2006

Question 1: "Rugger Jersey Spine" is seen in ?

A) Fluorosis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Renal Osteodystrophy
D) Marfan's Syndrome
Answer: C) Renal Osteodystrophy

Question 2: Brown tumours are seen in ?

A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Pigmented villonodular synovitis
C) Osteomalacia
D) Neurofibromatosis
Answer: A) Hyperparathyroidism

Question 3: All of the following statements are true about development dysplasia
(DDH) of the hip, except ?
A) It is more common in females
B) Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH
C) The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed
reduction
D) Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor
Answer: D) Twin pregnancy is a known risk factor

Question 4: All are true regarding brachial plexus injury ?

A) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions
B) Erbâ??s palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the
shoulder
C) In Klumpkeâ??s palsy, Hornerâ??s syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral
side
D) Histamine test is useful to differentiate between the preganglionic and
postganglionic lesions
Answer: A) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions

Question 5: The ideal treatment of bilateral idiopathic clubfoot in a newborn is ?

A) Manipulation by mother
B) Manipulation and Dennis Brown splint
C) Manipulation and Casts
D) Surgical release
Answer: A) Manipulation by mother

Question 6: The postero superior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead
to ?
A) Sensori-neural hearing loss
B) Secondary Cholesteatoma
C) Tympanoscelerosis
D) Tertiary cholesteatoma
Answer: B) Secondary Cholesteatoma
Question 7: A 30 year old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral
sinus thrombophlebitis. Which of the following will be the operation of choice ?
A) Intact canal wall mastoidectomy
B) Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty
C) Canal wall down mastoidectomy
D) Mastoidectomy with cavity obliteration
Answer: C) Canal wall down mastoidectomy

Question 8: Which of the following conditions causes the maximum hearing loss ?
A) Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane
B) Disruption of malleus and incus as well tympanic membrane
C) Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
D) Otitis media with effusion
Answer: A) Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane

Question 9: During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is
through ?
A) Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
B) Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve
C) Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus
D) Through olfactory area
Answer: A) Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
Question 10: Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in
neonates ?
A) Impedance audiometry
B) Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)
C) Free field audiometry
D) Behavioral audiometry
Answer: B) Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry (BERA)

Question 11: The most common etiological agent for acute bronchiolitis in infancy
is ?
A) Influenza virus
B) Para influenza virus
C) Rhino virus
D) Respiratory syncytial virus
Answer: D) Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 12: Which of the following is the principal mode of heat exchange in an
infant incubator ?
A) Radiation
B) Evaporation
C) Convection
D) Conduction
Answer: A) Radiation

Question 13: Late onset hemorrhagic disease of newborn is characterized by all of

the following features except ?
A) Usually occurs in cow-milk fed babies
B) Onset occurs at 4-12 wk of age
C) Intracranial hemorrhage can occur
D) Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role
Answer: D) Intramuscular vitamin K prophylaxis at birth has a protective role

Question 14: Which of the following malformation in a newborn is specific for

maternal insulin dependent diabetes mellitus ?
A) Transposition of great arteries
B) Caudal regression
C) Holoprosencephaly
D) Meningomyelocele
Answer: B) Caudal regression

Question 15: The prognosis of rhabdomyosarcoma is likely to be poor if the site of

the tumor is ?
A) Orbit
B) Para testicular
C) Extremity
D) Urinary bladder
Answer: C) Extremity

Question 16: Which of the following malignant tumors is radioresistant ?

A) Ewing's sarcoma
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Answer: C) Osteosarcoma

Question 17: The most common second malignancy in survivors of retinoblastoma

is ?
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C) Optic glioma
D) Osteosarcoma
Answer: D) Osteosarcoma

Question 18: The most important determinant of prognosis in Wilms tumor is ?

A) Stage of disease
B) Loss of heterozygosity of chromosome 1 p
C) Histology
D) Age less than one year at presentation
Answer: C) Histology

Question 19: The Finnish type of congenital nephrotic syndrome occurs due to gene
mutations affecting the following protein ?
A) Podocin
B) Alpha-actinin
C) Nephrin
D) CD2 activated protein
Answer: C) Nephrin

Question 20: Sensorineural deafness may be a feature of all, except ?

A) Nail patella syndrome
B) Distal renal tubular acidosis
C) Bartter syndrome
D) Alport syndrome
Answer: B) Distal renal tubular acidosis

Question 21: With reference to mumps which of the following is true ?

A) Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis
B) Salivary gland involvement is limited to the parotids
C) The patient is not infectious prior to clinical parotid enlargement
D) Mumps orchitis frequently leads to infertility
Answer: A) Meningoencephalitis can precede parotitis

Question 22: A child is below the third percentile for height. His growth velocity is
normal, but chronologic age is more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Constitutional delay in growth
B) Genetic short stature
C) Primordial dwarfism
D) Hypopituitarism
Answer: A) Constitutional delay in growth

Question 23: Drug induced lupus can be identified by ?

A) Anti-histone antibodies
B) Double stranded DNA antibodies
C) Antinuclear antibodies
D) Anti-SM antibodies
Answer: A) Anti-histone antibodies

Question 24: The process underlying differences in expression of a gene, according

to which parent has transmitted, is called ?
A) Anticipation
B) Mosaicism
C) Non-penetrance
D) Genomic imprinting
Answer: D) Genomic imprinting

Question 25: The sodium content of ReSoMal (rehydration solution for malnourished
children) is ?
A) 90 mmol/L
B) 60 mmol/L
C) 45 mmol/L
D) 30 mmol/L
Answer: C) 45 mmol/L

Question 26: All of the following are features of prematurity in a neonate, except ?
A) No creases on sole
B) Abundant lanugo
C) Thick ear cartilage
D) Empty scrotum
Answer: C) Thick ear cartilage

Question 27: A normally developing 10 month old child should be able to do all of
the following except ?
A) Stand alone
B) Play peek a boo
C) Pick up a pellet with thumb and index finger
D) Build a tower of 3 - 4 cubes
Answer: D) Build a tower of 3 - 4 cubes

Question 28: The following are characteristic of autism except ?

A) Onset after 6 years of age
B) Repetitive behavior
C) Delayed language development
D) Severe deficit in social interaction
Answer: A) Onset after 6 years of age

Question 29: The earliest indicator of response after starting iron in a 6-year old girl
with iron deficiency is ?
A) Increased reticulocyte count
B) Increased hemoglobin
C) Increased ferritin
D) Increased serum iron
Answer: A) Increased reticulocyte count

Question 30: A 1 month old boy is referred for failure to thrive. On examination, he
shows features of congestive failure. The femoral pulses are feeble as compared to
branchial pulses. The most likely clinical diagnosis is ?
A) Congenital aortic stenosis
B) Coarctation of Aorta
C) Patent ductus arteriosus
D) Congenital aortoiliac disease
Answer: B) Coarctation of Aorta

Question 31: All of the following statements regarding subendocardial infarction are
true, except ?
A) These are multifocal in nature
B) These often result from hypotension or shock
C) Epicarditis is not seen
D) These may result in aneurysm
Answer: D) These may result in aneurysm

Question 32: All of the following are true for mitral valve prolapse, except ?
A) Transmission may be as an Autosomal dominant trait
B) Majority of the cases present with features of mitral regurgitation
C) The value leaflets characteristically show myxomatous degeneration
D) The disease is one of the common cardiovascular manifestations of Marfan
Syndrome
Answer: B) Majority of the cases present with features of mitral regurgitation

Question 33: The following diseases are associated with Epstein - Barr virus
infection, except ?
A) Infectious mononucleosis
B) Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D) Oral Hairy leukoplakia
Answer: B) Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Question 34: Megaloblastic anaemia due to folic acid deficiency is commonly due to ?
A) Inadequate dietary intake
B) Defective intestinal absorption
C) Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
D) Absence of glutamic acid in the intestine
Answer: A) Inadequate dietary intake

Question 35: The most important prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is ?

