuterol
(Ventolin,Proventil)
53. Used to suppress premature
labor:
a. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
b. losartin (Cozaar)
c. ritodrine (Yutopar)
d. phenylephrine (Neo-
Synephrine)
e. clonidine (Catapres)
54. Produces epinephrine reversal,
converting a pressor response to a
deep pressor response:
a. losartin (Cozaar)
b. propranolol (Inderal)
c. metoprolol (Lopressor)
d. phentolamine (Regitine)
e. clonidine (Catapres)
55. Choose the incorrect statement
concerning metabolic effects of
sympathomimetic agents
a. Activation of beta receptors
in fat cells increase lipolysis.
b. Alpha -- 2 adrenergic
receptors inhibit lipolysis
c. Hepatic catecholamine
effects our mediated mainly by
beta adrenergic receptor
activation
  

d. At high concentrations, a. Release of norepinephrine

catecholamines may induce a from nerve terminals
metabolic acidosis b. Activation of adrenoreceptors
e. Sympathomimetic drugs on postsynaptic sites
increase extracellular c. Release of epinephrine from
potassium the adrenal medulla
d. All of the above
56. Correct receptor type: tissues --
actions 59. Characteristics of epinephrine
include all of the following
a. alpha 1: heart: positive
EXCEPT:
inotropic
a. It is synthesized into the
b. alpha 1: pupillary dilator
adrenal medulla
muscle: miosis (pupillary
b. It is synthesized into the nerve
contraction)
ending
c. alpha 2:cholinergic nerve
c. It is transported in the blood to
terminals: facilitate transmitter
target tissues
release
d. It directly interacts with and
d. beta 1: heart: decrease
activates adrenoreceptors
forests of contraction
e. beta 2:human liver: inhibits
60. Which of the following
glycogenolysis
sympathomimetics acts
57. Correct receptor type: tissues: indirectly?
actions a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
a. alpha 1:most innervated c. Ephedrine
vascular smooth muscle: d. Methoxamine
contraction
b. alpha 2:platelets: 61. Indirect action includes all of the
aggregation following properties EXCEPT:
c. beta 2:uterine smooth a. Displacement of stored
muscle: smooth muscle catecholamines from the
relaxation adrenergic nerve ending
d. A&C b. Inhibition of reuptake of
e. A, B & C catecholamines already
released
58. Sympathetic stimulation is c. Interaction with
mediated by: adrenoreceptors
  

d. Inhibition of the release of Norepinephrine

endogenous catecholamines
from peripheral adrenergic 65. Direct effects on the heart are
neurons determined largely by:
a. Alfa1 receptor
62. Catecholamine includes following b. Alfa2 receptor
EXCEPT: c. Beta1 receptor
a. Ephedrine d. Beta2 receptor
b. Epinephrine
c. Isoprenaline 66. Which of the following effects is
d. Norepinephrine related to direct beta1-
adrenoreceptor stimulation?
63. Epinephrine decreases a. Bronchodilation
intracellular camp levels by b. Vasodilatation
acting on: c. Tachycardia
a. α1 receptor d. Bradycardia
b. α2 receptor
c. beta1 receptor 67. Distribution of alfa
d. beta2 receptor adrenoreceptor subtypes is
associated with all of the
64. Which of the following following tissues except those of:
statements is not correct? a. Heart
a. ALFA receptors increase arterial b. Blood vessels
resistence, whereas beta2 c. Prostate
receptor promote smooth d. Pupillary dilator muscle
muscle relaxation
b. The skin and splanchic vessels 68. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is
have predominantly alfa contained in all of the following
receptors tissues EXCEPT:
c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may a. Bronchial muscles
constrict or dilate depending on b. Heart
whether alfa or beta2 receptors c. Pupillary dilator muscle
are activated d. Fat cells
d. Skeletal muscle vessels have
predominantly alfa receptors 69. In which of the following tissues
and constrict in the presence of both alfa and beta1 adrenergic
epinephrine and stimulation produces the same
effect?
  

a. Blood vessels d. Αlfa agonists increase the

b. Intestine outflow of aqueous humor
c. Uterus from the eye
d. Bronchial muscles
74. A bronchial smooth muscle
70. The effects of sympathomimetics contains:
on blood pressure are associated a. Αlfa1 receptor
with their effects on: b. Αlfa2 receptor
a. The heart c. c) Beta 1 receptor
b. The peripheral resistance d. Beta 2 receptor
c. The venous return
d. All of the above 75. All of the following agents are
beta receptor agonists EXCEPT:
71. A relatively pure alfa agonist a. Epinephrine
causes all of the following effects b. Isoproterenol
EXCEPT: c. Methoxamine
a. Increase peripheral arterial d. Dobutamine
resistance
b. Increase venous return 76. Αlfa-receptor stimulation
c. Has no effect on blood vessels includes all of the following
d. Reflex bradycardia effects EXCEPT:
a. Relaxation of gastrointestinal
72. A nonselective beta receptor smooth muscle
agonist causes all of the following b. Contraction of bladder base,
effects EXCEPT: uterus and prostate
a. Increase cardiac output c. Stimulation of insulin
b. Increase peripheral arterial secretion
resistance d. Stimulation of platelet
c. Decrease peripheral arterial aggregation
resistance
d. Decrease the mean pressure 77. Beta1 receptor stimulation
includes all of the following
73. Which of the following statement effects EXCEPT:
is not correct? a. Increase in contractility
a. Αlfa agonists cause miosis b. Bronchodilation
b. Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis c. Tachycardia
c. Beta antagonists decrease the d. Increase in conduction
production of aqueous humor velocity in the
  

