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Review of Preventive and Social Medicine

97. Number of (+) for tubercle bacilli if count in AFB 107. Sputum positive TB patients on chemotherapy should
be isolated at least for 
sample is > 10 per oil immersion fields? [Recent Question 2014]
[Recent Question 2013] (a) 2 weeks
(a) + (b) ++ (b) 3 weeks
(c) +++ (d) Scanty (c) 4 weeks
98. One TB infected person can infect how many people in 108. (d) 6 weeks
1 year? [Recent Question 2013] Contacts of Sputum positive tuberculosis patient who
(a) 20 (b) 30 should be given preventive chemotherapy
(c) 10 (d) 5 (a) Pregnant women [Recent Question 2014]
(b) Old people
99. Incidence of TB in a community measured by: (c) Children above 6 years
[DNB December 2011]
(d) Children below 6 years
(a) Sputum smear + [Recent Questions 2014]
(b) Tuberculin test +
(c) Sputum culture Review Questions
(d) Mantoux test +
100. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tu- 109. In(a) T.B/ a ‘case’ is”:
Cough (b) Sputum positive
[DNB 2001]
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

berculosis infection in a community is: [DNB 2007]

(c) Mantoux positive (d) X-ray positive
(a) Mass miniature radiography
(b) Sputum examination 110. National tuberculosis institute is situated at:
(c) Tuberculin test (a) Bombay [DNB 2003]
(d) Clinical examination (b) Calcutta
101. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in humans is (c)(d) Bangalore Delhi
most common because of: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Contact (b) Inhalation 111. Tuberculin unit is: [DNB 2003]
(c) Infiltration (d) Inoculation (a) 0.0001 mg
102. One of the following is known as Tuberculin Conver- (b) 1 unit of PPD RT3
(c) 0.1 mg BCG
sion Index: [NUPGET 2013]
(d) None of the above
(a) Incidence of infection
(b) Prevalence of infection 112. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of
(c) Incidence of disease tuberculosis infection in a community is?
(d) Prevalence of disease (a) Mass miniature radiography [DNB 2007]
(b) Sputum examination
103. Xpert MTB/RIF test is used to detect: [PGI May 2013] (c) Tuberculin test
(a) For assessing resistance to isoniazid
(d) Clinical examination
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant TB
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance 113. By WHO best criteria for TB diagnosis is:
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR TB (a) Sputum + ve [Bihar 2005]
(e) Diagnosis of TB (b) Chest pain
104. TB multidrug regimen is given to: (c)(d) X-ray Cough – 3 weeks
finding
[Recent Question 2013]
(a) Prevent resistance 114. A case of TB a/c to WHO is detected by: [Bihar 2005]
(b) Broad spectrum (a) Sputum exam
(c) Prevent side effects (b) Mass Miniature radiography
(d) None (c) Montoux test
105. Sputum positive TB is: [DNB June 2009] (d) Elisa
(a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve 115. True about tuberculosis-: [MP 2000]
(b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve (a) >10 bacilli are required in sputum for detection
4

(c) BACTEC +ve (b) Mantoux test can differentiate between BCG and in-
(d) Mantoux test positive fection
106. Tuberculin positive means: [DNB June 2011] (c) Can be grown on ordinary culture media
(a) Immunodeficient patient (d) Drug sensitivity is tested by schick test
(b) Resistance to tuberculin protein
(c) Patient is infected with mycobacterium
116. In tuberculosis combination of Antimicrobials is used:
(a) To delay the development of resistance [MP 2002]
(d) Patient is suffering from disease
(b) To reduce toxicity
312
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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(c) To Broaden anti-bacterial spectrum
(c) 250 in children and 25 in adults

(d) To prevent Liberation of toxins from organisms
(d) 1000 in children and 75 in adults
117. Number of sputum positive cases of tuberculosis per 126. Which of the following is not a type of Vaccine derived
lakh in India is: [MH 2000] polio virus? [AIIMS November 2014]
(a) 75 (b) 50 (a) cVDPV
(c) 40 (d) 10 (b) iVDPV
(c) aVDPV
118. BCG is: [MH 2002] (d) mVDPV
(a) Live attenuated vaccine
(b) Killed vaccine 127. Polio virus is shed maximum in stool up to
(c) Toxoid (a) 6 weeks [Recent Question 2014]
(d) Immunosuppressant agent (b) 8 weeks

119. 1 mL of expectoration contains what number of TB (c)(d) 1012 weeks weeks

bacilli in an active case of TB? [MH 2002]
(a) 100 (b) 1,000
128. Wild poliomyelitis is still endemic in
(a) Sri Lanka [PGI November 2014]
(c) 10,000 (d) 1,00,000
(b) Pakistan