A) Histological grade of the tumour
B) Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis
C) Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors
D) Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene
Answer: B) Stage of the tumour at the time of diagnosis

Question 36: Smoking is generally not associated as a risk factor with ?

A) Small cell carcinoma
B) Respiratory bronchiolitis
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia
Answer: D) Bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia

Question 37: The tumour, which may occur in the residual breast or overlying skin
following wide local excisionn and radiotherapy for mammary carcinoma, is ?
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Basal cell carcinoma
D) Angiosarcoma
Answer: D) Angiosarcoma

Question 38: The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to
result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is ?
A) Apocrine DCIS
B) Neuroendocrine DCIS
C) Well differentiated DCIS
D) Comedo DCIS
Answer: D) Comedo DCIS

Question 39: Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the ?
A) Parotid salivary gland
B) Minor salivary glands
C) Submandibular salivary gland
D) Sublingual salivary gland
Answer: A) Parotid salivary gland

Question 39: Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the ?
A) Parotid salivary gland
B) Minor salivary glands
C) Submandibular salivary gland
D) Sublingual salivary gland
Answer: A) Parotid salivary gland
Question 40: All of the following statements regarding primary effusion lymphoma
are true except ?
A) It generally presents in elderly patients
B) There is often an association with HHV-8
C) The proliferating cells are NK cells
D) Patients are commonly HIV positive
Answer: C) The proliferating cells are NK cells

Question 41: Mantle cell lymphomas are positive for all of the following, except ?
A) CD 23
B) CD 20
C) CD 5
D) CD 43
Answer: A) CD 23

Question 42: Fine needle aspiation cytology is not suitable for diagnosing ?
A) Tubercular lymphadenitis
B) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
C) Plasmacytoma
D) Aneurysmal bone cyst
Answer: D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

Question 43: All of the following immunohistochemical markers are positive in the
neoplastic cells of granulocytic sarcoma, except ?
A) CD 45 RO
B) CD 43
C) Myeloperoxidase
D) Lysozyme
Answer: A) CD 45 RO

Question 44: B cell prolymphocytic leukemia patients differ from those with B cell
chronic lymphocytic leukemia in ?
A) Presenting at a younger age
B) Having a lower total leucocyte count
C) Having prominent lymphadenopathy
D) Having a shorter survival
Answer: D) Having a shorter survival

Question 45: Which of the following statements is incorrect about pthisis bulbi ?
A) The intraocular pressure is increased
B) Calcification of the lens is common
C) Sclera is thickened
D) Size of the globe is reduced
Answer: A) The intraocular pressure is increased

Question 46: Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Optic glioma ?
A) Has a peak incidence in first decade
B) Arises from oligodendrocytes
C) Causes meningeal hyperplasia
D) Is associated with type I neurofibromatosis
Answer: B) Arises from oligodendrocytes
Question 47: Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition ?
A) Lattice dystrophy
B) Granular dystrophy
C) Macular dystrophy
D) Fleck dystrophy
Answer: C) Macular dystrophy

Question 48: In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently

occurs ?
A) Actinic keratoses
B) Seborrhetic keratoses
C) Molluscum contagiosum
D) Basal cell carcinoma
Answer: A) Actinic keratoses

Question 49: Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for
development of gastric carcinoma ?
A) Paneth cell metaplasia
B) Pyloric metaplasia
C) Intestinal metaplasia
D) Ciliated metaplasia
Answer: C) Intestinal metaplasia

Question 50: Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of
non-cirrhotic portal hypertension ?
A) Chronic liver failure
B) Ascites
C) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding
D) Encephalopathy
Answer: C) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

Question 51: Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of ?

A) Tonic-clonic seizure
B) Absence seizure
C) Myoclonic seizure
D) Simple partial seizure
Answer: B) Absence seizure

Question 52: Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate ?
A) It is an intravenous anesthetic
B) It precipitates coronary insufficiency
C) It inhibits cortisol synthesis
D) It causes pain at site of injection
Answer: B) It precipitates coronary insufficiency

Question 53: Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-
tubocurarine ?
A) Norfloxacin
B) Streptomycin
C) Doxycycline
D) Cefotaxime
Answer: B) Streptomycin
Question 54: Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin ?
A) Cephalexin
B) Cloxacillin
C) Piperacillin
D) Dicloxacillin
Answer: C) Piperacillin

Question 55: The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except ?
A) Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors
B) They have active metabolites
C) Decreases nocturnal gastric secretion in human being
D) Extensively metabolized by CYP enzymes
Answer: A) Binds to both GABAA and GABAB receptors

Question 56: One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is

incorrect ?
A) It is a prodrug
B) It is a selective uncompetitive and reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate
dehydrogenase
C) It also inhibits calcineurin
D) Selectively inhibits lymphocyte proliferation
Answer: C) It also inhibits calcineurin

Question 57: All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are
true, except ?
A) Inhibition of ovulation
B) Prevention of fertilization
C) Interference with implantation of fertilized ovum
D) Interference with placental functioning
Answer: D) Interference with placental functioning

Question 58: Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid
metabolism ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Gabapentin
C) Phenobarbitone
D) Primidone
Answer: B) Gabapentin

Question 59: Which one of the following drugs causes constipation ?

A) Propranolol
B) Verapamil
C) Nitroglycerin
D) Captopril
Answer: D) Captopril

Question 60: Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open
angle glaucoma ?
A) Latanoprost
B) Brimonidine
C) Acetazolamide
D) Dorzolamide
Answer: C) Acetazolamide

Question 61: Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following

antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status ?
A) Sodium valproate
B) Phenobarbitone
C) Carbamazepine
D) Phenytoin
Answer: A) Sodium valproate

Question 62: Which one of the following agents has been associated with
hemorrhagic stroke ?
A) Phenylpropanolamine
B) Terfenadine
C) Quinidine
D) Fenfluramine
Answer: A) Phenylpropanolamine

Question 63: All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except ?
A) Bacterial meningitis
B) Rickettsial infection
C) Syphilis
D) Anthrax
Answer: B) Rickettsial infection

Question 64: All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion,
except ?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypothermia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypocalcemia
Answer: A) Hypokalemia

Question 65: Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration
of action ?
A) Atracurium
B) Vecuronium
C) Rocuronium
D) Doxacurium
Answer: D) Doxacurium

Question 66: Which enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline ?

