This set of Network Security Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Network

Hardware”.

1. Which is the smallest unit amongst the following with reference to the ATM-
a) transmission path
b) virtual path
c) virtual circuit
d) all are of the same size
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Virtual circuits are the smallest unit in the above options.

2. IEEE 802.8 is/was –

a) IBM Token Bus
b) Integrated Services LAN
c) Wireless LAN and Mesh
d) Fiber Optic TAG
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IEEE 802.8 was the Fiber Optic TAG (disbanded).

3. The below figure represents the hidden terminal problem.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above figure represents the exposed terminal problem.

4. Which of the following was the IBM Token bus?

a) IEEE 802.10
b) IEEE 802.11
c) IEEE 802.1
d) IEEE 802.4
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The IBM Token bus was IEEE 802.4.

5. What is the function of Network Interface Cards?

a) connects the clients, servers and peripherals to the network through a port
b) allows you to segment a large network into smaller, efficient networks
c) connects networks with different protocols like TCP/IP
d) boost the signal between two cable segments or wireless access points
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Network Interface Cards connects the clients, servers and peripherals to the network
through a port.

6. A device which is used to boost the signal between two cable segments or wireless access points
is
a) Booster
b) Repeater
c) Switch
d) Router
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The correct term for such a device is a Repeater.

7. A device that provides a central connection point for cables is –

a) Switch
b) Hub
c) Gateway
d) Proxy Server
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Such a device is known as a Hub and is usually used in STAR topologies.

8. A device that connects networks with different protocols –

a) Switch
b) Hub
c) Gateway
d) Proxy Server
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Such a device is known as a Gateway.

9. A device that helps prevent congestion and data collisions –

a) Switch
b) Hub
c) Gateway
d) Proxy Server
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A switch is a device that splits large networks into smaller segments, decreasing the
number of users sharing the same network resources and bandwidth.

10. A device that is used to connect a number of LANs is –

a) Router
b) Repeater
c) Bridge
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A device that is used to connect a number of LANs is a Router.

This set of Network Security Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Layers – I”.

1. If a periodic signal is decomposed into five sine waves with frequencies of 100, 300, 500, 700, and
900 Hz, what is its bandwidth?
a) 2500 Hz
b) 900 Hz
c) 800 Hz
d) can’t be determined with the information given
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The bandwidth is 900-100 = 800 Hz.

2. Assume we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per second. What is the
required bit rate of the channel?
a) 1.846 Mbps
b) 1.536 Mbps
c) 2.4 Mbps
d) None of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Average No, of lines u=in each page = 24
Each line has 80 char.
Each char required 8 bits
100 x 24 x 80 x 8 = 1,536,000=1536 Mbps.

3. A digitized voice channel is made by digitizing a 4-kHz bandwidth analog voice signal. We need to
sample the signal at twice the highest frequency (two samples per hertz). We assume that each
sample requires 8 bits. What is the required bit rate?
a) 64 kbps
b) 32 kbps
c) 128 kbps
d) 16 kbps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 2 × 4000 × 8 = 64,000 = 64kbps.
4. What is the bit rate for high-definition TV (HDTV)?
a) 1.4 Gbps
b) 2 Gbps
c) 1.5 Gbps
d) 1.8 Gbps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
The HDTV screen is normally a ratio of 16: 9 (in contrast to 4: 3 for regular TV)
There are 1920 by 1080 pixels per screen, and
Screen is renewed 30 times per second.
24-bits represent one color pixel.
Therefore Bit Rate = 1920 × 1080 × 30 × 24 = 1,492992,000 = 1.5 Gbps.

5. A device is sending out data at the rate of 1000 bps. How long does it take to send a file of 100,000
characters?
a) 200s
b) 400s
c) 600s
d) 800s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ((100,000 × 8) / 1000) s = 800 s.

6. A file contains 2 million bytes. How long does it take to download this file using a 56-Kbps
channel?
a) 1-2 mins
b) 5-6 mins
c) 2-4 mins
d) 7-8 mins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
With a 56-Kbps channel, it takes 16,000,000/56,000 = 289 s ≈ 5 minutes.

7. We need to send 265 kbps over a noiseless channel with a bandwidth of 20 kHz. How many signal
levels do we need?
a) 1024
b) 512
c) 256
d) 128
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation:
256000 = 2 × 20000 × log L = 6.625.
L = 98.7 Levels.
Since this result is not a power of 2, we need to either increase the number of levels or reduce the
bit rate. If we have 128 levels, the bit rate is 280 kbps.
8. Calculate the theoretical highest bit rate of a regular telephone line. The signal-to-noise ratio is
usually 3162.
a) 34.860 kbps
b) 17.40 kbps
c) 11.62 kbps
d) none of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C = B log (1+SNR) = 3000 log (1+3162) = 34,860 bps.
Logarithm here is in terms of base 2.

9. Calculate the theoretical channel capacity. If SNR(dB) = 36 and the channel bandwidth is 2 MHz.
a) 12 Mbps
b) 24 Mbps
c) 16 Mbps
d) 32 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.

10. A channel has a 1-MHz bandwidth. The SNR for this channel is 63. What is the appropriate bit
rate?
a) 4 Mbps
b) 6 Mbps
c) 8 Mbps
d) 12 Mbps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:
C = Blog_2(1 + SNR) = 10^6 log_2(1 + 63) = 6Mbps.