atrioventricular node d. Isoprenaline has a

predominantly beta action
78. Beta2 receptor stimulation
includes all of the following 82. Indicate the drug, which is a
effects EXCEPT: direct-acting both alfa- and beta-
a. Stimulation of renin receptor agonist:
secretion a. Norepinephrine
b. Fall of potassium b. Methoxamine
concentration in plasma c. Isoproterenol
c. Relaxation of bladder, uterus d. Ephedrine
d. Tachycardia
83. Which of the following agents is
79. Hyperglycemia induced by an alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2
epinephrine is due to: receptor agonist?
a. Gluconeogenesis (beta2) a. Methoxamine
b. Inhibition of insulin b. Albuterol
secretion (alfa) c. Epinephrine
c. Stimulation of glycogenolysis d. Norepinephrine
(beta2)
d. All of the above 84. Indicate the direct-acting
sympathomimetic, which is an
80. Which of the following effects is alfa1 alfa2 beta1 receptor
associated with beta3-receptor agonist:
stimulation? a. Isoproterenol
a. Lipolysis b. Ephedrine
b. Decrease in platelet c. Dobutamine
aggregation d. Norepinephrine
c. Bronchodilation
d. Tachycardia 85. Which of the following agents is
a nonselective beta receptor
81. Which of the following agonist?
statements is not correct? a. Norepinephrine
a. Epinephrine acts on both b. Terbutaline
alfa- and beta-receptors c. Isoproterenol
b. Norepinephrine has a d. Dobutamine
predominantly beta action
c. Methoxamine has a 86. Indicate the beta1-selective
predominantly alfa action agonist:
  

a. Isoproterenol d. Mydriasis
b. Dobutamine
c. Metaproterenol 91. Epinephrine is used in the
d. Epinephrine treatment of all of the following
disorders EXCEPT:
87. Which of the following a. Bronchospasm
sympathomimetics is a beta2- b. Anaphylactic shock
selective agonist? c. Cardiac arrhythmias
a. Terbutaline d. Open-angle glaucoma
b. Xylometazoline
c. Isoproterenol 92. Compared with epinephrine,
d. Dobutamine norepinephrine produces all of
the following effects EXCEPT:
88. Indicate the indirect-acting a. Similar effects on beta1
sympathomimetic agent: receptors in the heart and
a. Epinephrine similar potency at an alfa
b. Phenylephrine receptor
c. Ephedrine b. Decrease the mean pressure
d. Isoproterenol below normal before
returning to the control value
89. Epinephrine produces all of the c. Significant tissue necrosis if
following effects EXCEPT: injected subcutaneously
a. Positive inotropic and d. Increase both diastolic and
chronotropic actions on the systolic blood pressure
heart (beta1 receptor)
b. Increase peripheral resistance 93. Norepinephrine produces:
(alfa receptor) a. Vasoconstriction
c. Predominance of alfa effects at b. Vasodilatation
low concentration c. Bronchodilation
d. Skeletal muscle blood vessel d. Decresed potassium
dilatation (beta2 receptor) concentration in the plasma

90. Epinephrine produces all of the
following effects EXCEPT:
a. Decrease in oxygen
consumption
b. Bronchodilation
c. Hyperglycemia
94. Which of the following direct-
acting drugs is a relatively pure
alfa agonist, an effective
mydriatic and decongestant and
can be used to raise blood
pressure?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Phenylephrine
d. Ephedrine
95. 044. Isoproterenol is:
a. Both an alfa- and beta-
receptor agonist
b. beta1-selective agonist
c. beta2-selective agonist
d. Nonselective beta
receptor agonist
96. 045. Isoproterenol produces all of
the following effects EXCEPT:
a. Increase in cardiac
output
b. Fall in diastolic and
mean arterial pressure
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Tachycardia
97. 046. Characteristics of
dobutamine include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. It is a relatively beta1-
selective synthetic
catecholamine
b. It is used to treat
bronchospasm
c. It increases
atrioventricular
conduction
d. It causes minimal
changes in heart rate
and systolic pressure
98. 047. Characteristics of salmeterol
include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. It is a potent selective
beta2 agonist
b. It causes uterine
relaxation
c. It stimulates heart rate,
contractility and
cardiac output
d. It is used in the therapy
of asthma
99. 048. Characteristics of ephedrine
include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. It acts primarily
through the release of
stored cathecholamines
b. It is a mild CNS
stimulant
c. It causes tachyphylaxis
with repeated
administration
d. It decreases arterial
pressure
100. 049. Ephedrine causes:
a. Miosis
b. Bronchodilation
c. Hypotension
d. Bradycardia
101. 050. Compared with
epinephrine, ephedrine produces
all of the following features
EXCEPT:

a. It is a direct-acting
sympathomimetic
b. It has oral activity
c. It is resistant to MAO
and has much longer
duration of action
d. Its effects are similar,
but it is less potent
102. 051. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is preferable
for the treatment of chronic
orthostatic hypotension?
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Ephedrine
d. Salmeterol
103. 052. Indicate the
sympathomimetic drug, which is
used in a hypotensive emergency:
a. Xylometazoline
b. Ephedrine
c. Terbutaline
d. Phenylephrine
104. 053. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is preferable
for the emergency therapy of
cardiogenic shock?
a. Epinephrine
b. Dobutamine
c. Isoproterenol
d. Methoxamine
105. 054. Indicate the
sympathomimetic agent, which is
combined with a local anesthetic
to prolong the duration of
infiltration nerve block:
a. Epinephrine
b. Xylometazoline
c. Isoproterenol
d. Dobutamine
106. 055. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is related to
short-acting topical decongestant
agents?
a. Xylometazoline
b. Terbutaline
c. Phenylephrine
d. Norepinephrine
107. 058. Indicate the
sympathomimetic, which may be
useful in the emergency
management of cardiac arrest:
a. Methoxamine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Epinephrine
d. Xylometazoline
108. 059. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is used in the
therapy of bronchial asthma?
a. Formoterol
b. Norepinephrine
c. Methoxamine
d. Dobutamine
109. 060. Indicate the agent of
choice in the emergency therapy
of anaphylactic shock:
a. Methoxamine
b. Terbutaline

c. Norepinephrine
d. Epinephrine
110. 061. Which of the following
sympathomimetics is an effective
mydriatic?
a. Salmeterol
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Norepinephrine
111. 062. The adverse effects of
sympathomimetics include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a. Drug-induced
parkinsonism
b. Cerebral hemorrhage or
pulmonary edema
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Ventricular arrhythmias
112. Sympathetic Nervous System
a. Ganglionic neurotransmitter:
acetylcholine
b. generalized response upon
sympathetic activation
c. thoraco-lumbar origin for
preganglionic cell bodies
d. A, B and C
113. Choline ester most susceptible
to hydrolysis by
acetylcholinesterase:
a. carbachol
b. acetylcholine
c. methacholine (Provocholine)
d. pilocarpine (Pilocar)
114. Resistant to hydrolysis by
acetylcholinesterase
a. carbachol (carbamylcholine)
b. methacholine (Provocholine)
c. both
d. neither
115. Highest nicotinic receptor
activity among choline esters:
a. acetylcholine
b. atropine
c. methacholine (Provocholine)
d. carbachol
116. Associated with
parasympathetic activation
(direct effects):
a. increase heart rate
b. decreased GI motility
c. decrease cardiac contractility
d. urinary retention
117. Miosis produced by
a. pilocarpine (Pilocar)
b. atropine
c. both
d. neither
118. Antimuscarinic drug with
highest CNS activity
a. atropine
b. scopolamine
c. homatropine
d. muscarine
119. Muscarinic agent: enhances
transmission through the A-V
node:
  

a. isoproterenol (Isuprel) d. A & C

b. atropine e. A, B & C
c. propranolol (Inderal)
d. methacholine (Provocholine) 124. Cholinergic receptor type
primarily localized at skeletal
120. Least likely to be used as a muscle neuromuscular junctions:
mydriatic because of long- a. muscarinic
duration of action: b. nicotinic
a. homatropine (Isopto
Homatropine) 125. Highly sensitive to the action
b. atropine of acetylcholinesterase:
c. cyclopentolate (Cyclogyl) a. carbachol
d. benztropine (Cogentin) b. bethanechol (Urecholine)
c. acetylcholine
121. Clinically-used to treat sinus d. A & C
bradycardia secondary to acute e. A,B, & C
myocardial infarction:
a. homatropine (Isopto 126. Muscarinic receptor subtype
Homatropine) primarily associated with the
b. atropine heart:
c. benztropine (Cogentin) a. M1
d. tropicamide (Mydriacyl) b. M2
c. M3
122. Location(s) of cholinergic d. M4
synaptic sites:
a. neuromuscular junction 127. Effective antagonist at
b. autonomic effector sites neuromuscular junction
innervated by post-ganglionic receptors;
sympathetic fibers a. atropine
c. some CNS synapses b. tubocurarine
d. A & C
128. Cardiac muscarinic Type M2-
123. Localization of muscarinic receptor mediated action(s):
cholinergic receptors: a. increased phase 4
a. postganglionic depolarization rate
parasympathetic effector sites b. increased AV nodal conduction
b. autonomic ganglia cells velocity
c. adrenal medulla

c. Decreased atrial and
ventricular contractility
d. all the above
129. Ligand-gated ion channels:
a. nicotinic
b. muscarinic
c. both
d. neither
130. Tends to cause fast responses:
a. nicotinic
b. muscarinic
131. Agonist effects blocked by
tubocurarine:
a. muscarinic receptors
b. nicotinic receptors
132. Indirect-acting
cholinomimetic:
a. atropine
b. edrophonium (Tensilon)
c. carbachol
d. acetylcholine
e. ephedrine
133. More lipophilic:
a. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
b. most organophosphate
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
134. Consequences of
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
application to the conjunctiva
a. relaxation of the pupillary
sphincter muscle
b. relaxation of the ciliary muscle
c. both
d. neither
135. Which type of glaucoma
response to anticholinesterase
treatment?
a. primary
b. secondary
c. congenital
136. Probable cause of myasthenia
gravis:
a. excessive synthesis of
cholinergic receptors
b. inadequate synthesis of
acetylcholine
c. failure of acetylcholine
reuptake system
d. binding of anti--muscarinic
receptor antibodies to the
muscarinic cholinergic
receptor
e. binding of anti-nicotinic
receptor antibodies to the
nicotinic cholinergic receptor
137. Preferred anticholinergic drug
when sedation is the principal
objective, preoperatively:
a. atropine
b. glycopyrrolate (Robinul)
c. scopolamine
138. Anticholinergic drug most
likely to be used clinically to
promote bronchodilation:
a. IV atropine
b. aerosolized atropine

