Regd.

Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018)
(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class VII)

Time : 2 Hrs.
Test Booklet Code : A
Max.Marks : 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and the answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 in the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12.    
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, the candidate should check
that Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018 Sample Paper

SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :

1. The bob of a pendulum of given length is first 3. When current in a fuse wire, connected in a circuit,
released from position A and then from position B exceeds its safe limit
as shown. The ratio of its time periods in the first (1) Fuse wire continues absorbing extra current
case and the second case will be (2) Fuse causes the wires to come in direct
contact
(3) Fuse blows off and breaks the circuit
(4) Fire is caused in the electrical appliances
4. Select the correct relation between speed, distance
A
and time.
(mean B
position) Speed
(1) Distance =
Time
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (2) Distance = Speed × Time

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 Time

(3) Distance =
Speed
2. In the shown diagram, the reading of the
thermometer is correctly read by the person 1
(4) Distance =
Speed × Time
D
5. The rear view device in a car is actually a

(1) Plane mirror (2) Convex mirror

A (3) Concave mirror (4) Convex lens

6. For the simple pendulum shown below, one

B oscillation is said to be completed for the path
traced as

A C
B
(1) A – B – C
(2) A – B – C – B
(1) A (2) B (3) A – B – C – B – A
(3) C (4) D (4) A – B – C – B – A – B

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018

7. A prism splits incident sunlight into _______ 10. Mark the incorrect statement among the following.
colours. (1) Speed of an object is given by the distance
travelled by it per unit time
(2) A nano second is one billionth of a second
(3) The motion in a straight line is called uniform
motion
(4) An oscillating simple pendulum undergoes
periodic motion
(1) Five (2) Seven 11. A person driving a car observes the readings of its
(3) Eight (4) Nine odometer in a time gap of 15 minutes to be
36580 km and 36590 km. The average speed of the
8. If a person tries to blow a paper ball into a bottle
car in this time period is
as shown in figure, the ball
(1) 10 km/h (2) 40 km/h
Bottle (3) 20 km/h (4) 5 km/h
12. Sea breeze blows during
(1) Moves in as air near the mouth has higher (1) Day (2) Night
speed
(3) Winters only (4) Summers only
(2) Moves in as air inside the bottle has low
13. High speed winds blow away weak roofs because
pressure
(1) Pressure below the roofs decreases
(3) Stays there as pressure inside and outside the
bottle becomes equal (2) Pressure above the roofs increases
(4) Is pushed out as the air pressure inside (3) Pressure above the roofs decreases
becomes higher than that near the mouth (4) Pressure difference becomes zero
9. Select the correct way of connecting three cells to
14. The centre of a cyclone is a region of
make a battery
(1) Low pressure
+ + +
(2) High pressure
(1)
– – –
(3) High temperature
+ +
(4) Low temperature
(2)
– – 15. The instrument used to measure wind speed is
called
+ +

(3) (1) Odometer

– –
(2) Speedometer
+
(3) Anemometer
(4)
– (4) Barometer

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018 Sample Paper

16. Which of the following can be rubbed on skin to 22. The stages in the life history of silk moth are shown
neutralise the effect of an acid released during an below. Stage d and e respectively are
ant bite?
(i) Zinc carbonate solution
(ii) Baking soda solution
(iii) Vinegar solution (a) Male (b) Female
(1) Only (i) (2) (ii) & (iii) Adult silk moth
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) Only (iii)
17. If 900 mL of water takes 30 minutes to percolate
in the soil then the rate of percolation is
(1) 2700 mL/min (2) 0.03 min/mL (c) Eggs on mulberry leaves (d) ?

(3) 90 mL/min (4) 30 mL/min

18. Which of the following soils is suitable to cultivate
cotton crop? (e) ? (f) Cocoon with developing moth
(1) Clayey soil (2) Loamy clay
(1) Cocoon, silkworm (2) Moth, cocoon
(3) Sandy loam (4) Clayey loam (3) Cocoon, moth (4) Silkworm, cocoon
19. The process of depositing a layer of zinc on iron 23. Often the stains of curry turn red on washing
is called clothes with soap. This change in colour occurs
(1) Crystallisation (2) Rusting because indicator X turns red in basic medium.
Indicator X is
(3) Galvanisation (4) Neutralisation
(1) Methyl orange (2) Litmus
20. Ram took 50 mL HCl and 50 mL NaOH in separate
(3) Phenolphthalein (4) Turmeric
beakers and mixed them in a container. What will
happen? 24. The gas produced when vinegar is added to baking
soda solution is
(1) Heat will be released
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Oxygen
(2) Heat will be absorbed (3) Hydrogen (4) Sulphur dioxide
(3) No change will take place 25. Read the statements carefully and choose the
(4) Chlorine gas will be evolved correct option.
Statement-1 : Water is essential for all living
21. On adding an iron blade in the blue coloured
beings.
solution of copper sulphate the colour of the
solution becomes Statment-2 : The water which is fit for domestic
use is sea water.
(1) Dirty green
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Red (2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Black (3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Yellow (4) Only statement-2 is correct

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018

26. Which of the following solutions is not basic in 33. In the given sketch diagram, 'X' and 'Y' are blood
nature? vessels. 'X' carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
(1) Lime water solution and 'Y' carries oxygenated blood to the heart.
(2) Baking soda solution Identify 'X' and 'Y'.
(3) Common salt solution Lungs
(4) Milk of magnesia solution
27. Sericulture is 'X' 'Y'
(1) Sheep rearing (2) Bee keeping
(3) Fish culture (4) Silk worm rearing
Heart
28. Which of the following is not a physical change?
(1) Conversion of water into vapours X Y
(2) Souring of milk (1) Aorta Vena cava
(3) Dissolution of sugar in water (2) Vena cava Aorta
(4) Freezing of water (3) Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein
29. Consider the following statements. (4) Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery
I. Burning is a chemical change
34.
II. Burning is always accompanied by production
of heat
Choose the correct option.
(1) Statement I is correct, statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct The mode of reproduction shown in the diagram is
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (1) Spore formation
30. The sheared skin of sheep is thoroughly washed in (2) Budding
tanks to remove grease, dust and dirt and the
(3) Fragmentation
process is called
(4) Vegetative propagation
(1) Scouring (2) Sorting
(3) Spinning (4) Shearing 35. The lime water turns milky when a gas 'X' is
passed through it. Gas 'X' is
31. An animal has two thick layers of fur and a thick
layer of fat under its skin. This animal is adapted (1) CO2 (2) O2
to live in (3) CO (4) Water vapour
(1) Grass lands (2) Tropical rainforests 36. Seeds of how many plant(s) given in the box is/are
(3) Hot and dry climate (4) Polar regions dispersed by wind?
32. We feel choking sensation, when food particles
enter the Coconut, Drumstick, Xanthium, Grass, Maple

(1) Windpipe (2) Foodpipe (1) One (2) Two

(3) Mouth (4) Stomach (3) Three (4) Four

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018 Sample Paper

37. In lichens, 'X' provides shelter, water and minerals 41. Select the incorrect statement.
to 'Y' which in return, provides food to 'X'. Identify (1) Xylem and phloem are the two vascular tissues
'X' and 'Y'.
(2) Transpiration helps in cooling of the plant
(1) 'X' – Alga and 'Y' – Fungus
(3) The transpiration creates a suction pull that helps
(2) 'X' – Bacterium and 'Y' – Alga in upward movement of water through xylem
(3) 'X' – Fungus and 'Y' – Alga (4) The evaporation of water occurs through alveoli
present on the surface of roots
(4) 'X' – Virus and 'Y' – Fungus
42. During inhalation, which of the following conditions
38. Which of the following features of elephants help
occur?
them to survive in the rainforests?
(a) Ribs move up
(i) Sharp eyesight
(ii) Large ears (b) Ribs move down

(iii) Strong sense of smell (c) Diaphragm moves up

(iv) Presence of tusks (d) Diaphragm moves down
(1) (ii) and (iv) (e) Chest cavity increases
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (f) Chest cavity decreases
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(1) a, f and c (2) d, b and e
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) a, d and e (4) c, b and f
39. Match the following.
43. Carbon dioxide + Water  Carbohydrate + Energy
Column I Column II Which of the following are required for the above
reaction to occur?
a. RBCs (i) Clotting of blood
(1) Oxygen and nitrogen
b. WBCs (ii) Fluid part of the blood
(2) Chlorophyll and nitrogen
c. Platelets (iii) Fight germs
(3) Chlorophyll and sunlight
d. Plasma (iv) Transport oxygen
(4) Sunlight and nitrogen
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii) & d(i)
44. The secretion of largest digestive gland of the body
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i) & d(ii) which plays an important role in the digestion of
fats is stored in
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii) & d(iii)
(1) Gall bladder (2) Pancreas
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i) & d(ii)
(3) Liver (4) Stomach
40. The urine in the body is transferred from kidney to
45. Which of the following animals release uric acid as
the organ P by tube like structures Q. P and Q are
waste product from their body?
(1) Urinary bladder and Ureters, respectively
(1) Lizards and birds
(2) Gall bladder and Urethra, respectively (2) Humans and fish
(3) Urinary bladder and Urethra, respectively (3) Fish and snakes
(4) Air bladder and Ureters, respectively (4) Frog and fish

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018

MATHEMATICS
46. Order of rotational symmetry of alphabet H is 55. If for the given data : 21, 25, 36, 48, 92, 64, 17,
(1) 1 (2) 2 19 and 28, the median is M1 and on replacing one
observation 21 by 46, the median becomes M2,
(3) 3 (4) 4 then the difference between M1 and M2 is
47. On the number line, the value of (–7) × (–7) lies on (1) 7 (2) 10
left hand side of
(3) 12 (4) 8
(1) 0 (2) –7
56. How many non-zero digits will be there to the right
(3) 48 (4) 100 of the decimal point in the product of 0.225 and
48. The median of set of numbers : 13, 19, 8, 5, 14 is 0.0024?
(1) 8 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 13 (4) 14 (3) 6 (4) 7
49. 731 × (–7)11 is equal to 57. Sonam is 25 years younger than Anil. After 15
years, if the ratio of Sonam's age to Anil's age
(1) 720 (2) –720
would be 2 : 3, then the sum of the present ages
(3) 742 (4) –742 of Sonam and Anil is
50. 159x3y + 38yx3 is a like term of (1) 60 years (2) 95 years
(1) 10xy (2) 138xy3 (3) 65 years (4) 80 years
(3) 159yx3 (4) 13x2y2 58. In the given ABC, ABD = 40º, AB = BC and
51. The circumference of a circle of diameter 3.5 cm AD is the bisector of BAC. The measure of
is ADC is
(1) 22 cm (2) 11 cm A
22
(3) cm (4) 21 cm
7
52. Which of the following is not a criterion for
congruence of two triangles?
(1) SSS (2) SAS 40º
B D C
(3) ASA (4) SSA (1) 40º (2) 60º
53. A shopkeeper sells a bat, whose marked price is
(3) 100º (4) 75º
` 30 at a discount of 15% and gives a ball costing
` 1.50 free with each bat. If the shopkeeper still 59. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus and COBE
makes a profit of 20%, then the cost price of the is a rectangle. Which of the following is incorrect?
bat is A B
(1) ` 32.15 (2) ` 25.25
(3) ` 19.75 (4) ` 18.75 O E
54. In a triangle ABC, if AB = 6 cm, A = 30º and
B = 100º, then it can be constructed using D C
(1) SSA criterion (2) SAS criterion (1) AOD CEB (2) DOA CEB
(3) ASA criterion (4) RHS criterion (3) AOD COD (4) AOD COB

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018 Sample Paper

60. A sphere has _____ edges. 67. If 27 trousers of equal size can be made from
(1) 2 (2) 1 954 m of cloth, then the length of cloth required for
each trouser is
(3) 0 (4) 3
61. Which of the following equations has 4 as its 106 107
(1) m (2) m
solution? 3 5

x 158 97
(1) +1= 4 (2) 2x + 1 = 7 (3) m (4) m
2 7 3

3x 68. Which of the following is correct?

(3) 4x – 9 = 7 (4) −5 = 2
4
0 10
(1)  10 (2) 0
62. If two complementary angles are in the ratio 3 : 2, 10 0
then the larger of them is
10 0 0
(1) 48º (2) 63º (3)  (4) 0
0 10 10
(3) 54º (4) 72º 9
63. 35a3b3 – 23a3b3 is equal to 69. Simple interest on a certain amount is of the
16
(1) 58 (2) 12 principal. If the numbers representing the rate of
interest (in percent) and time (in years) be equal,
(3) 58a3b3 (4) 12a3b3
then the rate of interest is
64. If the arithmetic mean of 12, 14, x and 10 is 11,
then the value of x is 1 1
(1) 2 % (2) 7 %
7 2
(1) 6 (2) 16
3 3
(3) 8 (4) 10 (3) 7 % (4) 5 %
5 7
65. In the given figure, the value of p is
70. Subtracting 8% of x from x is equivalent to
multiplying x by how much?
C
p (1) 0.0092
E
53º (2) 0.092
F
(3) 0.92
35º 115º (4) 0.0952
A B D G
71. "Sum of two integers is less than both the
(1) 135º (2) 65º integers". This is possible only when
(3) 153º (4) 27º (1) Both are positive integers
66. If the mean of 5 numbers is 13.6 and on excluding (2) Both are negative integers
one number, the mean becomes 13, then the
excluded number is (3) Larger number is negative and smaller is
positive
(1) 15 (2) 16
(4) Smaller number is negative and larger is
(3) 17 (4) 18 positive

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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018

72. An elevator descends into a mine shaft at the rate 78. Rohan deposited `25000 in two accounts. He
7 m/minute If the descend starts from 15 m above deposited some amount in saving account at
the ground level, then the time taken by it to reach simple interest at 6% per annum and remaining
307 m below the ground is amount in fixed deposit at 12% per annum simple
interest. If he gets `5700 as total interest after
(1) 46 minutes (2) 45 minutes 2 years, then the amount he deposited in fixed
(3) 44 minutes (4) 43 minutes deposit is
73. The perimeter and area of a parallelogram with (1) `22500
equal sides is 36 cm and 90 cm2 respectively. Its (2) `15000
altitude is
(3) `10000
(1) 7 cm (2) 8 cm (4) `12500
(3) 9 cm (4) 10 cm 79. The next number in the pattern –74, –47, –20 is
74. If in PQR, M is a point on the side QR, then (1) 27 (2) 20
which of the following is true? (3) 7 (4) 12
(1) PQ + QR + RP < 2PM −8 −7 11 4
⎛2⎞ ⎛3⎞ ⎛5⎞ ⎛3⎞
(2) PQ + QR + RP = 2PM 80. The value of ⎜ ⎟  ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ × ⎜ ⎟ is
⎝7⎠ ⎝7⎠ ⎝2⎠ ⎝5⎠
(3) PQ + QR + RP > 2PM
(1) 23 × 33 × 5–7 × 7
(4) PQ + QR + RP  2PM
75. If in PQR, altitudes QM and RN are equal, then (2) 2–19 × 311 × 5–7 × 72
the given triangle will always be
(3) 2–19 × 311 × 57 × 7
(1) Isosceles (2) Scalene
(3) Equilateral (4) Non-determinable (4) 211 × 3–19 × 5 × 715

76. The diameter of a wheel of a car is 70 cm. To 1

travel 6600 m, the number of revolutions it will make 81. A ribbon of length 6 m is cut into small pieces
4
is 5
each of length m. The number of such pieces
(1) 2000 (2) 3000 4
will be
(3) 2500 (4) 3500
(1) 5 (2) 7
77. In the given figure, the value of 'x' is
(3) 8 (4) 9
A B
73°
82. A coin is tossed 12 times and the outcomes are
recorded as : HHTHTHTTHTHH
x C
The probability of occurrence of a head is

46° 5 1
D E (1) (2)
12 2
(1) 118º (2) 120º 7 1
(3) (4)
(3) 121º (4) 119º 12 3

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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018 Sample Paper

83. In the given figure, O is the mid-point of both PR 15% of 30% of 600%
87. is equal to
and QS. Which of the following is always true? 27  100

P S (1) 0.01% (2) 0.3%

2 3 (3) 0.06% (4) 1%
O 88. In the given figure, BAD_______

4 A 3.4 cm
1 D
45º
Q R
(1) 2 = 3 (2) 1 = 4

(3) 2 = 4 (4) 1 = 2

84. If 3n + 3 – 3n + 2 + 3n + 1 – 3n = k × 3n, then the

45º
value of k is B C
3.4 cm
(1) 22 (2) 24 (1) DBC (2) DCB

(3) 20 (4) 32 (3) BDC (4) ADC

85. In standard form, the number 864305.9 is written 89. In the given figure, if l || m, then the value of x is
as 8.643059 × 10n, where n is equal to

(1) 3 (2) 6 l
(3) 5 (4) 4 95º

86. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of side

m
8 cm. The area of the shaded region is
2 cm 135º
A B x

2 cm 2 cm
(1) 45º (2) 50º
(3) 57º (4) 60º
D C
2 cm
3 1– p ⎞ 3
90. If  7 p – 1 – ⎛⎜ 2p – ⎟  p  2 , then the value
(1) 36 cm2 4 ⎝ 2 ⎠
of p is
(2) 44 cm2
8
(3) 48 cm2 (1) –8 (2)
3
(4) 32 cm2 (3) 1 (4) –3

  
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 Test Booklet Code: A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Admission-cum-Scholarship Test
Test
(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads & Class VIII-2018)

Answers

1. (3) 19. (3) 37. (3) 55. (4) 73. (4)

2. (2) 20. (1) 38. (2) 56. (2) 74. (3)
3. (3) 21. (1) 39. (4) 57. (2) 75. (1)
4. (2) 22. (4) 40. (1) 58. (4) 76. (2)
5. (2) 23. (4) 41. (4) 59. (1) 77. (4)
6. (3) 24 (1) 42. (3) 60. (3) 78. (1)
7. (2) 25. (3) 43. (3) 61. (3) 79. (3)
8. (4) 26. (3) 44. (1) 62. (3) 80. (3)
9. (3) 27. (4) 45. (1) 63. (4) 81. (1)
10. (3) 28. (2) 46. (2) 64. (3) 82. (3)
11. (2) 29. (3) 47. (4) 65. (3) 83. (3)
12. (1) 30. (1) 48. (3) 66. (2) 84. (3)
13. (3) 31. (4) 49. (4) 67. (1) 85. (3)
14. (1) 32. (1) 50. (3) 68. (4) 86. (1)
15. (3) 33. (3) 51. (2) 69. (2) 87. (1)
16. (3) 34. (3) 52. (4) 70. (3) 88. (2)
17. (4) 35. (1) 53. (3) 71. (2) 89. (2)
18. (3) 36. (3) 54. (3) 72. (1) 90. (3)