Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
O'Hara - SPH4U1
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. A football player successfully kicks a field goal through the uprights situated at the south end of the stadium.
What are the directions of the instantaneous velocity and acceleration, respectively, of the football at the peak
of its trajectory?
a. south, south d. south, up
b. up, south e. down, down
c. south, down
____ 2. A race car completes exactly 10 laps around an oval track. Which of the following pairs of quantities
concerning its motion would both have values of zero?
a. displacement, average velocity
b. average speed, average acceleration
c. distance, average speed
d. average speed, average velocity
e. displacement, average speed
____ 3. A bus drives 40.0 km [E] from town A to town B, then another 30.0 km [S] to town C in a total time of 1.00
h. What are the values of its average speed and average velocity, respectively?
a. 70.0 km/h, 70.0 km/h [37º S of E] d. 50.0 km/h, 70.0 km/h [37º S of E]
b. 70.0 km/h, 50.0 km/h [37º S of E] e. 50.0 km/h [37º S of E], 70.0 km/h
c. 50.0 km/h, 50.0 km/h [37º S of E]
____ 4. Which of the following graphs does NOT depict uniform motion?
a. A and B d. B and D
b. C only e. A and E
c. D and E
____ 5. Which of the following graphs depicts uniform motion?
a. A and B d. B and D
b. C and D e. E only
c. A and C
____ 6. Which of the following statements concerning motion graphs is NOT correct?
a. The slope of a position-time graph gives velocity.
b. The area under a velocity-time graph gives displacement.
c. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives acceleration.
d. The area under an acceleration-time graph gives velocity.
e. The slope of the tangent in a position-time graph gives instantaneous velocity.
____ 7. Which of the following statements concerning motion graphs is correct?
a. The slope of a position-time graph gives acceleration.
b. The area under an acceleration-time graph gives instantaneous velocity.
c. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives displacement.
d. The area under a position-time graph gives velocity.
e. The area under a velocity-time graph gives displacement.
____ 8. Which of the following descriptions best represents the acceleration-time graph of a car that pulls away from
a corner when the light turns green, reaches and maintains a constant velocity, then slows down until it stops?
Assume that all accelerations are uniform.
a. All three sections of the graph are comprised of horizontal lines.
b. Two sections of the graph are diagonal lines and one is horizontal.
c. Two sections of the graph are horizontal lines and one is diagonal.
d. All three sections of the graph are comprised of diagonal lines.
e. All three sections of the graph are comprised of curved lines.
____ 9. An object is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 25 m/s. How much time passes before it comes back
down at 15 m/s? (Air resistance is negligible.)
a. 1.0 s d. 18 s
b. 4.1 s e. 27 s
c. 9.8 s
____ 10. Ignoring air resistance, which of the following are exhibiting “free fall”?
a. an object, initially at rest, dropped out of a window
b. an object thrown vertically downward from a window
c. an object projected vertically upward from a window
d. an object thrown horizontally from a window
e. all of the above
____ 11. Three identical objects are thrown from the same height through a window at the same time. Object A is
thrown horizontally at 4.0 m/s, object B is thrown horizontally at 8.0 m/s, and object C is simply dropped. If
air resistance is negligible, which object will reach the ground first?
a. object A
b. object B
c. object C
d. objects B and C will land first and together
e. all three will land at the same time
____ 12. For a javelin thrower to maximize her throwing distance, she should release the javelin at an angle
a. of 45
b. of less than 45
c. of greater than 45
d. dependent on the javelin’s speed upon release
e. dependent on the thrower’s strength
____ 13. A boat always points directly at the opposite shore while crossing a river. The time it will take to cross will be
a. less if the current is stronger
b. greater if the current is stronger
c. the same regardless of the current
d. dependent on the strength of the current
e. impossible to predict without more information
____ 14. Three identical boats set out to cross a river that has a current. Boat A points directly across the river, boat B
points 20º downstream from a point straight across the river, and boat C points 20º upstream from a point
straight across the river. Which boat will arrive on the opposite shore first?
a. boat A
b. boat B
c. boat C
d. it is impossible to tell with the information given
e. all three boats will arrive at the same time
____ 15. The free-body diagram of a block being pushed up a rough ramp is best represented by
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 16. The free-body diagram of a car in a skid with its brakes locked up is best represented by
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 17. An object sits at rest on a ramp. Which of the following free-body diagrams best represents the forces acting
on the object?
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 18. An elevator moves downward at a constant speed. What is the relationship between the gravitational force
acting on the elevator and the tension in the cable?
a. d.
b. e.
c.