11. A channel has a 1-MHz bandwidth. The SNR for this channel is 63. What is the appropriate signel
level?
a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As a continuation to the previous question where we get the channel capacity as 6
Mbps. For better performance we choose 4 Mbps. Thus we calculate L from –
4Mbps = 2 x 1 MHz x logL.
12. 
What are the bits transmitted for the Unipolar system?
a) 01101
b) 11010
c) 10110
d) 01001
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: High – 1, Low – 0.

This set of Cyber Security Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Firewalls – 1”.

1. Firewalls can be of _______ kinds.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
2. _________________ is the kind of firewall is connected between the device and the network
connecting to internet.
a) Hardware Firewall
b) Software Firewall
c) Stateful Inspection Firewall
d) Microsoft Firewall
View Answer
3. _________ is software that is installed using an internet connection or they come by-default with
operating systems.
a) Hardware Firewall
b) Software Firewall
c) Stateful Inspection Firewall
d) Microsoft Firewall
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software firewalls are those kinds of firewalls that are installed in the system using
internet connection as we install normal applications and update them. Some operating system
vendors provide default firewalls with their operating systems.

4. Which of the following is not a software firewall?

a) Windows Firewall
b) Outpost Firewall Pro
c) Endian Firewall
d) Linksys Firewall
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Windows Firewall, Outpost Firewall Pro and Endian Firewall are software firewalls that
are installed in the system. Linksys firewall is not an example of a software firewall.

5. Firewall examines each ____________ that are entering or leaving the internal network.
a) emails users
b) updates
c) connections
d) data packets
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Firewalls examines each data packets that are entering or leaving the internal network
which ultimately prevents unauthorized access.

6. A firewall protects which of the following attacks?

a) Phishing
b) Dumpster diving
c) Denial of Service (DoS)
d) Shoulder surfing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Firewalls are used to protect the computer network and restricts illicit traffic. Denial of
Service (DoS) attack is one such automated attack which a firewall with proper settings and the
updated version can resist and stop from getting executed.

7. There are ______ types of firewall.

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are four types of firewall based on their working and characteristics. These are
Packet Filtering Firewalls, Circuit Level Gateway Firewalls, Application level Gateway Firewalls, and
Stateful Multilayer Inspection Firewalls.

8. Packet filtering firewalls are deployed on ________

a) routers
b) switches
c) hubs
d) repeaters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Packet filtering firewalls are deployed on routers that help in connecting internal
network worldwide via the internet.

9. In the ______________ layer of OSI model, packet filtering firewalls are implemented.
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Presentation layer
d) Network layer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the network layer, which is the third layer of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection)
model, packet filtering firewalls are implemented.

10. The __________ defines the packet filtering firewall rules.

a) Access Control List
b) Protocols
c) Policies
d) Ports
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Access Control List is a table containing rules that instruct the firewall system to
provide the right access. It checks all the packets and scans them against the defined rule set by
Network administrator in the packet filtering firewall.

11. ACL stands for _____________

a) Access Condition List
b) Anti-Control List
c) Access Control Logs
d) Access Control List
View Answer
12. When a packet does not fulfil the ACL criteria, the packet is _________
a) resend
b) dropped
c) destroyed
d) acknowledged as received
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the packet filtering firewall, when the rules defined by the Access Control List is not
meet by any data packet, the packet is dropped & logs are updated in the firewall.

13. Network administrators can create their own ACL rules based on _______ ________ and _______
a) Address, Protocols and Packet attributes
b) Address, Protocols and security policies
c) Address, policies and Packet attributes
d) Network topology, Protocols and data packets
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Network administrators can create their own ACL rules based on Address, Protocols
and Packet attributes. This is generally done where the specific customised type of data packets
need to pass through firewall screening.

14. One advantage of Packet Filtering firewall is __________

a) more efficient
b) less complex
c) less costly
d) very fast
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Packet filtering firewalls are more advantageous because they are less costly and they
use fewer resources and are used effectively in small networks.

15. Packet filtering firewalls work effectively in _________ networks.

a) very simple
b) smaller
c) large
d) very large complex
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Packet Filtering Firewalls are applied within routers which connect the internal Network
system with the outside network using the internet. It works effectively if the internal network is
smaller in size.

This set of Cyber Security Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on
“Firewalls – 2”.

1. Packet filtering firewalls are vulnerable to __________

a) hardware vulnerabilities
b) MiTM
c) phishing
d) spoofing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One popular disadvantage of the packet filtering technique is that it cannot support the
complex models of rules and is spoofing attack-prone in some cases as well.

2. Circuit-level gateway firewalls are installed in _______ layer of OSI model.

a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Presentation layer
d) Network layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the session layer (which is the fifth layer) of the OSI model, circuit-level gateway
firewalls are deployed for monitoring TCP sessions for 3-way handshakes.

3. Which of these comes under the advantage of Circuit-level gateway firewalls?

a) They maintain anonymity and also inexpensive
b) They are light-weight
c) They’re expensive yet efficient
d) They preserve IP address privacy yet expensive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a private network, or for organizations, circuit-level gateway firewalls maintain
anonymity. They’re also inexpensive as compared to other firewall types.

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Circuit-level gateway firewalls?

a) They’re expensive
b) They’re complex in architecture
c) They do not filter individual packets
d) They’re complex to setup
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Circuit-level gateway firewalls don’t filter packets individually which gives the attacker a
chance to take access in the network.

5. _____________ gateway firewalls are deployed in application-layer of OSI model.

a) Packet Filtering Firewalls
b) Circuit Level Gateway Firewalls
c) Application-level Gateway Firewalls
d) Stateful Multilayer Inspection Firewalls
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Application level Gateway Firewalls are deployed in the application-layer of OSI model
for protecting the network for different protocols of the application layer.