c. aerosolized ipratropium
bromide (ipratropium
(Atrovent))
d. scopolamine
e. all of the above
139. Mydriasis without loss of
accommodation
a. parasympatholytic
b. sympathomimetic
140. Management of severe
bradycardia and A-V block
associated with acute myocardial
infarction:
a. atropine
b. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
141. Acetylcholine is not a specific
neurotransmitter at:
a. a) Sympathetic ganglia
b. b) Sympathetic postganglionic
nerve endings
c. c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d. d) Parasympathetic
postganglionic nerve endings
142. Muscarinic receptors are
located in:
a. a) Autonomic ganglia
b. b) Skeletal muscle
neuromuscular junctions
c. c) Autonomic effector cells
d. d) Sensory carotid sinus
baroreceptor zone
143. Indicate the location of M2
cholinoreceptor type:
a. a) Heart
b. b) Glands
c. c) Smooth muscle
d. d) Endothelium
144. Which of the following
cholinomimetics activates both
muscarinic and nicotinic
receptors?
a. a) Lobeline
b. b) Pilocarpine
c. c) Nicotine
d. d) Bethanechol
145. Indicate a cholinomimetic
agent, which is related to direct-
acting drugs:
a. a) Edrophonium
b. b) Physostigmine
c. c) Carbachol
d. d) Isoflurophate
146. Characteristics of carbachol
include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. a) It decreases intraocular
pressure
b. b) It causes mydriasis
c. c) It exerts both nicotinic and
muscarinic effects
d. d) It is resistant to
acethylcholiesterase
147. Acetylcholine is not used in
clinical practice because:
a. a) It is very toxic
b. b) The doses required are very
high

c. c) It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d. d) It is very costly
148. Parasympathomimetic drugs
cause:
a. a) Bronchodilation
b. b) Mydriasis
c. c) Bradycardia
d. d) Constipation
149. Which of the following direct-
acting cholinomimetics is mainly
muscarinic in action?
a. a) Bethanechol
b. b) Carbachol
c. c) Acetylcholine
d. d) None of the above
150. Which of the following direct-
acting cholinomimetics has the
shortest duration of action?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Methacholine
c) Carbachol
d) Bethanechol
151. Bethanechol has all of the
following properties EXCEPT:
a) It is extremely resistant to
hydrolysis
b) Purely muscarinic in its action
c) It is used for abdominal urinary
bladder distention
d) It exerts both nicotinic and
muscarinic effects
152. A M-cholinimimetic agent is:
a) Carbachol
b) Pilocarpine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Bethanechol
153. Characteristics of pilocarpine
include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid
b) It causes miosis and a
decrease in intraocular
pressure
c) Causes a decrease in secretory
and motor activity of gut
d) It is useful in the treatment of
glaucoma
154. Which of the following
cholinomimetics is indirect-
acting?
a) Lobeline
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol
155. The mechanism of action of
indirect-acting cholinomimetic
agents is:
a) Binding to and activation
of muscarinic or nicotinic
receptors
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis
of endogenous
acetylcholine
c) Stimulation of the action of
acetylcholinesterase
d) Releasing acetylcholine
from storage sites

156. Indicate a reversible
cholinesterase inhibitor:
a) Isoflurophate
b) Carbochol
c) Physostigmine
d) Parathion
157. Which of the following
cholinesterase inhibitors is
irreversible?
a) Physostigmine
b) Edrophonium
c) Neostigmine
d) Isoflurophate
158. Indicate cholinesterase
activator:
a) Pralidoxime
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Isoflurophate
159. Isofluorophate increases all of
the following effects except:
a) Lacrimation
b) Bronchodilation
c) Muscle twitching
d) Salivation
160. Indicate a cholinesterase
inhibitor, which has an additional
direct nicotinic agonist effect:
a) Edrophonium
b) Carbochol
c) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline
161. Сholinesterase inhibitors do
not produce:
a) Bradycardia, no change or
modest fall in blood pressure
b) Increased strength of muscle
contraction, especially in muscles
weakened by myasthenia gravis
c) Miosis and reduction of
intraocular pressure
d) Dramatic hypertension and
tachycardia
162. Which of the following
cholinomimetics is commonly
used in the treatment of
glaucoma?
a) Pilocarpine
b) Lobeline
c) Acethylcholine
d) Neostigmine
163. Which of the following
cholinomimetics is most widely
used for paralytic ileus and atony
of the urinary bladder?
a) Lobeline
b) Neostigmine
c) Pilocarpine
d) Echothiophate
164. Chronic long-term therapy of
myasthenia is usually
accomplished with:
a) Edrophonium
b) Neostigmine
c) Echothiophate
d) Carbachol
  

165. Which of the following 169. The excessive stimulation of

cholinomimetics is a drug of muscarinic receptors by
choice for reversing the effects of pilocarpine and choline esters is
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocked competitively by:
relaxants? a) Edrophonium
a) Echothiophate b) Atropine
b) Physostigmine c) Pralidoxime
c) Edrophonium d) Echothiophate
d) Pilocarpine
170. The toxic effects of a large dose
166. Indicate the reversible of nicotine include all of the
cholinesterase inhibitor, which following EXCEPT:
penetrates the blood-brain a) Hypotension and bradycardia
barrier: b) Convulsions, coma and respiratory
a) Physostigmine arrest
b) Edrophonium c) Skeletal muscle depolarization
c) Neostigmine blockade and respiratory paralysis
d) Piridostigmine d) Hypertension and cardiac
167. Which of the following arrhythmias
cholinomimetics is used in the
treatment of atropine 171. The dominant initial sights of
intoxication? acute cholinesterase inhibitors
a) Neostigmine intoxication include all of the
b) Carbochol following except:
c) Physostigmine a) Salivation, sweating
d) Lobeline b) Mydriasis
c) Bronchial constriction
168. The symptoms of excessive d) Vomiting and diarrhea
stimulation of muscarinic
receptors include all of the 172. Which of those drugs used for
following EXCEPT: acute toxic effects of
a) Abdominal cramps, diarrhea organophosphate cholinesterase
b) Increased salivation, excessive inhibitors?
bronchial secretion a) Atropine
c) Miosis, bradycardia b) Pilocarpine
d) Weakness of all skeletal c) Pralidoxime
muscles d) Edrophonium
  

173. The group of nicotinic 178. Indicate the skeletal muscle

receptor-blocking drugs consists relaxant, which is a depolarizing
of: agent:
1. Ganglion-blockers a) Vencuronium
2. Atropine-similar drugs b) Scopolamine
3. Neuromuscular junction blockers c) Succinylcholine
4. Both a and c d) Hexamethonium

174. M3 receptor subtype is located: 179. Which of the following drugs

1. In the myocardium is a nondepolarizing muscle
2. In sympathetic postganglionic relaxant?
neurons a) Pancuronium
3. On effector cell membranes of b) Succinylcholine
glandular and smooth muscle cells c) Hexamethonium
4. On the motor end plates d) Scopolamine

175. Which of the following drugs 180. Indicate the drug, which is
is both a muscarinic and nicotinic rapidly and fully distributed into
blocker? CNS and has a greater effect than
a) Atropine most other antimuscarinic
b) Benztropine agents?
c) Hexamethonium a) Atropine
d) Succinylcholine b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
176. Indicate a muscarinic d) Ipratropium
receptor-blocking drug:
a) Scopolamine 181. The effect of the drug on
b) Pipecuronium parasympathetic function
c) Trimethaphan declines rapidly in all organs
d) Pilocarpine EXCEPT:
a) Eye
177. Which of the following agents b) Heart
is a ganglion-blocking drug? c) Smooth muscle organs
a) Homatropine d) Glands
b) Hexamethonium
c) Rapacuronium
d) Edrophonium

182. The mechanism of atropine
action is:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic
blockade
c) Competitive neuromuscular
blockade
d) Noncompetitive
neuromuscular blockade
183. The tissues most sensitive to
atropine are:
1. The salivary, bronchial and
sweat glands
2. The gastric parietal cells
3. Smooth muscle and autonomic
effectors
4. The heart
184. Atropine is highly selective
for:
a) M1 receptor subtype
b) M2 receptor subtype
c) M3 receptor subtype
d) All of the above
185. Which of the following
antimuscarinic drugs is often
effective in preventing or
reversing vestibular disturbances,
especially motion sickness?
a) Atropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Scopolamine
d) Homatropine
186. Atropine causes:
a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular
pressure and cyclospasm
b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cycloplegia
c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cycloplegia
d) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
pressure and cyclospasm
187. Patients complain of dry or
“sandy” eyes when receiving large
doses of:
a) Atropine
b) Hexamethonium
c) Pilocarpine
d) Carbachol
188. All of the following parts of the
heart are very sensitive to
muscarinic receptor blockade
except:
a) Atria
b) Sinoatrial node
c) Atrioventricular node
d) Ventricle
189. Atropine causes:
a) Bradycardia, hypotension and
bronchoconstriction
b) Tachycardia, little effect on blood
pressure and bronchodilation
c) Decrease in contractile strength,
conduction velocity through the
AV node
d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis
and bronchodilation

190. Atropine is frequently used
prior to administration of
inhalant anesthetics to reduce:
a) Muscle tone
b) Secretions
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) All of the above
191. Atropine is now rarely used
for the treatment of peptic ulcer
because of:
a) Slow gastric empting and
prolongation of the exposure
of the ulcer bed to acid
b) Low efficiency and necessity
of large doses
c) Adverse effects
d) All of the above
192. Which of the following
antimuscarinic drugs is a
selective M1 blocker?
a) Atropine
b) Scopolamine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Homatropine
193. Atropine causes:
a) Spasmolitic activity
b) Intestinal hypermotility
c) Stimulation of contraction in
the gut
d) Stimulation of secretory
activity
194. Which of the following drugs
is useful in the treatment of
uterine spasms?
a) Carbachol
b) Vecuronium
c) Atropine
d) Edrophonium
195. Atropine may cause a rise in
body temperature (atropine
fever):
a) In adults
b) In pregnant women
c) In infants and children
d) All of the above
196. The pharmacologic actions of
scopolamine most closely
resemble those of:
a) Hexamethonium
b) Atropine
c) Succinylcholine
d) Pilocarpine
197. Compared with atropine,
scopolamine has all of the
following properties EXCEPT:
a) More marked central effect
b) Less potent in decreasing
bronchial, salivary and
sweat gland secretion
c) More potent in producing
mydriasis and cycloplegia
d) Lower effects on the heart,
bronchial muscle and
intestines
  

198. Indicate the antimuscarinic 202. Antimuscarinics are used in

drug, which is used as a the treatment of the following
mydriatic: disorders EXCEPT:
a) Pilocarpine a) Motion sickness
b) Neostigmine b) Glaucoma
c) Homatropine c) Hyperhidrosis
d) Ipratropium d) Asthma

199. Which of the following agents 203. The atropine poisoning

is used as an inhalation drug in includes all of the following
asthma? symptoms EXCEPT:
a) Atropine a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia
b) Ipratropium b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot
c) Lobeline and flushed skin
d) Homatropine c) Agitation and delirium
d) Bradicardia, orthostatic
200. Which of the following agents hypotension
is most effective in regenerating
cholinesterase associated with 204. The treatment of the
skeletal muscle neuromuscular antimuscarinic effects can be
junctions? carried out with:
a) Suscinilcholine a) Neostigmine
b) Pralidoxime b) Hexametonium
c) Pirenzepine c) Homatropine
d) Propiverine d) Acetylcholine

201. Indicate an antimuscarinic 205. Contraindications to the use of

drug, which is effective in the antimuscarinic drugs are all of
treatment of mushroom poising: the following except:
a) Pralidoxime a) Glaucoma
b) Pilocarpine b) Myasthenia
c) Homatropine c) Bronchial asthma
d) Atropine d) Paralytic ileus and atony of
the urinary bladder

206. Hexamethonium blocks the
action of acethylcholine and
similar agonists at:
a) Muscarinic receptor site
b) Neuromuscular junction
c) Autonomic ganglia
d) Axonal transmission
207. Which of the following agents
is a short-acting ganglion
blocker?
a) Homatropine
b) Trimethaphane
c) Hexamethonium
d) Pancuronium
208. Ganglion blocking drugs are
used for the following
emergencies EXCEPT:
a) Hypertensive crises
b) Controlled hypotension
c) Cardiovascular collapse
d) Pulmonary edema
209. Agents that produce
neuromuscular blockade act by
inhibiting:
a) Interaction of acetylcholine
with cholinergic receptors
b) Release of acetylcholine from
prejunctional membrane
c) Packaging of acetylcholine
into synaptic vesicles
d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into
the nerve ending
210. Skeletal muscle relaxation and
paralysis can occur from
interruption of functions at
several sites, including all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) Nicotinic acethylcholine
receptors
b) Muscarinic acethylcholine
receptors
c) The motor end plate
d) Contractile apparatus
211. Nondepolarisation
neuromuscular blocking agents:
a) Block acetylcholine reuptake
b) Prevent access of the
transmitter to its receptor and
depolarization
c) Block transmission by an
excess of a depolarizing
agonist
d) All of the above
212. Which of the following drugs
has “double-acetylcholine”
structure?
a) Rocuronium
b) Carbachol
c) Atracurium
d) Succylcholine
213. Indicate the long-acting
neuromuscular blocking agent:
a) Rapacuronium
b) Mivacurium
c) Tubocurarine
d) Rocuronium
  

214. Which of the following d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not

neuromuscular blocking drugs is have the ability to reverse the
an intermediate-duration muscle blockade
relaxant?
a) Vecuronium 218. Which of the following
b) Tubocurarine neuromuscular blockers causes
c) Pancuronium transient muscle fasciculations?
d) Rapacuronium a) Mivacurium
b) Pancuronium
215. Which competitive c) Succinylcholine
neuromuscular blocking agent d) Tubocurarine
could be used in patients with
renal failure? 219. Which neuromuscular
a) Atracurium blocking agent has the potential
b) Succinylcholine to cause the greatest release of
c) Pipecuronium histamine?
d) Doxacurium a) Succylcholine
b) Tubocurarine
216. Which depolarizing agent has c) Pancuronium
the extremely brief duration of d) Rocuronium
action?
a) Mivacurium 220. Indicate the neuromuscular
b) Rapacuronium blocker, which causes
c) Rocuronium tachycardia:
d) Succinylcholine a) Tubocurarine
b) Atracurium
217. Depolarizing agents include all c) Pancuronium
of the following properties d) Succinylcholine
EXCEPT:
a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to 221. Which neuromuscular
compete with acetylcholine blocking agent is contraindicated
without receptor activation in patients with glaucoma?
b) React with the nicotinic receptor a) Tubocurarine
to open the channel and cause b) Succinylcholine
depolarisation of the end plate c) Pancuronium
c) Cause desensitization, d) Gallamine
noncompetive block manifested
by flaccid paralysis
  

222. All of the following drugs 2. Select the narcotic analgesic,

increase the effects of which is an antagonist or
depolarizing neuromuscular partial mu receptor agonist:
blocking agents EXCEPT: a) Fentanyl
a) Aminoglycosides b) Pentazocine
b) Antiarrhythmic drugs c) Codeine
c) Nondepolarizing blockers d) Methadone
d) Local anesthetics
3. Which of the following agents
223. Which of the following is a full antagonist of opioid
diseases can augment the receptors?
neuromuscular blockade a) Meperidine
produced by nondepolarizing b) Buprenorphine
muscle relaxants? c) Naloxone
a) Myasthenia gravis d) Butorphanol
b) Burns
c) Asthma 4. The principal central nervous
d) Parkinsonism system effect of the opioid
analgesics with affinity for a
224. Indicate the agent, which mu receptor is:
effectively antagonizes the a) Analgesia
neuromuscular blockade caused b) Respiratory depression
by nondepolarizing drugs: c) Euphoria
a) Atropine d) All of the above
b) Neostigmine
c) Acetylcholine 5. Most strong mu receptor
d) Pralidoxime agonists cause:
a) Hypertension
2. Analgesia: b) Increasing the
pulmonary arterial
pressure and
1. Indicate the narcotic analgesic,
myocardial work
which is a natural agonist:
c) Cerebral vasodilatation,
a) Meperidine
causing an increase in
b) Fentanyl
intracranial pressure
c) Morphine
d) All of the above
d) Naloxone
  

6. Morphine causes the following c) Fentanyl

effects EXCEPT: d) Loperamide
a) Constipation
b) Dilatation of the biliary duct 11. The diagnostic triad of opioid
c) Urinary retention overdosage is:
d) Bronchiolar constriction a) Mydriasis, coma and
hyperventilation
7. Therapeutic doses of the opioid b) Coma, depressed respiration
analgesics: and miosis
a) Decrease body temperature c) Mydriasis, chills and
b) Increase body temperature abdominal cramps
c) Decrease body heat loss d) Miosis, tremor and vomiting
d) Do not affect body
temperature 12. Which of the following opioid
agents is used in the treatment
8. Which of the following opioid of acute opioid overdose?
analgesics is used in obstetric a) Pentazocine
labor? b) Methadone
a) Fentanyl c) Naloxone
b) Pentazocine d) Remifentanyl
c) Meperidine
d) Buprenorphine
13. Non-narcotic analgesics are
mainly effective against pain
9. Indicate the opioid analgesic,
associated with:
which is used for relieving the
a) Inflammation or tissue
acute, severe pain of renal
damage
colic:
b) Trauma
a) Morphine
c) Myocardial infarction
b) Naloxone
d) Surgery
c) Methadone
d) Meperidine
14. Non-narcotic agents cause:
a) Respiratory depression
10. Which of the following opioid
b) Antipyretic effect
analgesics is used in the
c) Euphoria
treatment of acute pulmonary
d) Physical dependence
edema?
a) Morphine
b) Codeine

15. Which of the following non-
narcotic agents is salicylic acid
derivative?
a) Phenylbutazone
b) Ketamine
c) Aspirin
d) Tramadol
16. Which one of the following
non-narcotic agents inhibits
mainly cyclooxygenase (COX)
in CNS?
a) Paracetamol
b) Ketorolac
c) Acetylsalicylic acid
d) Ibuprofen
17. Most of non-narcotic
analgetics have:
a) Anti-inflammatory
effect
b) Analgesic effect
c) Antipyretic effect
d) All of the above
18. Indicate the non-narcotic
analgesic, which lacks an anti-
inflammatory effect:
a) Naloxone
b) Paracetamol
c) Metamizole
d) Aspirin
19. Correct statements concerning
aspirin include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) It inhibits mainly
peripheral COX
b) It does not have an
anti-inflammatory
effect
c) It inhibits platelet
aggregation
d) It stimulates respiration
by a direct action on
the respiratory center
20. For which of the following
conditions could aspirin be
used prophylactically?
a) Noncardiogenic
pulmonary edema
b) Peptic ulcers
c) Thromboembolism
d) Metabolic acidosis
21. All of the following are
undesirable effects of aspirin
EXCEPT:
a) Gastritis with focal
erosions
b) Tolerance and physical
addiction
c) Bleeding due to a
decrease of platelet
aggregation
d) Reversible renal
insufficiency
  

22. Characteristic findinds of 26. Descriptive of the drug that

salicylism include: may have an agonist effect at
a) Headache, mental one opioid receptor site and an
confusion and antagonist effect at another
drowsiness opioid receptor site.
b) Tinnitus and difficulty a) full agonist
in hearing b) pure antagonist
c) Hyperthermia, c) mixed agonist-antagonist
sweating, thirst, d) endorphin
hyperventilation, e) Dynorphins
vomiting and diarrhea
d) All of the above 27. Principal alkaloid in opium
(derived from opium poppy)
23. Narcotic agonists: most serious a) morphine
adverse effect: b) fentanyl (Sublimaze)
a) cardiac arrhythmias c) codeine
b) respiratory depression d) naloxone (Narcan)
c) convulsions e) meperidine (Demerol)
d) endogenous depression
24. Physiological effects of 28. Opioid effect least likely to
morphine: exhibit tolerance following
a) chronic diahrrea prolonged opioid
b) mydriasis administration:
c) respiratory depression a) analgesia
d) A & C b) bradycardia
c) respiratory depression
25. An opioid with both agonist d) Miosis
and antagonist properties: e) Euphoria
a) morphine
b) meperidine (Demerol) 29. Opioid antagonist with
c) pentazocine (Talwain) shortest duration of action:
d) oxycodone (Roxicodone) a) naloxone (Narcan)
b) nalmefene (Revex)
c) naltrexone (ReVia)
d) all about equal duration of
action
  

e) these agents are not opioid 3. Anaesthesia:

antagonists

1. The state of “general

30. Contraindications/caution for
anesthesia” usually includes:
opioid use:
a. Analgesia
a) patients with Addison's
b. Loss of consciousness,
disease
inhibition of sensory and
b) patients with impaired
autonomic reflexes
pulmonary function
c. Amnesia
c) patients with head injury
d. All of the above
d) B&C
e) A, B & C
2. Inhaled anesthetics and
intravenous agents having
31. Signs and symptoms of acute
general anesthetic properties:
opioid withdrawal (abstinence
a. Directly activate GABAA
syndrome)
receptors
a) yawning
b. Facilitate GABA action but
b) lacrimation
have no direct action on
c) hyperventilation
GABAA receptors
d) diarrhea
c. Reduce the excitatory
e) all the above
glutamatergic
neurotransmission
32. In obstetrical
d. Increase the duration of
applications:opioid less likely
opening of nicotine-activated
to produce respiratory
potassium channels
depression in the newborn
a) meperidine (Demerol)
3. An ideal anesthetic drug
b) morphine
would:
a. Induces anesthesia smoothly
and rapidly and secure rapid
recovery
b. Posses a wide margin of safety
c. Be devoid of adverse effects
d. All of the above
  

4. Which of the following 9. Which of the following

general anesthetics belongs to inhaled anesthetics is an
inhalants? induction agent of choice in
a. Thiopental patient with airway problems?
b. Desfluran a. Desfurane
c. Ketamine b. Nitrous oxide
d. Propofol c. Halothane
d. None of the above
5. Indicate the anesthetic, which
is used intravenously: 10. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,
a. Propofol which causes the airway
b. Halothane irritation:
c. Desflurane a. Nitrous oxide
d. Nitrous oxide b. Sevoflurane
c. Halothane
6. Which of the following d. Desflurane
inhalants is a gas anesthetic?
a. Halothane 11. Which of the following
b. Isoflurane inhaled anesthetics can
c. Nitrous oxide produce hepatic necrosis?
d. Desflurane a. Soveflurane
b. Desflurane
7. Which of the following c. Halothane
inhaled anesthetics has rapid d. Nitrous oxide
onset and recovery?
a. Nitrous oxide 12. Unlike inhaled anesthetics,
b. Desflurane intravenous agents such as
c. Sevoflurane thiopental, etomidate, and
d. All of the above propofol:
a. Have a faster onset and rate of
8. Indicate the inhaled anesthetic, recovery
which reduces arterial b. Provide a state of conscious
pressure and heart rate: sedation
a. Isoflurane c. Are commonly used for
b. Halothane induction of anesthesia
c. Desflurane d. All of the above
d. Nitrous oxide
  

13. Indicate the intravenous 17. Local anesthetics types: shorter

anesthetic, which is an ultra- duration of action
short-acting barbiturate: a. Ester-type agents
a. Fentanyl b. Amide-type agents
b. Thiopental c. no difference in
c. Midazolam duration of action
d. Ketamine
18. Factors influencing local
14. Which of the following anesthetic absorption and
intravenous anesthetics has distribution:
antiemetic actions? a. presence of
a. Thiopental vasoconstrictors
b. Propofol b. injection site
c. Ketamine c. dosage
d. Fentanyl d. A&C
e. A, B & C
15. Indicate the intravenous
anesthetic, which produces 19. Addition to vasoconstrictors
dissociative anesthesia: may prolong/enhance spinal
a. Midazolam anesthesia by:
b. Ketamine a. activating alpha2 adrenergic
c. Fentanyl receptors
d. Thiopental b. increase local neuronal local
anesthetic uptake
16. Ketamine anesthesia is c. both
associated with: d. neither
a. Cardiovascular stimulation
b. Increased cerebral blood flow, 20. Effect of clonidine (Catapres)
oxygen consumption and addition to local anesthetic
intracranial pressure solutions:
c. Disorientation, sensory and a. enhanced local anesthetic
perceptual illusions, and vivid effectiveness
dreams following anesthesia b. reduced local anesthetic
d. All of the above effectiveness
c. no clonidine (Catapres)
influence on local anesthetic
efficacy
  

21. Effect of local anesthetic- 25. Local anesthetics: acid/base

mediated vasodilation on properties
pharmacokinetic a. Local anesthetics are weak
characteristics: acids
a. Greater vasodilation -- b. Local anesthetics are weak
longer duration of action; bases
reduced systemic absorption c. Local anesthetics have no
b. Greater vasodilation -- ionizable groups
increased systemic absorption;
reduced duration of action 26. Factors influencing
effectiveness of epinephrine or
22. Pharmacokinetic characteristic local anesthesia:
of local anesthetics which a. choice of local anesthesia
favor more rapid onset of b. level of sensory blockade
action: required or spinal anesthesia
a. pK farther away from c. both
physiological pH d. neither
b. pK close to physiological
pH 27. Example(s) of ester-type local
anesthetics:
23. Type of local anesthetic with a. procaine (Novocain)
wider distribution: b. tetracaine (pontocaine)
a. Amide agents c. cocaine
b. Ester agents d. A&C
c. no difference e. A, B & C

24. pKa range for most local 28. Clearance: amide local
anesthetics anesthetic
a. 6.0-7.0 a. rapid hydrolysis
b. 7.0-8.0 b. hepatic mediation
c. 8.0-9.0 c. significant renal excretion
d. > 9.0
  

29. Patient presentations which is a. Allergic reactions

suggestive of local anesthetic b. Systemic toxicity
allergy: c. both
a. rash d. neither
b. urticaria
c. laryngeal edema 32. Factor(s) which influence the
d. bronchospasm extent of local anesthetic
e. all the above systemic absorption
a. initial dose administered
30. Basis/evidence for local b. injection site vascularity
anesthetic allergies: c. whether or not epinephrine
a. clinical history was used to provide local
b. intradermal testing vasoconstriction
c. both d. properties of the drug itself
d. neither e. all the above

31. Primary side effect(s) of local

anesthetics: