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AIR LAW
1.Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
A) Annex 16
B) Annex 15
C) Annex 17
D) Annex 18
3. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A) Montreal
B) Chicago
C) Geneva
D) Rome
7. Where there is an amendment to an International Standard a State must give notice to:
8. According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make
flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for
non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following
flights:
9. The Paris Convention of 1919 defined the status of international airspace and gave the authority to
the Commander of the aeroplane to act in accordance with what law?
12. Which of the following concerning aviation, applies in areas where international law is applicable?
13. For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?
14. The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
A) Facilitations
B) Aerodromes
C) Operation of aircraft
D) Security
17. What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
A) The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
B) The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only
C) The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
D) Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to
Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO
A) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
convention
B) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
C) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
D) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses
A) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
B) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
C) It shall give 90 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
D) It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Rules of the Air over the high seas?
A) Montreal
B) New York
C) Paris
D) London
A) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non-
traffic purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission
B) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic
purposes without the necessity to obtain prior permission
C) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for traffic
purposes, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight
D) To make flights into or transit non-stop across another contracting state and make stops for non-
traffic purposes, however, prior permission must be obtained prior to the flight
25. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the
depositary governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
A) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
B) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
C) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
D) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed
26. Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?
A) The Council
B) The Secretary General of ICAO
C) The Air Navigation Commission
D) The President of the Assembly
27. Article 36 of the Chicago Convention is concerned with photographic apparatus in aircraft. What
rights does a state have with regard to article 36?
28. What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose
of public transport of passengers or cargo?
A) Follow the rules of the Air of the State that has issued the aircraft Certificate of airworthiness
B) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator
C) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying
D) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration
30. Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission
for adoption?
31. Who is responsible for the development and modifications of the SARPS:
32. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international
convention of:
A) The Hague
B) Montreal
C) Warsaw
D) Chicago
33. Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended
Practices (SARPS)?
34. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention deals with Licensing of Aircrew?
A) Annex 1
B) Annex 9
C) Annex 6
D) Annex 2
A) 10 years
B) 5 years
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C) 1 year
D) 3 years
36. Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to...
37. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air
carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the:
A) Hague Convention
B) Tokyo Convention
C) Warsaw Convention
D) Montreal Convention
38. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within 2 years, this time starts from:
A) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the carriage ceased
B) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the date on which the aircraft ought to have arrived,
or from the date on which the carriage ceased
C) The date of arrival at the destination, or from the time at which the aircraft ought to have arrived,
or from the date on which the carriage ceased
D) The date of arrival at the destination
39. The privilege for an airplane registered in one state and enroute to or from that state, to take on
passengers, mail and cargo in a second state and put them down in a third state is called:
41. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which
freedom of the Air will be exercised?
A) 4th freedom
B) 1st freedom
C) 3rd freedom
D) 2nd freedom
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42. The privilege to land in another ICAO participating State for technical reasons is called:
44. Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?
A) limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-à -vis passenger and goods transported
B) operator's license for international scheduled aviation
C) the security system at airports
D) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
46. Under the terms of the Tokyo convention of 1963, what is a contracting state required to do in the
event of an act of unlawful seizure occurring within the territory of that state?
A) Nothing
B) The responsibility of the state is limited to the safety of the passengers only
C) The responsibility rests with the Commander not the contracting state
D) The state shall take all appropriate measures to restore control of the aircraft to its lawful
Commander, or to preserve his control of the aircraft
A) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states
B) The right to land for a technical stop
C) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other
state
D) The right to overfly without landing
48. Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting
state:
A) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
B) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty
partner nations (B to C to D)
D) The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A)
51. The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Specifically
what was agreed with regard to passengers?
A) That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier
B) That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk
C) That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an agreed
sum
D) That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash
52. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom
of the air:
A) 3rd freedom
B) 1st freedom
C) 2nd freedom
D) 4th freedom
53. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the
State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to
an airworthy condition if:
A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred
B) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away
C) It receives permission of the State of Registry
D) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft
55. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is:
56. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying
or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?
A) To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state
B) To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state
C) To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a state
to another in the same state
D) To fly across the territory of another state without landing
59. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise
jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane?
A) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place
B) The State of the Operator
C) The Commander
D) The State of Registration
60. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?
61. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person
committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?
62. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the
accident that caused the damage:
A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger
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B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight
C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking
D) Took place on board the aircraft
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years
A) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
B) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more
treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
D) A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C
to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B)
66. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where
the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence?
A) Tokyo
B) Warsaw
C) Paris
D) Rome
67. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not
destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as?
68. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most
expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing
and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:
A) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the
aircraft and the ICAO
B) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the
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70. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
A) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of
refueling
B) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing
C) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas
D) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating
state
71. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third
parties on the surface?
72. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed
or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law...
73. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined?
74. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is
about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?
75. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for
persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
77. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties
on the ground, held?
A) Paris
B) Tokyo
C) Rome
D) Warsaw
78. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in
another state, which convention covers this?
A) Paris
B) Chicago
C) Rome
D) Tokyo
79. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by
an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as
provided by:
80. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the ground?