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

120. In India, a tubercular mother is advised for all except: (c) India
(a) Give baby BCG [RJ 2003] (d) Afghanistan
(b) ATT to mother (e) Nigeria
(c) With hold Breastfeeding
(d) None of these Review Questions

POLIOMYELITIS 129. Zero dose of Polio vaccine is which is given:

121. Which type of sample can be used to isolate poliovirus (b)
earliest? [AIIMS Nov 2004]
(a) Stool (b) blood
(c) throat (d) CSF
122. True about oral polio vaccine: [PGI June 03]
(a) Poliomyelitis in recipients
(b) Poliomyelitis in contact of recipient
(c) Guillein Barre syndrome
(d) Vomiting and fever
123. True about complete eradication of poliomyelitis from (b)
India is: [AIIMS PGMEE November 2013]
(a) From 2012 onwards, no vaccine associated polio case
has been detected
(b) Last polio case in India was reported in 13 January
2011
(c) Mostly IPV is used currently
(d) India is the only country which is not able to 133. True about polio is: [MP 2002]
eliminate it completely (a) Eliminated from India
(a) Before giving DPT [DNB 2006]
At birth
(c) When child is having Diarrhea
(d) When child is having Polio
130. Polio is due to: [Bihar 2006]
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa (d) Fungus
131. For every case of poliomyelitis the subclinical cases of
poliomyelitis to be estimated: [UP 2005]
(a) 500 children and 50 adults
750 children and 75 adults
(c) 1000 children and 75 adults
(d) 1000 children and 50 adult
132. Mg++ is used in vaccine as: [Kolkata 2008]
(a) Stabilizer (b) Adjuvant
(c) Preservative (d) Vehicle

124. Regarding poliovirus responsible for poliomyelitis all (b) Less than 300 confirmed cases remaining
(c) Only Known in UP, MP and Bihar
are true except: [DNB June 2010] (d) Clinical cases are more than subclinical cases
(a) Type 3 is most common is India
(b) Type 1 is most common in India 134. Killed Vaccine of polio is: [RJ 2000]
(c) Type 1 is responsible for most epidemics (a) Salk (b) Sabin
(d) Type 2 is eradicated worldwide (c) Both (d) None

125. For every clinical case of poliomyelitis subclinical cases 135. Wrong

about polio patient who had paralysis:
are: [Recent Question 2013] (a) Most predominant polio virus during epidemic is
(a) 500 in children and 75 in adults type I [RJ 2006]
(b) 500 in children and 25 in adults (b) Sub clinical infection common