6. Application level gateway firewalls protect the network for specific _____________
a) application layer protocol
b) session layer protocol
c) botnet attacks
d) network layer protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Some specific application layer protocols need protection from attacks which is done by
the application level gateway firewall in the application layer of the OSI model.

7. Application level gateway firewalls are also used for configuring cache-servers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As caching servers, the application level gateway firewalls are configured that helps in
increasing the network performance making it smooth for logging traffic.

8. ___________ firewalls are a combination of other three types of firewalls.

a) Packet Filtering
b) Circuit Level Gateway
c) Application-level Gateway
d) Stateful Multilayer Inspection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewalls are a combination of other three types of
firewalls. These combinations are Packet filtering, circuit level and application-level gateway
firewalls.

9. Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewall cannot perform which of the following?

a) Filter network layer packets
b) Check for legitimate session
c) Scans for illicit data packets at the presentation layer
d) Evaluate packets at application lager
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewalls are designed to perform filtering packets in the
network layer, check for legitimate sessions in the session layer as well as evaluate all packets at the
application layer of OSI model. But it cannot scan for illicit data packets at the presentation layer.

10. We can also implement ____________ in Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewall.

a) external programs
b) algorithms
c) policies
d) algorithms and external programs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewall can also allow us to implement algorithms as well
as complex security modes making data transfer more secure.

11. One advantage of Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewall is __________

a) costlier but easy to understand
b) large to manage
c) complex internal architecture
d) large to manage but efficient
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stateful Multilayer Inspection firewalls are complex internally due to multiple
characteristics of different firewalls incorporated together which makes it powerful and more
secure.

12. Packet filtering firewalls are also called ____________

a) first generation firewalls
b) second generation firewalls
c) third generation firewalls
d) fourth generation firewalls
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Packet filtering firewalls are also called the first generation firewalls. It came into the
picture around the 1980s. Packet filtering technique cannot support the complex models of rules
and is spoofing attack-prone in some cases as well.
13. Stateful Multilayer firewalls are also called ____________
a) first generation firewalls
b) second generation firewalls
c) third generation firewalls
d) fourth generation firewalls
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stateful multilayer firewalls are also called second generation firewalls. They came into
the picture in around 1989-1990. Due to multiple characteristics of different firewalls in Multilayer
Inspection firewalls, it makes such type of firewalls powerful and more secure.

14. Application layer firewalls are also called ____________

a) first generation firewalls
b) second generation firewalls
c) third generation firewalls
d) fourth generation firewalls
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Application layer firewalls are also called third generation firewalls. They came into the
picture in around 1995-1998. Application level gateway firewalls are helped in making the network
performance smooth for logging traffic.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Cyber Security.

To practice all areas of Cyber Security for Interviews, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice
Questions and Answers.
This set of Cyber Security Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “VPNs”.

1. VPN is abbreviated as __________

a) Visual Private Network
b) Virtual Protocol Network
c) Virtual Private Network
d) Virtual Protocol Networking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A Virtual Private Network i.e. VPN is a technique used in networking or other
intermediate networks for connecting computers and making them isolated remote computer
networks, maintaining a tunnel of security and privacy.

2. __________ provides an isolated tunnel across a public network for sending and receiving data
privately as if the computing devices were directly connected to the private network.
a) Visual Private Network
b) Virtual Protocol Network
c) Virtual Protocol Networking
d) Virtual Private Network
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A Virtual Private Network i.e. VPN is a technique used in networking or other
intermediate networks for connecting computers and making them isolated remote computer
networks, maintaining a tunnel of security and privacy.

3. Which of the statements are not true to classify VPN systems?

a) Protocols used for tunnelling the traffic
b) Whether VPNs are providing site-to-site or remote access connection
c) Securing the network from bots and malwares
d) Levels of security provided for sending and receiving data privately
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: VPN systems have specific protocols for tunnelling the traffic, secure remote access
connectivity as well as make sure how many levels of security it is providing for private data
communication.

4. What types of protocols are used in VPNs?

a) Application level protocols
b) Tunnelling protocols
c) Network protocols
d) Mailing protocols
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All VPNs are formed with a combination of tunnelling protocols as well as encryption
techniques for maintaining privacy and security.

5. VPNs uses encryption techniques to maintain security and privacy which communicating remotely
via public network.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All VPNs are formed with a combination of tunnelling protocols as well as encryption
techniques for maintaining privacy and security.

6. There are _________ types of VPNs.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: VPNs are of two types. These are remote access VPNs & Site-to-site VPNs. Remote
Access VPNs are used for business & home users. Site-to-site VPNs are mainly used in companies
and firms with different geographical locations.

7. Site-to-site VPNs are also known as ________

a) Switch-to-switch VPNs
b) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
c) Point-to-point VPNs
d) Router-to-router VPNs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs are also known as Router-to-router VPNs. They are mainly used in
companies and firms with different geographical locations.

8. _________ type of VPNs are used for home private and secure connectivity.
a) Remote access VPNs
b) Site-to-site VPNs
c) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
d) Router-to-router VPNs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Remote access VPN allows individual users to connect to private networks at home and
access resources remotely.

9. Which types of VPNs are used for corporate connectivity across companies residing in different
geographical location?
a) Remote access VPNs
b) Site-to-site VPNs
c) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
d) Country-to-country VPNs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Site-to-site VPNs are also known as Router-to-router VPNs which are typically used in
companies and firms for connecting remotely different branches with different geographical
locations.