A) Monoamine Oxidase
B) Alcohol dehydrogenase
C) Phosphodiesterase
D) Cytochrome P-450
Answer: C) Phosphodiesterase

Question 67: Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group
?
A) Procaine
B) Bupivacaine
C) Lignocaine
D) Mepivacaine
Answer: A) Procaine

Question 68: The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those
with liver disease, except ?
A) Lorazepam
B) Oxazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Diazepam
Answer: D) Diazepam

Question 69: Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to
catecholamines ?
A) Isoflurane
B) Ether
C) Halothane
D) Propofol
Answer: C) Halothane

Question 70: Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure ?
A) Rapacurium
B) Pancuronium
C) Atracurium
D) Rocuronium
Answer: C) Atracurium

Question 71: Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of ?

A) Estradiol
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Progesterone
D) Follicle stimulating hormone
Answer: B) Luteinizing hormone

Question 72: Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the
primary visual cortex in ?
A) Layer 1
B) Layers 2 & 4=3
C) Layer 4
D) Layers 5 & 6
Answer: C) Layer 4

Question 73: The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with ?
A) Ocular dominance
B) Orientation
C) Color processing
D) Saccadic eye movements
Answer: C) Color processing

Question 74: The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the
visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of ?
A) Movement, depth and flicker
B) Color vision, shape and fine details
C) Temporal frequency
D) Luminance contrast
Answer: B) Color vision, shape and fine details

Question 75: A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of the

following physiological events will manifest in such situation ?
A) The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases
B) The cardiac output decreases
C) Black out occurs
D) The cerebral arterial pressure rises
Answer: D) The cerebral arterial pressure rises

Question 76: In human being, the least useful physiological response to low
environmental temperature is ?
A) Shivering
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Release of thyroxine
D) Piloerection
Answer: D) Piloerection

Question 77: The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in ?

A) Locus coeruleus
B) Dorsal raphe
C) Lateral hypothalamic area
D) Hippocampus
Answer: C) Lateral hypothalamic area

Question 78: The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by ?

A) Sensing of Na concentration in the macula densa
B) Sensing of Cl concentration in macula densa
C) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa
D) Opening up of voltage gated Na channels in afferent arteriole
Answer: C) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa

Question 79: The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is ?
A) Medullary hyperosmolarity
B) Reabsorption of Na in thick ascending limb
C) Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
D) Urea recycling
Answer: B) Reabsorption of Na in thick ascending limb

Question 80: Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis ?
A) Kidneys
B) Skin
C) Intestines
D) Lungs
Answer: D) Lungs

Question 81: Testosterone production is mainly contributed by ?

A) Leydig cells
B) Sertoli cells
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Epididymis
Answer: A) Leydig cells

Question 82: Which of the following secretions has a very high pH ?

A) Gastric juice
B) Pancreatic juice
C) Bile in gall bladder
D) Saliva
Answer: B) Pancreatic juice

Question 83: The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends
upon ?
A) Integrity of reflex arc
B) Muscle power
C) Type of muscle fibres
D) Joint movements in physiological range
Answer: A) Integrity of reflex arc

Question 84: The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans
is ?
A) Tympanic reflex
B) Withdrawal reflex
C) Neck righting reflex
D) Labyrinthine reflex
Answer: B) Withdrawal reflex

Question 85: The hyperkinetic features of the Huntingtons's disease are due to the
loss of ?
A) Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
B) Intrastriatal cholinergic system
C) GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
D) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
Answer: D) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system

Question 86: All of the following are part of the treatment of Lithium toxicity,
except ?
A) Treating dehydration
B) Ingestion of polystyrene sulfonate
C) Hemodialysis
D) Using an antagonist
Answer: D) Using an antagonist

Question 87: All are side effects of Clozapine except ?

A) Granulocytopenia
B) Seizures
C) Sedation
D) Extrapyramidal side effects
Answer: D) Extrapyramidal side effects

Question 88: Pavlov's experiment is an example of ?

A) Operant conditioning
B) Classical conditioning
C) Learned helplessness
D) Modelling
Answer: B) Classical conditioning

Question 89: Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment
of ?
A) Anorexia Nervosa
B) Seasonal Affective Disorder
C) Schizophrenia
D) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Answer: B) Seasonal Affective Disorder

Question 90: The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol
is ?
A) Hypotension
B) Akathisia
C) Dryness of mouth
D) Tic disorder
Answer: B) Akathisia

Question 91: Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is
best described as ?
A) Twilight State
B) Oneroid state
C) Stupor
D) Delirium
Answer: B) Oneroid state

Question 92: Loosening of associations is an example of ?

A) Formal thought disorder
B) Schneiderian first rank symptoms
C) PerseverationD) Concrete thinking
Answer: A) Formal thought disorder

Question 93: Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark
symptoms of ?
A) Involutional melancholia
B) Atypical depression
C) Somatized depression
D) Depressive stupor
Answer: A) Involutional melancholia

Question 94: Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the
management of ?
A) Depression
B) Dissociation
C) Delusions
D) Dementia
Answer: D) Dementia
Question 95: All of the following are associated with better prognosis in
schizophrenia, except ?
A) Late onset
B) Married
C) Negative symptoms
D) Acute onset
Answer: C) Negative symptoms

Question 96: The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except ?
A) Ventricular septal defect
B) Right ventricular hypertrophy
C) Atrial septal defect
D) Pulmonary stenosis
Answer: C) Atrial septal defect

Question 97: Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumours ?
A) Are embryonal cell carcinomas in 95% of cases
B) Bilateral in upto 10 % cases
C) Teratomas are more common than seminomas
D) Usually present after 50 years of age
Answer: B) Bilateral in upto 10 % cases

Question 98: The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is ?

A) Neurofibroma
B) Meningioma
C) Cavernous haemangioma
D) Schwannoma
Answer: C) Cavernous haemangioma

Question 99: In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged ?
A) Ventricular septal defect
B) Atrial septal defect
C) Aorto-pulmonary window
D) Patent ductus arteriosus
Answer: B) Atrial septal defect

Question 100: Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary

malignancy of ?
A) Kidney
B) Bronchus
C) Breast
D) Prostate
Answer: A) Kidney

Question 101: Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a

chest radiograph ?
A) Diameter of the main pulmonary artery > 16 mm
B) Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm
D) Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Answer: C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm
Question 102: The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is ?
A) Multislice CT
B) Echocardigraphy
C) Nuclear scan
D) MRI
Answer: B) Echocardigraphy

Question 103: The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an
angiogram is ?
A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70 %
B) Presence of collaterals
C) A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the lesion
D) Post stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
Answer: A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70 %

Question 104: The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in ?

A) White matter
B) Grey matter
C) Thalamus
D) Basal ganglia
Answer: A) White matter

Question 105: The most common location of hyperternsive intracranial haemorrhage

is ?
A) Subarachnoid space
B) Basal ganglia
C) Cerebellum
D) Brainstem
Answer: B) Basal ganglia

Question 106: Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph ?
A) Bidirectional Glem shunt
B) Modified Blalock - Taussing shunt
C) IVC occlusion
D) Coarctation of Aorta
Answer: D) Coarctation of Aorta

Question 107: The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tubeuculosis
is ?
A) Intravenous urography
B) Computed tomography
C) Ultrasound
D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Answer: A) Intravenous urography

Question 108: All of them use non-ionizing radiation, except ?

A) Ultrasonography
B) Thermography
C) MRI
D) Radiography
Answer: D) Radiography
Question 109: Mixed tumours of the salivary glands are ?
A) Most common in submandibular gland
B) Usually malignant
C) Most common in parotid gland
D) Associated with calculi
Answer: C) Most common in parotid gland

Question 110: In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you
consider biopsy of opposite breast ?
A) Adenocarcinoma - poorly differentiated
B) Medullary carcinoma
C) Lobular carcinoma
D) Comedo carcinoma
Answer: C) Lobular carcinoma

Question 111: A malignant tumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most

often, is ?
A) Wilm's tumor
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Adrenal gland tumors
D) Granulosa cell tumor of ovary
Answer: B) Neuroblastoma

Question 112: When carcinoma of stomach develops secondfarily to pernicious

anemia, it is usually situated in the ?
A) Pre pyloric region
B) Pylorus
C) Body
D) Fundus
Answer: B) Pylorus

Question 113: With regard to the malignant behaviour of leiomysarcoma, the most
important criterion is ?
A) Blood vessel penetration by tumor cells
B) Tumor cells in lymphatic channels
C) Lymphocyte infiltration
D) The number of mitoses per high power field
Answer: D) The number of mitoses per high power field

Question 114: The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is ?

A) Bronchogenic carcinoma
B) Carcinoma parotid
C) Dysgerminoma
D) Osteogenic sarcoma
Answer: C) Dysgerminoma

Question 115: In a suspected case of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for
all of the following information, except ?
A) Detection of adnexal lesion
B) Characterization of the lesion
C) Staging
D) Assess respectability
Answer: B) Characterization of the lesion

Question 116: In which of the following age group Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS)
are most common ?
A) 2 – 10
B) 15 – 20
C) 25 – 40
D) > 50
Answer: D) > 50

Question 117: A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower
abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of
the following is the clinical diagnosis ?
A) Appendicitis
B) Leukemic colitis
C) Perforation peritonitis
D) Neutropenic colitis
Answer: D) Neutropenic colitis

Question 118: All of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liver
secondaries, except ?
A) Ultrasonic waves
B) Cryotherapy
C) Alcohol
D) Radiofrequency
Answer: A) Ultrasonic waves

Question 119: All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide,
except ?
A) Phosphorus-32
B) Strontium-89
C) Iridium-192
D) Samarium-153
Answer: D) Samarium-153

Question 120: Phosphorous-32 emits ?

A) Beta particles
B) Alfa particles
C) Neutrons
D) X-rays
Answer: A) Beta particles

Question 121: The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is ?
A) Within 10 days
B) Within 2 weeks
C) Within 3 weeks
D) Any time after surgery
Answer: A) Within 10 days

Question 122: The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infarction, is

approximately ?
A) 0 - 5 %
B) 5 - 15 %
C) 20 - 30 %
D) 30 - 40 %
Answer: B) 5 - 15 %

Question 123: Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated

thyroid cancer ?
A) 131 I
B) 99mTc
C) 32P
D) 131 I-MIBG
Answer: A) 131 I

Question 124: Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum
radiation exposure to the patient ?
A) Chest X-ray
B) MRI
C) CT Scan
D) Bone Scan
Answer: C) CT Scan

Question 125: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
A) Electron
B) Proton
C) Helium ion
D) Gamma (̣) РPhoton
Answer: C) Helium ion

Question 126: Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple
myeloma ?
A) Lytic bone lesions
B) Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
C) Bone marrow plasmacytosis >30%
D) 'M' spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig A
Answer: A) Lytic bone lesions

Question 127: The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is ?
A) Abdomino perennial resection
B) Laser fulgaration
C) Chemoradiotherapy
D) Platinum based chemotherapy
Answer: C) Chemoradiotherapy

Question 128: The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is ?

A) 5 times
B) 10 times
C) 15 times
D) 20 times
Answer: C) 15 times

Question 129: The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the
optic disc is ?
A) 1 disc diameter
B) 2 disc diameter
C) 3 disc diameter
D) 4 disc diameter
Answer: B) 2 disc diameter

Question 130: The most common cause of vitreous haemorrhage in adults is ?

A) Retinal hole
B) Trauma
C) Hypertension
D) Diabetes
Answer: D) Diabetes

Question 131: The retina receives its blood supply from all except ?
A) Posterior ciliary artery
B) Central retinal artery
C) Retinal arteries
D) Plexus of Zinn & Haller arteries
Answer: A) Posterior ciliary artery

Question 132: Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally ?
A) Gentamycin
B) Vancomycin
C) Dexamethasone
D) Ceftazidime
Answer: A) Gentamycin

Question 133: Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in ?
A) Marfan's syndrome
B) Homocystinuria
C) Hyperlysinaemia
D) Ocular trauma
Answer: C) Hyperlysinaemia

Question 134: Which of the following anti glaucoma medications can cause
drowsiness ?
A) Latanoprost
B) Timolol
C) Brimonidine
D) Dorzolamide
Answer: C) Brimonidine

Question 135: Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal
ulcers caused by filamentous fungi ?
A) Itraconazole
B) Natamycin
C) Nystatin
D) Fluconazole
Answer: B) Natamycin

Question 136: Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with

allergy to sulphonamides ?
A) Levobunolol
B) Bimatoprost
C) Brinzolamide
D) Brimonidine
Answer: C) Brinzolamide

Question 137: In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put

in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery ?
A) Fuch's heterochromic cyclitis
B) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C) Psoriatic arthritis
D) Reiter's syndrome
Answer: B) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Question 138: A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a

history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination ?
A) As early as feasible
B) After 5 years
C) After 10 years
D) Only after visual symptoms develop
Answer: A) As early as feasible

Question 139: SAFE Strategy is recommended for the control of ?

A) Trachoma
B) Glaucoma
C) Diabetic retinopathy
D) Cataract
Answer: A) Trachoma

Question 140: As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of
blindness in India (at visual acuity < 660 in better eye) ?
A) 1.38 %
B) 1.49 %
C) 1.72 %
D) 1.8 %
Answer: B) 1.49 %

Question 141: Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is
supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students ?
A) School teachers
B) Medical officers of health centres
C) Ophthalmologists
D) Health assistants
Answer: A) School teachers

Question 142: According to the World Health Organization. the definition of blindness
is ?
A) Visual acuity < 660 in the better eye with available correction
B) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with available correction
C) Visual acuity < 660 in the better eye with best correction
D) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with best correction
Answer: D) Visual acuity < 360 in the better eye with best correction
Question 143: The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is ?
A) Cataract
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Refractive error
D) Trachoma
Answer: C) Refractive error

Question 144: A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on

culture yields Gram positive round to oval cells, 12-14 ì in size. The aspirate on
Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the
most likely aetiological agent ?
A) Aspergillus
B) Rhizopus
C) Candida
D) Fusarium
Answer: C) Candida

Question 145: The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is ?

A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
D) Neurotrophic malignant melanoma
Answer: B) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 146: Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because of ?

A) Fungal infection
B) Blood borne infection (intravascular)
C) Infection introduced from outside ( extravascular)
D) Both intravascular & extravascular infection
Answer: D) Both intravascular & extravascular infection

Question 147: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is ?

A) Ultrasonography
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Arteriography
Answer: D) Arteriography

Question 148: The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is ?

A) Bacterial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Blunt trauma
D) Penetrating trauma
Answer: D) Penetrating trauma

Question 149: Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the

following membrane ?
A) Thyrohyoid
B) Cricothyroid
C) Crico-tracheal
D) Cricosternal
Answer: A) Thyrohyoid

Question 150: Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in
the common bile duct ?
A) Can present with Charcot's Triad
B) Are suggested by a bile duct diameter > 6mm of ultrasound
C) ERCP, sphincterotomy and balloon clearance is now the standard treatment
D) When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T -tube can be
removed after 3 days
Answer: D) When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T -tube can
be removed after 3 days

Question 151: Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre-malignant ?

A) Juvenile polyps
B) Hamartomatous polyps associated with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
C) Villous adenomas
D) Tubular adenomas
Answer: A) Juvenile polyps

Question 152: A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an

ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most
likely organism is ?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Bacillus fragilis
C) Streptococcus viridans
D) Pseudomonas aerogenosa
Answer: A) Escherichia coli

Question 153: Biliary stricture developing after Laparoscopic cholecystectomy usually

occurs at which part of the common bile duct ?
A) Upper
B) Middle
C) Lower
D) All sites with equal frequencyAnswer: B) Middle

Question 154: Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism
implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is ?
A) Bacteriodes
B) Klebsiella
C) Peptostreptococcus
D) Pseudomonas
Answer: A) Bacteriodes

Question 155: The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except ?
A) Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life
B) The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
C) Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice
D) The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue
Answer: C) Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice

Question 156: Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular
access for maintenance haemodialysis ?
A) Non-dominant extremity
B) Upper limb
C) Radio-cephalic AV fistula
D) Sapheno-femoral fistula
Answer: D) Sapheno-femoral fistula

Question 157: Which of the following drugs is not a part of the 'Triple Therapy'
immunosuppression for post renal transplant patients ?
A) Cyclosporine
B) Azathioprine
C) FK 506
D) Prednisolone
Answer: C) FK 506

Question 158: Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale ?
A) Eye opening
B) Motor response
C) Pupil size
D) Verbal response
Answer: C) Pupil size

Question 159: Allen's test is useful in evaluating ?

A) Thoracic outlet compression
B) Presence of cervical rib
C) Integrity of palmar arch
D) Digital blood flow
Answer: C) Integrity of palmar arch

Question 160: Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of

hypertrophy of ?
A) Endothelial cells
B) Collagen fibers
C) Smooth muscle cells
D) Elastic fibers
Answer: A) Endothelial cells

Question 161: Dacron vascular graft is ?

A) Nontextile synthetic
B) Textile synthetic
C) Nontextile biologic
D) Textile biologic
Answer: B) Textile synthetic

Question 162: Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious person is ?

A) 8
B) 3
C) 15
D) 10
Answer: C) 15

Question 163: Mycotic abscesses are due to ?

A) Bacterial infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Viral infection
D) Mixed infection
Answer: B) Fungal infection

Question 164: The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time
is ?
A) Transcranial
B) Transethmoidal
C) Transphenoidal
D) Transcallosal
Answer: C) Transphenoidal

Question 165: The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsmL) is ?

A) 270 – 285
B) 300 – 320
C) 350 – 375
D) 200 – 250
Answer: A) 270 – 285

Question 166: Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ?
A) Astrocytomas
B) Medulloblastomas
C) Neurofibromas
D) Ependymomas
Answer: A) Astrocytomas

Question 167: Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in
pregnancy ?
A) Glioma
B) Pituitary adenoma
C) Meningioma
D) Neurofibroma
Answer: D) Neurofibroma

Question 168: The requirement of potassium in a child is ?

A) 1 - 2 mEqkg
B) 4 - 7 mEqkg
C) 10 - 12 mEqkg
D) 13 - 14 mEqkg
Answer: A) 1 - 2 mEqkg

Question 169: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is ?

A) Arterio-venous malformation
B) Cavernous angioma
C) Aneurysm
D) Hypertension
Answer: C) Aneurysm

Question 170: Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in ?

A) Cerebellar hemisphere
B) Thalamus
C) Temporal lobe
D) Parietal lobe
Answer: D) Parietal lobe

Question 171: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ?

A) Vagus nerve
B) Facial nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Glossopharyngeal nerve
Answer: C) Trigeminal nerve

Question 172: In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at ?

A) Lower border of L1
B) Lower border of L3
C) Lower border of S1
D) Lower border of L5
Answer: A) Lower border of L1

Question 173: Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of ?

A) External carotid artery
B) Internal maxillary artery
C) Superficial temporal artery
D) Middle cerebral artery
Answer: B) Internal maxillary artery

Question 174: Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa ?
A) Binge eating
B) AmennorheaC) Self perception of being 'fat'
D) Under weight
Answer: A) Binge eating

Question 175: An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example
of all of the following, except ?
A) An Autosomal dominant disorder
B) An Autosomal recessive disorder
C) A polygenic disorder
D) A vertically transmitted disorder
Answer: A) An Autosomal dominant disorder

Question 176: The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the
beta (â)-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except ?
A) Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
B) Southern blot analysis
C) DNA sequencing
D) Northern blot analysis
Answer: D) Northern blot analysis

Question 177: A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin
upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following,
except ?
A) A chromosomal syndrome
B) A teratogenic syndrome
C) A Mendelian syndrome
D) A polygenic syndrome
Answer: B) A teratogenic syndrome

Question 178: In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair
and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The
mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in
this case ?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive
Answer:

Question 179: Mitochondrial DNA is ?

A) Closed circular
B) Nicked circular
C) Linear
D) Open circular
Answer: A) Closed circular

Question 180: Polar bodies are formed during ?

A) Spermatogenesis
B) Organogenesis
C) Oogenesis
D) Morphogenesis
Answer: C) Oogenesis

Question 181: Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using

all of the following, except ?
A) Amniotic fluid
B) Maternal blood
C) Chorionic villi
D) Fetal blood
Answer: C) Chorionic villi

Question 182: The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively
as ?
A) p and q arms
B) m and q arms
C) q and p arms
D) l and s arms
Answer: C) q and p arms

Question 183: Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively ?

A) Uncondensed
B) Condensed
C) Overcondensed
D) Partially condensed
Answer: D) Partially condensed

Question 184: Microsatellite sequence is ?

A) Small satellite
B) Extra chromosomal DNA
C) Short sequence (2 - 5) repeat DNA
D) Looped-DNA
Answer: C) Short sequence (2 - 5) repeat DNA

Question 185: All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which
protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except ?
A) Germinal
B) Somatic
C) Haemopoetic
D) Tumor
Answer: B) Somatic

Question 186: All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen,
except ?
A) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
B) B cells
C) Antigen presenting cells
D) Vascular sinus
Answer: D) Vascular sinus

Question 187: All of the following developmental events are dependent on the
production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except ?
A) Induction of thymic involution
B) Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells
C) Functional thyroid
D) Functional hypothalamopituitary axis
Answer:

Question 188: Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the
inner side of right thigh, except ?
A) Inflamed pelvic appendix
B) Inflamed ovaries
C) Stone in pelvic Ureter
D) Pelvic abscess
Answer: C) Stone in pelvic Ureter

Question 189: A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the
right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess.
Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above
her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of
additional harm ?
A) Damage to scalenus medius
B) Injury to suprascapular nerve
C) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve
D) Spread of infection to shoulder joint
Answer: C) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

Question 190: Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of
choice in children ?
A) Methoxyflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Desflurane
D) Isoflurane
Answer: B) Sevoflurane

Question 191: Which of the following anesthetic agents doesnâ??t trigger malignant
hyperthermia ?
A) Halothane
B) Isoflurane
C) Suxamethonium
D) Thiopentone
Answer: D) Thiopentone

Question 192: Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal

intubation ?
A) Maintenance of a patent airway
B) To provide positive pressure ventilation
C) Pulmonary toilet
D) Pneumothorax
Answer: D) Pneumothorax

Question 193: Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced
hypotension during surgery ?
A) Sodium nitroprusside
B) Hydralazine
C) Mephenteramine
D) Esmolol
Answer: C) Mephenteramine

Question 194: Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of
postoperative shivering ?
A) Thiopentone
B) Suxamethonium
C) Atropine
D) Pethidine
Answer: D) Pethidine

Question 195: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block ?
A) Meiosis
B) Expohthalmus
C) Nasal congestion
D) Conjunctival redness
Answer: B) Expohthalmus

Question 196: Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most
suitable for day care surgery ?
A) Morphine
B) Ketamine
C) Propofol
D) Diazepam
Answer: C) Propofol
Question 197: Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between ?
A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery
B) Aorta to Pulmonary vein
C) Subclavian artery to Pulmonary vein
D) Subclavian vein to artery
Answer: A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery

Question 198: A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure.
Regarding post operative pam relief which one of the following is recommended ?
A) No medication is needed as infant does not feel pain after surgery due to
immaturity of nervous system
B) Only paracetamol suppository is adequate
C) Spinal narcotics via intrathecal route
D) Intravenous narcotic infusion in lower dosage
Answer: B) Only paracetamol suppository is adequate

Question 199: A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of
surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5° C and dry cough. Which of the
following should be 'the most appropriate decision for surgery ?
A) Surgery should be cancelled
B) Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and there is no history of asthma
C) Should get x-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
D) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic
Answer: D) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic

Question 200: A common feature of all serine proteases is ?

A) Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
B) Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
C) Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residues
D) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
Answer: D) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site

Question 201: During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes
polymerizes the Okazaki fragments ?
A) DNA Polymerase I
B) DNA Polymerase II
C) DNA Polymerase III
D) RNA Polymerase I
Answer: A) DNA Polymerase I

Question 202: During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst
involves the activation of ?
A) Oxidase
B) Hydrolase
C) Peroxidase
D) Dehydrogenase
Answer: A) Oxidase

Question 203: Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of - 5'
TTAAGCGTAC 3' ?
A) 5' GTACGCTTAA 3'
B) 5' AATTCGCATG 3'
C) 5' CATGCGAATT 3'
D) 5' TTAAGCGTAC 3'
Answer: A) 5' GTACGCTTAA 3'

Question 204: Base substitution mutations can have the following molecular
consequences except ?
A) Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino
acid
B) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
C) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
D) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
Answer: C) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site

Question 205: Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following
enzymes ?
A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
B) Homocysteine methyl transferase
C) Glycogen synthase
D) G-6-P dehydrogenase
Answer: B) Homocysteine methyl transferase

Question 206: The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the
following functions except ?
A) Promotion of cell cycle progression
B) Inhibition of apoptosis
C) Promotion of DNA repair
D) Promotion of nuclear transcription
Answer: C) Promotion of DNA repair

Question 207: The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because ?

A) Of its large size
B) The vesicle looses its clathrin coat
C) Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
D) Of the basic pH of the vesicle
Answer: C) Of the acidic pH of the vesicle

Question 208: The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal
muscle to liver is ?
A) Alanine
B) Methionine
C) Arginine
D) Glutamine
Answer: A) Alanine

Question 209: All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl -CoA, except
?
A) Methionine
B) Isoleucine
C) Valine
D) Histidine
Answer: D) Histidine
Question 210: The specialized mammalian tissueorgan in which fuel oxidation serves
not to produce ATP but to generate heat is ?
A) Adrenal gland
B) Skeletal muscle
C) Brown adipose tissue
D) Heart
Answer: C) Brown adipose tissue

Question 211: The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of
triacylglycerol by weight is ?
A) VLDL
B) Chylomicrons
C) HDL
D) LDL
Answer: B) Chylomicrons

Question 212: All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin,
except ?
A) Adenylate cyclase
B) Glycogen synthase
C) Guanylyl cyclase
D) Hexokinase
Answer: D) Hexokinase

Question 213: The sigma (ó) subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase ?

A) Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin
B) Is inhibited by á-amanitin
C) Specifically recognizes the promoter site
D) Is part of the core enzyme
Answer: C) Specifically recognizes the promoter site

Question 214: Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base ?
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) snRNA
Answer: B) tRNA

Question 215: There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among
these only a few are fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in a
protein for its function is the ?
A) Amino acid sequence
B) Ligand binding residues
C) Structure
D) Environment
Answer: A) Amino acid sequence

Question 216: Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact
structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo- or hetero-
dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form ?
A) Denatured state
B) Molecular aggregation
C) Precipitation
D) Quaternary Structure
Answer: D) Quaternary Structure

Question 217: Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for
isoleucine in a protein sequence ?
A) Methionine
B) Aspartic acid
C) Valine
D) Arginine
Answer: C) Valine

Question 218: The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from
different species shows many variations. Most of these variations are found ?
A) Randomly
B) Only in helical regions
C) Only in strand regions
D) Mainly in loop regions
Answer: A) Randomly

Question 219: The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell
or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is ?
A) Globular
B) Fibrous
C) Stretch of beads
D) Planar
Answer: B) Fibrous

Question 220: The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to ?

A) Facilitate double blinding
B) Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
C) Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
D) Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
Answer: C) Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics

Question 221: The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to ?

A) Achieve comparability between study and control groups
B) Avoid observer bias
C) Avoid subject bias
D) Avoid observer and subject bias
Answer: D) Avoid observer and subject bias

Question 222: When a drug is evaluated for its usefullness in controlled conditions, it
is termed as a trial signifying ?
A) Efficacy
B) Effectiveness
C) Efficiency
D) Effect modification
Answer: B) Effectiveness

Question 223: Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart
disease ?
A) Apolipoproteins
B) VLDL
C) HDL
D) Total liproteins
Answer: A) Apolipoproteins

Question 224: The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is ?
A) 150 KCals
B) 200 KCals
C) 300 Kcals
D) 550 KCals
Answer: C) 300 Kcals

Question 225: In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain
disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given
below.Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that
population ?
A) 45
B) 31
C) 95
D) 50
Answer: B) 31

Question 226: Physical quality of life index is measured by all except ?

