2020. 4. 19.

Study Stack - Immunology final Table Review

Immunology/serology nal
Question Answer
Which class of immunoglobulins possesses 10 antigen IgM
sites?
Which class of immunoglobulins binds to basophils and
mast cells to mediate immediate hypersensitivity IgE
reactions?
What is the predominant type of antibody found in the Maternal IgG
serum of neonates born after full term gestation?
HLA antigens are found on? All nucleated cells
After exposure to antigen, the rst antibodies that can be IgM
detected belong to the class:
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by? Hybridomas
Which class of antibody, referred to as incomplete
antibody, is able to agglutinate RBC's after anti-human IgG
globulin is added?
Which of the following immunoglobulins is most IgA
prevalent in secretions?
Which of the following factors are associated with Advanced age, Poor nutrition, Inability to
declining levels of immunity? cope, Alcoholism
Which of the following cells is associated with cell- T-Lymphocytes
mediated immunity?
Another name for antibody-mediated immunity is: Humoral
Speci c antigenic determinants of the antibody that
processes a unique structure on the variable portion of Idiotypic
light and heavy chains?
Genetically different individuals are referred to as? Allogenic
Which of the following characteristics is not true of an IgM antibodies predominate
anamnestic response compared to a primary response?
Which type of antibody is capable of placental transfer? IgG
Engineered to bind to a single speci c cell,
Which is true about monoclonal antibodies? puri ed antibodies, cloned from a single cell,
used to classify and identify speci c cellular
membrane characteristics
The principal type of leukocyte in the process of
phagocytosis is he: Neutrophil
A primary function of the eosinophil is? Suppression of the in ammatory response
The host defense functions of monocytes/macropages Secretion of biologically active molecules,
includes? antigen presentation, phagocytosis
Are associated with anaphylactic shock,
Which statement about basophils is True have high concentrations of heprin and
histamine in granules
Defective mobilization Diabetes
Defect in bactericidal ability of neutrophils Myeloperoxidase de ciency
Failure to exhibit increased anaerobic metabolism during
phagocytosis Chronic granulomatous disease
Defect in cellular response to chemotaxis Chediak-Higashi Anomaly
Which is the correct order of action regarding Chemotaxis, adherence, engulfment,
phagocytosis digestion
T cell lymphocytes gain maturity in the thymus orginating true
from bone marrow progenitor cells
Which of the following Are secondary lymphoid tissues? GALT, Filtration & drainage system, thoracic
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duct
8-cell differentiation CD4
Cytotoxic T cells CD8
Macrophage APC
The term "pentameric" refers to an immunoglobulin
false
molecule involved in secondary response
Severe combined immunode ciency
syndrome, a disease usually affecting
SCIDS refers to?
babies, results in early death, and results in
numerous infections
Humoral immune response, production of
What is true regarding B lymphocytes
immunoglobulins, activation, secretion
Immune status of an individual,
Factors the in uence the development of an infectious Pathogenicity of the agent, Incidence of an
disease include all of the following: organism in the population
Varicella-zoster virus can be reactivated in all the
following: Aids, Elderly, Compromised
For an infectious disease to develop in a host, the Penetrate the skin or mucous membrane
organism must initially...: barrier
Why is phagocytosis Not an effective device for human They are able to migrate away from the
immunity when the body is fending of f a parasite? phagocyte
The best diagnostic protocol for determining the stage of Testing MULTIPLE specimens during the
infection the patient is in, involves: course of the disease
Rising titer during testing of paired specimens is an
indication of increasing severity of the disease
What type of B cells are formed after antigen
stimulation? Plasma cells and memory B cells
Which T cell expresses the CD8 marker and acts T cytotoxic
speci cally to kill tumors or virally infected cells?
Which of the following antigens is classi ed as an MHC HLA-DR
class II antigen?
Soluble mediators of the immune system generally refers Complement
to the________ cascade proteins
Which of the following is the primary major protein C3
involved in the complement cascade proteins?
The main function of C3 convertase is? Cleavage of the C3 molecule resulting in
C3b
The controlling event of the alternate complement Factor H prvention of association between
pathway is? C3b and factor B
The radioallergosorbent test (RAST): Uses antigen speci c IgE Antibody
Following course of an immune complex
The CH50 assay is useful for? disease, screening genetic de ciencies of te
complement system, the diagnosis of
hereditary angio-neurotic edema
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) has replased Creates a hazardous waste problem
radioimmunoassay (RIA) because RIA:
In radial immunodiffusion (RID), speci c_______ are added Antibodies
to the buffered agarose medium:
Radial immunodiffusion (RID) measures______ at the Diameter or precipitation
optimal point of diffusion.
DNA can be ampli ed by: "in vitro" ampli cation and cloning
Faster turn around time, smaller specimen
The advantages of molecular testing include: volume, increased speci city
The clinical application of the analysis of ampli cation Genetic testing, hematopathology diagnosis
products includes: and monitoring, and Identi cation of
infectious agents
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Reverse transcriptase PCR applications include HIV and HCV