10. Site-to-Site VPN architecture is also known as _________

a) Remote connection based VPNs
b) Peer-to-Peer VPNs
c) Extranet based VPN
d) Country-to-country VPNs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Site-to-site VPN architecture is also known as extranet based VPNs because these type
of VPNs are typically used to connect firms externally between different branches of the same
company.

11. There are ________ types of VPN protocols.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: There are six types of protocols used in VPN. These are Internet Protocol Security or
IPSec, Layer 2 Tunnelling Protocol (L2TP), Point – to – Point Tunnelling Protocol (PPTP), Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL), OpenVPN and Secure Shell (SSH).

12. For secure connection, Remote access VPNs rely on ___________ and ____________
a) IPSec, SSL
b) L2TP, SSL
c) IPSec, SSH
d) SSH, SSL
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A remote-access VPN typically depends on either Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) or IP
Security (IPsec) for a secure connection over public network.

13. A ______ can hide a user’s browsing activity.

a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) Incognito mode
d) VPN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are used for hiding user’s browsing activities and maintain anonymity. This also
helps in preventing user’s personal browsing data leakage and protects the leakage of browsing
habits.

14. __________ masks your IP address.

a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) VPN
d) Incognito mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: VPNs are used for masking user’s IP address and maintain anonymity. This protects
leakage of IP address that almost every website grabs when a user opens a website.

15. _________ are also used for hides user’s physical location.
a) Firewall
b) Antivirus
c) Incognito mode
d) VPN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: VPNs are used for hiding your physical location which helps in maintaining anonymity.
Using IP address and browsing habits, link search, your physical location can be traced.

16. Using VPN, we can access _______________

a) Access sites that are blocked geographically
b) Compromise other’s system remotely
c) Hide our personal data in the cloud
d) Encrypts our local drive files while transferring
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: With the help of VPN, users can access and connect to sites that are kept blocked by
the ISPs based on a specific geographic location.

This set of SQL Server Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Backup”.

1. Backing up your SQL Server database is essential for _______ your data.
a) protecting
b) preventing
c) replication
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SQL Server offers many options for creating backups.

2. Point out the correct statement.

a) Using differential backups can save available space
b) Using full backups can save available space
c) Using partial backups can save available space
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Using differential backups can save available space and speed up the process of
making frequent backups to decrease the risk of data loss.

3. How many types of backups are provided by SQL Server?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DatabaseBackup is the SQL Server Maintenance Solution’s stored procedure for
backing up databases.

4. Features provided by SQL Server backups include ________________

a) Wire compression of data for optimal backup and restore time
b) Supports full and transaction log style backups
c) Backup of MS SQL Server databases without interrupting running MS SQL Server services
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Secure and automated backup of your company’s databases with no downtime; easy to
deploy and administer.
5. Point out the wrong statement.
a) SQL Server 2003 Enterprise and later versions support compressing backups
b) SQL Server 2008 Enterprise and later versions support compressing backups
c) SQL Server 2000 Enterprise and later versions support compressing backups
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DatabaseBackup is supported on SQL Server 2005, SQL Server 2008, SQL Server 2008
R2, SQL Server 2012, and SQL Server 2014.

6. Backup can occur while the database is in ___________ state.

a) Online
b) Offline
c) Restoring
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Offline Data Cannot Be Backed Up.

7. Which of the following is not a type of backup?

a) database backup
b) data backup
c) table backup
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to select a proper SQL Server backup type, a SQL Server administrator needs
to understand the difference between the major backup.

8. _________ backups represent the whole database at the time the backup finished.
a) copy-only backup
b) database backup
c) data backup
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Differential database backups contain only changes made to the database since its
most recent full database backup.

9. Which of the following backups contain transaction logs?

a) copy-only backup
b) database backup
c) data backup
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Log backup includes backup of transaction logs that includes all log records that were
not backed up in a previous log backup.
10. ____________ contains data from only some of the filegroups in a database.
a) copy-only backup
b) database backup
c) data backup
d) partial
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Partial backups consist of data in the primary filegroup, every read/write filegroup and
any optionally-specified read-only files.

This set of SQL Server Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SQL Server
Questions and Answers – Database Maintenance”.

1. The SQL Server Maintenance Solution comprises scripts for running __________ maintenance on all
editions of Microsoft SQL Server.
a) backups
b) integrity checks
c) index
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The solution is based on stored procedures, the sqlcmd utility, and SQL Server Agent
jobs.

2. Point out the correct statement related to database maintenance.

a) Performing SQL Server Maintenance with Maintenance Window
b) Performing SQL Server Maintenance with No Maintenance Window
c) Performing SQL Server Maintenance with Scrip Maintenance Window
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the production SQL Server is running on a 24X7 basis or the maintenance
window is not long enough to support the maintenance.

3. Which of the following is used to determine the fragmentation for tables and indexes?
a) DBCC SHOWCONTIG
b) DBCC CHECKDB
c) DBCC CHECKCATALOG
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In SQL Server 2005 DBCC SHOWCONTIG remains a viable short term option to
determine the database fragmentation.

4. Which of the following is used to Validate the database objects?

a) DBCC SHOWCONTIG
b) DBCC CHECKDB
c) DBCC CATALOG
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DBCC CHECKDB is supported on databases that contain memory-optimized tables but
validation only occurs on disk-based tables.

5. Point out the wrong statement.

a) The command DBCC CHECKDB checks the logical and physical integrity of all the objects in the
specified database
b) The command DBCC CHECK checks the logical and physical integrity of all the objects in the
specified database
c) The command CHECKDB checks the logical and physical integrity of all the objects in the specified
database
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DBCC CHECKDB has some performance quirks based on the schema of the database
being checked.

6. Which of the following command defragments clustered and secondary indexes of the specified
table?
a) DBCC SHOWCONTIG
b) DBCC CHECKDB
c) DBCC CATALOG
d) DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: DBCC INDEXDEFRAG is an online operation, so it does not hold long-term locks that can
block running queries or updates.

7. ______________ runs UPDATE STATISTICS against all user-defined tables in the current database.
a) sp_updatestats
b) DBCC CHECKDB
c) DBCC CATALOG
d) DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: sp_updatestats updates all statistics for all tables in the database.

8. Purpose of DBCC DBREINDEX command is to ____________

a) Rebuilds one or more indexes for a table in the specified database
b) Rebuilds only one index for a table in the specified database
c) Displays fragmentation information for the data and indexes of the specified table
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The DBCC DBREINDEX command will not automatically rebuild all of the indexes on all
the tables in a database; it can only work on one table at a time.
9. What types of database maintenance should be executed?
a) Update SQL Server’s usage
b) Validate the database objects and system catalogs are free of corruption
c) Determine the fragmentation for tables and indexes
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The SQL Server Maintenance Solution comprises scripts for running backups, integrity
checks, and index and statistics maintenance on all editions of Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SQL
Server 2008, SQL Server 2008 R2, SQL Server 2012, and SQL Server 2014.

10. Create a Database Maintenance Plan that creates a ________ backup within SQL Server.
a) Partial
b) Snapshot
c) Full
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Creating a full backup is a minimum recommendation for good database maintenance.

This set of SQL Server Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “SQL Server Agent”.

1. __________ is a Microsoft Windows service that executes scheduled administrative tasks, which are
called jobs in SQL Server 2014.
a) Log shipping
b) Task
c) Agent
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SQL Server Agent is a service that lets you configure scheduled tasks and system
alerts.

2. Point out the correct statement.

a) SQL Server Agent uses SQL Server to store job information
b) SQL Server Agent can run a job on a schedule
c) By default, the SQL Server Agent service is disabled when SQL Server 2014 is installed
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SQL Server Agent runs continuously in the background as a Windows Service.

3. SQL Server Agent consist of _____ component.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SQL Server Agent consist of jobs,alerts and operators.

4. SQL Agent Job definitions are specified in which database?

a) msdb
b) master
c) tempdb
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: msdb is a system database that is created when you first install SQL Server.

5. Point out the wrong statement.

a) SQL Server Log shipping allows you to automate a variety of administrative task
b) SQL Server task manager allows you to automate a variety of administrative task
c) SQL Server Agent allows you to automate a variety of administrative task
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: SQL Server Agent is used to create and schedule a job that automates database
administration.

6. _________start and stop the SQL Server Agent Service .

a) SSMS
b) Windows Services console
c) QL Server Service Manager
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Open up Microsoft SQL Server Configuration Manager and locate the SQL Server Agent
service. If the status of that service is “RUNNING”, you do not need to do anything.

7. Which of the following condition is considered for schedule?

a) Whenever SQL Server Agent starts
b) On a recurring schedule
c) SQL Server performance conditions
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A schedule specifies when a job runs.

8. An alert can respond to one of the following conditions?

a) Whenever SQL Server Agent starts
b) On a recurring schedule
c) SQL Server performance conditions
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An alert is an automatic response to a specific event. For example, an event can be a
job that starts or system resources that reach a specific threshold.

9. SQL Server can notify operators of alerts through ____________

a) E-mail
b) Net send
c) Pager
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: An operator defines contact information for an individual responsible for the
maintenance of one or more instances of SQL Server.

10. Which of the following members has access to SQL Server Agent?
a) members of the systemadmin
b) members of the sysadmin
c) members of the sysadministraion
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Members of the SQLAgentUserRole, SQLAgentReaderRole, and SQLAgentOperatorRole
fixed database roles in msdb, and members of the sysadmin fixed server role have access to SQL
Server Agent.

Solved MCQ on Database Backup and Recovery in DBMS set-1

December 11, 2014

1) Which of the following is not a recovery technique?

A. Deferred update

B. Immediate update

C. Two-phase commit

D. Recovery management

2)Checkpoints are a part of

A. Recovery measures

B. Security measures

C. Concurrency measures

D. Authorization measures

3) ....... deals with soft errors, such as power failures.

A. system recovery

B. media recovery

C. database recovery

D. failure recovery

4) ........... is an essential part of any backup system.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability

5) Media recovery deals with ...........

A. disk errors

B. hard errors

C. system errors

D. power failures

6) For a backup/restore system, ............. is a prerequisite for service in a enterprise.

A. Filter

B. Recovery

C. Security

D. Scalability

7) Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ........

A. transaction recovery

B. database recovery

C. system recovery

D. value recovery

8) The .......... consists of the various applications and database that play a role in a backup and recovery
strategy.
A. Recovery Manager environment

B. Recovery Manager suit

C. Recovery Manager file

D. Recovery Manager database

9) In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system failure?

A. Backup

B. Recovery

C. Both

D. None

10) A ........... is a block of Recovery Manager(RMAN)job commands that is stored in the recovery
catalogue.

A. recovery procedure

B. recovery block

C. stored block

D. stored script
11) In log based recovery, the log is sequence of .........

A. filter

B. records

C. blocks

D. numbers

12) The enrolling of a database in a recovery catalogue is called .........

A. set up

B. registration

C. start up

D. enrolment

13) .......... is an alternative of log based recovery.

A. Disk recovery

B. Shadow paging

C. Dish shadowing

D. Crash recovery
14) Most backup and recovery commands in ........... are executed by server sessions.

A. Backup Manager

B. Recovery Manager

C. Backup and Recovery Manager

D. Database Manager

15) ........ systems typically allows to replace failed disks without stopping access to the system.

A. RAM

B. RMAN

C. RAD

D. RAID

16) An ......... is an exact copy of a single datafile, archived redo log file, or control file.

A. image copy

B. datafile copy

C. copy log
D. control copy

17) .......... known as memory-style error correcting-code(ECC) organization, employs parity bits.

A. RAID level 1

B. RAID level 2

C. RAID level 3

D. RAID level 4

18) The remote backup site is sometimes called the .......... site.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. ternary

D. None of the above

19) EXP command is used ...........

A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database

B. to import data from the exported dump file

C. to create Rollback segments

D. to create Schedule.

20) The simplest approach to introducing redundancy is to duplicate every disk is called .....

A. mirroring

B. imaging

C. copying

D. All of the above

Answers:

1) C. Two-phase commit
2) A. Recovery measures
3) D. failure recovery
4) C. Security
5) A. disk errors
6) D. Scalability
7) C. system recovery
8) A. Recovery Manager environment
9) B. Recovery
10) D. stored script
11) B. records
12) B. registration
13) B. Shadow paging
14) B. Recovery Manager
15) D. RAID
16) A. image copy
17) B. RAID level 2
18)  B. secondary
19) A. to take Backup of the Oracle Database 
20) A. mirroring

Here are the collections of multiple-choice questions on distributed transaction management in a

DBMS. It includes MCQ questions on fundamentals of transaction management, two-phase locking
protocol, chained transaction, transaction processing monitor, and deadlock.
1) In the …………, one transaction inserts a row in the table while the other transaction is halfway
through its browsing of the table.
A. transaction read a problem

B. one way read a problem

C. serial read problem
D. phantom read problem
2) Transaction processing is associated with everything below except.
A. producing detail, summary, or exception reports
B. recording a business activity
C. confirming an action or triggering a response
D. maintaining data

3) ………. helps solve the concurrency problem.

A. locking
B. transaction monitor
C. transaction serializability
D. two-phase commit

4) If a transaction acquires a shared lock, then it can perform ………. operation.

A. read
B. write
C. read and write
D. update

5) If a transaction obtains a shared lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants to ….. that row.
A. write
B. insert

C. execute
D. read
6) The node where the distributed transaction originates is called the …….
A. local coordinator
B. starting coordinator
C. global coordinator
D. originating node

7) If a transaction obtains an exclusive lock on a row, it means that the transaction wants to ……. that
row.
A. select
B. update
C. view
D. read

8) If a transaction acquires an exclusive lock, then it can perform ………. operation.

A. read
B. write
C. read and write
D. update

9) …….. is a specific concurrency problem wherein two transactions depend on each other for
something.
A. phantom read problem
B. transaction read a problem
C. deadlock

D. locking
10) If a database server is referenced in a distributed transaction, the value of its commit point
strength determines which role it plays in the ………
A. two-phase commit
B. two-phase locking
C. transaction locking
D. checkpoints

11) Transaction ………. ensures that the transaction is being executed successfully.
A. concurrency
B. consistency
C. serializability
D. non-serialiasability

12) The situation in which a transaction holds a data item and waits for the release of data item held
by some other transaction, which in turn waits for another transaction, is called …….
A. serializable schedule
B. process waiting
C. concurrency
D. deadlock

13) ………… protocol grantees that a set of transactions becomes serializable.

A. two-phase locking
B. two-phase commit
C. transaction locking
D. checkpoints
14) The global coordinator forgets about the transaction phase is called ………
A. Prepare phase
B. Commit phase
C. Forget phase
D. Global phase

15) In two-phase commit, ………. coordinates the synchronization of the commit or rollback
operations.
A. database manager
B. central coordinator
C. participants
D. concurrency control manager

16) In two-phase locking protocol, a transaction obtains locks in ……..phase.

A. shrinking phase
B. growing phase
C. running phase
D. initial phase

17) A transaction processing system is also called as ……..

A. processing monitor
B. transaction monitor
C. TP monitor

D. monitor
18) After the nodes are prepared, the distributed transaction is said to be ……
A. in-doubt
B. in-prepared
C. prepared transaction
D. in-node

19) In ………., we have many mini transactions within the main transaction.
A. transaction control
B. chained transaction
C. nested transaction
D. calling transaction

20) In a two-phase locking protocol, a transaction release locks in ……… phase.

A. shrinking phase
B. growing phase
C. running phase
D. initial phase

ANSWERS:
1) D. phantom read problem
2) C. confirming an action or triggering a response
3) A. locking

4) A. read
5) D. read
6) C. global coordinator
7) B. update
8) C. read and write
9) C. deadlock
10) A. two-phase commit
11) C. serializability
12) D. deadlock
13) A. two-phase locking
14) C. Forget phase
15) B. central coordinator
16) B. growing phase
17) C. TP monitor
18) A. in-doubt
19) B. chained transaction
20) A. shrinking phase
1) A mechanism which ensures that simultaneous execution of more than one transaction does not
lead to any database inconsistencies is called ……………… mechanism.
A. transaction control

B. transaction management
C. concurrency parallelism
D. concurrency control
2) The transaction wants only to read the data item of the mode is called as …….
A. Exclusive Mode
B. Shared Mode
C. Inclusive Mode
D. Unshared Mode

3) Any execution of a set of transactions is called as its ………

A. non-serial schedule
B. serial schedule
C. schedule
D. interleaved schedule

4) ………… is a program or set of program that interacts with the database at some point in its
execution.
A. A database system
B. A database application
C. Both
D. none

5) ………. component of a database is responsible for ensuring atomicity and durability.

A. recovery management
B. concurrency control

C. storage management
D. query evaluation engine
6) The activity of ensuring atomicity in the presence of Transaction aborts is called ……….
A. transaction control
B. transaction management
C. transaction recovery
D. concurrency control

7) A ………….is a set of rules that state when a transaction may lock or unlock each of the data items in
the database
A. concurrency control
B. transaction control
C. validation control
D. locking protocol

8) ……………… is a collection of programs performing all necessary action associated with a database.
A. Database associated
B. Database administrator
C. Database application
D. Database management system

9) Which protocol permits the release of exclusive locks only at the end of the transaction?
A. Graph-based protocol
B. The strict two-phase locking protocol

C. Two-phase locking protocol

D. Rigorous Two-phase locking protocol
10) The activity of providing Durability of the transaction is called …..
A. database control
B. transaction management
C. transaction recovery
D. database recovery

11) Which protocol allows a transaction to lock a new data item only if that transaction has not yet
unlocked data item?
A. Graph-based protocol.
B. The strict two-phase locking protocol
C. Two-phase locking protocol
D. Timestamp ordering scheme
12) ………. is a collection of application programs that interact with the database along with DBMS.
A. A database system
B. A database application
C. Database administration
D. Data system

13) …….. ensures that once the transaction completes successfully, the results of the operations
become permanent.
A. serializability

B. synchronizability
C. atomicity
D. durability
14) A ……. contains information for undoing or redoing all the actions performed by the transactions.
A. save point
B. log
C. node
D. commit_point

15) A …………. is a unit of program execution that accesses and possibly updates various data items.
A. DBMS
B. monitor
C. transaction
D. transistor

16) A transaction is an action used to perform some manipulation on data stored in the ……..
A. Memory
B. Record
C. Database
D. All of these

17) A transaction is terminated if it has ……..

A. aborted
B. committed

C. running state
D. aborted or committed
18) The two possible communication errors are, Lost messages and …….
A. Network Partitions
B. Lost acknowledgment
C. Timeout
D. log error

19) The only way to undo the effects of a committed transaction is to execute a …….
A. committed transaction
B. compensating transaction
C. supplementary transaction
D. update query

20) In ………., one or more users/programs attempt to access the same data at the same time.
A. concurrency
B. transaction control
C. locking
D. two-phase locking

ANSWERS:
1) D. concurrency control
2) B. Shared Mode

3) C. schedule
4) B. A database application
5) A. recovery management
6) C. transaction recovery
7) D. locking protocol
8) D. Database management system
9) B. Strict two-phase locking protocol
10) D. database recovery
11) C. Two-phase locking protocol
12) A. A database system
13) D. durability
14) B. log
15) C. transaction
16) C. Database
17) C. running state
18) A. Network Partitions
19) B. compensating transaction
20) A. concurrency
1) Commit and rollback are related to ……….
A. data integrity
B. data consistency

C. data sharing
D. data security
2) The transaction wants to edit the data item is called as …….
A. Exclusive Mode
B. Shared Mode
C. Inclusive Mode
D. Unshared Mode
3) For committing a transaction, the DBMS might discard all the records.
A. after image
B. before image
C. log
D. redo log

4) A sophisticated locking mechanism is known as 2-phase locking which includes Growing phase
and …….
A. Shrinking Phase
B. Release phase
C. Commit phase
D. Acquire Phase

5) A Transaction ends
A. only when it is Committed.
B. only when it is Rolled-back
C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back

D. only when it is initialized

6) In ………., each transaction there is a first phase during which new lock is acquired.
A. Shrinking Phase
B. Release phase
C. Commit phase
D. Growing Phase

7) A transaction processing system is also called as …….

A. processing monitor
B. transaction monitor
C. TP monitor
D. monitor

8) The transactions are always ……… if it always locks a data item in the shared mode before reading
it.
A. well-formed
B. well distributed
C. well locked
D. well shared

9) ………. servers which is widely used in relational database systems.

A. Data servers
B. Transaction servers
C. Query servers
D. Client servers

10) If a distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phase locked, then ……………. is the correct
locking mechanism in the distributed transaction as well as in centralized databases.
A. two-phase locking
B. three phase locking
C. transaction locking
D. well-formed locking

11) ……… property will check whether all the operation of a transaction completed or none.
A. Atomicity
B. Consistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability

12) The total ordering of operations across groups ensures ………..of transactions.
A. serializability
B. synchronizability
C. atomicity
D. durability

13) In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?
A. Active
B. Failed
C. Aborted
D. partially committed

14) The ORDER concurrency control technique is based on the property.

A. ordering mechanism
B. inherent ordering
C. total ordering
D. partial ordering

15) Transactions per rollback segment is derived from …..

A. Db_Block_Buffers
B. Processes
C. shared_Pool_size
D. buffers

16) The …………is responsible for ensuring the correct execution in the presence of failures.
A. Database Manager
B. Transaction Manager
C. Recovery Manager
D. Executive Manager

17) A distributed transaction can be …………. if queries are issued at one or more nodes.
A. fully read-only
B. partially read-only
C. fully read-write
D. partially read-write

18) The distributed transaction can be completely read-only and the transaction is started with a
………. READ ONLY statement.
A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
B. TRANSACTION
C. SET TRANSACTION
D. READ TRANSACTION
19) The initialization parameter …………….. controls the number of possible distributed transactions
in which a given instance can concurrently participate, both as a client and a server.
A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
B. TRANSACTION
C. SET TRANSACTION
D. CONTROL TRANSACTION

20) A database administrator can manually force the COMMIT or ROLLBACK of a local …………
distributed transaction.
A. in-force
B. in-doubt
C. in-local
D. in-manual

ANSWERS:
1) B. data consistency
2) A. Exclusive Mode
3) B. before an image
4) A. Shrinking Phase

5) C. when it is Committed or Rolled-back

6) D. Growing Phase
7) C. TP monitor
8) A. well-formed
9) B. Transaction servers
10) A. two-phase locking
11) A. Atomicity
12) A. serializability
13) D. partially committed
14) C. total ordering
15) B. Processes
16) A. Database Manager
17) B. partially read-only
18) C. SET TRANSACTION
19) A. DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS
20) B. in-doubt
Q: ;Conceptual design ?
A. Is a documentation technique.
B. Needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the
database.
C. Involves modelling independent of the DBMS
D. Is designing the relational model.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: The relational model feature is that there ?

A. Is no need for primary key data
B. Is much more data independence than some other database models
C. Are explicit relationships among records
D. Are tables with many dimensions

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: A relational database developer refers to a record as ?

A. A criteria.
B. A relation.
C. A tuple.
D. An attribute.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: The property / properties of a database is / are : ?

A. It is an integrated collection of logically related records.
B. It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.

C. Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it

D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
  View Answer

Q: A report generator is used to ?

A. Update files.
B. Print files on paper
C. Data entry.
D. Delete files.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: The way a particular application views the data from the database that the
application ;uses is a ?
A. Module.
B. Relational model.
C. Schema.
D. Sub schema.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: The database environment has all of the following components except: ?

A. Users.
B. Separate files
C. Database.
D. Database administrator

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Related fields in a database are grouped to form a ?

A. Data file
B. Data record.
C. Menu.
D. Bank.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: ;A logical schema ?
A. Is the entire database.
B. describe data in terms of relational tables and columns, object-oriented classes,
and XML tags.
C. Describes how data is actually stored on disk.
D. Both (A) and (C)

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: In tuple relational calculus P1 → P2 is equivalent to ?

A. ¬ P1  ∨ P2
B. P1 ∨ P2
C. P1  ∧ P2
D. P1  ∧ ¬P2

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Each of data files has a _____ that describe the way the data is stored in the
file.?
A. File structure
B. Records
C. Fields
D. Database

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
  View Answer

Q: Primitive operations common to all record management systems include?

A. Print
B. Sort
C. Look-up
D. All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Which of the following is a database administrator's function??

A. database design
B. backing up the database
C. performance monitoring
D. user coordination

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Which of the following is not a logical data-base structure??

A. tree
B. relational
C. network
D. chain

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: A report generator is used to?

A. update files
B. print files on paper
C. data entry
D. All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Updates that violate __________ are disallowed.?

A. Integrity constraints
B. Transaction control
C. Authorization
D. DDL constraints

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Insert into instructor values (10211 ’Smith’ ’Biology’ 66000);

What type of statement is this ??
A. Query
B. DML
C. Relational
D. DDL

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Delete from r; r – relation This command performs which of the following

action ??
A. Remove relation
B. Clear relation entries
C. Delete fields
D. Delete rows
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: To remove a relation from an SQL database we use the ______ command.?

A. Delete
B. Purge
C. Remove
D. Drop table

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has the value “Avi† . The attribute

B of datatype char(20) has value ”Reed” .Here attribute A has ____ spaces
and attribute B has ____ spaces.?
A. 3 20
B. 20 4
C. 20 20
D. 3 4

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Q: The basic data type char(n) is a _____ length character string and varchar(n) is
_____ length character.?
A. Fixed equal
B. Equal variable
C. Fixed variable
D. Variable equal

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Select * from employee What type of statement is this??

A. DML
B. DDL
C. View
D. Integrity constraint

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Create table employee (name varchar id integer) What type of statement is

this ??
A. DML
B. DDL
C. View
D. Integrity constraint

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the
database and to insert tuples into delete tuples from and modify tuples in the
database ??
A. DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
B. DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
C. Query
D. Relational Schema

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation deleting
relations and relating schemas ??
A. DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
B. DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
C. Query
D. Relational Schema

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE,

CREATE VIEW, and GRANT statements in a single transaction??
A. CREATE PACKAGE
B. CREATE SCHEMA
C. CREATE CLUSTER
D. All of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Database management systems are intended to:?

A. eliminate data redundancy
B. establish relationships among records in different files
C. manage file access
D. maintain data integrity

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: Subschema can be used to?

A. create very different, personalized views of the same data
B. present information in different formats
C. hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub¬schema's description
D. All of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
  View Answer

Q: In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands??

A. RENAME
B. REVOKE
C. GRANT
D. UPDATE

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

 View Answer

Q: In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to change a table's storage

characteristics??
A. ALTER TABLE
B. MODIFY TABLE
C. CHANGE TABLE
D. All of the above

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

 View Answer