A) Infant mortality
B) Life expectancy at age one
C) Literacy
D) Per capita income
Answer: D) Per capita income

Question 227: All the statements are true about standardization except ?
A) Standardization allows comparison to be made between two different populations
B) The national population is always taken as the standard population
C) For Direct Standardization, age specific rates of the study population are applied
to that of the standard population
D) For Indirect Standardization age specific rates of the standard population are
applied to the study population
Answer: B) The national population is always taken as the standard population

Question 228: All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except ?
A) Baseline characteristics of intervention and control groups should be similar
B) Investigator's bias is minimized by double blinding
C) The sample size required depends on the hypothesis
D) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis
Answer: D) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis

Question 229: Study the following table carefully and answer the following question ?
What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test ?
A) 45
B) 20
C) 80
D) 50
Answer: C) 80

Question 230: Pre-treatment evaluation for Lithium therapy should include ?

A) Fasting blood sugar
B) Serum Creatinine
C) Liver function tests
D) Platelet count
Answer: B) Serum Creatinine

Question 231: According to the World Health report 2000, India's health expenditure
is ?
A) 4.8 % of G.D.P.
B) 5.2 % of G.D.P.
C) 6.8 % of G.D.P.
D) 7 % of G.D.P.
Answer: A) 4.8 % of G.D.P.

Question 232: The premium of the "Community based Universal Health Insurance
Scheme" launched during 2003-04 ranges from ?
A) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven
B) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 3 per day for a family of seven
C) Rs. 2 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven
D) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 7 per day for a family of seven
Answer: A) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven

Question 233: In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs
Act was passed by Government of India ?
A) 1994
B) 1996
C) 2000
D) 2002
Answer: A) 1994

Question 234: Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is ?
A) 6.0
B) 6.5
C) 7.8
D) 10.5
Answer:

Question 235: A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative
lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular
lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Congenital syphilis
B) Seborrhoeic dermatitis
C) Scabies
D) Psoriasis
Answer: C) Scabies

Question 236: Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in ?

A) Lichen planus
B) Psoriasis
C) Tinea unguium
D) Alopecia areata
Answer: A) Lichen planus

Question 237: A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk
and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early
childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to
support the diagnosis ?
A) Slit lamp examination of eye
B) Measurement of intraocular tension
C) Examination of fundus
D) Retinal artery angiography
Answer: A) Slit lamp examination of eye

Question 238: A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular
and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of
choice for her treatment would be ?
A) Acitretin
B) Isotretinoin
C) Doxycycline
D) Azithromycin
Answer: B) Isotretinoin

Question 239: A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face,
neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are
more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test
to diagnose the condition would be ?
A) Skin biopsy
B) Estimation of IgE levels in blood
C) Patch test
D) Intradermal prick test
Answer: C) Patch test

Question 240: Finger Print Bureau was first established in ?

A) England
B) China
C) India
D) Singapore
Answer: C) India

Question 241: Spalding's sign occurs after ?

A) Birth of live foetus
B) Death of foetus in uterus
C) Rigor mortis of infant
D) Cadaveric spasm
Answer: B) Death of foetus in uterus

Question 242: Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and
recognized by MCI are registred in ?
A) First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
B) Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
C) Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
D) Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956
Answer: B) Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

Question 243: Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown ?

A) Between 12-24 hours
B) Between 2 - 3 days
C) Between 4 - 5 days
D) Between 5 - 7 days
Answer: B) Between 2 - 3 days

Question 244: Which of the following tests is used to detect semen ?

A) Phenolphthalein test
B) Reine's test
C) Barberio's test
D) Paraffin test
Answer: C) Barberio's test

Question 245: The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate

marker of one of the following ?
A) Coeliac disease
B) Crohn's disease
C) Ulcerative colitis
D) Tropical sprue
Answer: B) Crohn's disease

Question 246: The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is ?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Cancer of stomach
C) Duodenal lymphoma
D) Peptic ulcer disease
Answer: D) Peptic ulcer disease

Question 247: Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorption
syndrome ?
A) Amoebiasis
B) Ascariasis
C) Hookworm infestation
D) Giardiasis
Answer: D) Giardiasis

Question 248: Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia ?

A) Diarrhoea
B) Polyuria
C) Depression
D) Vomiting
Answer: A) Diarrhoea

Question 249: Joint erosions are not a feature of ?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Psoriasis
C) Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answer: D) Systemic lupus erythematosus

Question 250: Nevirapine is a ?

A) Protease inhibitor
B) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D) Fusion inhibitor
Answer: C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Question 251: Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with ?

A) Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
B) Mixed connective tissue disease
C) CREST syndromeD) Polymyositis
Answer: C) CREST syndrome

Question 252: A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest
infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention.
Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3gmdl, serum calcium12.6mgdl,
phosphate-2.5mgdl, alkaline phosphatase-l00 ul, serum albumin-3 gmdl, globulin-
7.1gmdl, and urea-I78 mgdl. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Lung cancer
B) Disseminated tuberculosis
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Osteoporosis
Answer: C) Multiple myeloma

Question 253: All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except ?
A) Nelfinavir
B) Saquinavir
C) Abacavir
D) Ritonavir
Answer: C) Abacavir

Question 254: Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of
polymyositis ?
A) Neck muscle involvement
B) Extraocular muscle involvement
C) Dysphagia
D) Abdominal muscle involvement
Answer: B) Extraocular muscle involvement

Question 255: All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except ?
A) Fluorosis
B) Hypogonadism
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: A) Fluorosis

Question 256: A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the
last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary
function tests (PFT) are as follows:
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case ?
A) Interstitial lung disease
B) Pulmonary artery hypertension
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Bronchiectasis
Answer: A) Interstitial lung disease

Question 257: Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis ?
A) Staphylococcus albus
B) Streptococcus faecalis
C) Salmonella typhi
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer: C) Salmonella typhi

Question 258: All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except ?
A) Prolonged PR interval
B) Prolonged QRS interval
C) Prolonged QT interval
D) Ventricular asystole
Answer: C) Prolonged QT interval

Question 259: Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except ?
A) Atherosclerosis
B) Fibromuscular dysplasia
C) Takayasu's arteritis
D) Polyarteritis nodosa
Answer: D) Polyarteritis nodosa

Question 260: Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following, except ?
A) Dilated cardiomyopathy
B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C) Eisenmenger's syndrome
D) Ventricular septal defect
Answer: D) Ventricular septal defect

Question 261: All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except ?
A) Increased waist-hip ratio
B) Hyperhomocysteinemia
C) Decreased fibrinogen levels
D) Decreased HDL levels
Answer: C) Decreased fibrinogen levels

Question 262: All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome except ?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Undescended testis
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Brushfield's spots
Answer: B) Undescended testis

Question 263: All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade
except ?
A) Kussmaul's sign
B) Pulsus paradoxus
C) Electrical alternans
D) Right ventricular diastolic collapse on echocardiogram
Answer: A) Kussmaul's sign

Question 264: A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. Her breasts
are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Turner's syndrome
B) Mullerian agenesis
C) Testicular feminization syndrome
D) Premature ovarian failure
Answer: C) Testicular feminization syndrome

Question 265: The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is ?

A) Seizure
B) Anxiety
C) Hypotension
D) Loose stools
Answer: B) Anxiety

Question 266: A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She
complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte abnormality is
?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C) Hypokalemia

Question 267: All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall
synthesis, except ?
A) Carbapenems
B) Monobactams
C) Cephamycins
D) Nitrofurantoin
Answer: D) Nitrofurantoin

Question 268: A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture
in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was
oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?
A) Pasturella spp.
B) Francisella spp.
C) Bartonella spp.
D) Brucella spp.
Answer: D) Brucella spp.
Question 269: Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity
of Mycobacteria species ?
A) M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M. bovis to the humans
B) M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis
C) M. africanum infection is acquired from the environmental source
D) M. marinum is resoponsible for tubercular lymphadenopathy
Answer: B) M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis

Question 270: A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown.
After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was
sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following
staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen ?
A) Albert staining
B) Zeihl - Neelson staining
C) Mc Fadyean's staining
D) Wayson staining
Answer: D) Wayson staining

Question 271: A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints
of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervical os on the
speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all
of the following findings on microscopy except ?
A) Abundance of gram variable coccobacilli
B) Absence of Lactobacilli
C) Abundance of polymorphs
D) Presence of clue cells
Answer: C) Abundance of polymorphs

Question 272: A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks
before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation
to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis
due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be the
causative agent ?
A) Rickettsia typhi
B) Rickettsia rickettsiae
C) Rickettsia prowazekii
D) Rickettsia akari
Answer: C) Rickettsia prowazekii

Question 273: A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus,

which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of
the following antibiotics will be appropriate except ?
A) Vancomycin
B) Imipenem
C) Teichoplanin
D) Linezolid
Answer: B) Imipenem

Question 274: A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following
would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except ?
A) TPHA test on the serum sample of the mother
B) TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant
C) VDRL on the paired serum sample of the infant and mother
D) Time interval between the treatment of the mother and her delivery
Answer: B) TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant

Question 275: At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a

pregnant patient ?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Puerperium
Answer: D) Puerperium

Question 276: Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury ?
A) Vaginal hysterectomy
B) Abdominal hysterectomy
C) Wertheim's hysterectomy
D) Anterior colporraphy
Answer: C) Wertheim's hysterectomy

Question 277: The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome ?

A) 17-OH Progesterone
B) Follicular stimulating hormone
C) Luteinising hormone
D) Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: C) Luteinising hormone

Question 278: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant

mother who is on phenytoin therapy for Epilepsy ?
A) Vitamin B6
B) Vitamin B1
C) Vitamin A
D) Folic acid
Answer: D) Folic acid

Question 279: Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion
during pregnancy ?
A) Serous Cystadenoma
B) Mucenous Cystadenoma
C) Dermoid cyst
D) Theca Lutein cyst
Answer: C) Dermoid cyst

Question 280: Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can
be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound ?
A) Anencephaly
B) Inencephaly
C) Microcephaly
D) Holoprosencephaly
Answer: A) Anencephaly

Question 281: The most common cause of tubal block in India is ?

A) Gonorrhoea infection
B) Chlamydia infection
C) Tuberculosis
D) Bacterial vaginosis
Answer: C) Tuberculosis

Question 282: The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of Post
Partum Haemorrhage (PPH) except ?
A) Hypertension
B) Macrosomia
C) Twin pregnancy
D) Hydramnios
Answer: A) Hypertension

Question 283: Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of
the following except ?
A) Fetal distress
B) Hematuria
C) Fresh bleeding per vaginum
D) Passage of meconium
Answer: D) Passage of meconium

Question 284: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic

ovarian disease ?
A) Elevated LH hormone
B) Can cause infertility
C) May be associated with abnormal glucose tolerance test
D) Results in postdated pregnancy
Answer: D) Results in postdated pregnancy

Question 285: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

levonorgestral releasing intra-uterine system ?
A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagia
B) This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy
C) This method is useful for the treatment of Endometrial hyperplasia
D) Irregular uterine bleeding can be a problem initially
Answer: A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagia

Question 286: All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of
upper genital tract infection in users of progestin-releasing IUDs, except ?
A) Reduced retrograde menstruation
B) Decreased ovulation
C) Thickened cervical mucus
D) Decidual changes in the endometrium
Answer: B) Decreased ovulation

Question 287: Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following

mechanisms, except ?
A) Delaying inhibiting ovulation
B) Inhibiting fertilization
C) Preventing implantation of the fertilized egg
D) Interrupting an early pregnancy
Answer: D) Interrupting an early pregnancy

Question 288: Misoprostol is a ?

A) Prostaglandin E1 analogue
B) Prostaglandin E2 analogue
C) Prostaglandin antagonist
D) Antiprogestin
Answer: A) Prostaglandin E1 analogue

Question 289: Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph
nodes, except ?
A) Parametrial lymph nodes
B) Deep inguinal lymph nodes
C) Obturator lymph nodes
D) Ext. iliac lymph nodes
Answer: B) Deep inguinal lymph nodes

Question 290: The treatment for a case of virilising adrenal hyperplasia is ?

A) Estrogens
B) Antiandrogens
C) ACTH
D) Cortisone
Answer: D) Cortisone

Question 291: A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 wks. gestation with acute

pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She
should be managed by ?
A) Immediate caesarean section
B) Immediate induction of labour
C) Tocolytic therapy
D) Magnesium sulphate therapy
Answer: B) Immediate induction of labour

Question 292: The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal woman

who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is ?
A) Pap smear
B) Fractional curettage
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) CA-125 estimation
Answer: B) Fractional curettage

Question 293: In which of the following genital tract malignancy, the risk of
metastasis to ovary is the least ?
A) Carcinoma cervix
B) Carcinoma endometrium
C) Carcinoma fallopian tube
D) Uterine sarcoma
Answer: A) Carcinoma cervix

Question 294: The best way of diagnosing Trisomy-21 during second trimester of
pregnancy is ?
A) Triple marker estimation
B) Nuchal skin fold thickness measurement
C) Chorionic villus sampling
D) Amniocentesis
Answer: D) Amniocentesis

Question 295: Calcitonin is secreted by ?

A) Thyroid gland
B) Parathyroid gland
C) Adrenal glands
D) Ovaries
Answer: A) Thyroid gland

Question 296: Which of the following is an intraarticular tendon ?

A) Sartorius
B) Semitendinosus
C) Anconeus
D) Popliteus
Answer: D) Popliteus
Question 297: Which of the following conditions is least likely to present as an
eccentric osteolytic lesion ?
A) Aneurysmal bone cyst
B) Giant cell tumor
C) Fibrous cortical defect
D) Simple bone cyst
Answer: D) Simple bone cyst

Question 298: Bisphosphonates act by ?

A) Increasing the osteoid formation
B) Increasing the mineralisation of osteoid
C) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone
D) Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
Answer: C) Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption of bone

Question 299: All the statements are true about exostosis, except ?
A) It occurs at the growing end of bone
B) Growth continues after skeletal maturity
C) It is covered by cartilaginous cap
D) Malignant transfonnation may occur
Answer: B) Growth continues after skeletal maturity

Question 300: The treatment of choice for the management of carcinoma of the anal
canal is ?
A) Abdomino perineal resection
B) Primary radiotherapy
C) Combined radio- and chemotherapy
D) Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and local excision
Answer: C) Combined radio- and chemotherapy