313

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Review of Preventive and Social Medicine
(c) Can transmit It by nasal discharge
(d) Can be given vaccine
136. All are true about SALK vaccine except: 145. Isolation period of Hepatitis A: [DNB December 2011]
(a) It prevents paralysis [RJ 2009]
(b) Oral polio can be given as booster
(c) It is contraindicated in immunocompromised
patients
(d) Easily transported
HEPATITIS
137. Which of the following is not transmitted through What
sexual route? [AIPGME 2003]
(a) Hepatitis A (a) Hepatitis B vaccine + Immunoglobulin
(b) Hepatitis E
(c) Both Hepatitis A and Hepatitis E
(d) Hepatitis D
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases
138. Marker for infectivity of serum in Hepatitis B is:
[AIIMS Nov 1993] (a)
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBc
(c) HBe Ag (d) Anti HBc
139. Which of the Hepatitis B Virus serological marker indi- 149. (d)
cates the first evidence of Hepatitis B infection?
[Karnataka 2009]
(a) Anti-HBs (b) Anti-HBc
(c) HBeAg (d) HBsAg
140. Which of the following is true about HCV screening? (c)(d) Active
[PGI Dec 04]
(a) Medical students are screened before their joining
(b) IV drug abuser are prone to infection
(c) Blood products taken before 1997 should be screened
(d) Long term hemodialysis
(e) Interferon is treatment
141. Heaptitis A true is: [PGI June 06]
(a) Causes mild illness in children
(b) 3% incidence of carrier state
(c) Sexual route common
(d) 10% transform into HCC
(e) Vertical Transmission never seen
142. Which of the following is/are seen in Acute (b) Anti - HBs
Hepatitis-B? [PGI May 2011]
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti-HBs (d) HBe Ag
(c) Anti-HBc (d) HBeAg
(e) Anti-HBe
143. Both HBsAg and HBeAg are positive in: infection
[AIIMS PGMEE May 2013] (c) 30% (d) 50% or more
(a) Acute infectious hepatitis B [AIIMS Nov 2014]
(b) Chronic Hepatitis B
(c) Recovery phase of Hepatitis B
(d) Individuals vaccinated with Hepatitis B
144. 1955 Hepatitis outbreak is Delhi was: 153. The
[Recent Question 2013]
314
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) E
(a) 1 weeks (b) 2 weeks
(c) 3 weeks (d) 4 weeks
146. Acute Hepatitis B marker(s) is/ are: [PGI May 2012]
(a) HBsAg (b) Anti HBs
(c) Anti HBc (d) HBeAg
(e) Anti HBe
147. A mother is HBsAg positive at 32 weeks of pregnancy.
should be given to the newborn to prevent
infection?
neonatal [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Immunoglobulin only
(c) Hepatitis B vaccine only
(d) Immunoglobulin followed by vaccine 1 month later
148. Most important in diagnosing Acute Hepatitis B is
IgG Anti-HBc [AIIMS Nov 2014]
(b) IgM Anti-HBc
(c) Anti HBs
HBsAg
A nurse was diagnosed to have HBeAg and HBsAg in
serum. Most likely she is having
(a) Chronic hepatitis B [AIIMS November 2014]
(b) HBV + HBE coinfection
and infectious Hepatitis B disease
Recovery from Hepatitis B
Review Questions
150. Hepatitis A virus shedding in faeces is: [UP 2004]
(a) One week before the symptoms appear
(b) Two weeks after the symptoms appear
(c) Two weeks before the symptoms and two week
thereafter
(d) One week before the symptoms and one week
thereafter
151. Epidemiological marker of Hepatitis – B is:
(a) HBs Ag [UP 2008]
(c) Anti HBc
152. Chances of Viral Hepatitis Type C becoming a chronic
are: [MP 2009]
(a) 10% (b) 20%
DIARRHEAL DISEASES (CHOLERA and TYPHOID)
freshly prepared ORS (Oral Rehydration Solution)
should not be used after: [AIPGME 1993]
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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) 6 hours
(b) 12 hours (c) Persistence of Vi antibodies

(c) 18 hours
(d) 24 hours
(d) Demonstration of Typhoid bacilli in stools
154. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in last 24 hours 164. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the follow-
ing measures are recommended except:
and vomited twice in last 4 hours. He is irrit­­able but
drinking fluids. The optimal therapy for this child is: (a) Mass chemoprophylaxis [AIPGME-1992 and 2003]
(a) Intravenous fluids [AIPGME 2003] (b) Proper disposal of excreta
(b) Oral rehydration therapy (c) Chlorination of water
(c) Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours followed by (d) Early detection and management of cases
oral fluids
(d) Plain water add libitum
165. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an
adult is a single dose of: [AIPGME 2005]
155. The best approach to prevent cholera epidemic in a (a) Tetracycline (b) Co-trimoxazole
community is: [AIPGME 1992] (c) Doxycycline (d) Furazolidone
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline
(b) Vaccination of all individuals 166. A convalescent case of cholera remains infective for:
(c) Health education (a) < 7 days [DPG 2005]
(d) safe water and sanitation (b) 7-14 days

156. Which of the following is the drug of choice for chemo- (c)(d) 14-21 days

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

21-28 days
prophylaxis of cholera?
(a) Tetracycline [AIIMS May 2005] 167. In WHO-ORS, concentration of sodium is: [DPG 2007]
(b) Doxycycline (a) 60 mEq/L (b) 50 mEq/L
(c) Furazolidone (c) 40 mEq/L (d) 90 mEq/L
(d) Co-trimoxazole
168. True about ORS: [PGI Dec 2K]
157. The usual incubation period for typhoid fever is: (a) Na+ = 90 meq/L
(a) 10-14 days [AIIMS May 1994] (b) K+ = 30 meq/L
(b) 3-5 days  [Recent Question 2012] (c) Cl- = 20 meq/L
(c) 21-25 days (d) Hco3– = 40 meq/L
(d) less then 3 days (e) Glucose = 110 meq/L
158. The drug of choice for treating cholera in pregnan 169. The composition of ORS recommended by WHO is:
women is: [AIIMS Nov 2005] (a) 3.5 g NaCl [PGI Dec 01]
(a) Tetracycline (b) Doxycycline (b) 4.5 g NaCl
(c) Furazolidone (d) Cotrimoxazole
(c) 2.9 g sodium-potassium citrate
159. The drug of choice for treating cholera in children is: (d) 2.8 g sodium bicarbonate
(a) Tetracycline [AIIMS Nov 2005] (e) 1.5 g potassium chloride
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Furazolidone 170. WHO ORS contains: [PGI June 02]
(d) Cotrimoxazole (a) Sodium chloride 2.5 g
(b) Potassium chloride 1.5 g
160. True about citrate in ORS: [AIIMS June 1997] (c) Glucose 20 g
(a) Increases shelf life (b) Nutritious (d) Sucrose 10 g
(c) Cheaper (d) Tastier (e) Potassium bicarbonate 2.5 g
161. The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution 171. Composition of ORS which of the following is correct:
for malnourished children) is: [AIPGME 2006] (a) Na+ 90 meq/L [PGI Dec 04]
(a) 90 mmol/L (b) 60 mmol/L (b) HCO3- 10 meq/L
(c) 45 mmol/L (d) 30 mmol/L
(c) K+ 20 meq/L
162. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the follow- (d) Cl- 5 meq/L
ing measures are recommended except:
172. WHO ORS, composition are (mmol):
(a) Glucose – 111
[AIIMS Feb 1997 and May 1991]
[PGI June 04]
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis
(b) K+- 80
(c) Na+ - 20
(b) Proper disposal of excreta
(c) Chlorination of water
(d) Cl- - 30
(e) Total millimoles-311
(d) Early detection and management of cases
163. Which one of the following gives strong evidence of 173. Ringer lactate true is: [PGI Dec 07]
Typhoid Fever carrier status:
(a) Cl- - 111
(a) Isolation of Core antigen
(b) Na+ - 45
[AIIMS Nov 2008]
(b) Isolation of Vi antigen
(c) K+ - 5
315

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Review of Preventive and Social Medicine
(d) Lactate – 29
(e) Ca+2 - 5
174. WHO ORS has: [PGI Dec 08]
(a) K+ → 20 mmol/lt
(b) Na+ → 90 mmol/lt
(c) HCO → 10 mmol/lt
–
(d) Osmolality → 150 mmol/lt
3
175. A 12 kg child with diarrhoea, fluid to be replaced in first
4 hours:
[Recent Question 2013]
(a) 0-400 ml (b) 400-800 ml
(c) 800-1200 ml (d) 1200-1600 ml
176. Incubation period of typhoid is: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) 1-2 days (b) 10-14 days
(c) 1 month (d) 4-6 hours
177. Which is true of typhoid? [DNB 2008]
(a) Female carriers are less common
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases
(b) Male carriers though less are more dangerous
(c) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state
(d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
178. Persistent diarrhoea in infants: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) 7 days (b) 14 days
(c) 21 days (d) 1 month
179. ORS should be discarded after: [DNB December 2011]
(a) 54 hours (b) 6 hours
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours
180. ORS contains 75 mmol/litre of: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium
(c) Glucose (d) Chloride
181. Dehydration in a child with diarrhoea, thirst present,
tears absent is: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Mild
(b) Moderate
(c) Severe
(d) None
182. Concentration of sodium in mMol/L in low osmolar
ORS is? [DNB December 2011]
(a) 45 (b) 75
(c) 90 (d) 60
183. New WHO ORS osmolarity is: [Recent Question 2012]
(a) 270 (b) 245
(c) 290 (d) 310
184. ORS amount required in first 4 hours in a 1 year old case
of dehydration is: [Recent Question 2012]
(a) 200-400 ml (b) 400-600 ml
(c) 600-800 ml (d) 800-1200 ml
185. Which of the following about the composition of new
ORS is wrong: [DNB June 2009]
(a) NaCl– 2.6 grams/litre
(b) KC1– 1.5 grams/litre
(c) Glucose – 13.5 grams/litre
(d) Total osmolarity – 300mmol/l
316
186. True of 8th Pandemic of Cholera [PGI May 2014]
(a) Started in Bangladesh
(b) Originated in 2012
(c) Due to O139 El Tor
(d) Low attack rate
(e) Low proportion of adults in endemic regions
187. A village affected with epidemic of cholera, what is the
1st step which should to be taken in village to decrease
the death from cholera [Recent Question 2014]
(a) Safe water supply and sanitation
(b) Cholera vaccination to all individuals
(c) Primary Chemoprophylaxis
(d) Treat everyone in the village’ with tetracycline
188. Ratio of Sodium : Glucose in WHO Reduced Osmolar-
ity ORS is [JIPMER 2014]
(a) 1:4
(b) 1:3
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:1
(e) 4:1
Review Questions
189. Drug of choice for carriers of typhoid is:
(a) Ampicillin [DNB 2002]
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Co-trimoxazole
(d) Clindamycin
190. Which is true of typhoid? [DNB 2008]
(a) Female carriers are less common
(b) Male carriers though less are more dangerous
(c) Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state
(d) Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers
191. In salmonolosis disease, isolation is done till:
(a) Fever subsides [UP 2002]
(b) Blood culture negative
(c) Spleen subsides
(d) Stool culture negative for three times
192. In ORS, the concentration of sodium chloride is:
(a) 3.5 gm [UP 2004]
(b) 2.5 gm
(c) 2.9 gm
(d) 1.5 gm
193. Drug of choice for cholera chemoprophylaxis is:
(a) Erythromycin [UP 2004]
(b) Ampicilline [Recent Question 2013]
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) Tetracyclines
194. Typhoid oral vaccine is given: [UP 2008]
(a) 1, 3, 5 days (b) 1, 2, 3 days
(c) 1, 2, 4 days (d) 1, 7, 14 days
195. Isolation in patient with Salmonellosis is done:
(a) Till fever subsides [AP 2006]
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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(b) Till Widal becomes negative Review Questions

(c) Till 3 stool test are negative


(d) For 48 hrs of Chloramphenicol treatment 205. Guinea worm infestation is common in workers of:

(a) Step wells [DNB 2000]
196. Best disinfectant for cholera stools is: [MP 2000]
(b) Ponds
(a) Bleaching powder (b) Cresol
(c) Coal-tar (d) Formalin

(c) Fields

(d) Cotton mills
197. In oral rehydration solution least amount in of: 206. Chandler’s index is used for: [DNB 2008]
(a) Sodium citrate
(a) Ankyclostoma duodenale
[MP 2002]
(b) Ascaris lumbricoides
(b) Potassium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride
(c) Stongyloides
(d) Glucose
(d) Trichuris trichura
Worm infestations 207. According to Chandler’s index water containing 200-250
eggs should be considered as:
198. All of the following statements regarding dracunculia- (a) Safe [UP 2001]
sis are true except [AIIMS Nov 2004] (b) Mild pollution
(a) India has eliminated this disease (c) Dangerous

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(b) Niridazole prevents transmission of the disease (d) Public health problem
(c) The disease is limited to tropical and subtropical re-
gions
208. Chandler’s index: [AP 2006]
(a) No of hookworm eggs per gram of stool
(d) No animal reservoir has been proved
(b) No of hookworm larva per gram of stool
199. Chandlers Index is used in epidemiological studies of (c) No of failures of contraception for 100 woman years
(a) Round worms [AIIMS Dec 1998 and Nov 1993] of exposure
(b) Hook worms [Recent Question 2013] (d) No of E-coli in a water sample
(c) Guinea worms
(d) Sand fly
209. Dracunculiasis was more common in which of the fol-
lowing state? [TN 2000]
200. Intermediate host for Hydatid disease is: (a) Orissa (b) Rajasthan
(a) Man [AIIMS May 2009] (c) Tamil Nadu (d) U.P.
(b) Dog
(c) Cat
210. Cysticercosis cellulosae causes infection with:
(a) Taenia saginata
(d) Fox
[TN 2005]
(b) Taenia solium
201. Chandlers index for Hookworm. When it is health (c) Echinococcus granulosus
problem? [Recent Question 2013, 2014] (d) Diphyllobothrium latum
(a) >300 (b) >200
(c) >100 (d) >50
211. Chandler’s index is: [Recent Question 2014] [MP 2001]
(a) No. of eggs of hook work in 100 gram soil
202. Chandler’s index is used for: [DNB 2008] (b) No. of eggs of hookworm in per gram soil
(a) Ankylostoma duodenale [Recent Question 2014] (c) No. of eggs of hookworm in per gram stool
(b) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Percentage of stool specimens positive for hook-
(c) Strongyloides worms
(d) Trichuris trichiura
203. Uses of Chandler’s index for hookworm include all 212. Highest level of health care is: [RJ 2003]
(a) Primary health care
except [AIIMS PGMEE 2014] (b) Tertiary care
(a) Assessment of endemicity (c) Child care
(b) Monitoring individual treatment (d) Secondary level care
(c) Monitoring mass treatment of coomunity
(d) Comparison of worm load in different populations DENGUE
204. WHO considerations regarding Dracunculosis eradication,
all are true except: [Recent Question 2014] 213. Dengue shock syndrome is characterized by the
(a) Drinking piped water and installation of hand following except: [AIIMS Nov 1993]
pumps (a) Hepatomegaly
(b) DDT (b) Pleural effusion
(c) Health education and awareness of public
(c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Control of Cyclops
(d) Decreased hemoglobin

317

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