A) The Operator
B) The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the aerodrome
C) The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened
D) The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible
81. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to
ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion
prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:
82. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:
A) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy
B) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still
airworthy
C) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still
airworthy
D) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is
still airworthy
85. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:
A) aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or
mail in international air navigation
C) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
D) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers only
A) The Owner/Operator
B) The Commander
C) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation
D) The State of Registry
88. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the
Certificates of Airworthiness?
89. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
subject to the:
A) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with JAR
145
B) The continued registration of the aeroplane
C) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration
D) The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections
92. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?
A) It must be bomb-proof
B) It must be capable of being locked
C) It shall be inaccessible to passengers
D) It shall be made of fireproof material
A) Rotorcraft
B) Airship
C) Non-power driven
D) Lighter-than-air aircraft
94. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft?
A) Annex 7
B) Annex 6
C) Annex 14
D) Annex 11
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95. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces
of heavier than air aircraft shall be
A) at least 20 centimetres
B) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
C) at least 30 centimetres
D) at least 40 centimetres
A) TTT
B) RTB
C) LLL
D) YYY
97. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the
99. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example:
A) PAN
B) DDD
C) RCC
D) LLL
100. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters
and numbers and shall be that assigned by:
102. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane?
A) 25 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm
103. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration
Markings). These include:
104. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent or distress signals for example
A) DDD
B) RCC
C) LLL
D) XXX
105. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
A) RCC
B) LLL
C) TTT
D) FFF
A) Recommendations only
B) Standards only
C) SARPS
D) PANS
109. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity
of the authorization
A) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
B) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
C) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
D) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion
110. " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the
examiner may require" is the definition for a:
A) revalidation.
B) conversion.
C) proficiency check.
D) skill test.
111. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:
112. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____ aeroplanes shall
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _____.
A) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
C) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements
of IFR
115. With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state aircraft:
C) Customs aircraft
D) Military aircraft
A) the visibility along the runway which may be expected when approaching to land
B) the minimum horizontal visibility in any direction from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
C) the visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
D) the visibility along the runway which may be expected on take-off.
A) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of clouds and in sight of the surface
B) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
C) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of
IFR
A) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may
exist at specified times
B) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded
C) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which
flight of aircraft is prohibited
D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights
and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification
A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until it comes to rest after landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with the runway until they regain contact on landing
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C) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area to the time it comes to rest after
landing
D) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing
A) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome
B) All traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
C) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
D) Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit
125. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a
line forming an angle of less than:
A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after
landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with earth until they gain contact again on landing
C) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing
D) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area until it leaves the manoeuvring area
after landing
A) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric
conditions
B) The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
D) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted
objects by night
130. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?
A) The Owner
B) The Commander
C) The Authority
D) The Operator
131. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles
on the ground rests with:
133. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...
134. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to
bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in
approach, is:
A) Visual approach
B) Visual manoeuvring (circling)
C) Aerodrome traffic pattern
D) Contact approach
135. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?
A) Glide path
B) Go around / Missed Approach
C) Approach to landing
D) Final approach
136. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated
track is called a:
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A) Procedure turn
B) Reversal track
C) Base turn
D) Race track
A) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final
approach track centre line
B) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
final approach track centre line
C) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
initial approach track centre line
D) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localizer course and/or MLS initial
approach track centre line
139. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration
or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
A) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from
the VOR.
B) Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device.
C) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the
range from the TACAN element.
D) TACAN refined for missed approach positioning.
142. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision
approach. The result is then called:
A) DA
B) MDH
C) DH
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D) MDA
143. The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
A) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day
B) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing
C) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the
flight (block time)
D) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport
A) Dead reckoning
B) Distance error rectification
C) Departure end routing
D) Departure end of runway
approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
A) Descent rate
B) Departure end of runway
C) Dead end of runway
D) Direct entry routing
151. What is a STAR?
A) Standard arrival
B) Special terminal arrival
C) Supplementary terminal arrival
D) Standard instrument arrival
A) During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon
B) From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight
C) During the hours of darkness
D) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
155. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual
reference is known as the:
A) decision height
B) minimum descent altitude
C) decision altitude
D) minimum break-off altitude
158. Having filed a flight plan to a particular destination and having landed at another destination, you
should notify ATC:
159. A flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled in
the event of a delay. For controlled flights, this should be done in the event of a delay in excess of:
A) 60 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) None of the above is correct
D) 20 minutes
160. A landing aircraft is not normally permitted to cross the beginning of the runway on its final
approach until the preceding departing aircraft has:
161. What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under
radar control and established on intermediate and final approach?
A) ± 20KT
B) ± 25 KT
C) ± 15 KT
D) ± 10KT
162. Deviation from the TAS in the flight plan is to be reported to ATC. By how much would the TAS
have to deviate before it is reported?
A) 3%
B) 5%
C) 10 kts
D) 20 kts
163. When flying in advisory airspace and using an advisory service, separation is provided from:
164. In class D airspace the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight above FL 100 is:
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A) 8 km
B) 1500 ft
C) 1500 m
D) 5 km
165. FIS:
A) Provides advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
B) Provides control useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
C) Provides an aerodrome and approach control service for the efficient conduct of flight
D) Provides flight plan services for the safe and efficient conduct of flight
166. What should you reply when told " squawk 0412"
A) Code 0412
B) Wilco
C) Squawk 0412
D) Roger
A) a CTR
B) an area in which submission of a flight plan is not required
C) available at all times to VFR traffic
D) a CTA established to cover several major air traffic routes around one or more major aerodromes
168. To put " L" in the wake turbulence category box of an ATC flight plan what maximum weight
must the aircraft have?
A) 7 000 Kg
B) 20 000 Kg
C) 7 000 Lbs
D) 5 700 Kg
169. The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where
navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
A) 5 minutes
B) 6 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 3 minutes
170. Two aircraft are reporting over the same VOR, they should be separated by:
A) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz
B) Only by ATC units
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172. The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):
A) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights)
B) is 10 minutes
C) is 15 minutes
D) is 5 minutes
A) Fax
B) AFTN
C) Printed brochure
D) E-Mail
174. Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing charts:
A) Visibility minima
B) DME-frequencies
C) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
D) OCH or OCA
175. The ICAO document concerning the provision of the AIS is Annex... to the Convention on Civil
Aviation.
A) 7
B) 9
C) 15
D) 16
176. Geographical co-ordinates indicating latitude and longitude are expressed in terms of:
A) GPS-84
B) WGS-94
C) GPS-94
D) WGS-84
178. The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its
activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the
volcano level of colour code.
When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
A) GREEN
B) ORANGE
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C) YELLOW
D) RED
A) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
B) AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries
C) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
D) AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin
(PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries
A) MET
B) ENR
C) AGA
D) GEN
181. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?
182. " Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures.
185. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This consists
of two elements: A number, and a letter. What does the number relate to?
186. What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow
aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved on other exits thereby minimising runway
occupancy time?
187. The part of an aerodrome used for embarking and disembarking passengers, loading of cargo and
mail as well as the servicing of aircraft is called?
A) Stand
B) Ramp
C) Parking Bay
D) Apron
188. A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids
intended for operations down to:
189. " An area symmetrical about the extended runway centre line and adjacent to the end of the strip
primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the
runway" is the definition for:
A) Clearway
B) Stopway
C) None of the above
D) Runway end safety area
190. A runway may be contaminated by frozen water deposits. What are the three states of frozen
water reported by ATC?
191. For planning purposes, an aerodrome is categorised by aerodrome reference code. This code is
composed of two elements: a number and a letter. What does the number relate to?
193. Objects located beyond 15 km radius of the aerodrome are normally considered to be obstacles
in flight (enroute obstacles) if they exceed... in height.
A) 250 meters
B) 150 meters
C) 200 meters
D) 100 meters
194. " A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off" is the
definition for:
195. According with the " Aerodrome Reference Code" the " Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft
reference field length of:
A) 1 500 m
B) 1 600 m
C) 1 800 m and over.
D) 1 200 m
196. What does code element 2 of the aerodrome reference code refer to?
197. For an inbound aircraft, the PIC can be asked to provide which of the following:
A) 3 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
B) 3 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
C) 2 copies of the general declaration, 2 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
D) 2 copies of the general declaration, 3 copies of the cargo manifest, 2 copies of a simple stores list
A) Is liable to pay customs duty on all unused fuel and oil carried
B) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil and fuel remaining only
C) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty in regard to oil, fuel and hydraulic fluid
remaining only
D) Is admitted to that state temporarily free of customs duty
199. An aircraft arriving in the United Kingdom from the USA must land at:
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A) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
B) All aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft
C) Gliders shall give way to airships and balloons
D) Gliders do not give way to balloons
201. What is the minimum flight altitude permitted over towns and settlements and populated areas?
A) The altitude which permits the aircraft to land safely in the event of an engine failure
B) 1000 ft within a radius of 8 km
C) 500 ft
D) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft position
202. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air
Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or
minus:
A) 5%
B) 2%
C) 3%
D) 10 %
205. If the ground visibility is reported 1000 m, can a special VFR flight take off from an aerodrome in
a control zone?
A) Yes
B) Yes, provided the pilot remains in visual contact with the ground
C) No
D) Yes, provided the cloud ceiling is higher than 500 ft
206. Except when necessary for take-off or landing, a VFR flight over congested areas of cities, towns
or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons shall not be flown at a height less than
A) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft. from the aircraft
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B) 600 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 300 m from the aircraft
C) 300 m above the highest obstacle
D) 300 m above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
207. You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3,000ft. Your distance from the cloud
should be:
208. When flying under IFR, you experience total communications failure in conditions of no cloud and
unlimited visibility. What should you do?
A) Descend to en-route minimum sector altitude and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome
B) Proceed to destination under VFR
C) Continue under IFR and follow the filed flight plan
D) If able to maintain VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and then inform ATC
209. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft
flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
210. If the intention is to change from IFR to VFR at some point during flight, the letter... is to be
inserted in item... of the flight plan.
A) V, 8
B) I, 8
C) X, 6
D) Y, 8
211. Aerodrome control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an
aircraft on the ground, a red flashing light means:
212. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
213. A steady green light from aerodrome control to an aircraft on the ground means:
A) cleared to land
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A) Arms raised above the head with palms facing the pilot
B) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body, then clench fist
C) Arms pointing down with palms pointing inwards , moving arms inwards from extended. position
D) Right arm raised bent at elbow with thumb extended
216. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with
ATC instructions.
You should:
217. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to
bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in
approach, is:
218. As a rule, while establishing the departure procedures, the operator reckons that aeroplane has a
climb gradient of:
A) 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with
two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative
B) 3.3% with all engines operating
C) 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines
D) 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative
219. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning
onto the desired track?
220. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
221. Two aeroplanes are approaching to land on parallel runways on independent parallel approaches
and one drifts into the NTZ. What would the approach controller be required to do?
A) At 394ft AGL
B) Where the turn towards the IAF is made
C) At the point where the climb is established
D) Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
223. What is the minimum lateral limit of the approach area into a control zone from the centre of the
aerodrome in the direction from which approaches may be made?
A) +/- 5nm
B) +/- 10nm
C) +/- 20nm
D) +/- 15nm
225. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Fix (FAF) is set at a specified distance from the
threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
A) 9 km (5 nm)
B) 28 km (15 nm)
C) 38 km (20 nm)
D) 19 km (10 nm)
226. In a procedure turn (45° /180° ), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from
the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
A) 1 minute 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 1 minute 15 seconds
D) 2 minutes
227. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?
A) 350 ft
B) 250 ft
C) 200 ft
D) 125 ft
228. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures
B) The bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to
aeroplane categories
C) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed
approach procedures
D) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3° /s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or
missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed
flight tracks)
229. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations?
A) The NOZ is the aerodrome ground area where movement of aircraft does not interfere with landing
operations
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B) The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on
the localiser
C) Both A and B are correct
D) The NOZ is the airspace in the vicinity of the control tower where ILS operations are conducted
230. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure?
231. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a
sector of:
A) 10 NM
B) 25 NM
C) 30 NM
D) 15 NM
232. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below
the OCA?
A) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
B) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
C) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
D) When it seems possible to land
A) a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle
clearance is provided
B) the first part of the segment
C) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully
D) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate
minimum
234. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhead
the VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will you perform?
235. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound
leg?
A) 20°
B) 30°
C) 60°
D) 45°
236. In a holding pattern all turns should be made:
237. Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time?
A) Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time
B) No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance
C) No, where groundspeed is less than 65kts the outbound leg must be at least 2 NM long
D) Yes
238. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed
as:
241. When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the
situation by setting the transponder to:
A) 7000
B) 7500
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C) 7700
D) 7600
242. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
243. Which of the following is not considered when establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima?
244. Which of the following systems describes an abbreviated precision approach path indicator:
A) Twenty light units symmetrically disposed about the runway centre line in the form of two wing
bars of four light units each, with bisecting longitudinal lines of six lights
B) Ten light units arranged on one side of the runway in the form of a single wing bar of four light
units, with a bisecting longitudinal line of six lights
C) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp units normally located on the left side of the runway
unless it is physically impracticable to do so
D) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp units equally spaced and normally located on the left
side of the runway unless it is physically impracticable to do so
247. If runway centre line lights are installed on a runway with a length of 1800 m or more, they shall
have the following colours on the last 900 m:
A) White from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end
B) Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and white from 300 m to the runway end
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C) Alternate red and white from 900 m to 300 m and red from 300 m to the runway end
D) White from 900 m to 300 m and alternate red and white from 300 m to the runway end
A) The threshold
B) A temporary displaced threshold
C) 1000 ft from the end zone
D) A displaced threshold
252. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its length
above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds... and an aeronautical study indicates such lights
to be essential for the recognition of the object by... The lights shall be...
253. High intensity obstacle lights should be used to indicate the presence of an object if its length
above the level of the surrounding ground exceeds... and an aeronautical study indicates such lights
to be essential for the recognition of the object by... The lights shall be...
254. Rescue and fire fighting (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical
characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. This classification is based upon...
256. For a precision cat II/III approach lighting system, what colour are the side row barrettes of the
supplemental approach lighting in the inner segment?
A) Red
B) White
C) Green
D) Yellow
257. Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to:
258. The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State
shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State
of destination.
260. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
A) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as it stops engines where a person is fatally or seriously injured
B) Takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as all such persons have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured
C) Takes place between the time any passenger boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until
such time as all such passengers have disembarked where a person is fatally or seriously injured
D) Takes place between the time aircraft is in flight until such time as it lands where a person is fatally
or seriously injured
262. A situation in which apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft. To which emergency
phase does this situation correspond?
A) INCERFA
B) ALERFA
C) RESERFA
D) DETRESSFA
263. Which of the following statements describes the Uncertainty Phase (INCERFA)?
A) An aircraft which has been cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes of the ETA and
communication has not been re-established.
B) An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference.