____ 19. According to Newton’s third law, when you walk across a floor, the force that propels you forward is
a. the force applied by your feet on the floor
b. the force of friction of your feet on the floor
c. the force of the floor applied against your feet
d. exerted upward by the floor on your feet (i.e., the normal force)
e. the force acting on you working against gravity
____ 20. A 4.0-kg object, A, and a 2.0-kg object, B, are connected with a rope. A force is applied to another rope
attached to the 2.0-kg object that pulls both A and B along a horizontal surface. Which of the following
statements is true?
a. The force that B exerts on A is greater than the force that A exerts on B.
b. The force that A exerts on B is greater than the force that B exerts on A.
c. The force that B exerts on A is equal to the force that A exerts on B provided that the
system slides with uniform motion.
d. The force that B exerts on A is equal to the force that A exerts on B regardless of the
motion of the system.
e. The sum of the applied force and the force that B exerts on A is equal to the force that A
exerts on B.
____ 21. Three masses are suspended vertically as shown in the diagram below. The system is accelerating upward.
What is the relationship among the forces of tension?
a. d.
b. e.
c.
____ 22. For an object travelling with “uniform circular motion,” its acceleration is
a. zero because the speed is constant
b. directed tangent to the circle
c. directed toward the centre of the circle
d. changing in magnitude depending on its position in the circle
e. directed outward from the centre of the circle
____ 23. A child whirls a ball around in circles on the end of a 48 cm long string at a frequency of 2.5 Hz. What is the
ball’s centripetal acceleration?
a. 1.2 104 m/s2 d. 38 m/s2
b. 1.2 102 m/s2 e. 3.0 m/s2
2
c. 47 m/s
____ 24. A rock is tied to the end of a 35 cm long string and whirled around in a circle that describes a vertical plane.
The tension in the string becomes zero when the speed of the rock is
a. 9.8 102 cm/s d. 9.8 cm/s
b. 1.9 102 cm/s e. 1.9 cm/s
c. 19 cm/s
____ 25. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a planet having twice the Earth’s mass and twice its radius
would be
a. 39.2 m/s2 d. 4.9 m/s2
2
b. 19.6 m/s e. 2.45 m/s2
2
c. 9.8 m/s
____ 26. Planet X has a radius 4 times that of Earth and the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of planet X is 4.9
m/s2. The mass of Planet X compared to Earth’s mass is
a. 16 times d. 2 times
b. 8 times e. the same
c. 4 times
____ 27. The force of gravity acting on a 10-kg object at an altitude equivalent to the Earth’s radius is
a. 49 N d. 5.0 N
b. 24 N e. 2.4 N
c. 9.8 N
____ 28. The orbital speed of a satellite at an altitude equivalent to Earth’s radius (r E = 6.38 106 m) is (mE = 5.98
1024 kg, G = 6.67 10–11 N·m2/kg2)
a. 9.8 103 m/s d. 4.9 103 m/s
b. 7.9 103 m/s e. 2.5 103 m/s
c. 5.6 10 m/s
3
____ 29. Astronauts on board an orbiting space station appear to be “floating” because
a. they are in the vacuum of space
b. they are outside Earth’s gravitational influence
c. the force of gravity acting on them has been reduced to an insignificant level
d. they have become truly “weightless”
e. they are in free fall along with the space station itself
____ 30. Which of the following graphs best illustrates the relationship between a satellite’s orbital radius ro and its
orbital speed vo?
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 31. A ripple tank is used to generate water waves. These waves are refracted as they travel from deep to shallow
water. Which of the following factors, when changed, will not affect the amount of bending observed?
a. the angle between the boundary and the incident wave front
b. the difference in depth between the shallow and deep regions
c. the wavelength of the incident wave
d. the amplitude of the incident wave
e. the frequency of the incident wave
____ 32. A two-point source interference pattern is generated in a ripple tank. Point P, on the second nodal line, is
located 28 cm from one source and 37 cm from the other. The wavelength of the waves is
a. 18 cm d. 6.0 cm
b. 14 cm e. 4.5 cm
c. 9.0 cm
____ 33. In the diagram below (not to scale), two point sources, S 1 and S2, are located 6 cm apart and are vibrating in
phase. Point P is located on the first nodal line.
If the wavelength of the generated waves is cm, then PS1 – PS2 will be equal to
a. d.
b. e.
c.
____ 34. Two point sources vibrating in phase in a ripple tank are placed a fixed distance apart, creating a stationary
nodal line pattern. Which of the following statements concerning the nodal lines is incorrect?
a. In areas between the nodal lines, energy is transmitted away from the sources.
b. When the distance from the sources is large, the nodal line separation is one-half of a
wavelength.
c. The path length difference from the sources to any point on a given nodal line is a fixed
value.
d. Nodal lines are a result of continuous destructive interference.
e. The nodal lines are hyperbolas, becoming essentially straight lines at great distances from
the source.
____ 35. In a two-point source interference pattern in a ripple tank, a point is one-half wavelength farther from one
source than the other. If the two sources are in phase, then there is
a. destructive interference at this point
b. constructive interference at this point
c. both constructive and destructive interference simultaneously
d. neither constructive nor destructive interference at this point
e. no interaction between the two waves at this point
____ 36. Two speakers producing exactly the same frequency and always in phase are located on an east–west line
emitting sound toward the north. The speakers are 30 cm apart and a microphone is located 40 cm due north
of one speaker. Which of the following wavelengths would produce sound with the loudest intensity at the
location of the microphone?
a. 50 cm d. 20 cm
b. 40 cm e. 10 cm
c. 30 cm
____ 37. A student counts a total of eight nodal lines on each side of a two-point source interference pattern and
measures the sources to be 15 cm apart. What is the approximate wavelength of the waves?
a. 0.50 cm d. 15 cm
b. 2.0 cm e. none of the above
c. 7.5 cm
____ 38. A two-point source interference pattern is generated in a ripple tank by identical sources vibrating in phase
and located 12.0 cm apart. There are seven nodal lines observed on each side of the centre line. If the
wavelength of the sources is doubled and they remain in phase
a. the number of nodal lines observed doubles
b. the frequency doubles
c. the speed of the wave doubles
d. the number of nodal lines decreases to half
e. the average distance between nodal lines decreases
____ 39. Consider the following properties of light:
I. rectilinear propagation
II. reflection
III. refraction
IV. diffraction
V. partial reflection-refraction
Which of these properties did Newton have trouble explaining with his theory of light?
a. III only d. IV and V only
b. IV only e. III and V only
c. III and IV only
____ 40. A satellite receiver reflects incoming radio waves in a similar manner as
a. straight water waves reflect from a straight barrier
b. circular water waves reflect from a circular barrier
c. straight water waves reflect from a concave barrier
d. straight water waves reflect from a convex barrier
e. circular water waves reflect from a straight barrier
____ 41. Which of the following properties of light cannot be explained by the particle theory but can easily be
explained by the wave theory?
a. rectilinear propagation d. dispersion
b. transmission in a vacuum e. diffraction
c. refraction
____ 42. A student wishes to perform Young’s double-slit experiment to measure the wavelength of light of a given
source. The student has measured the average distance between adjacent dark bands and the distance from the
slits to the screen. What other measurement is required to calculate the wavelength?
a. the location of the central bright line
b. the distance between the source and the slits
c. the angle between the central bright line and first nodal line
d. the distance separating the two slits
e. the distance between the centre of the two slits and any given dark band
____ 43. A student performs a double-slit experiment using two slits spaced 0.20 mm apart and located 1.50 m from
the screen. The monochromatic light source creates an interference pattern in which the average distance
between dark bands is 0.45 cm. What is the wavelength of the light being used?
a. 6.0 10–9 m d. 6.0 10–5 m
b. 6.0 10 m –8
e. 15 m
c. 6.0 10 m –7
____ 44. A student performs a double-slit experiment using a monochromatic light source, two slits spaced 0.10 mm
apart, and a screen located 150 cm away. The bright fringes are located 0.30 cm apart. If the distance between
the slits was changed to 0.20 mm, what would the average distance between bright fringes become?
a. 0.15 cm d. 0.60 cm
b. 0.30 cm e. 1.5 m
c. 0.50 cm
____ 45. A student performs a double-slit experiment using two slits spaced 0.25 mm apart and located 3.0 m from a
screen. Infrared light with a wavelength of 1200 nm is used and film sensitive to infrared light is used as the
screen. What is the average distance between adjacent dark bands on the exposed film?
a. 2.8 m d. 2.8 cm
b. 1.4 m e. 1.4 cm
c. 14 cm
____ 46. Time is
a. dependent on the observer d. simultaneous in all cases
b. absolute e. never changing
c. the same for different observers
____ 47. A beam of light is shone forward from a moving vehicle. The speed of light leaving the vehicle will be
a. dependent on the speed of the vehicle
b. the addition of the speed of light plus the speed of the vehicle
c. constant at the speed of light
d. slower so that the addition of the vehicle’s speed corrects it
e. none of the above
____ 48. The Lorentz contraction will apply to which of the following dimensions of an object:
a. height relative to direction d. all dimensions equally
b. length relative to direction e. no contraction occurs
c. width perpendicular to direction
____ 49. Flying in a fast rocket ship at a speed of 0.82c, you observe both your watch and a clock outside. Which of
the following statements is true?
a. Time will appear to be the same for you but slower outside.
b. Time will appear slower for you but normal outside.
c. Neither clock runs slow.
d. Both clocks run slow.
e. none of the above
____ 50. Two spaceships are heading toward each other at a mutual speed of 0.999c. Both ships shine a laser beam at
one another. How will each ship see the other light?
a. Both ships will see the light travelling at 2c.
b. Neither ship will see any light.
c. Both ships will see the light travelling at c.
d. One ship will see the light travelling at c, and the other will see it travelling at 2c.
e. none of the above
____ 51. Mission control would like an cosmonaut to check her heart rate. She is flying at 0.50c. If a normal heart rate
is 72 beats/min, what would a normal heart rate appear to be for the cosmonaut?
a. 288 beats/min d. 72 beats/min
b. 62 beats/min e. 18 beats/min
c. 83 beats/min
____ 52. The relativistic momentum of an atomic particle of mass 1.62 10–27 kg moving at 0.92c is
a. 1.14 10–18 kg·m/s d. 3.81 10–27 kg·m/s
b. 1.75 10 kg·m/s
–19
e. 5.84 10–28 kg·m/s
c. 3.29 10 kg·m/s
–19
____ 53. The equation E = mc2 illustrates that
a. travelling at the speed of light converts matter into energy
b. rest mass and energy are equivalent
c. energy can be converted into mass
d. matter can be converted into energy
e. both b and d
____ 54. The total energy of a particle
a. can never increase or decrease
b. will increase due to the speed of light
c. will decrease due to the speed of light
d. will reach a limit before the speed of light
e. none of the above
____ 55. The total energy, in joules, of a 0.01-kg object moving at 0.55c is
a. 7.38 1014 J d. 4.13 1015 J
b. 1.08 1015 J e. 6.58 10–3 J
c. 4.34 10 J 14
____ 56. The energy, in joules, of light with a frequency of 5.6 1016 Hz is
a. 5.6 1016 J d. 1.2 10–50 J
b. 8.4 10 J49
e. 6.63 10–34 J
c. 3.7 10 J–17
____ 57. In the photoelectric effect, as the frequency of light shining on a piece of metal increases, the ejected electron
a. gains kinetic energy d. increases in number of electrons
b. loses velocity e. none of the above
c. remains unchanged
____ 58. In the photoelectric effect, the work function is
a. the amount of energy required to release an electron
b. the same as the threshold frequency
c. the amount of kinetic energy possessed by the electron
d. dependent on the frequency of light
e. none of the above
____ 59. The momentum of a photon with a wavelength of 635 nm is
a. 4.21 10–40 kg·m/s d. 1.04 10–36 kg·m/s
b. 1.04 10–27 kg·m/s e. 4.21 10–31 kg·m/s
c. 9.57 10 kg·m/s
26
____ 60. A 200-g apple falling at 3.0 m/s has a de Broglie wavelength of
a. 4.42 10–33 m d. 1.1 1–35 m
b. 4.42 10–35 m e. 9.9 10–36 m
c. 1.1 10 m–33
____ 61. An electron with 5.8 eV of energy strikes a mercury atom with energy levels of 4.9 eV and 6.67 eV. What
energy will the electron posses after the collision?
a. 0.0 eV d. 1.2 eV
b. 0.9 eV e. 1.77 eV
c. 0.87 eV
____ 62. The change in energy in moving from the first to the second energy level of hydrogen would be an increase of
a. 2 times d.
times
b. e. none of the above
times
c. 4 times
____ 63. A net force of 12 N changes the momentum of a 250-g ball by 3.7 kgm/s. The force acts for
a. 0.31 s d. 3.2 s
b. 0.81 s e. 44 s
c. 1.2 s
____ 64. A car with a mass of 1800 kg slows from 42 km/h [E] to 28 km/h [E]. The impulse from the brakes is
a. 2.5 104 Ns [E] d. 2.1 104 Ns [W]
b. 2.5 104 Ns [W] e. 7.0 103 Ns [W]
c. 2.1 10 Ns [E]
4
____ 65. A 1.5-kg bird is flying at a velocity of 18 m/s [22º above the horizontal]. The vertical component of its
momentum is
a. 10 m/s [up] (2 significant digits) d. 17 m/s [up]
b. 6.7 kgm/s [up] e. none of the above
c. 25 kgm/s [up]
____ 66. A bullet with a mass of 28 g is fired from a 2.8-kg gun that is stationary, but free to recoil. After the bullet is
fired, the gun is observed to be moving at 1.4 m/s [left]. The velocity of the bullet is
a. 140 m/s [left] d. 71 m/s [left]
b. 140 m/s [right] e. 71 m/s
c. 71 m/s [right]
____ 67. An arrow slows down from 43 m/s to 28 m/s as it passes through an apple. If the 493-g apple was originally at
rest and sped up to 0.44 m/s, the mass of the arrow is
a. 5.0 g d. 29 g
b. 7.7 g e. 7.7 kg
c. 14 g
____ 68. A moving curling stone, A, collides head on with a stationary stone, B. Both stones are of identical mass. If
friction is negligible during this linear elastic collision,
a. stone A will slow down
b. after the collision, the momentum of stone B will be less than that of stone A
c. both stones will come to rest shortly after the collision
d. after the collision, the kinetic energy of the stone B will be less than that of stone A
e. after the collision, stone A will have a speed of zero
____ 69. A sabotaged curling stone explodes into three pieces as it travels across the ice. Neglecting the force of
friction,
a. all three pieces will travel at the same speed
b. the magnitudes of the momenta for each piece will be the same
c. an external net force had to act on the stone to accelerate the three pieces
d. the components perpendicular to the original motion must add up to zero
e. momentum is not conserved because of the small explosive charge
____ 70. A two-dimensional collision occurs as shown below.
Which vector below most closely represents the new velocity of P?
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 71. Two objects of equal mass with the speeds indicated by the vectors below, collide and stick together.
Which vector below best represents the velocity of the combined objects after the collision?
a. A d. D
b. B e. E
c. C
____ 72. A 722-kg satellite is in circular orbit 7380 km above the surface of Earth (ME = 5.98 1024 kg). The
gravitational force acting on the satellite is
a. 1.52 103 N d. 7.33 N
b. 5.29 10 N9
e. 7.08 103 N
c. 5.29 10 N3
____ 73. The Sun has a mass of 1.99 1030 kg. Jupiter has a mass of 1.90 1027 kg and a mean radius of orbit around
the Sun of 7.78 108 km. The speed that Jupiter travels in its orbit around the Sun is
a. 1.31 104 km/s d. 4.04 102 m/s
b. 4.70 104 km/h e. 1.28 104 m/s
c. 4.13 105 m/s
____ 74. If the mass of Earth is 5.98 1024 kg and the radius is 6.38 106 m, the gravitational potential energy of a 1.2
103-kg satellite located in an orbit 230 km above the surface of Earth is
a. –1.1 104 J d. –9.0 1012 J
b. –7.2 1010 J e. –2.1 1015 J
c. –2.1 10 J12
Short Answer
75. For the same initial upward velocities, how many times higher will an object travel above the lunar surface (g
= 1.6 m/s2 [down]) than above the surface of Earth? Assume negligible air resistance on Earth.
76. With the aid of a diagram, explain why a bright band occurs on a screen at the central point of Young’s
double-slit experiment.
77. A plane is dropping medical supplies to a village. Describe the path of the supplies relative to an observer on
the ground watching the plane travel from left to right.
78. A plane is dropping medical supplies to a village. Describe the path of medical supplies as it appears to the
person “dropping” the supplies.
79. Three observers located at A, B, and C are watching two stars located close to Observers A and C. Both stars explode
simultaneously. Explain how the observers see the pattern of explosions.
A B C
80. Four observers located at A, B, and C are watching two stars located close to observers A and C. Both stars
explode simultaneously. Explain how observers B and B' see the pattern of explosions if B' is moving away from
B.
A B C
B'
81. A car moving forward at 0.5c turns on its headlights. What would the speed of light appear to be to the driver
and to a pedestrian in front of the car?
82. A person sees an UFO fly by at 0.9c and describes the ship to be the classic “flying saucer” shape. What
shape of ship would you look for if the ship had landed on the ground?
83. A 57-g tennis ball travelling at 28 m/s is hit straight back with the same velocity. Determine the average force
on the tennis ball if the racket is in contact with the ball for 4.9 ms.
84. A blazing spike of a 0.290-kg volleyball is blocked at the net. It is originally travelling at 18.3 m/s and
bounces straight back at 14.9 m/s after being in contact with the blockers arms for a total of 18.2 ms. What
average force did the blocker exert on the ball?
85. Give two observations that would enable you to conclude that the bounce of a superball is not a completely
elastic collision.
86. During an elastic collision between a superball and the ground, the superball comes to rest for a brief instant.
Where is the energy stored?
87. A 0.25-kg snowball moving at 15 m/s [E] collides and sticks with a 1.9-kg toy truck travelling at 2.8 m/s [W].
Neglecting friction, calculate the velocity of the snowball–truck system after the collision.
88. A 25-kg bag of cement thrown at 2.5 m/s [E] is caught by a person sliding 1.8 m/s [E] on a frictionless
surface. If the velocity after the catch is 2.0 m/s, calculate the mass of the person.
89. A billiard ball collides with an identical stationary billiard ball causing the balls to travel out with speeds of
3.0 m/s and 4.0 m/s at 90º to each other as shown below. Calculate the initial speed of the moving billiard
ball.
Problem
90. An object is pushed from rest across a sheet of ice, accelerating at 5.0 m/s 2 over a distance of 80.0 cm. The
object then slides with a constant speed for 4.0 s until it reaches a rough section which causes it to stop in
2.5 s.
(a) What is the speed of the object when it reaches the rough section?
(b) At what rate does the object slow down once it reaches the rough section?
(c) What total distance does the object slide throughout its entire trip?
91. An arrow is shot vertically upward with an initial speed of 25 m/s. When it’s exactly halfway to the top of its
flight, a second arrow is launched vertically upward from the same spot. The second arrow reaches the first
arrow just as the first arrow reaches its highest point.
(a) What is the launch speed of the second arrow?
(b) What maximum height does the second arrow reach?
92. A truck travels at a constant speed of 28.0 m/s in the fast lane of a two-lane highway. It approaches a
stationary car stopped at the side of the road. When the truck is still 1.2 102 m behind the car, the car pulls
out into the slow lane with an acceleration of 2.6 m/s 2.
(a) How long will it take the truck to pass the car?
(b) How far will the car have travelled when the truck passes it?
(c) If the car were to maintain this acceleration, how fast would it be travelling when it overtakes the truck?
93. Two canoeists, A and B, live on opposite shores of a 300.0 m wide river that flows east at 0.80 m/s. A lives
on the north shore and B lives on the south shore. They both set out to visit a mutual friend X who lives on
the north shore at a point 200.0 m upstream from A and 200.0 m downstream from B. Both canoeists can
propel their canoes at 2.4 m/s through the water. How much time must canoeist A wait after canoeist B sets
out so that they both arrive at X at the same time? Both canoeists make their respective trips by the most
direct routes.
94. The graph below represents the motion of an object over a recorded time interval. Using methods of graphical
analysis wherever possible, determine
(a) the object’s displacement relative to its starting position at t = 6.0 s.
(b) the object’s average velocity between t = 0.0 s and t = 6.0 s.
(c) the object’s average speed between t = 0.0 s and t = 6.0 s.
(d) Including t = 0.0 s, how many times during the entire recorded time interval is the object at its starting
position?
(e) During which interval is the object’s acceleration the greatest? What is the value of the acceleration during
this interval?
(f) Plot the corresponding position-time graph.
(g) Plot the corresponding acceleration-time graph.
95. A football quarterback attempts a pass to one of the receivers. As the ball is snapped, the receiver leaves the
line of scrimmage and runs directly down field. The quarterback releases the ball 2.0 s later and from a
position 3.0 m behind the line of scrimmage. He throws the ball with a speed of 26 m/s at an elevation of 60
above the horizontal. The receiver makes a diving reception, catching the ball just as it reaches the ground.
See the diagram below.
(a) Determine the acceleration of the 5.0-kg mass along the ramp. (Provide free-body diagrams for both
masses.)
(b) Determine the tension in the rope during the acceleration of the 5.0-kg mass along the ramp.
(c) Determine the speed of projection of the 5.0-kg mass from the top of the ramp.
(d) Determine the horizontal range of the 5.0-kg mass from the base of the ramp.
99. Crates of mass 50.0 kg must be hoisted onto a platform 8.0 m above the ground. A person exerts 600.0 N of
force on a rope that goes up and over a pulley suspended from the ceiling. The other end of the rope is
attached to the 50.0-kg mass.
(a) How long will it take the person to lift a crate from the ground to the platform while exerting maximum
force?
(b) If a 45.0-kg person grabs the free end of the rope when the crate is next to the platform in its elevated
position, what will the acceleration of the crate be as it falls?
(c) What is the tension in the rope in this case?
100. A piece of ice (m = 500.0 g) slides down the slope of a roof inclined at 50.0. It starts from rest and slides 8.0
m along the roof, sliding off the edge at a height of 4.0 m above the level ground. The coefficient of kinetic
friction is 0.14.
(a) Draw a free-body diagram of the ice as it is sliding along the roof.
(b) With what speed does it leave the roof?
(c) How far away from the foot of the building does the ice land?
101. Two blocks are connected by a “massless” string over a “frictionless” pulley as shown in the diagram.
133. Given that Fc = Fg for a satellite, show that the radius of orbit for an Earth satellite is .
134. How much work is done against gravity to fire a 7.2 102-kg weather monitor 120 km into the air? (rE = 6.38
106 m, ME = 5.98 1024 kg)
135. How fast must a satellite leave Earth’s surface to reach an orbit with an altitude of 895 km?
EXAM REVIEW - D. O'Hara - SPH4U1
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 1.4 LOC: FM1.03
2. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.01
3. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.02
4. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.02
5. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.02
6. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.01
7. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 1.1 LOC: FM1.02
8. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 1.2 LOC: FM1.01
9. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 1.3 LOC: FM1.02
10. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 1.4 LOC: FM1.02
11. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 1.4 LOC: FM1.03
12. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 1.4 LOC: FM1.03
13. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 1.5 LOC: FM1.02
14. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 1.5 LOC: FM1.02
15. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 2.1 LOC: FM1.01
16. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 2.1 LOC: FM1.01
17. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 2.1 LOC: FM1.01
18. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 2.2 LOC: FM1.01
19. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 2.2 LOC: FM1.01
20. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
21. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
22. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 3.1 LOC: FM1.04
23. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 3.1 LOC: FM1.04
24. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 3.2 LOC: FM1.04
25. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 3.3 LOC: FM1.06
26. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 3.3 LOC: FM1.06
27. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 3.3 LOC: FM1.06
28. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 3.4 LOC: FM1.06
29. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 3.4 LOC: FM1.06
30. ANS: A REF: K/U, I OBJ: 3.4 LOC: FM1.06
31. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 9.1 LOC: WA1.01
32. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA1.03
33. ANS: C REF: K/U, C OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA1.03
34. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA2.01
35. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA2.01
36. ANS: E REF: MC OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA2.04
37. ANS: B REF: I OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA2.01
38. ANS: D REF: I OBJ: 9.3 LOC: WA2.01
39. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 9.4 LOC: WA1.05
40. ANS: C REF: MC OBJ: 9.4 LOC: WA3.02
41. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 9.4 LOC: WA1.05
42. ANS: D REF: I OBJ: 9.5 LOC: WA2.03
43. ANS: C REF: K/U, C OBJ: 9.5 LOC: WA2.02
44. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 9.5 LOC: WA2.02
45. ANS: E REF: K/U, C OBJ: 9.5 LOC: WA2.02
46. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 11.1 LOC: ME1.01
47. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME1.05
48. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME1.05
49. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME1.05
50. ANS: C REF: MC OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME2.02
51. ANS: D REF: I OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME2.02
52. ANS: A REF: I OBJ: 11.2 LOC: ME2.02
53. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 11.3 LOC: ME1.06
54. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 11.3 LOC: ME1.06
55. ANS: B REF: I OBJ: 11.3 LOC: ME1.06
56. ANS: C REF: I OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.01
57. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.03
58. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.03
59. ANS: B REF: I OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.03
60. ANS: C REF: I, C OBJ: 12.2 LOC: ME1.04
61. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 12.4 LOC: ME1.06
62. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 12.5 LOC: ME1.04
63. ANS: A REF: K/U OBJ: 5.1 LOC: EM1.01
64. ANS: E REF: K/U OBJ: 5.1 LOC: EM1.01
65. ANS: E REF: C OBJ: 5.1 LOC: EM1.01
66. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 5.2 LOC: EM1.03
67. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 5.2 LOC: EM1.02
68. ANS: E REF: MC OBJ: 5.3 LOC: EM1.04
69. ANS: D REF: K/U OBJ: 5.4 LOC: EM1.03
70. ANS: B REF: I OBJ: 5.4 LOC: EM1.03
71. ANS: D REF: I OBJ: 5.4 LOC: EM1.03
72. ANS: C REF: K/U OBJ: 6.1 LOC: EM1.06
73. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 6.2 LOC: EM1.06
74. ANS: B REF: K/U OBJ: 6.3 LOC: EM1.07
SHORT ANSWER
75. ANS:
From the expression
it can be seen that the distance an object will travel is inversely proportional to the acceleration due to gravity:
Therefore, .
An object will travel 6.1 times higher on the moon than on Earth when projected vertically upward from the
two surfaces with the same initial velocity.
REF: C OBJ: 1.3 LOC: FM1.05
76. ANS:
The central point is located equidistant from each of the two slits. Since the light through each slit originates
from a single source, it is coherent (in phase) when it leaves the slits and reaches the centre of the screen in
phase. This creates constructive interference, or in the case of light, a bright band.
PROBLEM
90. ANS:
(a)
v1 = 0.0 m/s
a = 5.0 m/s2
d = 80.0 cm = 0.800 m
v2 = ?
The speed of the object upon reaching the rough section is 2.8 m/s.
(b)
v1 = 2.83 m/s
v2 = 0.0 m/s
t = 2.5 s
a=?
(c)
During the period of acceleration:
d = 0.800 m
The arrow travels 31.9 m upward to its highest point. The halfway position is 15.9 m.
The time to travel the last half of its flight:
d = –15.9 m
v2 = 0.0 m/s
a = 9.8 m/s2
t = ?
(b)
Finding the maximum height of the second arrow:
v1 = –26.5 m/s
v2 = 0.0 m/s
a = 9.8 m/s2
d = ?
Car:
(b)
v1C = 0.0 m/s
aC = 2.6 m/s2
t = 5.9 s
dC = ?
(c)
v1C = 0.0 m/s
aC = 2.6 m/s2
t = 15.6 s (the other root of the quadratic)
v2C = v1C + aCt
= 2.6 m/s2(15.6 s)
v2C = 41 m/s
The car will be travelling at 41 m/s when it passes the truck if it maintains its acceleration.
REF: K/U OBJ: 1.2 LOC: FM1.02
93. ANS:
Canoeist B:
Canoeist A:
(b)
The object’s average velocity during the first 6.0 s is 0.83 m/s [S].
(c)
The object’s average speed during the first 6.0 s is 7.1 m/s.
(d) The object is at its starting location 3 times throughout the motion.
(e) The object’s acceleration is greatest between t = 6.5 s and 7.0 s. (the greatest slope) acceleration = slope of
graph = 30 m/s2 [N]
(f)
(g)
As a result: .
Horizontally:
(b)
Vertically:
The normal force is 1.3 102 N[up].
(c)
Free-body diagram: FN acting up
Fg acting down
FA acting to the left
FK acting to the right
“Up” and “to the right” are the positive directions.
(d)
Free-body diagram: FN acting up
Fg acting down
FA acting to the left
FK acting to the right
F acting to the right (force of 4.0 kg object on 12.0 kg object)
“Up” and “to the right” are the positive directions.
(b)
(c)
The speed of projection of the mass off the top of the ramp is 7.2 m/s.
(d)
Vertically: Let “up” be (–) and “down” be (+).
a = 9.8 m/s2
d = 6.0 m
Horizontal range:
The horizontal range for the projected mass is 9.5 m.
REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
99. ANS:
(a)
Free-body diagram of the crate: FT acting up
Fg acting down
(b)
For the 50.0-kg mass:
Free-body diagram: FT acting up (this is the negative direction)
Fg acting down (this is the positive direction)
(c)
FT = 45.0 kg(a) + 45.0 kg (9.8 N/kg)
= 45.0 kg(0.52 m/s2) + 45.0 kg(9.8 N/kg)
FT = 4.6 102 N
The tension in the cable would be 4.6 102 N.
REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
100. ANS:
(a)
Free-body diagram: FN acting perpendicular to the roof (upward)
Fg acting down
FK acting up along the roof (this is the negative direction)
(b)
Parallel to the roof:
ma = mg(sin ) – mg(cos )
a = 9.8 N/kg(sin 50º) – (0.14)(9.8 N/kg)(cos 50º)
a = 6.62 m/s2
(c)
When the ice leaves the roof it becomes a projectile:
Vertically:
Horizontally:
d = v(cos t
= 10.3 m/s(cos 50)(0.406 s)
d = 2.7 m
The ice lands 2.7 m from the base of the building.
REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
101. ANS:
(a)
For the 0.80-kg mass:
Free-body diagram: FN acting up
Fg acting down
FT acting to the right (this is the positive direction)
FK acting to the left (this is the negative direction)
2.0 kg(a) = 2.0 kg(9.8 N/kg)(sin 30º) – FT – 0.14(2.0 kg)(9.8 N/kg)(cos 30º)
2.0 kg(a) = –FT + 7.42 N
(b)
FT = 0.80 kg(a) + 1.10 N
= 0.80 kg(2.26 m/s2) + 1.10 N
FT = 2.9 N
The tension in the string is 2.9 N.
(c)
If the block remains stationary:
FS = Fg sin
= 2.0 kg(9.8 N/kg)(sin 30)
FS = 9.8 N
(b)
For the 4.0-kg mass:
(c)
FT = 4.0 kg(a) +13.5 N
= 4.0 kg(4.53 m/s2) + 13.5 N
FT = 32 N
The tension in the cable is 32 N.
(d)
For the block sliding down the ramp:
Free-body diagram: FN acting perpendicular to the ramp (upward)
Fg acting down
FK acting up along the ramp (this is the negative direction)
ma = mg(sin ) – mg(cos )
a = 9.8 N/kg(sin 30º) – (0.18)(9.8 N/kg)(cos30º)
a = 3.37 m/s2
It would take 1.3 s to reach the bottom of the ramp.
REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
103. ANS:
(a)
For the engine:
Free-body diagram: FN acting up
Fg acting down
FK acting to the left
FA acting as indicated
FT acting to the left (force of caboose on engine)
(b)
Considering the entire train:
(c)
Considering the caboose:
= 0.100 kg(2.1 m/s2) – (–0.40 N)
= 0.61 N
The tension in the string joining the engine and caboose is 0.61 N.
REF: K/U OBJ: 2.3 LOC: FM1.01
104. ANS:
(a)
The minimum frequency occurs when the tension becomes zero.
(b)
The maximum tension occurs at the bottom of the circle.
Let “up” be negative and “down” be positive:
(a)
(b)
(b)
No, an electron would not be ejected because the kinetic energy is not a positive value.
REF: I OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.03
123. ANS:
v=?
The electron would be ejected from the sodium with a speed of 3.98 105 m/s.
REF: I, C OBJ: 12.1 LOC: ME1.03
124. ANS:
m 9.11 10–31 kg
p = mv
p (9.11 10–31 kg)(3.98 105 m/s)
p 3.626 10–25 kg·m/s
The angle measured from the 200-g piece is 180º – 39º = 141º.
The mass of the third piece is 0.23 kg and it is moving 141º from the 200-g piece. (It is 139º from the
300-g piece.)
REF: K/U OBJ: 5.4 LOC: EM1.03
132. ANS:
First use conservation of energy after the collision until the maximum compression:
Now use conservation of momentum for the collision: