Virtual Class Questions 2013 PDF

DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
©2013 www.upcatreview.com
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
FOREWORD
How to prepare for the UPCAT (University of the Philippines College Admission Test)
I had just recently served the university as a Senior Lecturer in the Math and Science Teaching Department of UP
Los Baños. That was a new phase in my career as an educator since I was, for more than ten years, a high school
Mathematics Professor at the U.P. Rural High School. Since I just got done pretty much going through the whole
process of preparing my students to take the highly competitive college entrance tests like the UPCAT, looking
for ways and means to really help deserving students pass the UPCAT, applying the techniques and strategies
that I myself and the rest of my team in Review Masters had used effectively, and scouring the Internet for all
possible resources that we could use in the Online UPCAT Review, I wanted to share some tips with all of you
currently preparing for the UPCAT that I found helpful.
Now, I’ve mentioned that I’m fond of helping “deserving” students to pass the UPCAT. I really want to point out
that you belong to this category of “deserving” students if you have a strong DAD. Yes, a strong DAD - Desire
And Determination. This is, first and foremost, the requirement in order for you to get a headstart among your
fellow UPCAT hopefuls. Why?
Remember… you would compete against 70,000+ other examinees, all of you vying for the very limited 12,000
or so slots (and this number is the total new freshmen to be admitted to the whole UP System, not just in your
area or region). Granting each of the examinees would enroll in a review center, then each one of you would
have a fair chance of qualifying for UP. But the real edge begins when a student has a strong DAD. With your
strong DAD, everything will follow - you would have that positive mental attitude, you would find the right
review materials, you would meet the most competent UPCAT mentors around, and you would have the
confidence that you would pass UPCAT the Sure Way!
There is no room for procrastination. You can’t rely on your stored knowledge. This is fierce competition. In
order for you to be admitted in UP, you have to beat 60,000+ fellow examinees. This is possible only when you
have a strong DAD. You should have that burning DESIRE to be an Iskolar Para sa Bayan; you should have
that uncompromising DETERMINATION to really go for the goal! It’s do or die… It’s now or never…You
should do whatever it takes to realize this dream of becoming a full-pledged UP student.
Now, once you have your strong DAD with you, then you’re ready for the...…
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
PREPARATION STAGE. This is what the majority of UPCAT takers usually miss. A lot of students and
parents alike have always thought that the best time to prepare for the UPCAT is the summer months of April
and May of the same year as the UPCAT’s which is usually scheduled during the early weekends of August. That
might be applicable to those students who consistently made it to the honor roll of their respective schools. Why
do I say that? This is because your high school grades will matter a lot. By how much?
Forty percent (40%). Yes, 40%, my dear students. You see, if you just have been consistent of making high
(take note: high, not just good) grades since your first year until your third year, then chances are, you have
already overtaken the vast majority of your co-UPCAT examinees. That even if some of your fellow UPCAT
takers have the same or even slightly higher raw scores than yours in some of the sub-tests, but they have much
lower high school weighted average, then you might still get a better UPG (University Predicted Grade).
Now, lucky for you if you have read this and you’re still in first year high school or sixth grade. You still have
the opportunity to undergo this grand preparation that many take for granted. You will be motivated high enough
to be in the honor roll (better to be the first honor of your batch). But what if you’re already in third year or
you’re now in your senior year and you weren’t able to do your best (being a happy-go-lucky student) to produce
decent grades good enough to be categorized as “average” (worse if “below average”)? You really have
foregone the chance to get the edge in that whooping 40% slice of the UPCAT pie!
So what are you going to do? Forget about UPCAT? I strongly suggest that you reconsider the possibility of
making it in U.P. Especially if you have that strong DAD (Desire And Determination). Don’t get discouraged by
what you’ve just read. It’s still months away till UPCAT. It is still everybody’s ballgame as they say in
basketball. What you can do is shift to PMA (Positive Mental Attitude) and believe that everything is possible.
Now, if you’re mentally psyched-up, then it’s time to act! We have received a lot of feedback from our former
students in our UPCAT Review Program who are now studying in U.P. and many of them told us something like
this:
“Sir, sana hindi na lang kami nag-UPCAT Review sa Review Masters… Pumasa tuloy kami sa UPCAT! E
sobrang hirap palang mag-aral sa U.P.!”
(“Sir, we just hoped that we didn’t take the UPCAT Review of Review Masters… Look at what happened - we
passed the UPCAT! But it’s very difficult to study in U.P.!”)
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
These students were not in the honor roll during their high school years. They were not used to really having that
kind of study habits that honor students have. But I tell you, they are really very smart that given the chance (say,
they weren’t addicted to DOTA), if they only focused on their academics, they might (like the majority of you
out there) have beaten those in the honor roll.
But why did they pass the UPCAT despite their “average” performance in school? It was because they
persevered during the few months prior to UPCAT. They willingly underwent to extreme pressure called
CRAMMING! Yes, reviewing a few months before the UPCAT is already considered cramming. But that’s the
only way to make-up for the lost time and lost opportunity for being a happy-go-lucky student.
A lot of “average” students still make it to U.P. because they know that the bigger chunk of the UPCAT pie rests
on the UPCAT score which constitutes sixty percent (60%) of theUniversity Predicted Grade (UPG).
Now, how can you get a high score in the UPCAT? If you’re a Math and Science wizard, have a wide range of
vocabulary and very great comprehension skills, and have an IQ of at least 120, then the probability of getting a
high score in the UPCAT is very high.
But you might tell me that, “Hey, Sir, I’m just an average student - does it mean that my chance of getting a high
score is low?” The answer is a yes and a no.
Yes - if you won’t (by will and force) do anything about it! No - if you’ll be able to figure out thesecrets of the
other “average” students how they passed the UPCAT. They made it to U.P. despite the fact that in some cases,
their valedictorian or salutatorian batchmate did not make it.
This just proves that in the UPCAT Game, everything is possible. And in the next few weeks, for as long as you
adhere to the UPCAT-Made-Easy Program, you will learn the secrets of every average student who successfully
passed UPCAT the Sure Way!
Helping you pass UPCAT the Sure Way,
LEOPOLD (“SIR LASET”)
***********************************************************************************
For over nine years Prof. Leopold Laset has been working with Review Masters, an elite test prep
company in the Philippines, traveling across the country to help students maximize
their UPCAT scores. He is one of the authors of 37 PROVEN TIPS TO PASS UPCAT
THE SURE WAY!
To learn more about Prof. Laset and how to pass the UPCAT and any other high
school or college entrance test, visit www.upcatreview.com and remove all fears for
your future academic and career success now!
***********************************************************************************
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
HOW TO JOIN A VIRTUAL CLASS
Here are the instructions on how to join the Virtual Classes:
How to Join Live Classes:
1. Go to www.wiziq.com
2. Join/Make an account (free). Make sure that the email you use is the same as the email here in
upcatreview.com. If it's not the same, notify us at reviewmasters@upcatreview.com
3. Search for teacher “ReviewMasters Online” or click here
4. Click his profile and click “add as contact”
5. Select option (do you know him) YES & choose option as “My Teacher”
He will be sending you invitation to join the class thru any of the following (check the invitation at
least 30 minutes before the start of each virtual class session):
(1) www.wiziq.com
 Check your Wiziq’s Inbox and click the link “view complete information”
 Click “join the class” & then click “launch”
(2) E-mail
 Check your E-mail’s Inbox (check your spam, too) and click the “Wiziq Invitation”
 Click “join the class” & then click “launch”
If you are not receiving any invitation, please contact us right away.
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
Requirements :
 Internet connection (at least 384kbps) & Headset
 Commitment
Other Info about the Class:

 A virtual class room (with a white board where the teacher explains everything)
 Only the teacher speaks & explains
 Students are not allowed to speak/interact with others (you can write in chat box)
 All classes including the Orientation are recorded and can be viewed at www.wiziq.com or at
Review Dashboard 24 hours after the session.
Important Rules for the Class:

 You need to answer the 25 multiple-choice questions of the subject scheduled for the day prior
to the start of the virtual class session (the virtual class question items are also uploaded at
www.upcatreview.com)
 If you cannot hear the sound, log off and log in again (launch the class) or check if your audio is
set to MUTE (unmute it)
 No Chatting is allowed during the class
 Questions won’t be answered during the lesson unless they are about the specific point or to repeat
the information
 Questions & Answer session @ the last 10 minutes
 No flooding is allowed
 No ALL CAPS is allowed
 No harsh words is allowed
 No “text typing” (e.g. jejemon) is allowed
 Only up to font size 12 shall be used in the chatbox
 You can be kicked out of class when you break any of the rules above
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
VIRTUAL CLASS QUESTIONS
CYCLE 1: BASIC ALGEBRA

1. A number that can be expressed as a nonterminating, nonrepeating decimal.
A. Complex number C. Imaginary number
B. Irrational number D. Rational Number
2. If a = 0.1, b = 0.2 and c = 0.12 then _______.

A. a is between b and c C. c is between a and b
B. b is between a and c D. None of these
3. What is the average of -16, 4, 0, 8?

A. -1 B. -4 C. -3 D. -2
4.  -3 –2  = _______.
A. -5 B. -1 C. 1 D. 5
5. Which of the following is a natural number?

A. -2.53 B. 0 C. 1 D. ½
6. Solve for F: C = 5/9 (F – 32)

A. F = 5/9 C – 32 C. F = 9/5 C – 32
B. F = 5/9 C +32 D. F = 9/5 C – 32
7. If ab = 5 and a2 + b2 = 25, then (a + b)2 = ________.

A. 15 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35
8. ∑ = ________.
A. 45 B. 50 C. 55 D. 100
3x 2  y 2 x y
9. Simply 2 + -
x y 2
x y x y
4x  2 y 4x2  2x  2 y3
A. C.
x y x y
3x 2  y 2 3x 2  y 2
B. D.
x y x  y x  y 
10. Simply:
2
 a 3b 0 c 4 
 1 2 
 a b c 
b 4 c10 c10 a8 b4
A. B. C. D.
a8 b4 a8 b 4 c10 a 8 c10
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
11. Divide (2p3 – 7p2 + 9) by (2p2 – p – 3).
A. 6p + 3 B. p–3 C. 2p – 3 D. p+3
12. Find the product of

 
x  2 y and 2 x  3 y  
.
A. 2 x  14 xy  12 y C. 2 x  7 xy  6 y
B. 2 x  7 xy  6 y D. 2 x  7 xy  6 y
13. Factor 81a6 – 24b9.

A.  
3a 2  2b3 9a 4  6a 2b3  4b6  C.  
3 3a 2  2b3 9a 4  6a 2b3  4b 6 
B. 33a  2b  9a
2 3 4
 6a 2b3  4b6  D.  
3a 2  2b3 9a 4  6a 2b3  4b6 
14. A motorcycle which moves 5kph faster than a freight train travels 150km in 1 hr. less time than that
required by the train to travel the same distance. Find the rate of the motorcycle.
A. 25 kph B. 30 kph C. 5 kph D. 150 kph
15. Solve for x in  5x – 12  = 3.

A. (-9/5, -3) B. (-9/5, 3) C. (9/5, 3) D. (9/5, -3)
16. Find the slope of the line that contains (1, -1) and (4, 5).
A. -2 B. 2 C. 3 D. -3
17. Find an equation of the line passing through (-2, 4) and with a slope y = 3.
A. 3x + y – 2 = 0 C. 3x + y + 2 = 0
B. 3x – y + 2 = 0 D. 3x = y – 2
18. The line y = (k2 + 4k) x + 7 is parallel to the line y = -3x + 2. Find k.
A. (-1, -3) B. (1, 3) C. (-1, 3) D. (1, -3)
19. A man leaves Manila for Baguio in his car, averaging 50 kph. One hour later, another car leaves for
Baguio following the same route and travelling at an average of 60 kph. How long would it take the
second car to overtake the first car?
A. 2 hr B. 3 hr C. 4 hr D. 5 hr
20. How many grams of pure gold must be added to 10 g, 50% pure, to make a mixture which is 75%
pure?
A. 75 g B. 100 g C. 150 g D. 175 g
21. Find the two-digit number the sum whose digits is 11 and if the digits and interchanged, the number is
increased by 27.
A. 27 B. 37 C. 40 D. 47
22. The length of a rectangle is two less than three times the width. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 76.
Find the middle of the rectangle.
A. 10 B. 11 C. 28 D. 38
23. Find the larger of two consecutive odd numbers whose product is 35.
A. 5 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
24. A man invested P15,000 at 12% and the remainder at 8%. The annual income from the two
investment is P1,456, how much must he invest at 12%?
A. P6,400 B. P8,600 C. P9,400 D. P9,600
25. A door way of a museum is in the shape of a parabola 3m high at the center and 2.4m wide at he base.
Find the approxinate height of the doorway 1m horizontally from the center of the door.
A. 9m B. 10m C. 11m D. 12m
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA
1. Given the f and g are the functions defined by

f x   x  1 and g x   x  4 . Find  f  g  x  .
A. x 1 + x2 C. x  1  x  2
B. x  1x  2 D. x 1  x2
g x    x 2  6 x  10
3
2. Find either a maximum or a minimum value of the function g if 2
A. max value is 4 C. min value is 4
B. max value is -4 D. min value is -4
3. Given f(x) = -x2 + x – 1 find f(0).

A. 0 B. 1 C. -1 D. ±1
4. Find k so that x + 1 is a factor of f(x) = kx2 – 5x2 + kx + 11

A. -3 B. 3 C. 9 D. -9
5. What are the possible rational roots of 2x3 + rx2 +sx + 5 = 0?

A. ±1, ±5, ±1/2, ±5/2 C. ±2, ±5, ±3, ±5/2, ±3/2
B. ±3, ±5, ±5/3, ±3/5 D. ±2, ±5, ±2/5, ±5/2
6. Solve for x: logx81 = -2

A. 1 B. 1/9 C. 9 D. -9
7. Find the solution set of the equation: log2 (x + 4) - log2 (x – 3) = 3

A. -7 B. -20 C. 4 D. 12
8. Solve for x: log (x – 4) + log (x – 3) = log 30

A. -2 B. 2 C. -9 D. 9
4 x3
9. Solve for x: 6  36 x 21
A.  25 B.  52 C. 5
2 D. 2
5
10. Solve for x: 92x+1 = 27x-1

A, -5 B. 5 C. -3 D. 3
11. A med tech has 20% alcohol solutions and 80% alcohol solution. She needs to make 100 grams of
solutions that is 40% alcohol. How much of 20% solution should be used?
A. 333 grams B. 667 grams C. 663 grams D. 337 grams
12. Solve the system: 3y = 4 – 6x

3y = 6 – 9x
A. no solution B. (3, 6) C. (-3, 2) D. { (x, y) / y = -3x + 2 }
13. Find the solution set: x2 + y2 = 25

3x + 4y = 25
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
A. (3, 4) B. (-3, -4) C. (3, -4) D. (-3, 4)
14. Evaluate: | |
A. 10 B. 8 C. -12 D. 22
15. Solve for x: | |

A. 3/7 B. 7/3 C. 3 D. 7
16. What is the 20th term of the arithmetic sequence 6, 10, 14, 18, …?
A. 78 B. 82 C. 86 D. 90
17. Find the sum of the first 15 odd numbers.

A. 100 B. 125 C. 205 D. 225
18. What is the sum of the first 10 terms of the sequence in exponential notation: 1, 2, 4, 8, …?
A. 410 – 1 B. 210 – 1 C. 410 – 4 D. 210 – 4
19. Find the sum of all numbers between 15 and 200 which is divisible by 7.
A. 182 B. 2821 C. 3641 D. 5642
20. Find the 10th term of the harmonic sequence ¼, 1/8, 1/12, …
A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50
21. How many sample points in the sample space when a pair of dice is tossed once?
A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 36
22. How many permutations are there if 4 people are selected from a group of 35?
A. 256,640 B. 640,256 C. 1,256,640 D. 2,256,240
23. How many 5-card hands can be formed from a deck of 52 cards?
A. 2,589,960 B. 2,589,356 C. 2,589,129 D. 2,589,980
24. Two dice are tossed. What is the probability that the sum is less than 13?
A. 0 B. 1/6 C. 5/6 D. 1
25. In tossing two dice, find the probability of a double or a sum of 4.

A. 6/36 B. 8/36 C. 11/36 D. 12/36
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: GEOMETRY
1. Which of the following statements is false?

A. A line is determined by at least two points.
B. Through any two distinct points there exists exactly one line containing these points.
C. Three noncolinear points determine a plane.
D. Any three points lie on a distinct line.
2. Which of the following is the intersection of planes HIMN and JLMI?

A. Point M C. MN
B. Point I D. MI
3. Which property of congruence is represented by the statement, “If A  B and B  C, then
A  C”?
A. Reflexive Property of Congruence C. Transitive Property of Congruence
B. Symmetric Property of Congruence D. Addition Property of Congruence
B
4. In the figure at the right, AD bisects BAC. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. AB = AC C. BAD  CAD D
B. BD = CD D. ADB  ADC
A C
5. If BF bisects ABE, which of the following is congruent to ABF?
A. CBE D
B. EBF C
C. ABD
D. DBC B
A E
6. 4 and 6 are
A. alternate interior angles
B. alternate exterior angles
C. corresponding angles F
D. same side interior angles
7. In the given figure, parallel lines l and m are cut by transversal t. Which statement about angles 1 and
2 must be TRUE?
A. 1  2 C. 1 is the supplement of 2 1
B. 1 is the complement of 2 D. 1 and 2 are right angles l
2
B m
8. In the given figure, what is the measure of A?
A. 128 C. 52
B. 38 D. 30
128
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
9. Given B  E and CB  FE , which of the following would NOT allow you to prove that ABC 
DEF using the indicated postulate/ theorem?
A. AB  DE ; SAS B. A  D; AAS C. C  F; ASA D. AC  DF ; SSS
B
10. If AC is an angle bisector, which of the following is TRUE?
A. mACD = 90
B. BAC  DAC C
C. BC = CD
D. AB = AD
A D
11. Which of the following CANNOT be the length of the third side of a triangle if the lengths of its other
two sides are 8 m and 13 m, respectively?
A. 5 m B. 10 m C. 17 m D. 20 m
12. What values of x and y make quadrilateral MNOP a parallelogram?

N O
205 170
A. x = 20, y = 45 C. x  ,y  (4x – 35) (y + 15)
7 3
170 205
B. x = 45, y = 20 D. x  ,y  (2y – 5) (3x + 10)
3 7 M P
13. If quadrilateral PQRS is an isosceles trapezoid with diagonals QS and PR , which of the following
must be TRUE?
A. QS  PR B. QS || PR C. QS  PR D. QS bisects PR
AB BC
14. If ABC and XYZ are two triangles such that  , which of the following would be sufficient
XY YZ
to prove that the triangles are similar?
A. A  X B. B  Y C. C  Z D. X  Y
15. In the given figure, JN || KM , NM = x + 5, LM = 6x + 2, JK = 8, and JL = 24. Find the value of x.

A. 2 N
B. 3
13 M
C.
3
17
D.
3 J L
K
16. A right triangle has vertices at (0, 0), (3, 0), and (3, 4). What is the length of its hypotenuse?
A. 2 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5
17. One of the acute angles of a right triangle is four times larger than the other. What are the measures of
the two angles?
A. 14 and 76 B. 18 and 72 C. 24 and 66 D. 30 and 60
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
K
18. Given right JKL, which of the following equations can be used to find JK?
JK JK
A. sin 42  C. cos 42  42
38 38 L
38 38
B. sin 42  D. cos 42  38
JK JK J
19. If two cords intersect in the interior of a circle, which of the following must be true about the measures
of the vertical angles formed?
A. The measure of each angle is one half the difference of the measures of the two arcs intercepted by the
vertical angles.
B. They never equal one another.
C. Their sum never equals 90.
D. The measure of each angle is one half the sum of the measures of the two arcs intercepted by the vertical
angles.
20. What is the measure of ACB in the given figure?

A. 19
B. 21
C. 38
D. 42
21. A rhombus has diagonals of length 20 cm and 40 cm. What is its area?
A. 800 cm2 B. 600 cm2 C. 400 cm2 D. 200 cm2
22. The sides of square A are twice as long as the sides of square B. Which of the following represents the
total area of A and B?
1 2
A. s C. 4s2
2
B. 3s2 D. 5s2
23. What is the area of the regular octagon in the given figure?
A. 1344 cm2 C. 2688 cm2
2
B. 1400 cm D. 4655 cm2
24. What is the surface area of a sphere whose radius is 4 inches?

64
A. 16 in2 B. 32 in2 C.  in2 D. 64 in2
3
25. What is the ratio of the volume of the two cylinders in the given figure?
A. 27:125 C. 16:27
B. 8:27 D. 27:64
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: GENERAL SCIENCE

1. The boundary between the crust and the 7. When a continental plate and an oceanic
mantle is called the ____________. plate collide, _______________
A. low-velocity zone A. the oceanic plate subducts under the
B. Gutenberg discontinuity continental plate.
C. Mohorovicic discontinuity B. the rocks in between are squeezed and
D. None of the above lifted up.
C. the continental plate subducts under
2. Which layer of the earth is most dense? the oceanic plate.
A. inner core D. None of the above
B. outer core
C. mantle 8. _______________ are breaks in rocks along
D. crust which there is considerable movement
while _______________ are those where
3. The __________ is the largest layer of the there is little or no movement.
earth in terms of volume. A. Deformations; faults
A. crust B. Faults; fractures
B. mantle C. Faults; joints
C. inner core D. Joints; deformations
D. outer core
9. _____________ waves travel through the
4. Mountain ranges on the opposite sides of interior of the earth.
the Atlantic were once joined. Which of the A. Surface
following features should be observed to B. Body
verify this? C. Seismic
A. Types of rocks D. None of the above
B. Fossils
C. Age of rocks 10. ____________ refers to the damage
D. All of the above produced by the earthquake while
____________ of an earthquake is the
5. Which of the following best explains why measure of the energy released by the
the oldest seafloor is younger compared to earthquake.
the oldest rocks on land? A. Hazard; intensity
A. The seafloor is being recycled. B. Intensity; magnitude
B. The continental crust is formed before C. Hazard; magnitude
the seafloor is formed. D. Magnitude; intensity
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above 11. Which among the following is not a
characteristic of cinder cones?
6. The outermost rigid layer of the earth is A. They have wide craters.
made up of several segments called B. They are usually less than 300 meters
__________. in height.
A. Continents C. They have gentle slopes.
B. Crust D. None of the above.
C. Plates
D. Countries 12. A volcano is ____________ if it does not
show any sign of activity.
A. active
B. inactive
C. extinct
D. None of the above
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
13. Which of the following is not a volcanic

hazard? 20. Soil formation is affected by
A. Lahar __________________.
B. Tsunamis A. type and composition of the parent
C. Pyroclastic fall rock
D. Tidal waves B. climate
C. both A and B
14. Which of the following group of minerals is D. None of the above
most abundant on earth?
A. Silicates 21. Which of the following statements is not
B. Carbonates true about the earth’s history?
C. Halides A. The laws describing how things work
D. Oxides billions of years ago are the same
today.
15. Is water a mineral? B. The geologic time scale is based on
A. Yes, because it is inorganic. ordering rock layers from oldest to
B. Yes, because it is abundant in the youngest.
earth. C. Absolute dating was used to develop
C. No, because it is a liquid. the geologic time scale.
D. No, because it does not have a fixed D. The geologic time scale is divided
chemical composition. into eons, eras, periods and epochs.
16. Which of the following is an example of 22. Which of the following is not a greenhouse
igneous rocks? gas?
A. granite A. Water vapor
B. sandstone B. Carbon dioxide
C. limestone C. Methane
D. marble D. Oxygen
17. A ____________ metamorphic rock has 23. Which of the following tropical cyclones
layered or banded appearance. has the highest maximum wind speed?
A. volcanic A. Tropical depression
B. foliated B. Tropical storm
C. plutonic C. Typhoon
D. chemical D. Cold front
18. Loose sediments are converted into 24. It is the layer of the atmosphere where
sedimentary rocks when they are winds, clouds and water vapor are found.
compacted and cemented tightly together. A. Troposphere
This process is called ______________. B. Stratosphere
A. metamorphism C. Mesosphere
B. lithification D. Thermosphere
C. weathering
D. erosion 25. The following are importance of the
atmosphere except ___________________.
19. The following are means of weathering A. It keeps earth’s temperature moderate.
except ______________. B. It provides gases needed by living
A. continuous expansion and contraction of things to survive.
rocks C. It is part of the water cycle.
B. miners digging into mountains D. None of the above
C. roots of trees splitting rocks apart
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following statements about prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is FALSE?
A. A eukaryotic cell contains hereditary material while a prokaryotic cell does not.
B. Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles while prokaryotic cells do not.
C. Cytoplasm is present in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells.
D. A eukaryotic cell has a nucleus.
2. Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Ribosomes
D. Chloroplasts
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the cell membrane?

A. rigid
B. fluid
C. both A and B
4. Which of the following buffer systems contributes to pH stability in human blood?

A. Bicarbonate buffer (H2CO3-HCO3-)
B. Acetate buffer (CH3COOH-CH3COO-)
C. Ammonia buffer (NH3-NH4+)
5. Ovalbumin is the protein found in egg white. It serves as the amino acid source for the developing
embryo. What type of protein is ovalbumin?
A. Enzymatic protein
B. Transport protein
C. Storage protein
D. Structural protein
6. The following are stages in aerobic respiration EXCEPT

A. Glycolysis
B. Calvin cycle
C. Citric acid cycle
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
7. Which of the following statements about ribosomes is NOT correct?

A. They are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
B. Each ribosome is composed of three subunits.
C. They are found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
D. After the process of protein synthesis, the ribosomal subunits detach from each other
8. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of mitosis?

A. Telophase → Anaphase → Metaphase → Prophase
B. Anaphase → Metaphase → Prophase → Telophase
C. Metaphase → Prophase → Anaphase → Telophase
D. Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
9. When tall garden peas (T) are crossed with dwarf plants (t), the resulting offspring have the following
proportions: 50% tall plants and 50% dwarf plants. The genotype of the tall plants used in the cross is _____.
A. TT
B. Tt
C. tt
10. Which of the following characteristics of DNA is also a feature of RNA?

A. It is double-stranded.
B. There is specific base pairing.
C. Each repeating unit has a phosphate group and a sugar.
11. The theory of endosymbiosis states explains how eukaryotic cells are formed. According to this theory, a
host cell engulfs an aerobic prokaryote and a photosynthetic prokaryote. The aerobic prokaryote became the
____________ while the photosynthetic prokaryote became the _____________.
A. chloroplast; mitochondrion
B. mitochondrion; chloroplast
C. nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum
D. endoplasmic reticulum; nucleus
For number12, please refer to the phylogenetic tree given below:
A phylogenetic tree is a diagram showing the evolutionary history of a group of organisms. Given below is a
sample phylogenetic tree for carnivores:
12. Which of the following pair of carnivores is the most closely related?
A. Leopard and American badger
B. European otter and Coyote
C. American badger and European otter
D. Coyote and American badger
13. Which of the characteristics of viruses makes them not “alive”?

A. They possess genetic material.
B. They have proteins.
C. They use the reproductive machinery of the cell.
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
14. The following characteristics of the small intestine makes absorption of nutrients efficient except
A. It is coiled.
B. It is long.
C. It has finger-like projections in the internal surface.
D. None of the above.
15. Salmons migrate between seawater and freshwater. Which of the following is not an osmoregulatory
strategy of salmons?
A. They drink seawater and excrete excess salt from the gills.
B. They excrete small amounts of water in scanty urine when in seawater.
C. They excrete dilute urine when in freshwater.
D. They loss water through gills and other parts of the body surface when in seawater.
16. Skeletal muscles are attached to the bones by ___________ while one bone is attached to another
adjacent bone by ___________.
A. cartilage; tendons
B. ligaments; tendons
C. tendons; ligaments
D. ligaments; cartilage
17. Testes are the site of spermatogenesis while __________ are the site of oogenesis.
A. Uterus
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
18. The following are examples of associative learning in animals except

A. Pigeons associate danger with a certain sound.
B. A young coyote avoided porcupines after being pierced by its quills.
C. Some dogs are trained to do certain tricks after associating them with rewards such as dog treats.
19. Roots function for anchorage of the plant to the soil and for absorption of water from the soil. To
enable efficient water absorption by the roots, roots have ____________.
A. Lateral roots
B. Mycorrhiza
C. Root hairs
20. The following are unique to angiosperms except ________________.

A. Flowers
B. Double fertilization
C. Fruits
D. Seeds
21. Which is not a terrestrial biome?

A. Estuaries
B. Tundra
C. Chaparral
D. Desert
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
22. Which is statement about the diagram is true?

A. Squids belong to only one trophic level.
B. This food web is composed of only one food chain.
C. The krill obtain all the energy stored in the phytoplankton.
D. Extinction of the krill causes lack of food source for the carnivorous plankton.
23. Mushrooms belong to which trophic level?

A. producer
B. primary consumer
C. secondary consumer
D. detritivore
24. “Pigs are heavier because they are fed with artificial feeds” was the student’s _____________.
A. Observation
B. Hypothesis
C. Conclusion
25. The following shows the result of an experiment on the growth of Paramecium aurelia in controlled
laboratory conditions:
Number of
individuals
Time (days)
The number of organisms stopped to increase after the _______ day.

A. 10th
B. 15th
C. 20th
D. 30th
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following is not an S.I. base unit? 8. A compound is composed of 75% carbon
A. Mole by mass and 25% hydrogen. What is the
B. Meter empirical formula of the compound given
C. Gram that the atomic masses of carbon and
D. Seconds hydrogen, respectively, are 12 and 1 amu?
A. CH
2. What is the equivalent of 1.230 x 10-4 in B. CH2
decimal format? C. C2H3
A. 0.00001230 D. CH4
B. 0.0001230 9. A sample of H2O is weighs 45.0 g. How
C. 1.230000 many moles of H2O is present in the sample
D. 1230.0 (molar mass H2O = 18.0 g/mol)
A. 0.025 moles
3. A chemist proposes that increasing the B. 0.400 moles
metal content of a paint formulation will C. 2.50 moles
increase color vibrancy. The chemists’ D. 4.00 moles
proposal is called a/ an ______
A. observation 10. Given the balanced chemical reaction for
B. experiment the synthesis of ammonia, how many moles
C. hypothesis of product will be produced if 5 moles of H2
D. law is allowed to react with sufficient N2?
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
4. Which is an example of a compound? A. 0.5 mol
A. diamond B. 3.3 mol
B. nitrogen gas C. 7.5 mol
C. table salt D. 10 mol
D. platinum metal
11. The Plum Pudding Model of the atom was
5. All of the following are properties of suggested by
copper. Which one is a chemical property? A. John Dalton
A. Copper can be drawn into fine wires. B. Joseph John Thomson
B. Copper has high electrical C. Ernest Rutherford
conductivity. D. Niels Henrik David Bohr
C. Copper is a reddish metal that melts at
1083 oC. 12. Which principle states, “Every orbital in a
D. Copper dissolves when mixed with subshell is singly occupied with one electron
concentrated acid. with the same spin before pairing”?
A. Pauli Exclusion Principle
6. P2O5 is properly named as ___________. B. Aufbau Principle
A. Potassium oxide C. Hund’s Rule
B. Phosphorus oxide D. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
C. Dipotassium tetroxide
D. Diphosphorus pentoxide 13. The element sodium (Na) contains 11
electrons, which electron configuration
7. The compound (NH4)2CO3, commonly used would satisfy for Na?
as a smelling salt, is properly named as A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
A. Ammonium carbide. B. 1s2 2p6 3d3
B. Ammonium carbonate. C. 1s2 1p6 2s2 2p1
C. Ammonium oxalate. D. 1s2 2s2 2p7
D. Ammonia sulfate.
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
14. The Lanthanides and Actinides belong to 20. The electron sea model is a model that
which block in the periodic table? explains the behavior of which class of
A. s-block solids?
B. p-block A. Ionic solids
C. d-block B. Metallic solids
D. f-block C. Covalent network solids
D. Covalent molecular solids
15. Excluding the noble gases, this property
increases across a period but decreases 21. Solutions that conduct electricity are also
down a group referred to as
A. Effective nuclear charge A. electrolytes
B. Ionization energy B. alloys
C. Electron affinity C. aqueous
D. Atomic size D. miscible
16. Which subatomic particle is actively 22. A solution which contains the maximum
involved when atoms combine to form amount of solute that a given volume of
compounds? solvent can dissolve at a specific
A. Protons temperature is referred to as a/ an
B. Neutrons A. unsaturated solution.
C. Electrons B. saturated solution.
D. Nucleus C. supersaturated solution.
D. equimolar solution.
17. Which of the following elements is found as
a diatomic species in its most stable form? 23. A 20 mL 0.50 M H2SO4 solution was mixed
A. fluorine with 30 mL of water. What is the final
B. neon concentration of the solution in molar?
C. helium A. 0.05 M
D. nitrogen B. 0.20 M
C. 0.33 M
18. Which bond between the following pairs of D. 1.20 M
atoms is polar?
A. Cl — Cl 24. What is the value of standard temperature
B. Si — Si and standard pressure in units of °C and
C. Na — Cl atm?
D. H — Cl A. 0oC and 25 atm
B. 25oC and 1 atm
19. Substances with strong intermolecular C. 0oC and 1 atm
forces D. 25oC and 0 atm
A. possess weak surface tension.
B. are volatile. 25. At standard temperature and pressure,
C. have high boiling points. how many moles of gas is present in a 44.8
D. have high vapor pressures. L sample?
A. 0.5 mol
B. 1.0 mol
C. 2.0 mol
D. 2.5 mol
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: PHYSICS
1. Daisy walked from her home (H) 50 meters eastward to a store (S), and then 100 meters
southwest to a park (P). Which diagram shows correctly Daisy’s total displacement (HP)?
H S H S
N
W E P
P
A C
S
H S H S
D
B P P
2. A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity of +20 m/s. Assuming negligible air drag, which of the
following is correct about the ball’s motion at the end of 2 seconds?
Velocity (m/s) Acceleration (m/s2)
A. 0 - 10
B. 0 0
C. +40 -10
D. +40 +10
3. In which of the following situations does a moving bicycle have a negative acceleration?
A. The bicycle is traveling to the right at constant speed.
B. The bicycle is traveling to the right and speeding up.
C. The bicycle is traveling to the left and speeding up.
D. The bicycle is traveling to the left and slowing down.
4. Greg stood on a bathroom scale and obtained a reading of 62 kg. Which of the following statements is
true about Greg?
A. The earth pulls on Greg with a force C. 62 kilograms is the force of the spring
of about 620 Newtons. scale on Greg.
B. The weight of Greg is 62 kilograms. D. The mass of Greg changes depending
on the location of the scale.
5. Young Filipina weightlifter Hidilyn Diaz, broke her own Philippine record at the 2007 Southeast Asian
Games when she lifted 85 kg in the snatch event. How much power in Watts (W) would Hidilyn Diaz
have shown if she had lifted the 85.0 kg barbell a height of 1.00 meter in 30.0 seconds?
A. 25,500 B. 255 C. 28.3 D. 2.83
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
6. Harry was driving his Audi R8 at a speed of 30 m/s along the usually deserted highway. Suddenly he
noticed a stalled car in front of him. It was Louis’ Porsche! At 25 m, Harry slammed on the brakes to
slow down his Audi R8 at a constant rate of 10 m/s2. At that instant, Niall, Zayn and Liam got out of
the car with Louis at the wheel and pushed the Porsche, in the same direction at a constant speed of 10
m/s. What will happen to the One Direction band?!?
A. Bliss: The Audi R8 will stop 45 m after Harry applies the brakes and the Porsche with his friends
will be 10 meters away. 
B. Delight: The Audi R8 will stop 45 m after Harry applies the brakes and the Porsche with his friends
will be 5 meters away. 
C. Thriller: The Audi R8 will stop 30 m after Harry applies the brakes and will just miss hitting the
Porsche and his friends. 
D. Heartbreak: The Audi R8 will stop 45 m after Harry applies the brakes and will hit his friends. 
7. Juan and Rosario are astronauts initially at rest floating in outer

space. If Rosario and Juan play ball by alternately throwing and
catching a heart-shaped ball directed to each other, what will
happen to the two astronauts?
A. The motion of Juan and Rosario will depend on how fast they throw
the ball.
B. Juan and Rosario will move closer to each other as time passes by.
C. Juan and Rosario will remain at the same distance from each other.
D. Juan and Rosario will move farther from each other as time passes
by.
8. Lara jumps off a boat with a horizontal velocity of 3 m/s due east (on still
water). If Lara’s mass is 30 kg and the boat’s mass is 450 kg, what will be
the velocity of the boat in m/s?
A. 45 due east C. 0.2 due west
B. 45 due west D. 0.2 due east
http://mmbzl.files.wordpress.com/20
12/09/zoe-and-lara-jump-off-the-
boat-in-the-amazon.jpg
9. How much is the upward force F that Liam applies on the end of the wooden board to keep it level and
Celyn stationary? The total weight of Celyn and the board is 650 N.
A. 325 N B. 650 N C. 975 N D. 1300 N
http://farm7.staticflickr.com/6091/6999147063_f1e1026cc2_b.jpg
http://www.push.com.ph/photos/11861-
Xian%20Lim%20Mcdonald%E2%80%99s%20branch%20visit_00031.jpg
fulcrum
10. Thea joined the Flying Fiesta ride and moved at constant
speed in a horizontal circular path. The force and
acceleration vectors of her motion are
A. both tangent to the circular path.
B. parallel to each other
C. both perpendicular to the circular path.
D. perpendicular to each other.
1
http://25.media.tumblr.com/tumblr_lyaueth6v71qjfjago1_5
00.jpg
23 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
11. Which of the following concepts best explains why the temperature of the sea rises and falls more
slowly than that of the land?
A. mechanical equivalent of heat C. specific heat
B. thermal conductivity D. emissivity constant
12. Which of the following processes will result in an increase in the average kinetic energy of the
molecules of the ideal gas?
Pressure on the gas Volume of the gas N, number of gas molecules
A. constant increase constant
B. decrease constant constant
C. constant constant increase
D. increase decrease increase
13. Which of the following schematic diagrams below shows the essential processes of a perfect but
impossible refrigerator?
hot source
hot source
Heat
input Heat
Work input
output Work
Heat output
output
C
A cold environment
hot source
hot source
Heat
Heat output
output
Work
input
Heat heat
input input
cold environment
B cold environment D
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
14. Which of the following condition/s would increase the electrostatic force between two charge bodies?
I. Increase the distance separating the two charges
II. Decrease the distance separating the two charges
III. Increase the magnitude of charges
IV. Decrease the magnitude of charges
A) I & III B) I & IV C) II & III D) II & IV
15. The picture on the left shows that a

rectangular wire carrying an electrical current
rotates in a magnetic field. What is this device
called?
A. a galvanometer
B. an electric generator
C. an electric motor
http://www.bbc.co.uk/bitesize/standard/physics/images/electric_motor1.gif D. a rheostat
16. A magnet is dropped into a copper pipe. Which statement is a correct

description of the motion of the magnet through the pipe?
A. The magnet will fall with an acceleration less than g (9.8 m/s2).
B. The magnet will fall with an acceleration equal to g (9.8 m/s2).
C. The magnet will fall with an acceleration greater than g (9.8 m/s2).
D. The magnet will not fall but will stick to the copper pipe.
17. A flat iron is marked "120 volt, 600 watt". In normal use, the current in it is:
A. 2 A B. 4 A C. 5 A D. 7.2 A http://www.physicslessons.com/i
nducedcur123.gif
18. Each of the light bulbs in the three electrical circuits is identical.
Which circuit on the right has a load with the highest electrical resistance?
A. X
X
B. Y
C. Z Y
D. X, Y and Z
http://cases.soe.umich.edu/worksheets/i
mages/circuits2.JPG
19. The rainbow seen after a rain shower is caused by:
A. diffraction B. refraction C. interference D. polarization
20. Which diagram below best demonstrates diffraction of the wave?

Approaching
Approaching
light beam
light beam
plastic
plastic
A B D 25 | P a g e
C
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
21. What would happen to the mass of high-speed electrons as their speed approaches c (3 x 108 m/s)?
A. Its mass would be transformed into pure energy.
B. Its mass would approach a very large value.
C. Its mass would approach a very small value.
D. Its mass would approach zero.
22. Which arrangement of these forces is from weakest to strongest?

a. gravity
b. electromagnetic force
c. weak force
d. strong interaction
A. a-b-c-d B. d-c-b-a C. a-c-b-d D. a-d-b-c
23. Which of the following reactions is an example of nuclear fission?
A.
1
0 n147 N146 C11 p C. 4p  4He  2e   2
1
B. 0 n235 236 * 139 95 1
92 U 92 U  54 Xe  38 Sr 20 n D.
4
2 He 147 N189 F178 O11 H
24. Referring to the same velocity-time graph of the bicycle, what was the distance (in meters) covered by
the biker for the first 25 minutes?
A. 1000 B. 700 C. 400 D. zero
25. A very hot iron rod was plunged into cold water in a closed container. Which of the following
statements is a direct observation?
A. The heat lost by the iron rod is equal to the heat gained by the cold water and the container.
B. The temperature of the water increased when the iron rod was placed in the water.
C. The heat transferred to the water depends on several characteristics of the rod
like its mass and its initial temperature.
D. The heat exchange is assumed to take place between the rod, the water and the container.
26 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: FILIPINO
Kilalanin ang Pokus ng Pandiwa sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap. Titik lamang ng tamang sagot ang
piliin.
1. Nagprusisyon ang mge deboto ng Poong Nazareno simula Luneta hanggang simbahan ng Quiapo.
A. Pokus sa Ganapan C. Pokus sa Instrumental
B. Pokus sa Aktor D. Pokus sa Kadahilanan
2. Ipinanghaharang nila ang kanilang mga katawan upang proteksyunan ang santo sa pagdaan nito sa
kalsada.
A. Pokus sa Instrumental C. Pokus sa Aktor
B. Pokus sa Ganapan D. Pokus sa Kalaanan
3. Noong isang taon ay inabot ng madaling-araw ang prusisyon sa Itim na Nazareno.

A. Pokus sa Aktor C. Pokus sa Ganapan.
B. Pokus sa Layon D. Pokus sa Kalaanan
Ang mga sumusunod na salitang nakasalungguhit ay mga bahagi ng pananalita. Kilalanin ang mga bahagi
ng pananalita. Titik lamang ng tamang sagot ang piliin.
4. Ipinagdiwang pa rin nila ang Bagong Taon sa kabila ng trahedya.

A. Pangngalan C. Pang-uri
B. Pang-abay D. Pandiwa
5. Inaasahang ng mga taga-DENR ang pakikipagtulungan ng mga tao sa kampanyang ito.

B. Pandiwa D. Pang-abay
Piliin ang kasingkahulugan ng mga salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
6. Kailangang may kahalubilo ang taong nakararanas ng depresyon.

A. kakampi C. kasalamuha
B. kaibigan D. katuwang
7. Ang paglinang sa katauhan ay makatutulong upang maiwasan ang ganitong damdamin.

A. paglilibang C. pagpapaunlad
B. pagbabasa D. pag-aaral
8. Masidhi ang paniniwala niyang malalagpasan ang mga suliraning ito.

A. Labis C. Matindi
B. Mahina D. Kulang
Piliin ang kasalungat ng salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
9. Mamumunini sa napakaraming handa ang sinumang pupunta sa pyesta.

A. Magugustuhan C. Mabibigla
B. Magsasawa D. Mag-uuwi
10. Tinatangisan niya ang mga suliraning nararanasan

A. Iniiyakan C. Tinatawanan
B. Pinapansin D. Sinisigawan
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
Ang mga sumusunod na pahayag ay nagtataglay ng mga idyomatikong ekspresyon. Kilalanin ang kahulugan
ng mga salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
11. Pinangingiti ang mga tindera sa Divisoria upang hindi langawin ang mga paninda.
A. dumugin C. walang pumansin
B. mabenta D. hulihin
12. Ang tumatakbong konsehal ay walang batik sa pulitika.

A. malinis ang pangalan C. wala pang talo
B. maaasahan D. tapat
13. Marami ang tamad subalit walang taong abo ang utak.
A. baliw C. mahina ang ulo
B. may diperensya D. kalbo
Piliin ang tamang pagwawasto sa mga salitang nakasalungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
14. Matinding pagbaha ang suliranin ng mga tao kapag tag-ulan.

A. tag ulan C. tagulan
B. tagulan D. walang mali
15. Ang kwento ng gamu-gamo ang unang kwentong isinalaysay ni Donya Teodora kay Jose Rizal.
A. gamugamo C. gamu gamo
B. Gamu gamo D. walang mali
Suriin ang wastong salita sa mga pahayag. Titik lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
16. Ang katapangan ( A. nang B. ng) kanyang pagpapasya ay hinangaan ng nakararami.
17. Nais (A. kong B. kung) makisangkot sa abot ng aking makakaya.
18. Ang kilalang personalidad ay (A. mayroon B. may) sa kanilang lalawigan.
19. ( A. Subukan B. Susubukin) mo kung maisasakatuparan ng mga tao ang pag-iwas sa paputok
20. (A. Pahiran B. Pahirin) mo ng gel ang kanyang buhok.
Pagsusunud-sunod: Ayusin ang mga salita/parirala upang mabuo nang maayos ang bawat pahayag. Piliin
lamang ang letra ng tamang sagot.
21 . tinaguriang “leptospira” mula sa mga hayop gaya ng daga

1 2
na ang leptospirosis ay dulot ng mga mikrobyo
3 4
A. 3214 B. 1423 C. 2143 D. 4312
22. ang iinumin ng mga evacuees sa panahon ng kalamidad nagpahiram ang DOH
1 2
ng mobile water treatment facility para masigurong malinis na tubig
3 4
A. 2412 B. 3124 C. 1342 D. 2341
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
23. sa pangangalaga sa kalikasan sa rehiyon na makibahagi

1 2
hiniling ng Mindanao Development Authority (MinDA) sa mga negosyante
3 4
A. 2341 B. 1423 C. 3421 D. 4231
24. ating mga kabundukan sa

1 2
iwasan ang ilegal na pagtotroso at pagmimina
3 4
A. 3421 B. 2142 C. 1324 D. 4231
25. bago pa tuluyang mawala dapat lamang na magtulungan

1 2
ang kagubatan sa ating bansa ang bawat Pilipino
3 4
A. 3241 B. 2413 C. 1432 D. 4232
29 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 1: LANGUAGE/READING
FINDING ERRORS. Each of the following sentences may contain error in grammar usage, spelling or
word choice. Decide which underlined part contains the error (if any). If there is no error, write E.
1. According to section 11, I will be answerable only to the directors themselves.

A B C D
2. If magnesium is exposed to oxygen, it ignites immediately.

A B C D
3. Whomever is interested in science fiction will like the book Cloud Atlas.
A B C D
4. A hard outer crust covers the planet Earth but this outer crust is not solid, rather it is broken into
A B C
massive rock pieces called tectonic plates.
D
5. Among the eight contenders, the most quietest bagged the title.
A B C D
6. You must watch your English very close.

A B C D
7. Speaking English always, she acquired mastery of the language.

A B C D
8. Ms. Garcia asked Patricia to turn in a homework that was due.

A B C D
9. The president instructed the members of the board to call for him if they need help in pacifying the
A B C
rebel union workers.
D
10. As an act of defiance, Roel did not attend the press conference and just watched it on the television.
A B C D
SENTENCE COMPLETION. Choose the pair of words that BEST completes each of the items below into
meaningful sentences.
11. The judges found it difficult to award the prize between the_____________ researcher and the
_____________ inventor.
A. Innovative – orthodox C. Pioneering – conformist
B. Renegade – conservative D. Ethereal – archetypal
12. So effective was the art student’s _____________ of the masterpiece that critics proclaimed the
artwork to be a _____________.
A. Imitation – satire C. Mimicry – pastiche
B. Ersatz – magnum opus D. Replica – magnum opus
30 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
READING COMPREHENSION. Read each of the following selections then answer the questions that
follow.
A.
The traditional approach to parenthood is completely unsatisfactory. Women have to spend many hours in
child-rearing. Those with professional skills may sacrifice their career in all respects for the benefit of
only one child. Because women spend time caring for their children, the services of many expensively
trained teachers, nurses, doctors, and other professionals are altogether lost to society. Even if child-
rearing is shared by the father, it simply means that two people waste time on an unproductive task for
which they may be entirely ill-equipped. Society would be much better served if parenthood was made the
responsibility of well-trained professional parents who would look after groups of children as a paid
occupation. This would end amateur child-rearing and allow the biological parents to fully develop their
careers for the benefit of society. Critics may argue that critics reared in this way would feel rejected, at
least to some extent, by their natural parents. This is quite untrue. Evidence from societies where collective
child-rearing is practiced shows that children merely experience minor upsets and are hardly affected by
the separation.
- Eric H. Glendinning and Beverly Holmstrom
13. Which of the following states the main idea of the paragraph?
A. The traditional approach to parenthood is completely unsatisfactory
B. Evidence from societies where collective child-rearing is practiced shows that children merely
experience minor upsets and are hardly affected by the separation.
C. Society would be much better served if parenthood was made the responsibility of well-trained
professional parents who would look after groups of children as a paid occupation.
D. Because women spend time caring for their children, the services of many expensively trained
teachers, nurses, doctors, and other professionals are altogether lost to society.
14. Which could be a suitable title for the selection?

A. The Myth of Traditional Parenthood and The Rise of Modern Parenthood
B. Paid parents: anyone?
C. Parents from Utopia
D. Traditional Parenthood vs Modern Parenthood
15. Which of the following describes the author’s attitude towards parenting?
A. Normative
B. Descriptive
C. Both normative and descriptive
D. Neither normative nor descriptive
16. Which of the following organizational technique did the author employ in the selection?
A. Exposing a problem and purporting a solution
B. Proving a cause and effect relationship
C. Evaluating a problem and toying with a hypothetical situation
D. Exposing the flaw(s) of traditional parenthood and from there grounding the necessity and
practicability of another form of parenthood
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
B.
I. Capital punishment was banned by the 1987 Constitution in the Philippines except for certain heinous
crimes. In 1993, during the term of President Fidel V. Ramos, the death penalty was revived although
the first execution was carried out by lethal injection during the term of President Joseph Estrada. In
2000, Estrada called for a moratorium on the request of his spiritual advisor, Bishop Teodoro Bacani.
On April 15, 2006, Congress passed Republic Act 9346 that re-abolished the death penalty and in June
that year, President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo commuted the death sentences of 1,230 death row
inmates to life imprisonment of a minimum of 30 years.
II. And now, the Volunteers Against Crime and Corruption is pushing for the revival of capital
punishment as a deterrent to crime. VACC said it has noted an upsurge of violent crimes in recent
years.
Proponents of the death penalty all over the world cite its role as a major deterrent to crime as the
primary reason capital punishments should be imposed. However, such claims have no basis in fact.
In the Philippines, for example, according to Sen. Joker Arroyo, a longtime human rights lawyer and
activist, the revival of the death penalty from 1993 to 2004 did not bring the number of violent crimes
down.
III. In the US, Texas has had the most number of executions for years, but is still ranked 13th in the
country in violent crimes and 17th in murders per 100,000 citizens. The American Civil Liberties
Union says there is no credible evidence that the death penalty deters crime more effectively than long
terms of imprisonment. There is no evidence that serial killers and rapists would consider their death
by lethal injection or in the gas chamber prior to committing crimes. Law enforcement experts say
criminals usually operate with the belief they will not be caught.
IV. Proponents also claim that “deserved punishment protects society morally by restoring this just order,
making the wrongdoer pay a price equivalent to the harm he has done.” Abolitionists, however,
counter: “To kill the person who has killed someone close to you is simply to continue the cycle of
violence which ultimately destroys the avenger as well as the offender.”
V. The biggest argument against the death penalty, however, especially in the Philippines where the
judicial system is far from ideal, is the real possibility that a wrongly convicted person could be put to
death for a crime he did not commit. He could have only been unable to defend himself in court
because of various factors, including inadequate legal representation by court-appointed defense
attorneys, serious flaw in police investigative work, racial prejudice, political pressure to solve a case,
and misrepresentation of evidence.
VI. The death penalty is a senseless, barbaric form of state-aided revenge that has long been abolished by
civilized society.
- Val Abelgas, Manila Standard Today, November 9, 2012
17. Which paragraph contains the main point of the article?

A. I. B. III. C. V. D. VI.
18. Which of the following describes the author’s attitude towards death penalty?
A. Unbiased
B. Analytical
C. Apathetic
D. Scornful
32 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
19. The article is classified as what type of text?

A. Descriptive
B. Expository
C. Narrative
D. Argumentative
20. Which of the following statements is implied in the first paragraph?

A. The legal status of death penalty has not been uniform in the different presidential terms
B. The Church exercises influence in the political and legal status of death penalty
C. Capital punishment was banned by the 1987 Constitution in the Philippines except for certain
heinous crimes
D. Different non-governmental organizations have differing views on death penalty
21. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

A. Paragraph I. provides the historical and political context of death penalty in the Philippines.
B. Paragraph II. Provides two views on death penalty: one in favor, and one against – in the
Philippine context
C. Paragraph III. Provides two views on death penalty: one in favor, and one against – in the
U.S.
D. Paragraph V. admits that in the judicial system of the Philippines, innocent people may be
convicted for crimes they did not commit. And the case of death penalty is a point of no
return.
C.
1 Some quarters still oppose K-12, the flagship education program of the Aquino administration. The
objections vary. There are those who want a miracle cure that will by itself instantly heal all of the
ailments afflicting basic education. They demand proof that K-12 will reduce the classroom shortage,
improve teacher quality and raise learning outcome among students. This, despite the repeated
assurance of the education secretary, Br. Armin Luistro FSC, that K-12 is only one in the DepEd’s
10-point basic education reform agenda.
2 Others criticize the government’s haste in implementing the program. Many have forgotten that the
Philippines already had an 11-year basic education cycle during the American colonial period. But
the Commonwealth government, believing 11 years of pre-university studies inadequate, decided to
reduce elementary education to six years, which was done, and to add two years to high school, which
was not. We have been waiting over 75 years to extend the basic education cycle beyond what we had
in the 1930s.
3 In the meantime, the rest of the world has implemented the K-12 system. Do we need to do more
research to follow suit? The entire world, of course, can be completely wrong about K-12. But we are
not determining the “truth” of K-12 as a physical law or philosophical principle that must have
universal application. We are considering the advantages and efficacy of a practical system that
involves trade-offs and will be better managed by some groups rather than others.
4 A number of our ambassadors have expressed concern that our 10-year basic education cycle will
work against the interests of Filipino workers seeking employment abroad. Perhaps, these countries
are building non-tariff barriers against our export of labor. But when all the vehicles in the road are
moving in one direction, prudence would seem to dictate that we do not insist on driving against the
traffic.
5 What is also difficult to comprehend is the complaint that K-12 is an elitist measure to align our
system to those of developed countries and make it easier for wealthy students to gain admission to
33 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
their schools. These students will indeed benefit from the program. But even developing countries
have invested in additional years of basic education. In the Philippines, the best private schools
require 11 years of basic education, against the 10 years in public schools. K-12 will help level the
playing field for those who cannot afford the elite schools.
6 With two additional years at Senior High School (SHS) or Grades 11 and 12, students going to
Philippine schools will begin college better prepared to handle tertiary-level materials. If colleges and
universities do the right thing, they may be able to complete most college courses in a shorter period
of time and, therefore, at a lower cost….
7 Those concerned with the competitiveness of the country’s human resources, with the effectiveness of
its higher education system, and with issues of equity and inclusive development should support the
K-12 program.
-Edilberto de Jesus, Philippine Daily Inquirer, April 13 2012
22. In the first paragraph, what is the tone of the author in describing the stance of people who
oppose the K to 12?
A. Delight
B. Sarcasm
C. Irony
D. Awe
23. The article implies that

A. K to 12 has worked for other countries and it is high time for the country to adapt it as well.
B. K to 12 is a standalone plan to cure the ailing status of the education system of the country
C. K to 12 would level off the playing field between those who can afford quality education and
those who could not.
D. K to 12 provides a linkage between the secondary and tertiary levels of education
24. The article also implies that

A. K to 12 is receiving widespread acceptance from the public sector
B. K to 12 has received sufficient institutional support from the local government and abroad
C. K to 12 needs to clarify some things to the public in order to gain acceptance
D. K to 12 would need immense institutional support from the local government
25. In which paragraph did the author liken the issue of the K to 12 to “not driving against the
traffic”?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
34 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: BASIC ALGEBRA

1. The sum of a repeating decimal and a terminating decimal is a/an ______.
A. integer C. terminating decimal
B. repeating decimal D. None of these
2. If a and b are even numbers, which of the following must be true?

i. a + b is even ii. ab is even iii. (a+b)/2 is even
A. only B. i and ii C. i, ii and iii D. none of these
3. If x +2x+3x+4x = 1+2+3+4 then x is ______.

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
4. When x < y , which of the following can be the possible values of x and y?
A. x = -10, y = 10 C. x = 10, y = -5
B. x = -10, y = 5 D. x = -5, y = 10
5. Simplify :
A. -56/3 B. -56/9 C. 56/3 D. 56/9
6. If x + y = 10 and x – y = 6, what is the value of x2 – y2?

A. 16 B. 36 C. 60 D. 64
7. Simplify:
A. a+b B. ab/ (a + b) C. (a+b) / ab D. 1/ (a+b)
8. Add : 6x3 – 4x2 +3 and -2x3 + 7x2 – 5

A. -4x3 + 3x2 +2 C. 4x3 - 3x2 – 2
B. 4x3 + 3x2 – 2 D. 4x3 + 3x2 + 2
9. A big square of side a and four small squares each of side b are as shown in the figure. Find the area of
the shaded region if a = 44cm and b = 3cm.
A. 1900 sq.m. b b
b b b
B. 2000 sq.m.
C. 1936 sq.m. a
D. 2036 sq.m.
b b
b b
10. Evaluate i 49  i152

A. i B. 1 C. i 1 D. 0
b
11. Find the area of the shaded region bounded
by two square whose outside edge is b = 12cm
and whose inside edge is a = 2cm.
a
A. 144 sq.cm C. 140 sq.cm
B. 142 sq.cm D. 124 sq.cm
35 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
2 y  7 7 y 1
12. Solve for y in =
3 6
A. 1 B. 5 C. -5 D. 3
13. Find the equation whose roots are 5 and -7.

A. x2 + 2x – 35 = 0 C. x2 + 2x + 35 = 0
B. -x2 – 2x + 35 = 0 D. x2 – 2x – 35 = 0
2y  3  2 y 1 
14. Solve : = 1 2  
2 y 1  2y  3
A. (-1, 2) B. (-1, -2) C. (1, 2) D. (1, -2)
x4
15. Solve: >3
x2
A. { -5 < x < 2 } B. { -5 < x < -2 } C. {5<x<4} D. { -5 < x < 4 }
16. Write an equation of the line with slope 3 and passes though the points (2, -5).
A. y = 3x + 2 C. y+5=0
B. y + 5 = 3 (x – 2) D. 3 (x – 2) = 0
17. Find the midpoint of the segment units and points (5, 10) and (9, -2).
A. (-4, -7) B. (4, 7) C. (-7, -4) D. (7, 4)
18. A man is 27 years older than his son and 10 years from now, he will be twice as old as his son. How old
is his son?
A. 17 B. 27 C. 34 D. 44
19. Mr. Ador can build a bookshelf in 3 days, while Mr. Reyes can build the same bookshelf in 5 days.
How long would it take them to build the bookshelf of they work together?
A. 15 days B. 7 days C. 8 days D. 1 7/8 days
20. One thousand five hundred tickets at a basketball game were solD. Lower box tickets were sold at
P10 each while upper box tickets were sold at P5 each. How many spectators were in the lower box of
the receipts are counted to P10,750.00?
A. 650 B. 850 C. 900 D. 1000
21. A print shop has three presses. The fastest press can print twice as many copies per hour as the
slowest press. The third press can print 2000 fewer copies per hour than the fastest press. Together
the press can print 19,500 copies in an hour and a half. How many copies per hour can the fastest
press print?
A. 30 copies B. 4000 copies C. 5000 copies D. 6000 copies
22. Anna jogs to the oval at the rate of 12kph and walks home at the rate of 6 kph. If her total time,
jogging and walking is 3 hours. How far is the oval from her home?
A. 1 km B. 6 km C. 12 km D. 18 km
23. The speed of a motor boat is 12 mph in still water. Find the speed of the river’s current if the motor
boat goes 4 miles downstream in the same time it can go 3 miles upstream.
A. 7/12 mph B. 12/7 mph C. 7 mph D. 8 mph
36 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
24. Find an equation of the circle with center (-3, 4) and radius 7.
A. (x – 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 49 C. (x – 3)2 + (y + 4)2 = 7
B. (x + 3) + (y – 4) = 49
2 2
D. (x + 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = 7
25. Write the equation of the hyperbole with foci (0, -4) and (0, 4) and whose local radio differ by 6.
x2 y2 y2 x2
A.  1 C.  1
9 7 9 7
x2 y2 y2 x2
B.  1 D.  1
9 7 9 7
37 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA

1. Given: g x   x  4 .What is the domain of g?
A. (-4, ∞) B. [4, ∞) C. [-4, ∞) D. (4, ∞)
2. If h(x) = 2x4 + 7x3 – x2 + 9, which of the following statements is true?

A. h is an even function. C. h is neither even nor odd.
B. h is an odd function. D. h is both odd and even function.
3. Find the remainder when f(x) = x4 – 3x3 – 2x2 + 5x - 6 is divided by x – 3.

A. -6 B. -9 C. 6 D. 9
4. If x3 – 5x2 – x + 5 = 0, which is NOT a root of the equation?

A. 1 B. -1 C. 5 D. -5
5. Given f(x) = x2 + 3x – 4 find f (2).

A. 0 B. -2 C. -6 D. 6
6. Write logb x + 2 logb y - 3 logb z as a single logarithm with coefficient of 1.

xy 2 z2 1
A. logb xy2z3 B. logb C. logb D. logb
z3 xy 2 xy 2 z 3
1
7. Solve for x in 33 x2 
2187
A. -3 B. 3 C. -7 D. 7
8. Solve for x : 5  5
x
A. –½ B. -5 C. 5 D. ½
9. Solve 3x  92 x5
A. 3 B. 3 C. 10 D. 10
10 10 3 3
10. Solve for x: 3x • 95 = 27x+1

A. -2/7 B. -7/2 C. 7/2 D. 2/7
11. Find the solution set: 2x – 3y = 7

x + 4y = 9
A. (-5, -1) B. (-1, -5) C. (1, 5) D. (5, 1)
12. Solve for x: 2x = 23 + 3y

-y = x + 1
A. 4 B. -4 C. 5 D. -5
13. Given: | | | | . Find y.

A. 2 B. 4 C. 0 D. 10
38 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
14. Evaluate: -3 1 3
2 4 -1
7 8 5
A. -84 B. -137 C. 38 D. -91
15. If A = [ ] and B = [ ] , find AB.
A. [ ] B. [ ] C. [ ] D. [ ]
16. Suppose that a small puncture in a space capsule allows 5% of the air to escape each second. What
percent of the air will remain in the capsule 6 s after the puncture?
A. 0.215 B. 0.735 C. 1.235 D. 2.475
17. The value of an arithmetic series is 248. The first of the 8 terms of the series is 17. What is the last
term of the series?
A. 45 B. 50 C. 55 D. 60
18. Find the 7th term of an arithmetic sequence where 2nd term is -16 and where 4th term is -8.
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 20
19. Find the 16th term of the geometric sequence 3, 6, 12,…

A. 1536 B. 3072 C. 6144 D. 9216
20. Find the sum of the infinite geometric sequence 1, -3/5, -9/25, 1, …
A. -5/8 B. 5/8 C. -10/4 D. 10/4
21. How many permutations can be made from the letters of the word “Mississippi”?
A. 120 B. 160 C. 200 D. 220
22. How many distinguishable permutations are there of the letter is MISSISSIPPI?
A. 20,640 B. 34,650 C. 48,250 D. 64,640
23. Two dice are tossed. What is the probability that the sum is not 7?
A. 0 B. 1/6 C. 5/6 D 1
24. Two cards are drawn from a deck at random. What is the probability that the two cards are red or
that two cards are black?
A. 1/1326 B. 13/1326 C. 325/1326 D. 650/1326
25. The probability that Marq’s vacationing this summer in Baguio is 0.300, and in Boracay , 0.250.
What is the probability of vacationing in neither of the two provinces?
A. 0.550 B. 0 .450 C. 0.250 D. 0.650
39 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: GEOMETRY
1. Which of the following figures best illustrates the postulate, “If two points lie on a plane, then the line
containing these points also lies on the same plane”?
A. B. C. D.
K L
2. Which of the following is the intersection of plane FPOG and KP ?

A. Point P J M N
E
B. OP
C. plane KPN P O
I H
D. FP
F G
3. The complement of P measures 58. What is the measure of the supplement of P?
A. 122
B. 148
C. 32 D
D. 58 C
B
4. Which of the following is an obtuse angle?
A. ABD A E
B. CBE
C. FBE
D. DBE
F
5. In the figure at the right, mRTS = 8x + 18. Find the value of x so that TR  TS ?
A. 9 C. 12
B. 15 D. 18
6. In the figure at the right, m || n. Find m8.

A. 117 C. 63
B. 66 D. 15
7. In KLM, mK = 87, mM = 41. What is mL?

A. 128 B. 93 C. 65 D. 52
40 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
8. In the given figure, PQ || RS and PT  ST . Which postulate or theorem can be used to prove that
PQT  SRT ? Q
S
A. HL C. SAS
B. ASA D. SSS T
P R
9. The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle measures eight times the measure of a base angle. Find the
measure of a base angle.
A. 18 B. 24 C. 36 D. 43
10. In the given figure, C is the centroid of DEF. If GF = 6x2 + 9y, what expression represents CF?
A. 2x2 + 9y C. 6x2 + 9y D
2
B. 2x + 3y D. 4x2 + 6y
G
C D
E
H
F D 14
E
11. Given the figure at the right, which of the following is NOT true?
A. DFE  DEF C. CDF  EDF 14 14
13
B. DFC  DCF D. mCDF  mEDF
C 12 F
12. A parallelogram must be a rectangle if its diagonals
A. bisect each other
B. bisect the angles to which they are drawn
C. are perpendicular to each other
D. are congruent
13. Given ABC ~ DEF , AC = 6, AB = BC = 12, and DF = 8. Find the perimeter of DEF .
A. 32 B. 36 C. 40 D. 60
14. In the figure, AB and CD intersect at E and 1  2. A

Which theorem or postulate can be used C
to prove that AED ~ BEC ? 2
E
A. AA
B. SSS
C. ASA 1 B
D. SAS D
15. Find the value of x in the given figure. x

A. 4
B. 2 3 12
C. 4 3
D. 8 4 a
16. In the given right triangle, if a  3 3 then what is the value of b?

A. 9 B. 6 3 C. 12 3 D. 18 b
c
30
41 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
17. In the given figure, mA = 35 and AC = 8.

B
Which of the following equations can be used to solve for x in ABC?
A. x  8 cos35 C. x  8 tan 35
8 x
B. x  8 sin 35 D. x 
cos 35
32
C A
8
18. What is the value of a in the given figure?
A. 9 C. 12.75
B. 12 D. 13.5
19. If an angle that has a measure of 43.7 is inscribed in a circle, what is the measure of its intercepted
arc?
A. 21.85 B. 43.7 C. 87.4 C. 131.1
20. What is the measure of ADC in the given figure?

A. 130 C. 140
B. 135 D. 145
21. What is the largest possible area of ABC

if it is inscribed in a semicircle with radius 6 units?
A. 9 sq. units C. 36 sq. units
B. 18 sq. units D. 72 sq. units
22. A trapezoid has height 5 cm, one base has length 7 cm, and the other base has length equal to the
height. What is the area of the trapezoid?
A. 5 cm2 B. 12 cm2 C. 30 cm2 D. 35 cm2
23. What is the surface area of a right cylinder with radius 3 inches and height 18 inches?
A. 108 in2 B. 117 in2 C. 126 in2 D. 162 in2
24. A right circular cone has radius 5 feet and height 12 feet. What is its volume?
A. 100 ft3 B. 150 ft3 C. 200 ft3 D. 200 ft3
25. The given figure shows a half sphere atop a cone.

What is the volume of the entire solid?
416 182
A.  in3 C.  in3
3 3
224 288
B.  in3 D.  in3
3 3
42 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: GENERAL SCIENCE

1. Which of the following is true about the 7. ________________ faulting involves the
crust? movement of blocks of rocks in vertical
A. The crust is the same all over the earth. direction while ________________ faulting
B. The oceanic crust is denser than the involves movement in the horizontal
continental crust. direction.
C. Most of the earth’s surface is covered A. dip-slip; strike-slip
with continental crust. B. strike-slip; dip-slip
D. None of the above C. normal; reverse
D. reverse; normal
2. Which is the best explanation why the
inner core has a different physical property 8. The spot where the rocks first break is the
from the outer core? ______________ while the corresponding
A. They have different composition. point on the surface of the earth is the
B. The temperature in the inner core is _____________.
extremely high. A. focus; epicenter
C. The pressure in the inner core is B. epicenter; focus
extremely high causing it to become C. epicenter; fault
solid. D. focus; fault
9. What will happen if S waves encounter
3. According to the continental drift theory, magma?
all continents had been united into a single A. They will change direction.
supercontinent called ______________. B. They will not pass through.
A. Pangaea C. They will accelerate.
B. Laurasia D. They will decelerate.
C. Gondwanaland
D. None of the above 10. Which of the following is not an example of
the hazards associated with earthquakes?
4. Which mechanism accounts for the A. Fire
movement of the seafloor? B. Tsunamis
A. Radiation from the sun C. Landslides
B. Conduction of heat from the sun D. Volcanic eruption
C. Convection in the mantle
D. None of the above 11. Which of the following is not a fragmented
material?
5. During seafloor spreading, the new oceanic A. pyroclastic
crust formed will spread away from the B. ash
ridge, lose heat and become denser. The C. blocks
sinking of this dense material is referred to D. lava
as ______________.
A. Subduction 12. Shield volcanoes are made up from
B. Cooling _______________.
C. Convection A. fragmented materials
D. Drift B. basaltic lava
C. pyroclasts
6. When two continental plates collide, D. None of the above
_______________________.
A. mountains are built.
B. the denser plate sinks under the other.
C. volcanoes are produced.
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13. Which is not true about minerals? 19. Which of the following is not an agent of
A. They are made by geologic processes. chemical weathering?
B. They are organic substances. A. Oxygen
C. They have fixed chemical B. Carbonic acid
composition. C. Water
D. None of the above D. Nitrogen
14. You were given two mineral samples, A 20. Which of the following does not cause
and B for identification. After performing erosion?
several tests, here are your observations: A. Streams
Property Mineral B. Oceanic waves
A B C. Rivers
Color Dark gray Dark D. None of the above
gray
Streak Red Gray For number 21, please refer to the following:
Hardness 6 5
Which of the following is not a correct The drawing below shows the different rock
conclusion? layers and the positions of discovered fossils of
A. They are the same mineral. three organisms, A, B and C.
B. They are different minerals.
C. Mineral A is harder than mineral B.
15. Which type of minerals contain only one

type of element?
A. Silicates
B. Native elements
C. Carbonates
D. Halides
16. ____________ sedimentary rocks are those

that formed from dissolved rock materials.
A. Detrital
B. Chemical 21. Which among the three organisms is the
C. Volcanic oldest?
D. Plutonic A. A
B. B
17. Which does not belong to the group? C. C
A. gneiss D. Cannot be determined
B. marble
C. chert 22. Which of the following factors is
D. schist responsible for the formation of different
types of clouds?
18. Which of the following is not a cause of A. Precipitation
physical weathering? B. Composition
A. Dissolution C. Evaporation
B. Ice wedging D. Moisture
C. Temperature changes
D. Organic activity
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
23. Which instrument measures the

atmospheric pressure?
A. Barometer
B. Anemometer
C. Wind vane
D. Thermometer
24. It is where the ozone layer is located.

A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere
25. One of the causes of differences in

temperature of air masses is
_________________.
A. the kind of materials that compose the
earth’s interior
B. the convection in the mantle
C. the radiation from the sun
D. the tilting of the earth’s axis
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: BIOLOGY
1. Living microorganisms were first observed using a simple lens microscope by
A. Robert Hooke
B. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
C. Theodore Schwann
D. Matthias Schleiden
2. When the skin is infected with Candida albicans, a type of yeast, some white blood cells migrate to the
site of infection and engulf the yeast cells. This example of immune defense mechanism involves the
process of “cell eating” called
A. pinocytosis
B. endocytosis
C. phagocytosis
D. exocytosis
3. In the chemical structure of water, two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom are joined together by
which type of chemical bond?
A. Covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Van der Waals Interaction
4. Which of the following is NOT a carbohydrate?

A. Cellulose
B. Glycogen
C. Chitin
5. The following statements about enzymes are true EXCEPT

A. They speed up biochemical reactions.
B. They have active sites on their surface shaped to fit their specific substrates, allowing the chemical
reaction to occur.
C. Once the reaction is completed, the enzyme dissociates with the substrate.
D. Enzymes cannot be reused.
6. Which of the following is the correct sequence of information flow that would result to a specific trait
of an organism?
A. DNA → mRNA →polypeptide
B. mRNA →DNA →polypeptide
C. polypeptide → mRNA → DNA
For number 7, please refer to the following:
A hypothetical organism, known as “smurf”, is a diploid with chromosome

number of 2n=12. Like humans, their gametes are haploid while all their
body cells are diploid. Illustrated below is a representation of an egg cell
of a female smurf:
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7. Which of the following is a correct representation of the smurf’s body cell?
A. B. C. D.
8. Which of the following DOES NOT contribute to the variation of traits in the offspring of sexually
reproducing organisms?
A. Independent assortment of chromosomes
B. Crossing-over during meiosis
C. Random fertilization
D. Equal contribution of the genetic material by the parents to the offspring
9. The gene for excessive hair growth in the body (hypertrichosis) is found in the Y chromosome. Which
is NOT true about the inheritance of this trait?
A. A father who has hypertrichosis passes on the trait to all his daughters.
B. The trait is not exhibited by females.
C. All of the above
10. Eukaryotic DNA is different from bacterial DNA in _________________.

A. the proteins associated with them
B. the number of strands
C. the nitrogenous bases present
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of all organisms belonging to Kingdom Fungi?
A. Unicellular
B. Microscopic
C. Heterotrophic
D. Absence of nucleus
12. Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of classification starting from the largest to the smallest
category?
A. Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
B. Phylum-Kingdom-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
C. Phylum-Kingdom-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species
D. Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Class-Family-Genus-Species
13. Hibernation is an adaptation of some animals to the very low temperature and food scarcity during
winter. Which of the following conditions occur during hibernation?
A. Activity of the animal is low and metabolism rate is slow.
B. The animal’s body temperature declines.
C. Both A and B
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14. Which of the following structures is not properly matched with its function?
A. Rectum – concentrates undigested materials
B. Capillaries – exchange of materials between the blood and the surrounding cells
C. Lymph nodes – where foreign particles present in the lymph encounter macrophages
15. Which is the largest organ of the body?

A. Bone
B. Skin
C. Muscle
16. Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?

A. A sea anemone separates into two individuals of equal size.
B. In a species of corals, new individuals grow out from the parent’s body.
C. When an arm of a sea star is broken off from its body, it can generate an entire sea star.
17. Which of the following statements about muscles is incorrect?

A. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bones and responsible for voluntary movement.
B. Smooth muscle is found in organs which perform voluntary contractions.
C. Cardiac muscle is responsible for involuntary pumping of the heart.
18. Which of the following is a characteristic of monocotyledonous plants?

A. Two cotyledons in the seeds
B. Taproot system
C. Parallel pattern of the veins
19. Which of the following is not a function of the stomates?

A. Taking up of CO2
B. Release of O2
C. Loss of water
20. When an old tree fell on the ground and some roots remained anchored to the soil, new branches arise
from the trunk. The new branches grow upward and not horizontally like the trunk of the fallen tree.
This shows _______________.
A. Positive hydrotropism
B. Positive thigmotropism
C. Negative gravitropism
D. Negative phototropism
21. Rhizobium is a bacterium that lives in association with the roots of legumes such as soybeans. The
former converts the atmospheric N2 to be used by plants while the latter provides the bacteria with
carbohydrates and other organic compounds. This symbiotic relationship is similar to that of
____________.
A. ticks and moose
B. bees and flowering plants
C. egrets and water buffalos
D. lice and human
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22. The statements below are true for ecological succession except ________________.
A. The process may start in a lifeless area where soil has not yet formed.
B. When an area has been cleared by a disturbance like fire, it may begin to return to something like its
original state.
C. The first life-forms present in the area undergoing primary succession are grasses and shrubs.
D. The last species of plants to colonize the area become the community’s most prevalent form of
vegetation.
23. The following are the other factors which should be kept constant in the experiment except
________________________
A. Age of the plant studied
B. Type of plant used
C. Other components of the soil
24. You are assigned to differentiate, in terms of morphology, between two types of bacteria grown in the
nutrient medium on a test tube. How will you do this?
A. Prepare a smear of the two types of bacteria and observe them using a microscope.
B. Use biochemical reactions to determine the compounds secreted by each bacterium.
C. Use centrifugation to allow the bacteria to separate from the medium.
For number 25, please refer to the graph below:
25. What is the optimum pH of this enzyme?

A. pH = 5
B. pH = 6
C. pH = 7
D. pH = 8
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CYCLE 2: CHEMISTRY
1. After carrying out the operation 7. Which of the reactions below is a double
(6.54 + 0.321) ÷ 7.7, the number of displacement reaction?
significant figures in the result is A. Fe (s) + S (s)  FeS (s)
A. 1 B. NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq)  H2O(l) + NaCl (aq)
B. 2 C. CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g)  CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g)
C. 3 D. 2Al (s) + Cr2O3 (aq)  Al2O3 (aq) + 2Cr (s)
D. 4
8. In one mole of CH2O, how many atom/s of
2. The density of bromine liquid at 25oC is oxygen is/are present?
3.12 g/cm3. What is the mass of 60.0 cm3 of A. 1
bromine? B. 2
A. 0.052 g C. 6.02 x 1023
B. 7.49 g D. 1.20 x 1024
C. 19.2 g
D. 187 g 9. How many atoms of Br is present in 8.0 g of
Br (MM Br = 79.7 g/mol)?
3. Which of the following is incorrectly A. 6.03 x 1022
classified? B. 6.02 x 1023
A. Sodium – metal C. 1.20 x 1024
B. Helium – non metal D. 4.82 x 1025
C. Silicon – non metal
D. Iron – metal 10. In the reaction below, 5 moles of KClO3
was allowed to decompose. If the actual
4. Which is an example of a physical change? amount of KCl produced is 3 moles, what is
A. Apples turn brown when exposed to the % yield of the reaction?
air. 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
B. Gasoline burns. A. 30%
C. Hydrogen peroxide decomposes to B. 60%
water and oxygen gas. C. 66%
D. Lead melts when heated to a high D. 72%
temperature.
11. Which subatomic particle was discovered
5. According to the Law of ___________, a using the alpha particle scattering
given chemical compound will always have experiment conducted by Geiger, Marsden
the same elemental composition by mass. and Rutherford?
A. Conservation of mass A. Neutron
B. Definite composition B. Proton
C. Multiple proportions C. Electron
D. Periodicity D. Positron
6. In which of the following compounds is 12. The atomic number of oxygen is 8. In its
iron in the form of Fe+3? electronic configuration, it has ___
A. FeO unpaired electrons and it is _____.
B. FePO4 A. 0, diamagnetic
C. Fe(OH)2 B. 1, paramagnetic
D. FeCl2 C. 2, paramagnetic
D. 4, diamagnetic
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13. In the modern periodic table, which of the 19. This group of solids is characterized by
following is true? brittleness, hardness and high melting
A. Elements are arranged in increasing points. They do not conduct electricity in
atomic mass. the solid phase but are conductors when
B. Elements are arranged in increasing molten.
number of valence electrons. A. Ionic solids
C. Elements are arranged in increasing B. Covalent network solids
atomic number. C. Covalent molecular solids
D. Elements are arranged in increasing D. Amorphous solids
nuclear charge.
20. Which of the following is endothermic?
14. All of the following are representative A. Freezing
elements except B. Condensation
A. Transition metals C. Evaporation
B. Alkali metals D. Deposition
C. Alkaline earth metals
D. Metalloids 21. Which of the following will increase the
solubility of gaseous solutes in a liquid
15. Among the following alkali metals, which solvent?
has the largest atomic radius? A. Increasing the temperature
A. Li B. Increasing the pressure
B. Na C. Adding more solvent
C. K D. Stirring or shaking
D. Rb
22. A sample was prepared by mixing 10 moles
16. Which of the following is a covalent of solute and 15 moles of the solvent, what
compound? is the mole fraction of the solution?
A. Na2O A. 2/5
B. H2O B. 2/3
C. V2O5 C. 3/2
D. MgO D. 5/2
17. Which of the following molecules follow a 23. The pressure-volume relationship of an
tetrahedral geometry? ideal gas is described in
A. H2O A. Charles’ Law
B. BF3 B. Boyle’s Law
C. CH4 C. Avogadro’s Law
D. HCl D. Graham’s Law
18. Which of the following samples is capable 24. According to this law “The ratio of the rates
of hydrogen bonding? of effusion of two gases is equal to the
A. CH4 square root of the inverse ratio of their
B. HF molecular masses or densities”.
C. H2S A. Graham’s Law
D. H2 B. Ideal Gas Law
C. Avogadro’s Law
D. Combined Gas Law
25. Which of the following formulas is

accurate?
A. P = C. P =
B. P = D. P =
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: PHYSICS
1. While you are doing floor exercises, in a classic push up position, imagine that your deltoid
muscle exerts a force of 300 N on the humerus bone at an angle of 30 0 above the horizontal.
How much is the x-component of this force?
300
A. 150 N
B. 260 N
C. 346 N
D. 600 N
http://www.arabianmuscles.com/userfiles/i
mage/Issues/Issue%208/push-ups.jpg
2. A baseball is thrown across the field, which is zero at the topmost part of its trajectory?
A. the acceleration of the projectile
B. the total displacement of the projectile
C. the horizontal component of its velocity
D. the vertical component of its velocity
3. Tapping a wet toothbrush on the faucet makes the water come out between the toothbrush’s
bristles. Which property of the water best explains its behavior?
A. force
B. acceleration
C. kinetic energy
D. inertia
4. Which object below has the greatest gravitational potential energy?
m v=0
v
4m 2v m 2h
m 2v
h h
½h
A B C D
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
5. In which of the following situations shown by the pictures is there work done by the specified force?
http://bodyinmotiondc.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/06/IT- http://www.cosmo.ph/images/galleries/images/Kim1-3/Kim1.jpg
BAnd-2.png
A. force by the man’s arm on the door C. force by Kim’s arm on the bag
http://image1.masterfile.com/em_w/02/80/28/648-02802864w.jpg
http://project7100365.files.wordpress.com/2012/02/t1larg-
penaflorida-cnn.jpg
B. force of friction on Efren’s moving D. force of the rope on the boy
kariton
6. Basketball superstar LeBron James has made an amazing vertical leap jump of 44 inches (1.118
meters). Under the same starting conditions, how high, in meters, can LeBron James jump on the
1
moon where gmoon is g earth ? Assume that his spacesuit has negligible mass.
6
A. 7.118 B. 6.708 C. 1.118 D. 0.186
7. Which of the following situations is an attempt to get small forces while decreasing the object/person’s
momentum?
I. Juan Marquez moving his head back as Manny Pacquiao’s punch hits his face.
II. Pulling a slingshot (with the stone) all the way back before letting it go.
III. Derek Ramsay pulling back his hand as he catches a speeding Frisbee.
IV. Chris Tiu bends his knees as he lands on the basketball court from a successful jump shot.
A. I, II, III, IV B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, III, IV
only
8. Four different positions of a foot on a bicycle pedal are shown. A
The arrows indicate the force exerted by the foot at each position.
At which point is the torque on the bicycle pedal the greatest?
B
D
force
C 53 | P a g e
http://www.bicycling.com/training-nutrition/training-
fitness/perfect-pedal-stroke
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
9. Apollo 15 Commander David Scott recreated Galileo’s famous free fall experiment on the moon. A
feather and a hammer dropped by David from the same height at the same time hit the moon’s surface
at the same time. What did this result confirm?
A. There is no acceleration due to gravity (g) acting on bodies in a vacuum.
B. Acceleration due to gravity (g) on the moon is less than g on the earth.
C. Acceleration due to gravity (g) is the same for both hammer and feather.
D. The acceleration due to gravity (g) of the feather is greater on the moon than on earth.
10. Water inside a bucket swung overhead at the right speed does not spill out of
the bucket. This trick can be explained by comparing the pull of gravity on the
water and the pull of the hand on the bucket. Which condition at the top of the
swing will allow the water to spill out of the bucket?
A. C.
http://www.phys.unt.edu/~klittler/demo_
B. D. All of these three room/mech_demos/pail_water.JPG
conditions will keep the

water inside the bucket.
11. At a given fixed temperature, which is a correct prediction about the behavior of the molecules of a gas
based on the kinetic-molecular theory of gases?
A. The average speed of all the molecules in a gas is the same.
B. The average energy of all the molecules in a gas is the same.
C. The molecules of a larger mass have lower average energies than lighter gas molecules.
D. The molecules of a lighter mass have higher average energies than heavier gas
12. A pitcher of warm kalamansi juice is placed beside an ice pack inside a thermally insulated container.
Consider the juice and the ice as parts of one system. Which of the following is true about this
system?
Total energy of the system Total entropy of the system
A remains the same increases
B increases remains the same
C remains the same decreases
D decreases remains the same
13. The electric force law formulated by Charles de Coulomb has exactly the same form as
A. First Law of Thermodynamics C. Newton's Second Law
B. Law of Universal Gravitation D. Law of Inertia
14. Which of the following statements concerning magnetic field lines is correct?
A. Magnetic field lines come out of the north pole and terminate at the south pole.
B. Magnetic field lines represent a scalar field.
C. Magnetic field lines point away from a negative charge.
D. Magnetic field lines are close together where the field is strong.
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
15. Inside a microwave oven, a magnetron produces microwaves when electrons interact with a magnetic
field. Which of the following is the path( as shown by broken lines) taken by an electron beam directed
to the right in a uniform magnetic field directed downward?
v
v
B B B B
A B C D
The set-up on the left (magnet, coil , cardboard tube and galvanometer) is for number 16:
http://resources.teachnet.ie/torourke/Physics
website/electromagnetism_files/faraday.gif
16. The following conditions allow electrical current to be induced in the coil (as indicated by a movement
of the galvanometer needle). Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. push the magnet into the coil
B. pull the magnet away from the coil
C. keep the magnet steady inside the tube
D. move the coil away from the magnet
17. A battery is connected across a series combination of two identical bulbs. If the potential difference
across the terminals of the batter is V and the current in the battery is i, then:
A. the potentialdifference C) the potential difference across

across each bulb is v and each bulb is V and the current
2 through each bulb is i.
the current through each
resistor is i.
B. the potential difference D) the potential difference

across each bulb is V and the across each bulb is v and
current through each bulb is 2
i the current through each bulb
2 is i .
2
18. Which kind of wave behaves like the waves produced in the spring as shown in the picture on the
right?
A. solar
B. sound
C. radio
D. television
19. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?
A. ultraviolet B. visible C. x-ray D. all have the same frequency
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
20. In a 2005 episode of the television show MythBusters, vocal coach Jamie Vendera was able to shatter a
wine glass using only his voice. Which of the following phenomenon best explains his amazing
performance?
A. Doppler B. forced C. diffraction D. resonance
effect vibration
21. Which of the following statements is an idea that is consistent with the photon/particle theory of light?
I. Light energy is made up of quantized or discrete packets or bundles of energy.
II. The energy of the photons is directly proportional to the frequency of the light.
III. A one-on-one interaction occurs between a photon of light and an electron.
IV. Dim light with high frequency possesses great energy.
A. I, II, III and IV B. I, II, III C. I and II D. II and III
22. At a certain place and time, the probability density ψ2 of an electron in an atom is found to have a
large value. What does this suggest about the electron?
A. It is sure to be located there.
B. It is likely to be found there.
C. It has a great amount of energy there.
D. It has a great amount of charge there II
I
23. If the four graphs (I, II, III and IV) are acceleration vs
time graphs, which of the graphs best shows a volleyball
in free fall motion? III IV
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
24. Princess Mikay dropped a coin (at ear level) in a wishing well. The coin fell 12 meters (Y) from her ear
level to the water below. An interesting question is: If sound travels at a speed of 343 m/s (vs), how long
after Princess Mikay dropped the coin will she hear the splash? To solve for the time, what is the correct
equation to use?
2Y Y 2Y Y Y Y Y Y
A.  B.  C.  D. 
g vs g vs g vs g vs
.
25. The height of Ethan was measured by his mother using three different scales of varied precision (in
meters): 1.318, 1.32, and 1.3. Applying the rules on significant figures, how
should the mean height of Ethan be written (in meters)?
A. 1.3 C. 1.313
B. 1.31 D. 1.3127
https://www.pediatricgrowthcharts.c
om/images/static/graphics/height.jpg
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: FILIPINO
Kilalanin ang Pokus ng Pandiwa sa mga sumusunod na pangungusap. Titik lamang ng tamang sagot ang
piliin.
1. Dinarayo ng maraming tao ang simbahan ng Quiapo tuwing kapistahan ng Poon.

A. Pokus sa Layon C. Pokus sa Aktor
B. Pokus sa Kadahilanan D. Pokus sa Ganapan
2. Ipinagluluto rin ng ilang taga-Quiapo ang mga debotong nakikipamyesta sa kanila.

A. Pokus sa Kadahilanan C. Pokus sa Kalaanan
B. Pokus sa Instrumental D. Pokus sa Ganapan
Ang mga sumusunod na salitang nakasalungguhit ay mga bahagi ng pananalita. Kilalanin ang mga bahagi
ng pananalita. Titik lamang ng tamang sagot ang piliin.
3. Pamumutol ng kahoy at pagmimina ang karaniwang hanapbuhay sa Compostela Valley.

A. Pang-abay C. Pang-uri
B. Pangngalan D. Pandiwa
4. Nakalulungkot isipin na sa simula pa lamang ng taong 2012 ay nakaranas na ng kalamidad ang

naturang lalawigan.
B. Pang-abay D. Panghalip
5. Malakas ang hagupit ng bagyong Pablo sa Mindanao.

A. Pangngalan C. Pandiwa
B. Pang-uri D. Pang-abay
Piliin ang kasingkahulugan ng mga salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
6. Mahirap matarok ang pinagsisimulan ng kalungkutan ng isang tao.

A. makamit C. matimbang
B. mabilang D. masukat
7. Maaaring hindi mapaknit sa kanyang isipan ang mga pinagdaanang paghihirap.

A. maunawaan C. maaalala
B. maalis D. malutas
Piliin ang kasalungat ng salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
8. Matagal din sa mga kamay ng manlulupig ang bansang Pilipinas.

A. Mapagpalaya C. Mananakop
B. Magnanakaw D. Mayayaman
9. Ang pang-uuyam ng ilang pulitiko ay hindi matatapos hanggat hindi napipirmahan ang bagong
batas.
A. Pambabastos C. Panlilibak
B. Pamumuri D. Pang-aapi
10. Magkatuwang sila sa pagpapalaki sa mga anak.

A. Magkatabi C. Magkalayo
B. Magkatulong D. Magkakapit
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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
Ang mga sumusunod na pahayag ay nagtataglay ng mga idyomatikong ekspresyon. Kilalanin ang kahulugan
ng mga salitang may salungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
11. Madali siyang makapasok ng trabaho dahil makapal ang palad niya.
A. magsasaka C. malakas ang loob
B. maasahan D. sanay sa trabahong mabigat
12. Dumalo siya sa kaarawa na dala ang mga inakay

A. malalaking anak C. paslit na anak
B. alagang manok D. alalay
Piliin ang tamang pagwawasto sa mga salitang nakasalungguhit. Piliin lamang ang titik ng tamang sagot.
13. May apat na hapong mag-aaral ang dumalaw sa unibersidad.

A. Hapon C. hapon
B. pang-hapon D. walang mali
14. Mga tagabayan ang unang nabigyan ng tulong ng NGO.

A. taga bayan C. taga Bayan
B. taga-bayan D. walang mali
15. Sa ika-7 ng umaga magsisimula ang pagsusulit.

A. ika pito C. ika-pito
B. ikapito D. walang mali
Punan ng angkop na salita upang mabuo ang kaisipan ng talata. Titik lamang ng tamang sagot ang piliin.
Habang ___16___ay tumitindi ang bangis ngkalikasan. Palawak ___17___palawak ang Kanyang pinsala at palalim
___18__nang palalim ang bahang hinahatid ng bagyo o kahit hanging habagat lang.
Kaya naman ___19___maging seryoso na tayo sa pagkampanya at pagpapatupad ng ”plastic free campaign” at
talagang istriktong ipairal __20____”plastic free” __21___buong bansa.
Sana ___22__ay matuto na ___23__sa napakaraming leksyon __24__.hagupit ng kalikasan. Isipin ___25__huling
pagkakataon na ito para sa atin nang pagsikapan nating magkaroon ng disiplina sa lahat ng pagkakataon.
16. A. tumagal B. tumatagal C. tatagal D. itatagal
17. A. na B. ng C. nang D. –ng
18. A. din B. rin C. daw D .raw
19. A. kailangan B.kailangang C. kakailanganin D. kaiilanganin
20. A. ang B. ang mga C. sa D. ng
21 A. sa B. na C. ng D. ba
22. A. pala B. tuloy C. nga D. yata
23. A. sila B. tayo C. kayo D. nila
24. A. at B. na C. sa D. ng
25. A. ating B. nilang C. nating D. kayong

58 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
CYCLE 2: LANGUAGE/READING
FINDING ERRORS. Each of the following sentences may contain error in grammar usage, spelling or
word choice. Decide which underlined part contains the error (if any). If there is no error, write E.
1. The police were immediately informed by us.

A B C D
2. If he be found guilty and receives a prison sentence, his family will suffer.
A B C D
3. He asked, “What is meant by “The good die young’?”

A B C D
4. I will go to the store provided you go with me.

A B C D
5. The story is as fascinating with the one read to us by your grandfather the other night.
A B C D
6. Nina, the student Prof. Katz was looking for, studied after lunch in the library.
A B C D
7. To lose weight is not easy, albiet sometimes it is necessary.

A B C D
8. The math problems, which I just finished, are completely right.

A B C D
9. Much to the surprise of the fundraising organiser, less people came to the concert than expected.
A B C D
10. In order to achieve the target for the financial year, the marketing and advertising teams devised
A B C
multi-layered activation plans.
D
11. The opportunist chairman, together with the members of the board, have accepted our irresistible
A B C D
invitation.
12. The train, which ran off the tracks, was going very fast.
A B C D
SENTENCE COMPLETION. Choose the pair of words that BEST completes each of the items below into
meaningful sentences.
13. As her cunning critics maintain, her work is _____________ in terms of mood and _____________ in
terms of content.
A. Insipid– mercurial C. Vapid – inane
B. Tenebrous - equivocal D. Lethargic– expropriate
59 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
READING COMPREHENSION. Read each of the following selections then answer the questions that
follow.
A.
There is no such thing as a memory in the sense of some thing that can be seen, touched, or weighed.
Memory is an abstraction referring to a set of skills rather than to an object. Neither is there a single
standard for judging a good or poor memory. There are a number of different ways in which a person
may have a good memory.
Memory is generally viewed as consisting of three stages: (1) acquisition refers to learning the material;
(2) storage refers to keeping the material in the brain until it is needed; (3) retrieval refers to getting
the material back out when it is needed. These three stages may be viewed as the 3 R’s of
Remembering: Recording, Retaining and Retrieving. Retrieving is where many problems come. We
cannot do much about retrieval directly; but since retrieval is a function of recording, we can improve
it by improving our methods of recording.
Memory consists of at least two different processes: short term memory and long term memory. Short term
memory has a limited capacity and a rapid forgetting rate. Its capacity can be increased by chunking,
or grouping separate bits of information into larger chunks. Long term memory has a virtually
unlimited capacity. Short term memory and long term memory also differ in several other ways.
One measure of memory is recall, which requires you to produce information by searching the memory for
it. In aided recall, you are given cues to help you produce the information. In free-recall learning you
recall the material in any order; in serial learning you recall in the order it was presented; and in
paired-associate learning you learn pairs of words so that when the first word is given you can recall
the second word. A second measure of memory is recognition, in which you do not have to produce
the information from memory, but must be able to identify it when it is presented to you. In a third
measure of memory, relearning, the difference between how long it took to learn the material the first
time and how long it takes to learn it again indicates how much you remember. Relearning is
generally a more sensitive measure of memory than is recognition, in the sense of showing retention
where recognition does not; recognition is generally a more sensitive measure than recall.
– Higbee, K.L.
14. Which of the following can be a good title for the selection?
A. The wonders of memory
B. Your memory and how it works
C. How to improve your memory
D. Working through the brain
15. The article’s main objective is to:

A. Persuade
B. Inform
C. Narrate
D. Argue
.
16. According to the article, 3 R’s stand for what?
A. Retrieving, Retaining, Recording
B. Recording, Retaining, Remembering
C. Recording, Retaining, Retrieving
D. Recording, Retrieving, Relearning
60 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
17. Which of the following statement is NOT expressed in the selection:

A. Recognition is generally a more sensitive measure of memory than is relearning, in the sense of
showing retention where recognition does not; recall is generally a more sensitive measure than
recognition.
B. We cannot do much about retrieval directly; but since retrieval is a function of recording, we can
improve it by improving our methods of recording.
C. Memory is an abstraction referring to a set of skills rather than to an object.
D. There is no single standard for judging a good or poor memory.
18. In what particular order did the author present the important terms in the selection:
A. Memory – Stages of Memory – Processes of Memory – Measures of Memory
B. Memory – Processes of Memory – Stages of Memory – Improving your Memory
C. Memory – Measures of Memory – Processes of Memory – Improving your Memory
D. Memory – Processes of Memory – Stages of Memory – Measures of Memory
19. Which of the following topic would be most logical for the article to take up next, as a sub-section?
A. The Science of Forgetting C. The Brain: Memory and Learning
B. Improving One’s Memory D. The Psychosomatic Memory
G.
1 Some quarters still oppose K-12, the flagship education program of the Aquino administration. The
objections vary. There are those who want a miracle cure that will by itself instantly heal all of the
ailments afflicting basic education. They demand proof that K-12 will reduce the classroom shortage,
improve teacher quality and raise learning outcome among students. This, despite the repeated
assurance of the education secretary, Br. Armin Luistro FSC, that K-12 is only one in the DepEd’s
10-point basic education reform agenda.
2 Others criticize the government’s haste in implementing the program. Many have forgotten that the
Philippines already had an 11-year basic education cycle during the American colonial period. But
the Commonwealth government, believing 11 years of pre-university studies inadequate, decided to
reduce elementary education to six years, which was done, and to add two years to high school, which
was not. We have been waiting over 75 years to extend the basic education cycle beyond what we had
in the 1930s.
3 In the meantime, the rest of the world has implemented the K-12 system. Do we need to do more
research to follow suit? The entire world, of course, can be completely wrong about K-12. But we are
not determining the “truth” of K-12 as a physical law or philosophical principle that must have
universal application. We are considering the advantages and efficacy of a practical system that
involves trade-offs and will be better managed by some groups rather than others.
4 A number of our ambassadors have expressed concern that our 10-year basic education cycle will
work against the interests of Filipino workers seeking employment abroad. Perhaps, these countries
are building non-tariff barriers against our export of labor. But when all the vehicles in the road are
moving in one direction, prudence would seem to dictate that we do not insist on driving against the
traffic.
5 What is also difficult to comprehend is the complaint that K-12 is an elitist measure to align our
system to those of developed countries and make it easier for wealthy students to gain admission to
their schools. These students will indeed benefit from the program. But even developing countries
have invested in additional years of basic education. In the Philippines, the best private schools
require 11 years of basic education, against the 10 years in public schools. K-12 will help level the
playing field for those who cannot afford the elite schools.
61 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
6 With two additional years at Senior High School (SHS) or Grades 11 and 12, students going to
Philippine schools will begin college better prepared to handle tertiary-level materials. If colleges and
universities do the right thing, they may be able to complete most college courses in a shorter period
of time and, therefore, at a lower cost….
7 Those concerned with the competitiveness of the country’s human resources, with the effectiveness of
its higher education system, and with issues of equity and inclusive development should support the
K-12 program.
-Edilberto de Jesus, Philippine Daily Inquirer, April 13 2012
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true based on the article?
A. The Philippines has been waiting for 75 years to extend the basic education cycle, which was crafted in
the 1930s.
B. K to 12 is the flagship education program of the Aquino administration
C. K to 12 is seen to hamper the export of labor, with which the country has depended on for the longest
time
D. K to 12 is seen to bring in a lot of positive changes on the quality of graduates, employability rates, and
in industry capacity building
21. Which of the following could the author have used to highlight some points or arguments in the
article?
A. Statistical data
B. Education cycle of pre-modern Southeast Asian countries
C. More arguments on the affirmative position
D. More arguments on the negative position
22. Which of the following can best describe the attitude of the author towards the issue?
A. Critical C. Angered
B. Indifferent D. Unbiased
23. What word can best describe the argument being purported in Paragraph 7?
A. Descriptive C. Normative
B. Evaluative D. Value-free
WORD MEANINGS FROM CONTEXT CLUES AND ETYMOLOGY.
24. The nonchalance of the public official towards the suffering of his people has spurned a plot to remove
him from his office.
A. Indifferent
B. Dedicated
C. Anxious
D. Composed
25. Contrary to the popular belief that man is polygamous by nature, his uxorious nature has shown that
fidelity is possible with love and faith ruling the relationship.
A. Monogamous
B. Devoted
C. Submissive
D. Contrite
62 | P a g e
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
MAXIMIZING YOUR UPCAT PREPARATION

Here are some of the blog articles (and their corresponding URL addresses) that will be helpful in your
UPCAT Preparation. Please find time to read all of them.
1. Why SpongeBob passed the UPCAT and Jimmy Neutron did not -
http://www.upcatreview.com/why-spongebob-passed-the-upcat-and-jimmy-neutron-did-not
2. 10 UPCAT Commandments - http://www.upcatreview.com/10-upcat-commandments
3. 10 Ways to Outsmart the UPCAT - http://www.upcatreview.com/10-ways-to-outsmart-the-upcat
4. How My Kids Passed UPCAT - http://www.upcatreview.com/how-my-kids-passed-upcat-the-sure-

way
5. 5 Reasons Why You Should Take (and Pass) the UPCAT - http://www.upcatreview.com/5-
reasons-why-you-should-take-and-pass-the-upcat
6. 10 Myths About the UPCAT - http://www.upcatreview.com/10-myths-about-the-upcat
7. Pataasin ang Iyong Iskor: 7 Mabibisang Gawi ng Kukuha ng UPCAT -

http://www.upcatreview.com/pataasin-ang-iyong-iskor-7-mabibisang-gawi-ng-kukuha-ng-upcat
8. A Simple UPCAT Preparation Guide - http://www.upcatreview.com/upcat-preparation-guide
9. Takot Ka Bang - http://www.upcatreview.com/takot-ka-ba
10. Ang Buntot ng Dalawang Aplikante sa UPCAT - http://www.upcatreview.com/buntot-2-aplikante-

sa-upcat
63 | P a g e

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DIAGNOSTIC TESTS

Helping you pass UPCAT the Sure Way,

LEOPOLD (“SIR LASET”)

HOW TO JOIN A VIRTUAL CLASS

Here are the instructions on how to join the Virtual Classes:

How to Join Live Classes:

Other Info about the Class:

Important Rules for the Class:

VIRTUAL CLASS QUESTIONS

CYCLE 1: BASIC ALGEBRA

2. If a = 0.1, b = 0.2 and c = 0.12 then _______.

3. What is the average of -16, 4, 0, 8?

5. Which of the following is a natural number?

6. Solve for F: C = 5/9 (F – 32)

7. If ab = 5 and a2 + b2 = 25, then (a + b)2 = ________.

11. Divide (2p3 – 7p2 + 9) by (2p2 – p – 3).

12. Find the product of

13. Factor 81a6 – 24b9.

15. Solve for x in  5x – 12  = 3.

CYCLE 1: INTERMEDIATE ALGEBRA

1. Given the f and g are the functions defined by

3. Given f(x) = -x2 + x – 1 find f(0).

4. Find k so that x + 1 is a factor of f(x) = kx2 – 5x2 + kx + 11

5. What are the possible rational roots of 2x3 + rx2 +sx + 5 = 0?

6. Solve for x: logx81 = -2

7. Find the solution set of the equation: log2 (x + 4) - log2 (x – 3) = 3

8. Solve for x: log (x – 4) + log (x – 3) = log 30

10. Solve for x: 92x+1 = 27x-1

12. Solve the system: 3y = 4 – 6x

13. Find the solution set: x2 + y2 = 25

A. (3, 4) B. (-3, -4) C. (3, -4) D. (-3, 4)

15. Solve for x: | |

17. Find the sum of the first 15 odd numbers.

25. In tossing two dice, find the probability of a double or a sum of 4.

1. Which of the following statements is false?

2. Which of the following is the intersection of planes HIMN and JLMI?

12. What values of x and y make quadrilateral MNOP a parallelogram?

15. In the given figure, JN || KM , NM = x + 5, LM = 6x + 2, JK = 8, and JL = 24. Find the value of x.

20. What is the measure of ACB in the given figure?

24. What is the surface area of a sphere whose radius is 4 inches?

CYCLE 1: GENERAL SCIENCE

13. Which of the following is not a volcanic

2. Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of the cell membrane?

4. Which of the following buffer systems contributes to pH stability in human blood?

6. The following are stages in aerobic respiration EXCEPT

7. Which of the following statements about ribosomes is NOT correct?

8. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the stages of mitosis?

10. Which of the following characteristics of DNA is also a feature of RNA?

For number12, please refer to the phylogenetic tree given below:

13. Which of the characteristics of viruses makes them not “alive”?

18. The following are examples of associative learning in animals except

20. The following are unique to angiosperms except ________________.

21. Which is not a terrestrial biome?

22. Which is statement about the diagram is true?

23. Mushrooms belong to which trophic level?

The number of organisms stopped to increase after the _______ day.

7. Juan and Rosario are astronauts initially at rest floating in outer

15. The picture on the left shows that a

16. A magnet is dropped into a copper pipe. Which statement is a correct

20. Which diagram below best demonstrates diffraction of the wave?

22. Which arrangement of these forces is from weakest to strongest?

A. a-b-c-d B. d-c-b-a C. a-c-b-d D. a-d-b-c