C) An aircraft declares that the fuel remaining is insufficient to reach safety.
D) An aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of the ETA passed to ATC.
264. Which of the following statements describes the Distress Phase (DETRESFA)?
1. 121.500 MHz
2. 243.000 MHz
3. 2182 KHz
4. 406 MHz
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A) all of them
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only
266. The units responsible for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue service are:
267.A turboprop aeroplane is performing an over water flight, which takes it further than 340 NM
away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is
180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.
A) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.
B) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
C) Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
D) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
268. Whenever a distress signal and/or message or equivalent transmission is intercepted by the PIC
of an aircraft, he shall:
269. The ground - air visual code for: " REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is:
A) N
B) V
C) X
D) Y
270. What is the meaning of the following ground-air visual signal?
272. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?
A) The door must be capable of being unlocked from the cabin side because it is an emergency exit
from the aircraft
B) The door must be marked as an emergency access and be kept clear of obstructions at all times
C) The door must be made of a fire proof material
D) The door shall be lockable from the flight deck side only
273. Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator is informed
when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures can be taken.
A) The above statement is incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft operator are to be
informed.
B) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any passenger is the
subject of judicial proceedings.
C) Correct.
D) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state.
275. Where are aircraft that have been subjected to unlawful interference to be parked on an
aerodrome?
D) At a convenient position to allow special forces to storm the aircraft without alerting the terrorists
277. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole,
which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.
A) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are related
only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the runway and
taxiways
B) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next
48 hours.
C) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case
D) This is an irregularity in the operation; the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused by
necessary repair.
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
278. Having consumed a small amount of alcohol, the prudent pilot will not fly for a minimum of ...
hours
A) 24
B) 36
C) 12
D) 8
279. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the biological
rhythm, thus leading to reduced human performance?
A) Liveware - Software.
B) Liveware - Liveware.
C) Liveware - Hardware.
D) Liveware - Environment.
280. Oxygen is transported through the walls of the alveoli according to:
A) Henrys law.
B) Daltons law.
C) Boyles law.
D) the Diffusion law.
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281. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of interpretation by using
an old three- point altimeter?
A) Liveware - Software
B) Liveware - Hardware
C) Liveware - Environment
D) Liveware - Liveware
A) 1,2,4
B) 1,2
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 2, 3,4
284. Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of
suffering from hypoxia?
A) Up to 10-12.000 feet
B) Up to 18.000 feet
C) Up to 3.000 feet
D) Up to 21.000 feet
287. The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34.000 ft is:
A) 21%
B) 42%
C) 5%
D) 10,5%
A) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend ones knowledge
B) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of human and are
generally inescapable
C) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
D) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
A) take-off.
B) landing.
C) descent.
D) intermediate and final approach.
A) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only.
B) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents.
C) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general
aviation.
D) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been
involved has more than tripled since this date.
292. The term pilot error constitute a certain relative amount of main causes in air accidents. Which of
the following is correct?
A) Around 50 %
B) Around 70%
C) Around 95%
D) Around 20 %
293. The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual are related to an
interface mismatch between:
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A) Liveware - Software.
B) Liveware - Liveware.
C) Liveware - Hardware.
D) Liveware - Environment.
294. The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism):
294. Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:
295. Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the:
A) photosensitive cells.
B) crystalline lens.
C) eyeballs.
D) optic nerve.
A) the need for communication between crew members has been decreased.
B) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members.
C) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine relations.
D) it is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice versa.
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A) crew become less important and therefore crew numbers can be decreased
B) decrease in the size of cockpits
C) increase of situational awareness
D) computers are quicker to read
A) Hardware.
B) Human.
C) Harley-Davidson.
D) Health.
302. The most important requirement in the design of both displays and controls is:
A) ease of utilisation
B) positioning
C) accessibility
D) standardisation
303. In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and expertise can be
described as:
A) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do
B) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the
machine
C) the pilot has a sphere of expertise which is reduced to daily use of his skills
D) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither have a great deal of
confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system
304. Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies in conceptual
aspects of warning systems?
A) Liveware - Environment.
B) Liveware - Hardware.
C) Liveware - Liveware.
D) Liveware - Software.
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307.Which is true regarding the interaction between various elements of the SHEL model?
A) The liveware is the hub of the SHEL model; therefore the non-human components should be
adapted and matched to this central component.
B) Proficiency testing should be done on an individual basis to avoid SHEL element mismatch.
C) Temperature, pressure, humidity, noise and time of day can all be reflected in performance and
also in well being.
D) Information processing can be stimulated by mind sets and vigilance.
A) Symbols
B) Safety
C) Software
D) Signals and indications
310. With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism, we know that:
A) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resources.
B) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it
frees mental resources.
C) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources.
D) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resources.
A) 5 minutes upwards.
B) 30 - 60 seconds.
C) 10 - 15 seconds.
D) 3 - 4 minutes.
A) 90%.
B) 85%.
C) 65%.
D) 75%.
315. The pressure at 18 000 ft is lower than at sea level. How much lower is it approximately?
A) 1/2.
B) 1/3.
C) 1/4.
D) 75% of the pressure at sea level.
A) Plasma.
B) White blood cells.
C) Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.
D) Blood fat.
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A) 50.000 ft
B) 70.000 ft
C) 40.000 ft
D) 60.000 ft
A) 32 to 40 cycles a minute.
B) 12 to 16 cycles a minute.
C) 60 ti 100 cycles a minute
D) 20 to 30 cycles a minute
320. The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness).
It
A) climb.
B) turn.
C) spin.
D) descent.
322. The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere remains the same up to an approximate height of:
A) 70,000 ft
B) 20,000 ft
C) 10,000 ft
D) 40,000 ft
A) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given.
B) there are great differences between the two.
C) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10.000 ft.
D) cyanosis (blue colour of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia.
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324. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30 000 ft the first action of the pilot shall be:
326. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart
attack?
329. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon
dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
331. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?
A) Dizziness.
B) Lack of adaptation.
C) Lack of adaptation.
D) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
332. The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is
334. A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of which gas law?
A) Henrys law.
B) Daltons law.
C) Charles law.
D) Boyles law.
A) altitude hypoxia.
B) creeps.
C) decompression sickness.
D) bends.
336. A smoker of 20 cigarettes a day at height will suffer from Anaemic Hypoxia and will have a raised
carboxy- haemoglobin level of about 7%. He/she will start to suffer from Hypoxia approximately 4 -
5,000 ft below that of a non-smoker.
337. Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
A) 2,3,4
B) 1,2,3
C) 1,3,4
D) 1
338. The natural free run of the circadian rhythm of the human body is:
A) 26 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 25hours
D) 24 hours
339. A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes
340. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to:
A) glaucoma.
B) low blood pressure.
C) hypoxia.
D) hyperventilation.
A) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to transport oxygen.
B) too much carbon dioxide in the blood.
C) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases.
D) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air.
343. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25.000 ft?
A) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
B) About 30 seconds.
C) About 18 seconds.
D) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
A) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will seldom lead to a heart attack.
B) A heart infarct is the same as a heart attack.
C) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary vein.
D) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always lead to a heart attack.
A) 10%
B) 28%
C) 5%
D) 20%
A) Angina is a symptom of too high oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by enlarge
coronary arteries.
B) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the brain, usually caused by narrowing or
obstruction of the coronary artery.
C) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of the coronary artery.
D) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of lung alveoli.
351. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of
following answers is correct?
A) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression
sickness.
B) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
C) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise.
D) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.
A) 78.0%.
B) 20.94%.
C) 17%.
D) 78.08%.
A) 4 degrees.
B) 2 degrees.
C) 10 degrees.
D) 3 degrees.
A) 78.08%.
B) 20.94%.
C) 76%.
D) 21%.
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356. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
A) shortness of breath.
B) a reduction of red blood cells.
C) a decrease of acidity in the blood.
D) an improving resistance to hypoxia.
A) bluish skin.
B) increased respiration rate.
C) decreased heart rate.
D) impaired judgment and self criticism.
A) platelets.
B) blood plasma.
C) white blood cells.
D) red blood cells.
1. 40 - 60% is optimal,
2. Cabin humidity is normally approx 30%,
3. Dehydration will affect crew performance,
4. Humidity has no effect on crew performance,
260. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
A) Transport oxygen.
B) Fight infection.
C) Transport CO2, nutrients and hormones.
D) Clot blood.
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262. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output?
A) 5 litres a minute.
B) 7 litres a minute.
C) 6 litres a minute.
D) 8 litres a minute.
263. Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?
A) stratosphere.
B) troposphere.
C) mesosphere
D) mesosphere and troposphere.
266. Short-term acceleration is 1 second or less whereas long-term acceleration is over 1 seconds:
A) True.
B) False - the time is 20 seconds.
C) False - the time is 5 minutes.
D) False - the time is 1 minute.
A) 2 only.
B) 1 only.
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C) Neither.
D) 1 & 2.
268. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
A) Combating DCS.
B) Combating NIHL.
C) Thinning the blood.
D) Homeostasis.
A) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a
cabin pressure loss at high altitude.
B) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft.
C) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for peoples capabilities.
D) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18.000 ft.
A) stroke volume minus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
B) stroke volume divided by the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
C) stroke volume times the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
D) stroke volume plus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
274. With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is
about:
A) 8 liters/min.
B) 5 liters/min.
C) 6 liters/min.
D) 7 liters/min.
275. The chemical composition of the earths atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is:
A) depending on instruments.
B) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure.
C) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice.
D) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide.
A) diffusion.
B) hyperventilation.
C) hypoxia.
D) decompression sickness.
279. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following
symptoms:
A) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision.
B) blue finger-nails and lips.
C) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity.
D) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate.
280. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
A) hypoxia.
B) stress.
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A) nose.
B) eyes.
C) ears.
D) teeth.
A) the heart.
B) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels.
C) the intestines.
D) the lungs.
285. Where is the critical threshold at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal
zone? It starts at:
A) 38.000 ft
B) 25.000 ft.
C) 21.000 ft.
D) 18.000 ft.
287. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression:
288. When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia, short-term memory impairment starts at approximately:
A) 14,000 ft
B) 10,000 ft
C) 16,000 ft
D) 12,000 ft
A) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot
may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system).
B) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane.
C) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.
D) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger.
A) 90%.
B) 85%.
C) 75%.
D) 65%.
292. The pressure at 18 000 ft is lower than at sea level. How much lower is it approximately?
A) 40.000 ft
B) 50.000 ft
C) 60.000 ft
D) 70.000 ft
A) spin.
B) descent.
C) climb.
D) turn.
296. After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30 000 ft the first action of the pilot shall be:
298. What is the major factor in the general population which predisposes an individual to heart
attack?
301. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon
dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
303. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?
A) Lack of adaptation.
B) Lack of adaptation.
C) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
D) Dizziness.
304. The partial pressure of the respiratory gases within the pulmonary alveoli is
306. A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of which gas law?
A) Daltons law.
B) Charles law.
C) Boyles law.
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D) Henrys law.
A) decompression sickness.
B) creeps.
C) altitude hypoxia.
D) bends.
308. A smoker of 20 cigarettes a day at height will suffer from Anaemic Hypoxia and will have a raised
carboxy- haemoglobin level of about 7%. He/she will start to suffer from Hypoxia approximately 4 -
5,000 ft below that of a non-smoker.
A) False.
B) True.
C) Partly true.
D) Smoking has no effect on Hypoxia.
309. The natural free run of the circadian rhythm of the human body is:
A) 26 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 25hours
310. A healthy young subject should have the following lung volumes
311. Having given blood a pilot should see a doctor because of the increased susceptibility to:
312. What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25.000 ft?
A) About 30 seconds.
B) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds.
C) About 18 seconds.
D) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot.
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A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 28%
A) Angina is a symptom of too high oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by enlarge
coronary arteries.
B) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the brain, usually caused by narrowing or
obstruction of the coronary artery.
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C) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of the coronary artery.
D) Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle, usually caused by narrowing
or obstruction of lung alveoli.
320. Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of
following answers is correct?
A) 17%.
B) 78.0%.
C) 78.08%.
D) 20.94%.
A) 4 degrees.
B) 10 degrees.
C) 2 degrees.
D) 3 degrees.
A) 21%.
B) 76%.
C) 20.94%.
D) 78.08%.
324. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
A) shortness of breath.
B) an improving resistance to hypoxia.
C) a decrease of acidity in the blood.
D) a reduction of red blood cells.
A) bluish skin.
B) decreased heart rate.
C) increased respiration rate.
D) impaired judgment and self criticism.
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327. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
A) Dizziness, hypothermia.
B) Dull headache and bends.
C) Nausea and barotitis.
D) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
329. With a pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml, what is the cardiac output?
A) 6 litres a minute.
B) 7 litres a minute.
C) 8 litres a minute.
D) 5 litres a minute.
A) stratosphere.
B) mesosphere and troposphere.
C) mesosphere
D) troposphere.
332. Short-term acceleration is 1 second or less whereas long-term acceleration is over 1 seconds:
333. Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
A) Combating DCS.
B) Combating NIHL.
C) Thinning the blood.
D) Homeostasis.
A) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft.
B) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a
cabin pressure loss at high altitude.
C) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18.000 ft.
D) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for peoples capabilities.
A) stroke volume minus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
B) stroke volume times the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
C) stroke volume plus the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
D) stroke volume divided by the pulse rate and is normally 5.0 - 5.5 litres a minute.
339. The chemical composition of the earths atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is:
A) depending on instruments.
B) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking with a loud voice.
C) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure.
D) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide.
A) hypoxia.
B) diffusion.
C) hyperventilation.
D) decompression sickness.
343. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following
symptoms:
344. Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
A) hypoxia.
B) hyperventilation.
C) decompression sickness without having a decompression.
D) stress.
A) internal respiration serves for the gas exchange between environment and blood.
B) transport of oxygen in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.
C) transport of carbon dioxide in the blood is made by combination with haemoglobin.
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D) external respiration serves for the gas exchange between blood and tissue cells.
A) the intestines.
B) the heart.
C) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels.
D) the lungs.
348. To maintain sea level conditions at 25.000 ft, the percentage of oxygen breathing is:
A) 100%
B) 40%
C) 62%
D) 21%
349. What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression:
350. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration?
351. During a night flight at 10.000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has decreased. In this
case you can increase your acuity by:
A) a greater sensitivity.
B) a lesser sensitivity.
C) a greater selectivity.
D) a lesser selectivity.
A) Otoliths.
B) Cochlea.
C) Semi-circular canals.
D) Cortex.
A) relay on instruments.
B) descend.
C) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast.
D) look outside.
D) the eardrum.
365. Sound waves are transferred from the outer ear to the inner ear by:
367. Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual , can be caused by:
A) angular velocity.
B) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz.
C) acceleration along the longitudinal body axis.
D) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
B) Chemical only.
C) Electrical and hormonal.
D) Electrical and chemical.
A) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by his
Seat-of- the-Pants-Sense.
B) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions.
C) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs.
D) information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored.
A) adaptation.
B) depth perception.
C) binocular vision.
D) accommodation.
373. Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a Barotrauma of the middle ear
(aerotitis):
A) unaffected.
B) increased.
C) neutralised.
D) decreased.
376. The EEG trace during REM sleep is similar to that of an individual who is:
A) Unconscious.
B) Awake.
C) At rest.
D) In slow wave sleep.
377. A pilot has caught a cold. What may happen to his susceptibility to hypoxia:
A) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.
B) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
C) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
D) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.
379. A pilot should consult an Aviation Medicine specialist before donating blood because:
381. Approximately how many chunks of information can an average person process at one time:
A) ten.
B) three.
C) seven
D) one.
A) a feeling that the aircraft has started to pitch up when the aircraft decelerates, causing an
automatic attempt to push the nose down
B) a combined pitch up and banking sensations
C) a banking sensation due to disturbances in the fluid circulation in the inner ear
D) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates
A) sensory stimulation.
B) the recognition of information.
C) perception.
D) selective attention.
A) Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Deep
sleep is at one end, extreme panic the other. Both result in poor performance. Optimum arousal
and vigilance are obtained at the mid-point between the two.
B) Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-shaped curve. Both
result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and vigilance are obtained during low workload.
C) Optimum vigilance, in its most acute forms, is an extremely agitated condition. It is normally only
obtained in a state of panic or near panic.
D) Optimum arousal and vigilance are best obtained among two assertive crewmembers.
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390. What are the best visual cues for height during the round out?
391. If the pilot of an aircraft approaches a runway that is wider than normal, one of the possible
consequences could be that:
A) he would choose a visual touch down point too far into the runway.
B) the aircraft would touch down after he expects to.
C) he would flare at a too low altitude.
D) he would touch down with excess speed.
A) drug influence.
B) practice and experience.
C) innate mechanisms.
D) maturation.
A) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory.
B) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes.
C) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited.
D) because of the limitations of the sense organs.
396. Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pertaining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation
of actions.
397. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful
to:
A) 20 seconds
B) 1 hour
C) 5 minutes
D) a couple of days
400. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
A) about 30 items.
B) unlimited.
C) about 7 items.
D) very limited - only 3 items.
401. You are flying from London to Oslo as commander. One of your passengers suffers a heart attach
during flight, and the situation is life threatening for him. You evaluate the situation, and decide to
divert to Amsterdam. What type of behaviour is this, according to Jens Rasmussen?
A) coping behaviour.
B) rule based behaviour.
C) skill based behaviour.
D) knowledge based behaviour.
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404. You are carrying out a visual approach to a runway which slopes upwards away from the
touchdown end. What is the main risk in this case?
407. To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to:
408. Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they do not have to think up every time what
they have to do:
A) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by
improvisation.
B) this has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action.
C) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply
with.
D) this is dangerous for every situation is different.
A) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their
number.
B) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable
and are not much affected by changes in workload.
C) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element
to be carried out at the same time.
D) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress.
414. How effective communication is, depends heavily on ... (Select the most important factor.)
A) the workload.
B) the sender.
C) the influencing factors.
D) the receiver.
415. The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
A) activate a collective mental schema with respect to nonprocedural actions to be carried out.
B) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation.
C) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or difficult during the
flight.
D) define general planning of the flight plan.
A) Mental pressure.
B) Noise interference.
C) A procedures that is not user friendly.
D) Switches, controls or displays with poor design.
417. It will not happen to me, can be used as an example to illustrate which attitude?
A) Anti-authority.
B) Macho.
C) Resignation.
D) Invulnerability.
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419. If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the approach procedure,
and you encounter no unexpected or new problems you show:
A) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
B) Lowering of the blood pressure.
C) Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
D) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
423.The amount of sleep that will give maximum sleep credits without "wasted time" is:
A) 12 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 14 hours.
D) 10 hours.
424. In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms
require:
EXTRA QUESTION
428. The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
431. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall
transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
D) Transmitting blind.
A) 7600
B) 7500
C) 7700
D) 7200
A) PAN PAN PAN, aircraft identification, the intention of the person in command, heading, height,
position.
B) MAY DAY MAY DAY MAY DAY, heading, position, level, aircraft identification, the intention of the
person in command.
C) PAN PAN PAN (on 121,5 MHz). present position, heading aircraft, identification, the intention of the
person in command, the identification of the station being called.
D) PAN PAN PAN (on the frequency in use), name of station addressed, the nature of the urgency
condition, the intention of the person in command.
A) 8.33 MHz
B) 8.33 kHz
C) 25 MHz
D) 25 kHz
A) 700
B) 7500
C) 7600
D) 7700
A) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport.
B) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony.
C) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned
exclusively to medical transportation.
D) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land.
C) frequency in use.
D) frequency of the area control centre.
439. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:
A) Distress.
B) Mayday.
C) Pan Pan.
D) Urgency.
440. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress
condition. Which words shall this message include?
A) ...cancel distress.
B) ...MAYDAY, resuming normal operations.
C) ...distress condition terminated.
D) ...MAYDAY cancelled.
GOOD LUCK