identi cation of :
Ampli cation of nucleic acid fragments from a different Multiplex PCR
target is performed with :
Steps in the enzymatic process of the PCR cycle: DNA denaturation, Primer anneling,
Extension of the primed DNA sequence
The important applications of PCR include all the Ampli cation of DNA, detection of genetic
following: mutations, synthesis of a labeled anti-sense
probe
The rst phase of aggultination and a representative of
the physical attachment of antibody molecules to Sensitization
antigens on the RBC membrane refer to...:
Serum protein Elecetrophoresis separates proteins into: Albumen and Globulin Fractions
Ampli es low levels of DNA, Two short DNA
All the following are true regarding PCR: primers are used, oligonucleotides act as a
template
Current uses of cell cytometry use: four monoclonal antibodies directly
conjugated to a distinct uorochrome
In nephelometry measurement, a______method is used: Fixed time
A disadvantage of nephelometry is lipemic must be rejected and a new
specimen must be obtained
A fundamental prerequisite for nephelometric protein Formation of a macromolecular complex
quantitation is:
Which of the following is correct regrading measurement Light is scattered at an angle that is
of turbidity? determined
A nephelometric immunoassay is an example of a: competitive immunoassay
Latex particles act as _____ in nephelometry? Antigen-coated reaction intensi ers
An Antigen passively attached to red blood cells are Indirect hemagglutination testing
bound by antibodies is called:
The amount of antigen and antibody binding in latex pH, ionic concentration of solvent, and
aggultination procedures is in uenced by Osmolarity
The force of attraction between an antibody and a single af nity
antigenic determinant is:
The chemical binds of importance in aggulation reactions Ionic bonds, hydrophobic binds, and
are hydrogen bonds
The "Lattice hypothesis" states that an optimal reaction Antigen and antibody are present in
occurs between antigen and antibody when: approximately equal proportions.
The strength of an aggulutination reaction can be Centerfugation, the use of albumin, and the
enhanced by: use of low-ionic-strength saline
A reaction between soluble antigen, soluble antibody and Agglutination
particulate antigen is the de nition of?
Monoclonal IgE leads to Short, thick arcs in the antigen well
Diagnosed as IEP, Single clone of plasma produces
increased levels of single class and type of Monoclonal gammopathy
immunoglobulin(Ig)
a malignancy, Multiple myeloma, and
Monoclonal gammopathies can be observed in: macroglobulemia
The immunoelectrophoresius of a normal serum typically
Normal concentrations of IgD and IgE are
depicts IgM, IgG, and IgA bands, but IgD and IgE bands too low to be detected.
are missing because:
Monoclonal IgM bands are: Skewed arcs of a circle
In IEP, When a favorable antigen ratio is reached, the Bands, lines, and a line representing one
antigen-antibody complex becomes visible as: speci c protein
structural abnormalities and concentration
IEP is a reliable and accurate method for detecting changes in protein
Evaluation of abnormal precipitin band can include Any deviation of position and shape of
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assessing? precipitin bands

