07/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 2 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered :
Physics : Mechanical Properties of Solids and Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter,
Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations and Waves.
Chemistry : Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s‐Block Elements, The p‐Block Elements (Group 13, 14),
Organic Chemistry ‐ Some Basic Principles and Techniques, Hydrocarbons, Environmental
Chemistry.
Botany : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell cycle and Cell Division, Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition,
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration in Plants and Plant Growth and Development.
Zoology : Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation, Excretory Products and Their
Elimination, Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control and Coordination and Chemical
Coordination and Integration.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

(1) 0.075 kg/m3

1. If the pressure due to liquid varies with the depth
y as shown in figure, then the density of the liquid (2) 0.133 kg/m3
is (g = 10 m/s2) (3) 0.75 kg/m3
(4) 1.33 kg/m3
2. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius is
halved and the temperature doubled, the power
radiated in watt would be
(1) 225
(2) 450
(3) 1000
(4) 1800
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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

3. A spherical body is thrown in a long column of 7. If a wire is stretched such that its length becomes
viscous liquid with speed greater than terminal double then
speed (vT). The correct variation of the speed (v)
(1) Young's modulus of wire is equal to twice of
with time (t) is stress
(2) Strain in wire is zero
(3) Strain in wire is 50%

(1) (2) (4) Young's modulus of wire is equal to stress

8. On the Fahrenheit scale, the temperature rise of
nine degree is equivalent to how much degree
rise in Celsius scale?
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 8
(3) (4)
9. The excess of pressure inside the first soap
bubble is 3 times that inside the second
bubble. The ratio of volume of the first to that the
4. The amount of liquid flowing per second in the second bubble is
tubes (1), (2) and (3) are 10 m3/s, 5 m3/s and
8 m3/s respectively. The velocity of liquid in the (1) 1 : 3 3
tube (4) having cross-section of 0.5 m2 is
(2) 1 : 3

(3) 3 3 : 1

(4) 3 :1

10. 100 g ice at 0°C is mixed with 10 g steam at

100°C, then mixture has
(1) 20 g ice and 90 g water
(1) 7 m/s (2) 14 m/s
(2) 10 g ice and 100 g water
(3) 3.5 m/s (4) 12 m/s
(3) 80 g ice and 30 g water
5. Water rises to a height 20 cm in a capillary tube
of cross-sectional area A. If the cross-sectional (4) 10 g ice and 40 g water
area of tube is 4A, then the height to which water 11. Four identical metal rods are connected as
will rise in a tube is shown in figure. Assume there is no heat loss
(1) 5 cm through side walls of the rods and no radiation
(2) 10 cm loss, the junction temperature in steady state is

(3) 4 cm
(4) 8 cm
6. A U-tube containing a liquid is accelerated
horizontally with a constant acceleration a. If the
separation between the two vertical limbs is ,
then the difference in the heights of the liquid in
the two arms is (1) 22°C
(1) Zero (2)  (2) 26°C
(3) 25°C
g a
(3)  (4)
a g (4) 32°C

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

12. A metal wire of length L is suspended vertically K1 + K 2

(1) (2) K1K 2
from a rigid support. When a body of mass M is 2
attached to the lower end of wire, the elongation
3K1 + 2K 2 K1 + 2K 2
of the wire is , then the incorrect statement is (3) (4)
2 3
Mg 16. In an isobaric process of a diatomic gas 140 J of
(1) Heat produced is
2 heat is added to N moles of the gas to increase
(2) Elastic potential energy stored in the wire is its temperature from T1 to T2. The amount of
Mg work done by the gas in this process is
2 (1) 100 J (2) 40 J
(3) The loss in gravitational potential energy of (3) 60 J (4) 120 J
mass M is Mg 17. An ideal monoatomic gas expands to twice its
1
(4) The elastic potential energy in the wire is Mg original volume such that its pressure P ∝ ,
5/3
V
13. The variation in potential energy U between two where V is the volume, the molar heat capacity of
molecules as a function of the distance between the gas is
molecule has been shown in figure. The two
(1) R (2) 3R
molecules are
(3) 2R (4) Zero
18. An ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant
pressure. The fraction of supplied heat which
increases the temperature is
2 4
(1) (2)
5 7

(1) Repelled when separation is in between Q 3 5

(3) (4)
and R 5 7
(2) Attracted when they reach Q 19. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process
A to B as shown in the figure.
(3) Attracted when r lies between P and Q
(4) Repelled when separation is in between P
and Q
14. The specific heat of substance varies with
temperature according to equation C = 2T × 10–3
cal/g K (T is absolute temperature). The amount
of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g
of substance from 27°C to 47°C is
If the heat supplied to the gas is 18P0V0, then the
(1) 2000 cal (2) 4000 cal shaded area is equal to
(3) 3000 cal (4) 1240 cal (1) 7.5P0V0
15. Two different metal slabs of identical length are
(2) 5.5P0V0
joined in parallel. Their cross-sectional areas are
A and 2A. If their thermal conductivity coefficients (3) 10.5P0V0
are K1 and K2 as shown then their equivalent (4) P0V0
conductivity for one dimensional steady heat 20. The first law of thermodynamics is based on
transfer is (1) Conservation of work
(2) Conservation of heat
(3) Conservation of energy
(4) Conservation of momentum

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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

21. In a process, molar heat capacity of a diatomic 26. A uniform disc is spinning about geometrical axis
10 in free space. Its temperature is increased by ∆T.
gas is R. When heat Q is supplied to the gas,
3 The fractional change in its angular velocity is
find the work done by it. (α is coefficient of linear expansion)

3Q Q (1) 2α∆T (2) –2 α∆T

(1) (2)
4 4 (3) –α∆T (4) α∆T
Q Q 27. The mean free path of molecules of an ideal gas
(3) (4) of diameter d is proportional to
2 3
(1) d (2) d –1
22. The following are the P-V diagrams for cyclic
processes for a gas (3) d 0 (4) d –2
28. Two ideal gases, one monoatomic and another
diatomic, are having same pressure P, volume
V and temperature T. Select the correct option
a. b.
(1) The translational kinetic energy for monatomic
3 5
gas is PV but for diatomic gas it is PV .
2 2
(2) The translational kinetic energy for both
monatomic and diatomic gas will be same.
c. d. (3) Average velocity of each molecule of any
type of gas will be proportional to T5 ,
In which of the above graph heat is absorbed? where T is absolute temperature.
(4) Average energy for one molecule per degree
(1) For a and c (2) For a, b and d
1
(3) For b and c (4) For a, b and c of freedom for monatomic gas is kT but
2
2 1
23. For an ideal gas R = Cv . In adiabatic process, that for diatomic it is 2 × kT .
3 2
the pressure of the gas is proportional to
29. A container contains an ideal gas having n
2 2
number of molecules with speed v, 2v, 3v, 4v,
(1) T 5
(2) T 3
......... nv. Consider a hypothetical speed named
3 5
as root mean cube speed defined as
(3) T 2 (4) T 2
24. The source and sink temperature of a Carnot v13 + v 23 + v 33 + ....... + v n3
v =k ,
engine are 327°C and 27°C respectively. The n
efficiency of the engine is where k is dimensional constant.
(1) 60% (2) 55% The ratio of average speed to root mean cube
(3) 70% (4) 50% speed is

25. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic 1

(1) knv (2)
processes are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 kn v
should correspond respectively to 1 1
(3) (4) 2
k nv kn v
30. In a monatomic ideal gas the pressure and
volume relation follows the equation given by
P6 V5 = constant. The gas contains n number of
moles. Find out amount of heat required to
increase the temperature of gas by 5 kelvin.
(1) Ne and Ar (2) O2 and H2 (1) 15 nR (2) 7.5 nR
(3) N2 and He (4) He and Ne (3) 75 nR (4) 37.5 nR

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

31. An experiment is being performed by a student in 36. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
laboratory on ideal gas. He found the value of
(1) All the waves require medium for their
CP – CV equal to 1.00 R for a gas sample in state
propagation
A. Now he performed the experiment on the
(2) Only mechanical waves require an elastic
same gas and found CP – CV as 1.03 R in state
medium for the propagation
B. Let PA, PB denote the pressures and TA, TB
denote the temperatures of states A and B (3) Electromagnetic waves do not require
respectively. Which of the following will be material medium for their propagation
correct? (4) Speed of sound in air increases with
(1) PA < PB and TA > TB temperature
37. If the wire is gently tapped in vertical direction
(2) PA > PB and TA < TB
half-way between the pulleys, what is the lowest
(3) PA = PB and TA < TB frequency at which it will vibrate transversely?
The mass per unit length of the wire is 0.02 kg/m
(4) PA = PB and TA = TB
and it has a length of 0.2 m between pulleys.
32. A particle is performing a motion on the x-axis 1
Volume of block is m3 and its mass is 10 kg.
with its position given by x = A + B sinωt. The 200
amplitude of particle is
(1) A + B (2) A
(3) A – B (4) B
33. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion
on a straight line with time period 12 second. The
minimum time taken by particle to cover distance (1) 250 Hz (2) 125 Hz
equal to amplitude will be (3) 62.5 Hz (4) 500 Hz
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s 38. The sound level of a dog's bark is 50 dB. The
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s intensity of a rock concert is 10,000 times that of
dog's bark. What is the sound level of the rock
34. The equation of motion of a particle starting at
concert?
 π
t = 0 is given
= by x 5 sin  20t +  , where x is in (1) 50 dB (2) 100 dB
 3
centimeter and t is in second. When does the (3) 90 dB (4) 60 dB
particle come to rest for the second time? 39. For a particle which is undergoing simple
π 7π harmonic motion, the square of velocity v2 is
(1) s (2) s plotted against the square of displacement x2.
10 100
The curve will be
7π 5π
(3) s (4) s (1) An ellipse
120 7
(2) A straight line
35. The simple pendulum shown here has time
period T, when the cart is at rest. If cart moves (3) A circle
with constant velocity 8 ms–1 towards left, then (4) A parabola
the new time period will be
40. Two sine waves of same frequency travel in the
same direction in a medium. The amplitude of
each wave is A and the phase difference
between the two waves is 120°. The resultant
T
(1) (2) 2 2 T amplitude will be
8
(1) A (2) 2A
T
(3) (4) T (3) 4A (4) 2A
2 2
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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

41. A block is oscillating in a lift as shown in figure. 43. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz is vibrated with
If lift is falling freely then time period of block is a sonometer wire and 6 beats per second are
heard. The beat frequency reduces if the tension
in the string is slightly increased. The original
frequency of vibration of the string is
(1) 506 Hz (2) 512 Hz
(3) 518 Hz (4) 524 Hz
(1) Infinite (2) Zero 44. Fifth overtone of a closed pipe is found to be in
m unison with the third overtone of an open organ
(3) 2π (4) Can't be predicted pipe. Find ratio of lengths of open organ pipe to
k
that of closed organ pipe.
42. Consider a vertical uniform string having mass
per unit length λ. A pulse is generated at the
5 7
(1) (2)
bottom. Acceleration of the pulse depends on 11 11
x as 4 8
(3) (4)
11 11
45. An observer is moving towards a stationary
sound source of frequency 600 Hz with speed
30 ms–1. What is the apparent frequency of
sound? (Speed of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
(1) x2 (2) x (1) 554 Hz (2) 590 Hz
(3) x (4) Independent of x (3) 654 Hz (4) 720 Hz

CHEMISTRY
46. The compound in which metal exhibits more than 50. The type of silicate unit present in Beryl silicate
one oxidation states, is {Be3Al2[Si6O18]} is
(1) Fe0.94O (2) Fe2O3 (1) Ortho silicate (2) Chain silicate
(3) FeS2 (4) FeCl3 (3) Cyclic silicate (4) Pyro silicate
47. Identify n-factor of underlined species in the 51. In borax bead test, which of the following match
following reaction is correct?
Sb2 O5 + S2 O32 − → SbO + H2 SO3 (1) Ni2+ – Green (2) Fe3+ – Blue
(3) Co2+ – Blue (4) Cu2+ – Yellow
(1) 6 (2) 2
52. Select the element having lowest atomic radius.
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Al (2) Ga
48. Among the following, the species which cannot
(3) In (4) Tl
disproportionate is
53. Which hydrate does not exist?
(1) H3PO3 (2) H2CO3
(1) LiCl ⋅ 2H2 O (2) MgCl2 ⋅ 6H2 O
(3) NaNO2 (4) MnO2
(3) CaCl2 ⋅ 6H2 O (4) BaCl2 ⋅ 4H2 O
49. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 does not
act as reductant? 54. The correct match is
(1) Basic nature – NaOH < KOH < RbOH
(1) 2KBr + H2 O2 → Br2 + 2KOH
(2) Thermal – LiH < KH < CsH
(2) Ag2 O + H2 O2 → 2Ag + H2 O + O2 stability

(3) O3 + H2 O2 → H2 O + 2O2 (3) Thermal – BeCO3 > MgCO3 > K2CO3
stability
(4) Pb3 O4 + 6HNO3 + H2 O2 → 3Pb(NO3 )2 (4) Solubility in – MgCO3< CaCO3< BaCO3
+ 4H2 O + O2 water

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

55. The major component of portland cement is 62. In Dumas method for estimation of nitrogen 0.30
(1) SiO2 (2) CaO g of an organic compound gave 50 ml of nitrogen
collected at 300 K and 715 mm of Hg pressure.
(3) Al2O3 (4) Fe2O3 The percentage composition of nitrogen in the
56. The metal, which is lighter than water at 25°C is compound is, if aqueous tension at 300 K is
15 mm of Hg.
(1) K (2) Rb
(1) 37% (2) 17%
(3) Be (4) Mg
(3) 57% (4) 75%
57. Select the correct statement regarding alkaline
earth metals 63. Among the following groups, the group having
(1) Their sulphates are highly soluble in water maximum –I effect is

(2) Their salts are generally coloured (1) –CH3 (2) –OH

(3) Their nitrates are soluble in water (3) –COOH (4) –Cl
(4) Their carbonates are highly soluble in pure 64. Most reactive alkene towards dil. HCl is
water (1) Ethene
58. Select the incorrect statement among the (2) Propene
following.
(3) Butene
(1) Freezing point of H2O is less than D2O
(4) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene
(2) Dielectric constant of D2O is greater than
65. A compound (X) on ozonolysis gives
H2O (at 20°C)
(3) Boiling point of D2O is greater than H2O . The structural formula of
X will be
(4) Ionic product of D2O is less than H2O
(at 25°C)
(1) (2)
59. Among the following, the highest extent of
tautomerism is shown by
(3) (4)

66. Number of dichloroderivatives that can be

(1) (2) obtained from n-butane (excluding
stereoisomerism) is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

(3) (4) 67. Under ultraviolet light at 500 K, benzene

combines with chlorine gas to form
60. Most acidic hydrogen is present in (1) Gammaxane
(2) Cyclohexane
(1) (2)
(3) 1,3,5-trichlorobenzene

(3) (4) CH2 = CH2 (4) Chlorobenzene

68. The reaction of CH3 – CH = CH2 with HOCl will
61. Which of the following is not an electrophile?
yield
(1) AlCl3
(1) 2-Chloro-1-propanol
(2) SO3 (2) 3-Chloro-2-propanol
(3) NO ⊕
2 (3) 1-Chloro-2-propanol
(4) NH3 (4) 1-Chloro-1-propanol

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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

69. Mole of FeSO4 required to be oxidised by one 75. What is the volume of “20 volume H2O2 solution”
mole of K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium is required to get 5000 cm3 of oxygen at STP?
1 (1) 50 cm3 (2) 100 cm3
(1) 1 (2) (3) 125 cm3 (4) 250 cm3
2
76. The correct IUPAC name of compound
1
(3) 6 (4)
6
70. Identify the rows, which are correctly matched?
is
Column I Column II
I. Diamond – sp2 hybridized C
II. Graphite – sp2 hybridized C
(1) 2-Amino-5-ethyltoluene
III. Buckminster fullerene – sp2 hybridized C
(2) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline
IV. Carbon dioxide – sp hybridized C
(3) 2-Methyl-4-ethylaniline
(1) I & IV only (2) II & IV only
(4) 5-Ethyl-2-aminotoluene
(3) II, III & IV only (4) I, II, III & IV
77. Total number of isomers of C7H8O containing
71. Among the following, acidic oxides are
benzene ring is
CO, CO2, GeO, GeO2, SiO2, PbO, SnO2
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) CO2, GeO, GeO2, SiO2
(3) 5 (4) 6
(2) CO2, GeO2, SiO2, SnO2 78. Geometrical isomerism is not possible in
(3) CO2, GeO2, SiO2, PbO (1) Allene
(4) CO, PbO, SnO2 (2) Aldoxime
72. Correct order of melting point of Boron family is (3) Azobenzene

(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (4) 1,2-Dichlorocyclohexane

79. In Carius method, 0.18 gram of an organic
(2) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
compound gave 0.11 gram of AgBr. The
(3) B >Al > Tl > In > Ga
percentage of Br in the compound is
(4) B > Tl > In > Al > Ga (Ag : 108 g mol–1, Br : 80 g mol–1)
73. Select the correct options among the following. (1) 34% (2) 39%
I. Li can form Li3N (3) 26% (4) 30%
II. Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 80. Among the following, aromatic species are
< Cs2CO3 (Thermal stability)
(i) (ii)
III. LiCl is soluble in pyridine
IV. CaH2 is known as hydrolith
(iii) (iv)
(1) I, II only (2) I, II, III only
(3) I, III, IV only (4) I, II, III, IV (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
74. Consider the following statements (3) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
I. Temporary hardness of water is due to 81. In the reactions,
bicarbonates of Ca2+ and Mg2+
II. Permanent hardness of water is caused due
to presence of calcium chloride. Compound (C) should be
III. Calgon is used to remove chloride ions from
hard water.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (1) (2)
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III (3) (4)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

82. The mesomeric effects of the groups 86. In the reaction,

respectively is the reaction intermediate is

(1) Carbanion (2) Free radical
(1) + M, + M, – M, – M (2) + M, – M, + M, – M (3) Carbocation (4) Carbene
(3) – M, – M, + M, – M (4) + M, – M, – M, + M 87. The correct order of rate of electrophilic aromatic
83. Which of the following is most stable conformer? substitution reactions for the following
compounds is

(1) (2)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
88. The acid which does not give isopentane on
(3) (4) decarboxylation with soda lime, is

(1) (2)

84. Which of the following alkane cannot be prepared

by Wurtz’s reaction in good yield? (3) (4)

89. Depletion of ozone layer by CFCs is mainly due

(1) (2) to formation of
(1) Fluorine radicals
(3) (4) (2) Chlorine radicals
(3) Free oxygen atoms (O)
85. Which of the following has highest boiling point?
(4) Both (1) and (2)
90. Reducing smog is the mixture of
(1) (2) (1) Smoke, fog and SO2
(2) Smoke, fog and NO2
(3) Smoke, SO2 and NO2
(3) (4)
(4) Fog, SO2 and NO2

BOTANY
91. Cell wall is the outermost covering in plant cell 92. Endomembrane system consists of all, except
which (1) Golgi apparatus (2) Vacuoles
a. Protects the cell from infection. (3) Plastids (4) Lysosomes
93. The important cell organelles responsible for the
b. Shows the selectively permeable nature
formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
c. Helps in cell-to-cell interaction. (1) Is responsible for synthesis of cellular energy
Which of the above statements are correct? (2) Is the largest organelle of plant cell
(3) Was first observed by Camillo Golgi
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(4) Is minute membrane bound vesicles called
(3) Only c (4) a and c microbodies
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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

94. Chlorophyll pigment is present in the ______ of 100. The cytoplasm of one plant cell is in contact with
chloroplast others by
(1) Thylakoids and stroma (1) Mesosomes (2) Dictyosomes
(2) Matrix (3) Plasmodesmata (4) Microtubules
(3) Thylakoids 101. Sister chromatids separate during
(4) Stroma (1) Anaphase-II (2) Anaphase
95. Select the correct option stating true (T) and (3) Telophase-I (4) Both (1) & (2)
false (F) w.r.t. ribosomes 102. a. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
A. Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cell occurs in b. Formation of recombination nodules
the ribosomes of nucleus. c. Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres
B. Ribosomes are the granular structures first d. Alignment of bivalent chromosome on the
observed under the electron microscope. equatorial plate
C. The sedimentation coefficient is indirect e. Terminalisation of chiasmata
measure of density and size.
Select the correct sequence of events during
A B C meiosis-I :
(1) T T T (1) d → c → a → b → e (2) b → c → a → e → d
(2) F F F
(3) c → b → a → e → d (4) c → d → b → e → a
(3) T F T
103. Interkinesis is a gap phase between meiosis-I
(4) F T T and meiosis-II in which
96. The axoneme of eukaryotic flagellum (1) DNA replication occurs
(1) Is made up of nine microtubule triplets (2) Chromosomes are elongated and form
(2) Arises from the centriole like structure called chromatin fibres
the basal bodies (3) Centrioles pair replicate in animal cell
(3) Possesses a single microtubule running (4) RNA and proteins are never synthesised
parallel to the short axis 104. Read the following features and identify the
(4) Made up of nine peripheral and two central phase in which it occurs.
microtubule doublets a. Phase of differentiation.
97. The centromere is present very close to one end b. Cells of the phase are metabolically active
of the chromosome in but no longer proliferate.
(1) Telocentric chromosome c. Shown by heart cells.
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (1) G0 phase (2) G1 phase
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(3) S - phase (4) G2 phase
(4) Metacentric chromosome
105. Match the following columns and select the
98. The microtubules are
correct option.
(1) Found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
Column I Column II
cells
a. S-phase (i) Duplication of mitochondria
(2) Found only in prokaryotic cells and made up
of 13 parallel protofilaments b. M-phase (ii) Phase between mitosis and
initiation of DNA replication
(3) Hollow, unbranched cylindrical structure
found only in eukaryotic cells c. G1-phase (iii) Centriole duplicates in the

(4) Solid, unbranched, rod-like fibrils of indefinite cytoplasm of animal cells

length found only in eukaryotic cells d. G2-phase (iv) Shortest phase of cell cycle
99. Steroidal hormones are synthesised in which of (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
the following cell organelle of the animal cells? (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) RER (2) SER (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Lysosomes (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

106. Crossing over occurs between 112. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. symplastic
(1) Sister chromatids of homologous pathway of water.
chromosomes (1) Involves intercellular spaces and
(2) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous interconnected protoplasts
chromosomes (2) Plasmodesmata help in intercellular
(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous movement through the cytoplasmic strands
chromosomes (3) Ultimately water moves to the vascular
(4) Sister chromatids of non-homologous cylinder from endodermis by symplastic
chromosomes pathway only
107. The cell organelles that consumes oxygen and (4) Water enters the cell through the cell
releases carbon dioxide during photorespiration membrane, hence the movement is relatively
are respectively slower
113. Which of the following elements is non-essential
(1) Chloroplast and mitochondria
for plants but have a functional role?
(2) Peroxisome and chloroplast
(1) Cobalt (2) Molybdenum
(3) Mitochondria and peroxisome
(3) Nickel (4) Manganese
(4) Mitochondria and chloroplast
114. Find out the odd one w.r.t. role of potassium in
108. When only one type of solute molecule enters the plants.
cell with the help of carrier protein, the process is
(1) Synthesis of middle lamella
called
(2) Opening of stomata
(1) Uniport (2) Symport
(3) Maintains anion-cation balance
(3) Antiport (4) Co-transport
(4) Involved in protein synthesis
109. If a living plant cell is placed in a concentrated
115. Which one of the following is a micronutrient
sugar solution, the cell will
associated with electron transport in chloroplast?
(1) Gain water and become turgid (1) Cu (2) Cl
(2) Lose water and become plasmolysed (3) Mg (4) Mn
(3) Absorb sugar and become turgid 116. Find out the odd one w.r.t role of boron in plants.
(4) Absorb water and become flaccid (1) Pollen germination
110. Most of the minerals are absorbed actively from (2) Cell differentiation
soil to the root cells because (3) Activates catalase
(1) The concentration of ions in roots is less than (4) Carbohydrate translocation
that of the the soil
117. Read the following statements (a-e) and choose
(2) Minerals are in the form of ions in soil the suitable option w.r.t. respiration
(3) Mineral ions aggregate to form very large a. A series of slow step-wise reactions
particles controlled by enzymes.
(4) For dissociation of mineral compound into b. Breaking of the C-C bonds of respiratory
ions, plants have to expend their ATP substrates through oxidation within the cells.
111. Statement-A : Xylem is associated with c. Liberation of energy.
translocation of mineral salts, some organic d. Breakdown of complex molecules to yield
nitrogen and hormones. energy which takes place in mitochondria
Statement-B : Phloem translocates a variety of only.
organic and inorganic solutes mainly from sink to e. Carbon skeleton produced during respiration
source. is not used as precursor for cellular
(1) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is biosynthesis of other molecules.
correct (1) b, c and e are correct
(2) Statement A and statement B are correct (2) d and e are incorrect
(3) Statement A and statement B are incorrect (3) Only d is incorrect
(4) Only statement A is correct (4) a and e are correct

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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

118. RQ (Respiratory Quotient)
(1) Of oxalic acid and malic acid is more than
unity
(2) Is the ratio of the volume of O2 evolved to the
volume of CO2 consumed in respiration
(3) Of organic acids is always less than unity
(4) Is infinity in CAM plants
119. Which of the following are involved in the first
step of the Krebs’ cycle?
(1) OAA, pyruvic acid, water
(2) Acetyl CoA, water, isocitric acid
(3) Malic acid, OAA, citric acid
(4) Acetyl CoA, OAA, water
120. Redox equivalent generated during oxidation of
succinate in the TCA cycle is received by
(1) Complex I (2) Complex II
(3) Cytochrome c (4) Complex III
121. The gateway reaction of aerobic respiration is
(1) Link reaction
(2) Transition reaction
(3) Carboxylation and dehydrogenation
(4) All except (3)
122. O2 evolved in photosynthesis in green plants
comes from water, not from CO2 was confirmed
by
(1) Experiments of Engelmann using Cladophora
and aerobic bacteria
(2) Using heavy but non-radioactive, stable
isotope of oxygen
(3) Moll’s half leaf experiment
124. The enzyme involved in primary CO2 fixation in
C4 plants is _____ and located in _____.
(1) PEPCase, agranal chloroplast
(2) RuBisCO, granal chloroplast
(3) PEPCase, cytosol of mesophyll cells
(4) PEPCase, granal chloroplast
125. Relationship between incident light and CO2
fixation rate is
(1) Sigmoid at higher light intensity
(2) Linear at low intensity of light
(3) Not affected if the available intensity is below
the saturation
(4) Linear at high light intensity
126. Agranal chloroplasts are found in
(1) Mesophyll cells of all dicots
(2) Bundle sheath cells of sugarcane leaves
(3) Mesophyll cells of plants showing photo
respiration
(4) Mesophyll cells of all monocots
127. In Calvin cycle, for synthesis of two molecules of
sucrose, the requirement of ATP and NADPH is
respectively
(1) 72 and 48
(2) 18 and 12
(3) 30 and 12
(4) 60 and 24
128. Formation of interfascicular cambium and cork
cambium in dicot stem is
(1) Differentiation
(2) Dedifferentiation

(4) Using a suitable H-acceptor molecule like (3) Redifferentiation

H2S (4) Both (2) and (3)
123. Choose the incorrect statement. 129. IAA is essential in all except
(1) In PS I, the reaction centre chlorophyll a has (1) Apical hook formation
an absorption peak at 700 nm. (2) Apical dominance
(2) The LHC are made up of hundreds of (3) Parthenocarpy in tomatoes
pigment molecules which are bound to
(4) Xylem differentiation
proteins
130. The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by
(3) Many chlorophyll ‘a’ molecules form the
inducing stem elongation by the application of
reaction centre
(1) Ethylene (2) GA
(4) Antenna molecules help to make
photosynthesis more efficient (3) CK (4) ABA

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

131. Match the following columns 133. Which of the following plant hormones is used to
speed up the malting process in brewing
Column-I Column-II
industry?
(Bioassays of (Characteristics of
phytohormones) phytohormones) (1) Gibberellin (2) Zeatin
(3) 2, 4–D (4) ABA
a. Avena curvature test (i) Delay leaf
senescence 134. Which one is not true for tobacco plant w.r.t.
b. Chlorophyll (ii) Promote female flowering?
preservation test flowers in cucumber (1) Does not flower if photoperiod given is less
than the critical period
c. Triple response test (iii) Initiate rooting in
(2) Needs a long uninterrupted darkness
stem cutting
PR
d. Cotton explant test (iv) Antagonist to GAs (3) > 1 is critical for flowering
PFR
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Flowering is inhibited if photoperiod exceeds
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) the critical period
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 135. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
vernalisation.
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Qualitatively and quantitatively dependent on
132. Select the wrong statement w.r.t. ethylene exposure to low temperature
(1) Inhibits senescence and abscission (2) Stimulus is perceived by the mature stem
apex but not by the leaves
(2) Breaks seed and bud dormancy
(3) Helps in shortening the period between
(3) Induces flowering in mango germination and flowering
(4) Accelerates abscission of leaves, flowers and (4) Biennial plants do not show vernalisation
fruits response

ZOOLOGY
136. 'Emphysema' is a chronic disorder in which walls 139. If repeated checks of blood pressure of an
of alveoli are damaged,as a result individual show pressures as 140/90, it is
(1) Respiratory surface area increases considered as
(2) Vital capacity increases (1) Hypotension (2) Hypertension
(3) Respiratory surface area decreases (3) Bradycardia (4) Heart block
(4) Total lung capacity increases 140. Statement that does not hold true for circulatory
137. Read the following statements and select the system of humans is
correct option (1) Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused due to Rh
Statement-A : First heart sound is Lub. factor incompatibility
Statement-B : Dub sound is produced due to (2) Lymph is a colourless fluid containing
closure of semilunar valves. specialised lymphocytes
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) The duration of a cardiac cycle is normally
(2) Only statement B is correct 0.8 seconds
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Heart failure is same as heart attack
(4) Both statements are correct
141. Select the incorrect option
138. Formation of a clot in damaged blood vessels
requires conversion of inactive fibrinogens to (1) Basophils → Least abundant WBCs
fibrin in the blood. The blood clotting factor (2) Neutrophils → Most abundant WBCs
specific for catalyzing this particular conversion is
(1) Only calcium (2) Thrombokinase
(3) Monocytes → Phagocytic WBCs
(3) Prothrombinase (4) Active thrombin (4) Eosinophils → Agranulocytes
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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

142. A band of fibres present in the myocardium which (3) Specialised nodal musculature has the ability
helps in the transmission of cardiac impulses to generate action potentials without any
from AVN to ventricles is external stimulus (autoexcitable)
(1) SAN (2) Pacesetter (4) Neural centres in medulla oblongata can
(3) Bundle of His (4) Papillary muscles moderate the cardiac functions through ANS
143. Choose the incorrect statement 149. Match the respiratory structures given in column-I
(1) Trachea is a straight tube extending upto the with the animals given is column-II
mid thoracic cavity which divides at the level Column-I Column-II
of fifth thoracic vertebra into a right and left a. Book lungs (i) Prawn
primary bronchi b. Skin (Cutaneous) (ii) King Crab
(2) Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas c. Book gills (iii) Earthworm
reptiles, birds and mammals respire through d. Gills (iv) Scorpion
lungs. (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
forceful expiration is functional residual 150. The average systolic pressure in an adult human
capacity
is A and the diastolic pressure is B .
(4) Exchange of O2 and CO2 between blood and
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly
tissues occurs by simple diffusion.
A B
144. ______ are the type of WBCs which secrete
(1) 120 mmHg 80 mmHg
heparin, histamine and serotonin.
(2) 80 mmHg 120 mmHg
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly
(3) 100 mmHg 50 mmHg
(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils
(4) 140 mmHg 90 mmHg
(3) Monocytes (4) Lymphocytes
151. The right atrium receives blood from
145. The name of conical muscular projections to
(1) Pulmonary artery (2) Pulmonary vein
which chordae tendineae are attached in the
ventricles of the human heart is/are (3) Descending aorta (4) Superior vena cava
152. Which one of the following is the most toxic
(1) Pectoralis muscle
nitrogenous waste?
(2) Ligamentum arteriosum
(1) Uric acid (2) Ammonia
(3) Papillary muscles
(3) Urea (4) Carbon dioxide
(4) Fossa ovalis
153. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never
146. Which valves prevent the backward flow of blood rejected because
into the ventricles from pulmonary artery and
(1) Latest immunosuppressant drugs are
systemic aorta?
successful
(1) Tricuspid valves (2) Semilunar valves
(2) The tissue is resistant to bacterial attack
(3) Bicuspid valves (4) Thebesian valves
(3) Cornea is an avascular part of the body
147. Double circulation implies presence of pulmonary (4) The cells form a keratinised dead layer
and systemic circulation. This type of circulation
154. Match column I with column II and choose the
first appeared in cold blooded animals belonging
correct option
to
Column-I Column-II
(1) Aves (2) Mammalia
a. TV (i) 1100 mL - 1200 mL
(3) Reptilia (4) Pisces
b. IRV (ii) 1000 mL - 1100 mL
148. "Human heart is myogenic". Which of the
c. ERV (iii) 500 mL
following statements supports the above
mentioned fact? d. RV (iv) 2500 mL - 3000 mL
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Neural signals through ANS can increase or
decrease the rate of heart beat (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(2) The cardiac output can be increased through (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
adrenal medullary hormones (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)

155. Match the following w.r.t partial pressures 160. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(mmHg) of O2 mostly due to genetic disorder is
Column-I Column-II (1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Muscular tetany
a. Atmospheric air (i) 40 (3) Multiple sclerosis (4) Muscular dystrophy

b. Blood in systemic (ii) 104 161. Bone that is not the part of axial skeleton is
arteries (1) Malleus (2) Frontal
c. Alveoli (iii) 159 (3) Humerus (4) Parietal
d. Tissue (iv) 95 162. An auto-immune disorder in which there is
inflammation of synovial membrane, erosion of
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
articular cartilage and abnormal tissue growth in
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) joints (pannus) is
156. Identify the correct match (1) Osteoarthritis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(1) Pneumotaxic centre – Moderates respiratory (3) Gouty arthritis (4) Myasthenia gravis
in pons region rhythm centre
163. Glomerular filtrate is
(2) Respiratory rhythm – Inactivated by
centre in increase in H+
(1) Deproteinised plasma
hypothalamus (2) Hypertonic to blood plasma
(3) Chemosensitive – Inactivated by increase (3) Hypotonic to blood plasma and lacks plasma
area in CO2 proteins
(4) Pulmonary and – Always signals to (4) Blood without excretory wastes
coronary arteries reduce the duration of 164. All of the following statements are correct with
inspiration respect to human kidneys, except
157. Which of the following statements is incorrect (1) Situated between the levels of last thoracic
w.r.t. gaseous transport? and third lumbar vertebra, close to the dorsal
(1) The capacity of 1 gm of haemoglobin is to inner wall of the abdominal cavity
combine with approximately 1.34 ml O2 (2) Kidneys are retroperitoneal
(2) In a normal person, haemoglobin binds to (3) The right kidney is slightly higher than the left
23% O2 in blood (4) Renal pelvis is internally lined with urothelium
(3) About 15 ml O2 can be released to tissues 165. Ketonuria and glycosuria are indicative of which
from 100 mL oxygenated blood during disease?
intense physical exercise (1) Protein energy malnutrition
(4) About 7% CO2 is transported through plasma (2) Diabetes mellitus
in dissolved form (3) Glomerulonephritis
158. Nodding movement of head occurs due to the (4) Cystitis
joint between 166. Which of the following is not involved in the knee
(1) Atlas and vertebrae axis jerk-reflex?
(2) Atlas and occipital condyles (1) Muscle spindle (2) Motor neuron
(3) Scapula and occipital condyles (3) Quadriceps femoris (4) Interneurons
(4) Cervical and thoracic vertebrae 167. A person suffers from some damage to
159. Which of the following will remain unchanged hypothalamus. He passes nearly 6 litres of urine
during contraction of skeletal muscle fibres? despite normal intake in 24 hours and his urine
sample shows lack of ketone bodies, glucose
(1) Length between two consecutive Z-lines
and proteins. Probably he is facing
(2) Length of actin filaments condition/disorder termed as
(3) Length of an isotropic band (1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Nephrosis
(4) Length of H-zone (3) Extreme starvation (4) Aldosteronism

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Test-2 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

168. Which of the following statements is incorrect 173. A tumour in adrenal cortex can produce all of
about melatonin? these conditions, except
(1) Secreted from the pineal gland which is (1) Hirsutism
ectodermal in origin (2) Bronze like pigmentation of skin
(2) Synthesised from tryptophan (3) High blood pressure
(4) Wasting of muscles of limbs
(3) It delays the onset of puberty in the people
who are blind since birth 174. Meninges are the protective membranous
coverings of CNS. Arrange them from inside to
(4) It regulates the 24-hour diurnal rhythm of
outside.
body
(1) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater
169. Kidney secretes all of the following, except (2) Arachnoid – Duramater – Piamater
(1) Calcitriol (2) Erythropoietin (3) Piamater – Arachnoid – Duramater
(3) Angiotensinogen (4) Renin (4) Arachnoid – Piamater – Duramater
170. When immunoglobulins are synthesised in the 175. The most sensitive part of the retina to light is
body against the bodies own cells, certain (1) Blind spot (2) Peripheral region
disorders are produced. Which of the following is (3) Macula lutea (4) Fovea centralis
not an example of such a disorder? 176. Choose the odd one w.r.t. neurotransmitters
(1) Grave's disease (2) IDDM (1) Acetylcholine (2) Epinephrine
(3) Toxic nodular goitre (4) Myasthenia gravis (3) Norepinephrine (4) Cortisone
171. Match the following features with their glands. 177. Which of the following structures is not a part of
prosencephalon/forebrain?
Choose the correct option
(1) Cerebellum (2) Olfactory lobes
Features Glands (3) Diencephalon (4) Cerebrum
a. Sella tursica (i) Thymus 178. Small passage which maintains the continuity
b. Atrophy with age (ii) Parathyroid between scala tympani and scala vestibule is
(1) Ossicles
c. Endemic disease (iii) Neurohypophysis
(2) Tympanic membrane
d. Hypercalcemic (iv) Thyroid hormone
(3) Eustachian tube
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) Helicotrema
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) 179. Otolith organ consists of
172. During the first five minutes before an interview, (1) Three semicircular canals
a person experiences sweating, increased rate of (2) Saccule and utricle
heart beat and respiration. Which part of nervous (3) Organ of Corti
system and hormones are responsible for the
(4) Crista ampullaris
restlessness respectively?
180. When osmoreceptors are stimulated, they cause
(1) Sympathetic nervous system; estrogen and the release of some hormones from the
progesterone ‘‘Hypothalamus and posterior lobe of pituitary
(2) Parasympathetic nervous system; oxytocin gland’’. These hormones is/are
and vasopressin a. Oxytocin b. ADH
(3) Sympathetic nervous system; adrenaline and c. Vasopressin
noradrenaline Options are
(4) Sympathetic nervous system; insulin and (1) Only a (2) a, b and c
glucagon (3) Only b and c (4) Only b

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