Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws Assessment

Bhavesh Chandra Bhatt
Status : Pass
Assessment Date : 23-09-2019 19:49:42
(GMT+05:30)
Performance Level : Moderate
67.50 100.00
Your Total Assessment
Score Score
40.00
Cut-Off marks
(Pass Marks)
67.50 M
Your Performance
Percentage Category
This report helps you to achieve

your targets as per below stated
objectives:
Improve your conceptual
understanding
Address specific areas of
improvement personalized to you
/
Performance Categories
Based on the performance of the students, we have framed the following categories to place you in accordance with
your performance
Performance Category Definitions
Excellent
Outstanding level of performance indicates that the candidate has done excellent work and mastered the
concepts.
High
High level of performance indicates that the candidate has done above average work and mastered almost all the
concepts.
Moderate
Acceptable level of performance indicates that the candidate has done average work and has mastered many of
the concepts.
Low
Needs improvement in performance indicates that the candidate has done and mastered very few or none of the
concepts.
Performance Criteria
PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Excellent
RANGE 91% to 100% of Max Marks
PERFORMANCE CATEGORY High
PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Moderate
PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Low
RANGE Below 60% of Max Marks
Performance Category based on student marks
/
SECTION (GROUP) Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws (Jurisprudence
Interpretation and General Laws)
EXCELLENT 91.00 and above

STUDENTS WHO BELONG TO 91 TO 100 PERCENTAGE
GROUP
HIGH 81.00 to 90.00

STUDENTS WHO BELONG TO 81 TO 90 PERCENTAGE GROUP
MODERATE 61.00 to 80.00

LOW Below 60.00

STUDENTS WHO BELONG TO BELOW 60 PERCENTAGE
GROUP
ASSESSMENT Overall Score
EXCELLENT 91.00 and above

STUDENTS WHO BELONG TO 91 TO 100 PERCENTAGE
GROUP
HIGH 81.00 to 90.00

MODERATE 61.00 to 80.00

LOW Below and equal to 60.00

STUDENTS WHO BELONG TO BELOW 60 PERCENTAGE
GROUP
Where do you stand?
SECTION NAME Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws (Jurisprudence

SECTION SCORE 67.50 / 100.00
CATEGORY M
OVERALL Overall Score
OVERALL SCORE 67.50 / 100.00
PEFORMANCE CATEGORY M
Recommendations and Suggestions

1. Based on your overall scores:
Your overall score falls in the M category. Please avoid misconceptions and try to increase the speed of solving.
2. Based on your section-wise performance:
You seem to be strong in Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws. So it is suggested that you attempt
/
Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws section first
3. Some general suggestions to optimize your score:
The best performers plan and allocate equal time to each section.
Overall Performance Analysis

The below table shows section-wise analysis of marks scored by you, time spent by you, your percentage, your accuracy
and number of correct, incorrect, unanswered and marked for review questions.

MARKS SCORED BY YOU 67.50
TIME SPENT BY YOU (IN MINS) 58.75
YOUR SECTION PERCENTAGE 67.50%
YOUR SECTION ACCURACY 74.00%
TOTAL QUESTIONS 50
MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - TO ATTEMPT 50
QUESTIONS ATTEMPTED 50
CORRECT 37
INCORRECT 13
UNANSWERED 0
MARKED FOR REVIEW 0
/
SECTION (GROUP) OVERALL Total
MARKS SCORED BY YOU MARKS SCORED BY YOU 67.50
TIME SPENT BY YOU (IN MINS) TIME SPENT BY YOU (IN 58.75
MINS)
YOUR SECTION PERCENTAGE YOUR OVERALL 67.50%

PERCENTAGE
YOUR SECTION ACCURACY YOUR OVERALL 74.00%

ACCURACY
TOTAL QUESTIONS TOTAL QUESTIONS 50
MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - TO ATTEMPT MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - 50

TO ATTEMPT
QUESTIONS ATTEMPTED QUESTIONS ATTEMPTED 50
CORRECT CORRECT 37
INCORRECT INCORRECT 13
UNANSWERED UNANSWERED 0
MARKED FOR REVIEW MARKED FOR REVIEW 0
Note:The percentage (%) and accuracy below the prescribed values (60 %) are shown in red color
Below pie-chart shows section-wise percentage of marks scored.
Section-wise marks
Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws, 67.5
Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws
Impact of Incorrect Responses /

Below table provides the marks lost due to incorrect responses.
NUMBER OF INCORRECT RESPONSES 13
MARKS LOST DUE TO INCORRECT RESPONSES 6.5
TOTAL SCORE IF INCORRECT RESPONSES 74

WERE NOT MARKED
In order to attempt more accurately, consider the following suggestions while attempting the questions:
1. If you are not able to solve a question correctly or have doubts in your approach towards the solution, skip it for
later.
2. Quickly revise the steps for avoiding calculation or casual mistakes.
3. Avoid guesswork.
Overall Preparedness Analysis

The below table represents the percentage of correct questions achieved at the analysis level.
Conceptual errors, for which you would require more reading and understanding of concepts.
Minor or careless mistakes, for which you would require a more composed and calm approach towards solving the
question paper.
Time Management
Below table shows the time you spent in each section.

TIME SPENT (IN MINS) 58.75
OVERALL Total time spent
TOTAL TIME SPENT 58.75
Recommendations
1. It is essential for each aspirant to plan and schedule time for each section diligently. This is important to score well
in each section and ultimately meet the cut-off.
2. This will also help you in attempting all the questions in each section and hence not missing the opportunity to
score more.
Response Change Pattern

Below table provides the number of times you have changed your responses while answering the test and also the
nature of those response changes.
/
CORRECT TO INCORRECT 0
INCORRECT TO CORRECT 0
INCORRECT TO INCORRECT 0
CORRECT TO UNANSWERED 0
INCORRECT TO UNANSWERED 0
It is suggested that guesswork should be avoided for any type of response changes. It has been observed that more often
than not, guesswork leads to an incorrect response thereby inviting negative marks which in turn has an adverse effect
on the overall rank.
You must use your knowledge, observation and elimination skills to arrive at the correct answer.
Interpretation and Suggestions

1. Incorrect to incorrect response change:
You may need to work more on the concept level, in order to gain confidence.
2. Incorrect to correct response change:
At the first glance you were not very sure about the solution.
You must spend at least 1 minute per question and if you are not able to reach to the solution, you must revisit the
question to enhance your score.
Perform this response change only when you are confident or have spotted a mistake in the solution of your first
response.
3. Correct to incorrect response change:
You are not sure of the solution and have either applied a wrong concept or made a calculation mistake.
You need to practice more questions on the same concept.
4. Correct to unanswered response change:
You are not sure of the solution
You need to practice more questions on the same concept.
Perform this response change only when you are not confident of your solution.
You must try to spend at least 1 min before leaving it unanswered.
5. Incorrect to unanswered response change:
Your judgment of avoiding negative marks is right.
You must try to spend at least 1 min before leaving it unanswered.
Overview: Jurisprudence Interpretation and General

Laws
The below table provides your marks in Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws along with the average marks
scored by the others (students who cleared this assessment) and the marks scored by the topper.
/
MARKS SCORED BY YOU 67.50 / 100.00
YOUR SECTION PERCENTAGE 67.50%
YOUR SECTION ACCURACY 74.00%
TIME SPENT BY YOU (IN MINS) 58.75
Note:The percentage (%) and accuracy below the prescribed values (60%) are shown in red color
Question wise Analysis
Correct, 37
Marked for Review, 0

UnAnswered, 0
InCorrect, 13
Correct InCorrect UnAnswered Marked for Review
Performance Analysis: Jurisprudence Interpretation

and General Laws
1. The below table analyzes your performance at question level
2. It highlights conceptually strong and improvement areas within the section and areas that require reinforcement of
concepts.
3. The accuracy of the response to each question and time spent are correlated and interpreted in terms of expert advice
on preparedness level.
Question wise details

Please click on question to view detailed analysis
= Not Evaluated = Evaluated = Correct = Incorrect

= Not Attempted = Marked for Review = Answered = Correct Option /
= Your Option
Question Details
Q1. According to the provisions of the RTI Act, if the interests of a third party are involved in
information sought for, the maximum time limit to decide whether the information is to be
provided or not is
Response : 1 Status : Answered
Options :
1. 30 days
2. 40 days
3. 45 days
4. 60 days
Timespent (in sec): 133 Correct to Incorrect: 0 Incorrect to Correct: 0 Incorrect to Incorrect: 0
Correct to unanswered: 0 Incorrect to unanswered: 0
Q2. A person arrested by a police officer may be kept in custody for:
Options :
1. Two days
2. Three days
3. Twenty four hours
4. One week

Q3. On receipt of petition for winding up, National Company Law Tribunal may: I. dismiss the
petition with or without costs; II. make any interim order as it thinks fit; III. appoint a
provisional liquidator of the company till the making of a winding up order, IV. make an order for
the winding up of the company with or without costs
Options :
1. Only I and III

2. Only II and IV
3. Only I, II and IV
4. All of the above
/
Q4. Information Technology Act, 2000amended various sections of which of the following
Acts?
Options :
1. Indian Penal Code 1860
2. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934
3. Indian Evidence Act 1872 & Bankers Book Evidence Act 1891
4. All of the above

Q5. True or False I. The principles of natural justice ensure fair hearing. II. It requires
unbiased judge to decide after hearing all parties.
Options :
1. Both I and II are true.
2. Both I and II are false.
3. I is true, but II is false.
4. I is false, but II is true.

Q6. The Tribunals (NCLT& NCLAT) have power to punish for contempt:
Options :
1. True
2. False
3. In some cases only
4. Can’t say

/
Q7. Point out incorrect response under Cr. P.C.:
Options :
1. Inquiry is conducted by the Court

2. Inquiry is conducted after framing of charge
3. Inquiry is conducted prior of framing of charge
4. Inquiry is conducted by the Magistrate
Q8. True or False : I. Libel is a representation made in some permanent form, e.g. written
words, pictures, caricatures, cinema films, effigy, statue and recorded words. II. Slander is the
publication of a defamatory statement in a transient form; statement of temporary nature such
as spoken words, or gestures. III. Generally, the punishment for libel is more severe than for
slander.
Options :
1. Only I is true
2. Only I and II are true
3. Only II and III are true
4. All of the above are true
Q9. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “Social engineering” which means:
Options :
1. Greatest happiness to greatest number of people

2. Balancing of competing interests in society
3. Changes in the concepts and function of the state
4. That law has its source in the general consciousness

/
Q10. True or False: I. A person, of his own motion can bring it to the Collector’s notice that his
instrument is not duly stamped. In such cases, if the Collector is satisfied, that the omission to
pay the proper duty was due to accident, mistake or urgent necessity, he may receive the deficit
amount and certify by endorsement on the instrument that the proper duty has been levied. II. In
order to avail of the benefit of this section, the instrument must be produced before the Collector
within three year of the date of its execution. Where the instrument is brought to the notice of the
Collector beyond the period of three year, it must be accompanied by an application explaining
the reasons for the delay.
Options :

2. Both I and II are false
3. I is true and II is false
4. I is false and II is true

Q11. Rule of mischief is known as?
Options :
1. Heydon rule
2. Ejusdem generis
3. Noscitur a Sociis
4. a and b are true.

Q12. The State Information Commission shall consist of —
Options :
1. One Chief Information Commissioner, one Additional Chief Information Commissioner and not more
than eight Information Commissioners
2. One Chief Information Commissioner, one Deputy Chief Information Commissioner and not more
than ten Information Commissioners
3. One Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners
4. One Chief Information Commissioner and not more than six Information Commissioners.
/
Q13. The expression ‘so deemed to include’ in the definition:
Options :
1. Implies a reference to discretionary power

2. Implies legal fiction
3. Authorises alternative power
4. All of the above

Q14. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the
administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ?
Options :
1. Art 352
2. Art 343
3. Art 356
4. Art 83
Q15. Section 17(2) of the Registration Act, 1908 carves out an exception to
Options :
1. Section 17(l)(a)
2. Section 17(l)(b)
3. Section 17(l)(d)
4. All of the above
/
Q16. 18. Which section grants the authority to the Central/State Public Information Officer to
reject a request for information where such request would involve an infringement of
copyright?
Options :
1. Section 8
2. Section 9
3. Section 10
4. Section 11

Q17. Period of limitation for suits relating to movable property under the Limitation Act, 1963
Options :
1. 3 years
2. 1 year to 3 years
3. 1 year
4. 12 years.

Q18. The period of limitation for a suit, to redeem or recover possession of immovable
property mortgaged, by a mortgagor, is
Options :
1. 12 years
2. 30 years
3. 6 years
4. 3 years.

/
Q19. Which of the following is not a required element in establishing a negligence action?
Options :
1. Breach of duty
2. Malicious intent on the part of the defendant
3. Duty of care
4. Causation of damage of a legally recognised type

Q20. For conspiracy, the minimum number of persons required is
Options :
1. One
2. Five
3. Two
4. None of the above
Q21. Chose the incorrect option.

The following are the ingredients of the offence of criminal Breach of trust:
Options :
1. The trust for which a property is entrusted must always be in furtherance of any lawful object.
2. The person entrusted with the property dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of
any direction of law or any legal contract prescribing the discharge of such trust.
3. The person entrusted with the property dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that
property.
4. A person must have been entrusted with property or with any dominion over property.
/
Q22. An arbitral award
Options :
1. Has to be in writing but need not be signed
2. Has to be in writing and signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
3. May be oral
4. Either (a) or (b) or (c).

Q23. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant
Options :
1. Under section 5 of Evidence Act
4. Under section 8 of Evidence Act.
Q24. Which of the following Articles limits the powers of the Rajya Sabha with respect to
Money Bills:
Options :
1. Article 107
2. Article 108
3. Article 109
4. Article 110

/
Q25. Which section of IPC defines Criminal breach of trust:
Options :
1. Section 404 of IPC


Q26. The enforcement of a foreign award may be refused if:
Options :
1. The party against whom the award is invoked was not given proper notice of the appointment of the
arbitrator
2. Enforcement of the award‘ would be contrary to the public policy of India
4. Both (a) and (b).
Q27. 20. Time limit prescribed for the disposal of first appeal under the RTI Act is:
Options :
1. 10 - 15 days
2. 30 - 45 days
3. 50 - 65 days
4. 70 - 90 days

/
Q28. Who defined a law as "a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligence being by an
intelligence being having power over him"?
Options :
1. Bentham
2. Austin
3. Salmond
4. Ihring

Q29. Which of the following is incorrect?
Options :
1. The Stamp Act looks to the substance and effect of the text of the instrument and not the physical
medium through which it is recorded.
2. An instrument is duly stamped if it has been duly stamped at the time of execution and is admissible
in evidence, though the stamp is subsequently removed or lost.
3. A will is intended to operate only on death, while a settlement operates immediately.
4. If one carries through a purchase and sale without an instrument, then the Indian Stamp Act
imputes a value in order to levy stamp duty.
Q30. National Company Law Tribunal is a:
Options :
1. Quasi-judicial body
2. Judicial body
3. Administrative body
4. Court

/
Q31. Under a single, integrated, hierarchical judicial system, the High Court in the states are
directly under the
Options :
1. President
2. Union Parliament
3. Governor of the state
4. Supreme Court

Q32. Which of the following sentence may be passed by a Magistrate of second class?
Options :
1. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
2. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
3. Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months
4. Only a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees

Q33. 13. Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) shall be appointed for a term of _____years
from date on which he enters his office or till he attains the age of _____ years, whichever is
earlier
Options :
1. 6 years / 66 years
2. 5 years/ 70 years

/
Q34. The arbitral tribunal may by order terminate the arbitral proceedings when:
Options :
1. When parties have mutually agreed to seek termination of arbitral proceedings
2. When the claimant withdraws his disputed case and which is not objected by the respondent
3. When the arbitral Tribunal thinks it is impossible to continue proceedings
4. All of the above

Q35. Section 3 Limitation Act does not apply to
Options :
1. Suits
2. Appeals
3. Application
4. Execution.
Q36. True or False. I. Article 300 of the Constitution declares that the Government of India
cannot be sued for tortuous liability.; II. Article 300 of the Constitution declares that the
Government of India or of a State may be sued for the tortious acts of its servants. III. The liability
of the Centre or a State is co-terminus with that of the Dominion of India or a corresponding
Province before the Constitution of India came into force.
Options :
1. Only I is true
2. Only II is true
3. II is true, III is false
4. II and III are true.

/
Q37. True or False : I. Every instrument written upon paper stamped with an impressed
stamp shall be written in such manner that the stamp may appear on the face of the
instrument and cannot be used for or applied to any other instrument. II. No second instrument
chargeable with duty shall be written upon piece of stamp paper upon which an instrument
chargeable with duty has already been written. Chose the correct option:
Options :
1. Only I is true
2. Only II is true
4. Neither I nor II is true.

Q38. Choose the correct option:
Of all the doctrines that are of fundamental importance in criminal jurisprudence, the rule is
that:
Options :
1. A man is presumed innocent until he is proved guilty and that the benefit of all reasonable doubts
must be given to the accused.
2. Whenever a case is brought within the four corners of a statute, the burden lies upon the accused to
prove that the act was done innocently and not intentionally or negligently.
3. Whenever the prosecution alleges the commission of a crime and prima facie establishes the guilt of
the accused the burden lies upon the defence to disprove the prosecution story.
4. Where the evidence adduced by the accused fails to satisfy the court affirmatively of the existence of
circumstances bringing the case within the general exception pleaded, the accused shall not be
entitled to acquittal in any circumstance whatsoever.

Q39. The request for the correction or interpretation of the award by the arbitral Tribunal has
to be made by the party:
Options :
1. Within sixty days
2. Within thirty days
3. Within ninety days

Correct to unanswered: 0 Incorrect to unanswered: 0 /
Q40. Which of the following is not a “Receipt” as per Indian Stamps Act:
Options :
1. any note, memorandum or writing whereby any money or any bill of exchange, cheque or
promissory note is acknowledged to have been received;
2. any note, memorandum or writing whereby any other movable property is acknowledged to have
been received in satisfaction of a debt;
3. any note, memorandum or writing whereby any debt or demand, or any part of a debt or demand is
acknowledged to have been satisfied or discharged;
4. An ordinary cash memo issued by a shopkeeper or another person selling the goods or other
merchandise.

Q41. The arbitral tribunal has the jurisdiction to
Options :
1. Award interest on the whole or part of the money

2. Award interest on the whole of the money only
3. Award interest on part of the money only
4. Either (b) or (c).

Q42. The provisions of section 3 of the Limitation Act are
Options :
1. Mandatory
2. Directory
3. Discretionary
4. Optional.

/
Q43. Which of the following is incorrect:
Options :
1. Section 6 of the Indian Stamp Act covers cases where the instrument does not cover distinct matters
but is ambiguous in regard to the various entries given in Schedule-I to the Act.
2. As per Section 8A of the Indian Stamp Act —an issuer, by the issue of securities to one or more
depositories shall, in respect of such issue, be chargeable with duty on the total amount of security
issued by it and such securities need to be stamped.
3. Section 9 of the Indian Stamp Act empowers the Government, (Central or the State as the case may
be), to reduce or remit, whether prospectively, or retrospectively, the duties payable on any
instrument or class of instruments or in favour of particular class of persons or members of such
class.
4. The object of section 24 of the Indian Stamp Act is that, upon every purchase ad valorem duty has to
be paid on the entire consideration which either directly or indirectly represents the value of the free
and unencumbered corpus of the subject matter of the sale.

Q44. Which of the following is false in the context of rule of ‘Beneficial Construction’:
Options :
1. Beneficent construction involves giving the widest meaning possible to the statutes.
2. When there are two or more possible ways of interpreting a section or a word, the meaning which
gives relief and protects the benefits which are purported to be given by the legislation, should be
chosen.
3. Although beneficial legislation does receive liberal interpretation, the courts try to remain within the
scheme and not extend the benefit to those not covered by the scheme.
4. In case of any exception when the implementation of the beneficent act is restricted, the Court
would construe it liberally so as to expand the scope of exception.

/
Q45. An Ordinance promulgated by the President of India or Governor of a State will
automatically cease to have effect at the expiry of _______ if it is not laid before the Parliament
or State Legislature when it reassembled.
Options :
1. Two weeks
2. Four weeks
3. Eight weeks
4. Six weeks

Q46. Which of the following does not come under ‘subject matter bias’?
Options :
1. Pecuniary bias
2. Departmental bias
3. Acting under dictation
4. Prior utterances

Q47. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in which of the following?
Options :
1. Part-IV A
2. Part-IV
3. Part-III
4. In schedule IV-A

/
Q48. Which of the following is incorrect:
Options :
1. ‘Tribunal’ is a judicial body established for the purpose of discharging quasi-judicial duties.
2. An Administrative Tribunal is neither entirely a Court nor entirely an executive body.
3. An authority may be described as a quasi-judicial authority when it possesses certain attributes or
trappings of a ‘court’, but not all.
4. The exigencies of the situation proclaiming the enforcement of new rights in the wake of escalating
State activities and furtherance of the demands of justice have led to the establishment of Tribunals.

Q49. Which of the following is incorrect about ‘instrument’ as per Section 2(14) of the Indian
Stamp Act, 1899?
Options :
1. “Instrument” includes every document by which any right or liability is, or purports to be, created,
transferred, limited, extended, extinguished or recorded.
2. The definition is an inclusive one.
3. The definition is an exhaustive one.
4. An instrument includes conveyances, leases, mortgages, promissory notes and wills, but not
ordinary letters or memoranda or accounts.

Q50. The Constitution of India is:
Options :
1. Federal
2. Unitary
3. Quasi-federal (Federal with unitary features)
4. a creation of the Parliament.

Your Response Change Pattern: Jurisprudence

Interpretation and General Laws
The below table provides the number of times you have changed your responses to the Jurisprudence Interpretation
and General Laws questions and also the nature of those response changes. /
CORRECT TO INCORRECT 0
INCORRECT TO CORRECT 0
INCORRECT TO INCORRECT 0
CORRECT TO UNANSWERED 0
INCORRECT TO UNANSWERED 0
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This report helps you to achieve

Performance Category Deﬁnitions

PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Excellent

RANGE 91% to 100% of Max Marks

PERFORMANCE CATEGORY High

RANGE 81% to 90% of Max Marks

PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Moderate

RANGE 61% to 80% of Max Marks

PERFORMANCE CATEGORY Low

RANGE Below 60% of Max Marks

Performance Category based on student marks

EXCELLENT 91.00 and above

HIGH 81.00 to 90.00

MODERATE 61.00 to 80.00

LOW Below 60.00

ASSESSMENT Overall Score

EXCELLENT 91.00 and above

HIGH 81.00 to 90.00

MODERATE 61.00 to 80.00

LOW Below and equal to 60.00

Where do you stand?

SECTION NAME Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws (Jurisprudence

SECTION SCORE 67.50 / 100.00

OVERALL Overall Score

OVERALL SCORE 67.50 / 100.00

Recommendations and Suggestions

Overall Performance Analysis

SECTION (GROUP) Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws (Jurisprudence

MARKS SCORED BY YOU 67.50

TIME SPENT BY YOU (IN MINS) 58.75

YOUR SECTION PERCENTAGE 67.50%

YOUR SECTION ACCURACY 74.00%

MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - TO ATTEMPT 50

MARKED FOR REVIEW 0

MARKS SCORED BY YOU MARKS SCORED BY YOU 67.50

YOUR SECTION PERCENTAGE YOUR OVERALL 67.50%

YOUR SECTION ACCURACY YOUR OVERALL 74.00%

TOTAL QUESTIONS TOTAL QUESTIONS 50

MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - TO ATTEMPT MAX NO OF QUESTIONS - 50

QUESTIONS ATTEMPTED QUESTIONS ATTEMPTED 50

MARKED FOR REVIEW MARKED FOR REVIEW 0

Below pie-chart shows section-wise percentage of marks scored.

Jurisprudence Interpretation and General Laws, 67.5