Monoclonal IgA gammopathy has a distinctive Antibody position of band precipitin
immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) feature of:
To be used in the enzyme immunoassay (EIA), an enzyme A high amount of stability and extreme
must have speci city
The use of recombinant DNA technology, the detection
of hematophathologic and oncogenic chromosomal FISH tecnology
abnormalities
Automated DNA sequences, DNA probe technology and
Magnetic labeling application
gel electrophoresis are used by:
The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) method can be used for Anti-IgM Anti-HBc, IgM and IgG of Borrelia
burgdorferi, and cytomegalovirus (CMV)
analysis of: IgG and IgM antibodies
Indirect immuno uorescent assay (IFA) is widely used for Autoantibodies, antibody to tissue antigen,
detection of and antibody to cellular antigen
An advantage of enzyme immunoassay (EIA) compared to
radioimmunoassay (RIA) is: No radioactive hazardous waste
Which of the following is an undesirable characteristic of
High cross-reactivity
antibodies used in enzyme immunoassay
In competitive immunoassay, the amount of light
emmitted for measurement____as the concentration of decreases, increases
the analyte being measured_____?
The complement component found in the all of the C3
pathways is
The rst acute phase reactant to become
Which of the following characteristics is representative elevated, nonspeci c indicators of
of C-reactive protein in ammation, C-RP is an acute phase
reactant
The measurement of C-reactive Protein can NOT be used
for: Diagnosis of viral septicemia
Recognition by complement factor C1 of
The classic complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes on the cell
surface
Components of the bacterial cell surface in
The alternate complement pathway is activated by:
the absence of antigen-antibody
Factor H acts by competing with _______for the same Factor B
binding site in complement reactivity
Immune status of the individual, Incidence
Factors that in uence the development of an infectious
disease include: of an organism int he population, and the
pathogenesis of the agent.
The detection of _____ can be diagnostic signi cance
during the rst exposure of a patient to an infectious IgM
agent.
A distinguishing characteristic of the herpes viruses is cell associated and humans are the only
that they are known reservoir of infection
Strp pyogenes is the most common causative agent of all
the following disorders and complications Pharyngitis, scarlet fever, and impetigo
Long term complications pf S pyogens infection can Acute rheumatic fever and Rheumatoid
include Arthritis
A CLT is writing the SOP for VDRL. Under which section
would they include info regarding checking the number
Quality control
of drops from the needle used to dispense the antigen
reagent?
Dark eld microscopy may be performed during which
stage of syphilis? Primary is organism is present

What does TORCH stand for: Toxoplasmosis, other lab tests, Rubella,
CMV, Herpes

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2020. 4. 19. Study Stack - Immunology final Table Review

The following is true regarding S. agalactiae Is usually isolated in the blood, is

responsible for increased mortality
especially in neonates, and Pts w/
underlying complications are particularly
susceptible
Congenital syphilis may involve which of the following as Nerve deafness, Hutchinson's teeth,
the child develops? Hutchinsonian triad
Increased presence of a false negative in a test method
involves decreased level of...: sensitivity
Inactivation of complement for the FTA procedure
involves heat treatment at ____degrees C for 56 degrees for 30 minutes
_____minutes.
Two-fold increase in dilution from tube to
The term "double dilutions" refers to: tube
HLA antigens are found on All nucleated cells
Toxoplasma- infected mothers who are not treated can congenitally infected infant
give birth to a (n):
The type of immunity that follows the injection of
antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is passive
termed
Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridomas
Which of the following infectious diseases is usually
diagnosed by an antigen detection test rather then an Cryptococcosis
antibody detection test?
The ability of a virus to invade a human body is
dependent MOST on Cellular replication
What disease is associated with Varicella Zoster virus Shingles
The presence of the "M protein" is a major virulence GAS (group A strep)
factor for which organism?
Requires the presence of Hep B, May
Which of the following applies to Hepatitis D involve co-infections and super infections
Lyme disease is caused by a _____ Spirochete
What type of B cells are formed after antigen stimulation Memory cells and Plasma cells
The detection of precipitation reaction depends on the
presence of maximal proportions of antigen and
antibody. A pt's sample contains a large amount of Prozone phenomenon
antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing
antigen is negative. What has happened?
What comprises the indicator system in an ELISA for Enzyme-conjugated antibody+ chromogenic
detecting antibody? substrate
What is the titer in tube number 8 if tube number 1 is 128
undiluted and dilutions are doubled
What substance is detected by the rapid plasma reagin
(RPR) and venereal disease research Laboratory (VDRL) Reagin
tests for syphilis?
What type of antigen is used in the RPR card test? Cardiolipin
A 12 year old girl has symptoms of fatigue and a localized
lymphadenopathy. Lab test reveal a peripheral blood
lymphocytosis with a atypical (reactive) lymphocytes, and EBV speci c antigen test
a positive spot test for IM. What test should be
performed next?
Which test is most likely to be positive in the tertiary
FTA-ABS
stage of syphilis?
Which specimen is the sample of choice to evaluate CSF
latent or tertiary syphilis?
What is the most likely explanatin when antibody tests Patient is in "WINDOW" phase before
for HIV are negative but a NAT test for HIV is positive? antibody production
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Which hep B marker is the best indicator of early acute HBsAg

infection?
If only anti-HBs is positive, which of the following can be
Chronic hep B virus infection
ruled out?
In monitoring an HIV- infected patient, which parameter
may be expected to be the most SENSITIVE indicator of HIV viral load
the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment?
The risk of fetal anomalies in maternal rubella is highest rst month
at the :
Which of the fololowing is a symptom of an in ammatory
condition? Pain, redness, burning, and swelling
Which of the following are enzyme markers useful in AST,ALT,ALP,LD
identifying HEP diseases?
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by: Activattion of complement and Antigen
cross-links with IgE on mast cells
Contact sensitivity, Elimination of tumor
Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for: cells bearing neoantigens, and the Rejection
of foreign tissue graft.
Cell mediated Delayed hyper sensitivity
Antibody mediated Immediate hyper sensitivity
Dependent on the host response to a subsequent
exposure of antigen Immunization, or sensitization
Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction Anaphylactoid reaction
The major growth factor for multiple myeloma cells is: IL-6.
Which laboratory assay has been adopted as a prognostic
indicator in multiple myeloma? β2-microglobulin
Patients with multiple myeloma (MM) have defects in humoral immunity; cellular immunity
_____ but not in _____.
A. Incessant synthesis of a dysfunctional
single monoclonal protein. B. Incessant
The most consistent immunologic feature of multiple synthesis of immunoglobulin chains of
myeloma (MM) is:
fragments. C. Suppression of the synthesis
of normal functional antibody.
What is the M component in a monoclonal gammopathy? Monoclonal antibody or cell line
Greater than10% plasma cells in the bone
The diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) depends on: marrow.
Fill in the blanks, choosing the correct
temperature.Bence Jones (BJ) proteins are soluble at
room temperature, become insoluble near (1) _______, and 60° C and 80° C
then resolubilize at (2) ________.
Benign or malignant condition that results from a single
clone of lymphoid-plasma cells producing elevated levels Monoclonal gammopathy
of a single class and type of immunoglobulin
Condition characterized by the elevation of two or more Polyclonal gammopathy
immunoglobulins by several clones of plasma cells
Decreased tolerance to “self” antigens. autoimmunity
Which of the following disorders is considered to be
"organ nonspeci c"? Systemic lupus erythematosus
Antigens that do not normally circulate in
An individual may develop an autoimmune response to: the blood, Altered antigens, Loss of
immunoregulatory function by lymphocyte
subsets.
The basic immunologic mechanism responsible for Deposition of circulating immune
autoimmune disorders is related to: complexes.
Anti-DNA antibody is associated with: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
The etiology of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is: Immune destruction of B lymphocytes in
pancreatic islets.
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2020. 4. 19. Study Stack - Immunology final Table Review

Pernicious anemia is characterized by: De ciency of vitamin B12, Presence of

antiparietal antibodies, Presence of IF-
blocking antibodies.
Most immunologically mediated renal diseases fall into Association with circulating antigen.
one of the following categories except:
Measures antibody to nuclear antigens ANA
Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining Antineutrophil antibody
pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes
An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein Anti-Scl antibody
Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia Anti parietal cell antibody
A condition called the _____________ syndrome can be antiphospholipid
secondary to lupus and may complicate pregnancy.
SLE is more common in: Adult women.
The presence of ANAs, Circulating
Laboratory features of SLE include: anticoagulant and immune complexes,
Decreased levels of complement.
Lack of generalized suppressor T-cell
A major cellular immunologic feature of SLE is: function, Reduction of generalized
suppressor T-cell function, Hyperproduction
of helper T cells.
What autoimmune disorder is indicated by an increased Systemic lupus erythematosus
titer of anti-Sm (anti-Smith) antibody?
The site of deposition of immune complexes in systemic Molecular con guration, Immunoglobulin
lupus erythematosus (SLE) is determined by: class, Complement- xing ability.
Many of the clinical manifestations of systemic lupus Tissue damage mediated by immune
erythematosus are a consequence of: complexes.
Can affect the skin, joints, and almost any organ or body Systemic
system, including the lungs, kidneys, heart, and brain
Always limited to the skin Discoid
Can be caused by procainamide Drug induced
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include true
anti–cyclic citrullinated peptide.
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include True
immune complexes.
Immunologic features of rheumatoid arthritis include True
antinuclear antibodies.
A. An infective agent or other stimulus that
Pathogenic mechanisms hypothesized for rheumatoid binds to receptors on dendritic cells (DCs)
arthritis (RA) include: and Activated T lymphocytes that
proliferate and migrate into the joint.
A biologic false-positive rheumatoid factor (RF) assay can Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),
be manifested by patients with: Hepatitis, Syphilis.
Class II transplant antigens are expressed on: B lymphocytes, Activated T lymphocytes,
and Macrophages.
Which of the following antigens is a MHC class II antigen? HLA-DQ and HLA-DR
Which of the following class of MHC antigens is
necessary for antigen recognition by CD4+ T Class II
lymphocytes?
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) D region
codes for _____ molecules. Class II
The most ef cient method of preventing graft-versus- Irradiating the blood components
host disease (GVHD) is: pretransfusion.
Graft between individuals of different species (e.g., pig Xenograft
heart valve to a human heart)
Graft transferred from one position to another in the
same individual (e.g., skin, hair, bone) Autograft

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Graft between genetically different recipient and donor Allograft

of the same species; the grafted donor tissue or organ
contains antigens not present in the recipient
Graft transplanted between different but identical
recipient and donor (e.g., kidney transplant between Syngraft
monozygous twins)
They are pluripotent, They are found in bone marrow and
peripheral circulating blood, and They contain precursor progenitor blood cells
cells to leukocytes and platelets.
Hematopoietic stem cells are: CD34+ cells.
Stem cell selection can be improved using the CD_______ 34+
cell surface marker.
Pretransplant evaluation of a bone marrow recipient HLA tissue typing, Disease status, and
includes: Compatibility of donor and recipient.
Infection and graft-versus-host disease
Complications of bone marrow or peripheral blood stem (GVHD), Acute rejection and organ damage,
cell (PBSC) transplantation include:
and Chronic rejection and death.
A major complication in patients with bone marrow (BM)
or peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) transplant during Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).
the rst month after transplantation is:
Stem cells from identical twins Syngeneic
Marrow from a related or unrelated donor Allogeneic
Transplant of own cells Autologous
Tumors are neoplasms. TRUE
Tumors can be described as benign or malignant. TRUE
Cell surface molecules coded for by tumorigenic viruses Tumor-associated antigens
Gene derepression is responsible for the production of Carcinofetal antigens
increased concentrations of these gene products
Chemically induced tumors Tumor-speci c antigens
Caused by no known mechanism Spontaneous tumor antigens

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