NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code WW PDF

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
WW
ALHCA
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-WW) ALHCA
1. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is 3v

4l
(1) 26.8% (2) 6.25%
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
(3) 20% (4) 12.5%
Answer ( 1 ) v

2l 
⎛ T ⎞
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,   ⎜ 1  2 ⎟ Given,
⎝ T1 ⎠
T2 : Sink temperature 3v v

4l 2l 
T1 : Source temperature
4l 2l
 l  
⎛ T ⎞ 32 3
%  ⎜ 1  2 ⎟  100
⎝ T1 ⎠ 2  20
  13.33 cm
3
⎛ 273 ⎞
 ⎜ 1 ⎟  100 4. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies
⎝ 373 ⎠
with its temperature (T), as shown in the
⎛ 100 ⎞ graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
⎜ ⎟  100  26.8% the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
⎝ 373 ⎠
change from state A to state B, is
2. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
(Given :
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
2
(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K (1)
5
(3) 8.360 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K
Answer ( 3 ) 1
(2)
3
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape 2
(3)
3
3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
mO2 2
(4)
7
On solving,
Answer ( 1 )
T = 8.360 × 104 K S o l . Given process is isobaric
3. The fundamental frequency in an open organ dQ  n Cp dT
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ ⎛5 ⎞
dQ  n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ ⎝2 ⎠
pipe is
dW  P dV = n RdT
(1) 13.2 cm (2) 12.5 cm
dW nRdT 2
(3) 8 cm (4) 16 cm Required ratio   
dQ ⎛5 ⎞ 5
n ⎜ R ⎟ dT
Answer ( 1 ) ⎝2 ⎠
2
5. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%

identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
each) which are connected in series. The
7. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
terminals of the battery are short-circuited
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E'
and the current I is measured. Which of the
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn
graphs shows the correct relationship
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in
between I and n? parallel to the same battery. Then the current
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
'n' is
I
(1) 10 (2) 20
(1) (3) 11 (4) 9
Answer ( 1 )
O
n E
Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R
I E
10 I  ...(ii)
R
R
(2) n
Dividing (ii) by (i),
O
n (n  1)R
10 
⎛1 ⎞
⎜ n  1⎟ R
I ⎝ ⎠
After solving the equation, n = 10
(3) 8. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
O
n sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
I (1) 40  (2) 250 
(3) 25  (4) 500 
(4)
Answer ( 2 )
O S o l . Current sensitivity
n
Answer ( 1 ) NBA
IS 
n  C
Sol. I  
nr r Voltage sensitivity
So, I is independent of n and I is constant. NBA
VS 
 I CRG
So, resistance of galvanometer
I 51 5000
RG  S    250 
VS 20  103 20
9. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
O 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
n
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
6. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
marked with rings of different colours for its slide down by flowing a current through it
identification. The colour code sequence will when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
be acting on it in the vertical direction. The
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
(2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold is
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver (1) 7.14 A (2) 14.76 A
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold (3) 5.98 A (4) 11.32 A
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 4 )
3
S o l . For equilibrium, ° Sol.

B 30 f = 15 cm
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co
llB O 40 cm
mg
I tan30 0° 30° llB
lB 3
n
si
0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
0.25  3
1 1 1
10. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically  
between the poles of an electromagnet. When f v1 u
the current in the electromagnet is switched 1 1 1
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out –  –
15 v1 40
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The 1 1 1
work required to do this comes from   
v1 –15 40
(1) The current source
v1 = –24 cm
(2) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
mirror.
(3) The magnetic field
(4) The induced electric field due to the Now,
changing magnetic field u2 = –20
Answer ( 1 )
1 1 1
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted  
f v2 u2
into potential energy of the rod.
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 1 1 1
11.  –
resistor 50  are connected in series across –15 v2 20
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power 1 1 1
loss in the circuit is  –
v2 20 15
(1) 0.79 W (2) 2.74 W
v2 = –60 cm
(3) 0.43 W (4) 1.13 W
So, image shifts away from mirror by
Answer ( 1 )
= 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
2
⎛V ⎞
S o l . Pav  ⎜ RMS ⎟ R 13. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
⎝ Z ⎠ 
a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
2
⎛ 1 ⎞ oscillating electric field of this em wave is
Z  R2  ⎜ L   56 
⎝ C ⎟⎠ along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along
2
⎛ ⎞
P  ⎜ 10 ⎟  50  0.79 W (1) –z direction
 av
⎝  
⎜ 2 56 ⎟
⎠ (2) –y direction
12. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm (3) +z direction
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. (4) –x direction
If the object is displaced through a distance
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the Answer ( 3 )
displacement of the image will be   
Sol. E  B  V
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror

(2) 30 cm towards the mirror ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror 
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror So, B  Bkˆ
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
Answer ( 3 )
4
14. The magnetic potential energy stored in a

sin i 2
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in 
sin30 1
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of
inductance 1
 sin i  2 
(1) 0.138 H (2) 1.389 H 2
(3) 138.88 H (4) 13.89 H
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
Answer ( 4 ) 2
S o l . Energy stored in inductor 16. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
1 2 voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
U Ll values of IB, IC and  are given by
2
1 20 V
25  10–3   L  (60  10–3 )2
2
RC 4 k
25  2  106  10–3
L C
3600 RB
Vi
500 500 k B

36 E
= 13.89 H
15. The refractive index of the material of a
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
One of the two refracting surfaces of the (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver (3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
coating. A beam of monochromatic light (4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
entering the prism from the other face will
Answer ( 4 )
retrace its path (after reflection from the
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on S o l . VBE = 0
the prism is VCE = 0
(1) 60° Vb = 0
(2) 30° 20 V
(3) 45° IC RC = 4 k
(4) Zero
RB
Answer ( 3 ) Vi Vb
Ib 500 k
S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
normally incident on silvered face.
(20  0)
IC 
30° 4  103
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
M 60°
30° Vi = VBE + IBRB
i
Vi = 0 + IBRB
20 = IB × 500 × 103
 2
20
IB   40 A
500  103
Applying Snell's law at M, IC 25  103

   125
Ib 40  106
5
17. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
due to heating are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
(1) Affects only reverse resistance with electric field vector perpendicular to the
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction plane of incidence.
(3) Affects only forward resistance
(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction
i
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change. 
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
biasing both are changed.
18. In the combination of the following gates the Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A 20. In Young's double slit experiment the
and B as
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
A wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
B
Y 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
separation between the slits needs to be
(1) A  B (2) A  B  A  B changed to
(3) A  B  A  B (4) A  B (1) 1.8 mm (2) 2.1 mm

Answer ( 3 ) (3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.7 mm
A Answer ( 3 )
Sol. A AB
B 
B S o l . Angular width 
Y d
A
AB 
B 0.20  …(i)
2 mm
Y  (A  B  A  B)

19. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a 0.21  …(ii)
d
plane surface of a material of refractive index
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
found that the reflected and refracted rays are 0.20 d
perpendicular to each other. Which of the Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
following options is correct for this situation?
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its  d = 1.9 mm
electric vector parallel to the plane of
21. An astronomical refracting telescope will
incidence
have large angular magnification and high
⎛ 1⎞ angular resolution, when it has an objective
(2) i  sin1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠ lens of
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its (1) Small focal length and large diameter
electric vector perpendicular to the plane
of incidence (2) Large focal length and large diameter
⎛ 1⎞ (3) Large focal length and small diameter

(4) i  tan1 ⎜ ⎟
⎝⎠ (4) Small focal length and small diameter
6
f0 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant

S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE Q2
Fplate 
2A0
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large. F is Independent of the distance between
plates.
D 25. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22 distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
So, objective should have large focal length directed electric field E. The direction of
(f0) and large diameter D. electric field is now reversed, keeping its
22. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
a glass tube. The length of the air column in fall from rest in it through the same vertical
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm (1) Smaller (2) 10 times greater
of column length. If the frequency of the
(3) 5 times greater (4) Equal
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
air at 27ºC is Answer ( 1 )
(1) 330 m/s (2) 350 m/s 1 eE 2
Sol. h  t
(3) 339 m/s (4) 300 m/s 2 m
Answer ( 3 ) 2hm
 t
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] eE
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
= 339.2 ms–1 proton.
= 339 m/s ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
23. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a smaller time.
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. 26. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
position. The time period of oscillation is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
(1) 2 s (2) 2 s at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
figure. Then
(3)  s (4) 1 s
B
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . |a| = 2y
A C
 20 = 2(5) S
  = 2 rad/s
(1) KA < KB < KC
2 2
T  s (2) KB < KA < KC
 2
24. The electrostatic force between the metal (3) KA > KB > KC
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor (4) KB > KA > KC
C having a charge Q and area A, is
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Independent of the distance between the
plates Sol. B
VC
(2) Proportional to the square root of the perihelion
distance between the plates A C
S
aphelion
(3) Linearly proportional to the distance VA
between the plates
Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(4) Inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates So, VA > VB > VC
Answer ( 1 ) So, KA > KB > KC
7
27. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
motion a body possesses translational kinetic ten times, then G = 10 G
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
i.e. (4) is wrong option.
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
(1) 7 : 10 (2) 10 : 7 30. A toy car with charge q moves on a
frictionless horizontal plane surface under
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 2 : 5 the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
Answer ( 3 ) Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
1
S o l . Kt  mv 2 that instant the direction of the field is
2 reversed. The car continues to move for two
2 more seconds under the influence of this field.
1 1 1 1⎛ 2 ⎞⎛ v ⎞
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟⎜ ⎟ The average velocity and the average speed
2 2 2 2⎝5 ⎠⎝ r ⎠ of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
respectively
7
 mv2 (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
10
(2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Kt 5 (3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
So, 
Kt  Kr 7 (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
Answer ( 3 )
28. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the a –a
Sol. t = 0 t=1 t=2
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
A –1 B
Which of the following physical quantities v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
would remain constant for the sphere? C –a
t=3
(1) Angular velocity v = –6 ms
–1
(2) Rotational kinetic energy

60
(3) Moment of inertia Acceleration a   6 ms2
1
(4) Angular momentum
For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . ex = 0 1
S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
dL
So, 0
dt For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
i.e. L = constant
1
So angular momentum remains constant. S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
29. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the 1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
following is not correct? 2
(1) Raindrops will fall faster Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
3
Earth would decrease Average velocity   1 ms 1
3
(3) Walking on the ground would become
more difficult Total distance travelled = 9 m
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change 9

Average speed   3 ms 1
Answer ( 4 ) 3
8
31. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth Sol. Y

inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The F
relation between a and  for the block to
remain stationary on the wedge is A r  r0
P
A
m r0
r
a
O X


C B   (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
g ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
(1) a  r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
cosec 
(2) a = g cos   0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
î ˆj kˆ
g
(3) a 
sin    0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
4 5 6
(4) a = g tan 
33. A student measured the diameter of a small
Answer ( 4 )
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
Sol. N cos 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with
N 25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
 the correct diameter of the ball is
ma N sin
(1) 0.521 cm
(pseudo) 
(2) 0.053 cm
(3) 0.525 cm
mg a

(4) 0.529 cm
In non-inertial frame,
Answer ( 4 )
N sin  = ma ...(i)
S o l . Diameter of the ball
N cos  = mg ...(ii) = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
a = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
tan  
g = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
a = g tan  = 0.529 cm

32. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at 34. Which one of the following statements is
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given incorrect?
by (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
friction.
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative
(2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ motion.
(3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
(3) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ proportional to normal reaction.
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
(4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ dimensions of length.
9
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no S o l . According to law of conservation of linear

dimension. momentum,
f = sN mv  4m  0  4mv  0
v
f v 
⇒ s  4
N
v
35. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each Relative velocity of approach v
have the same mass M and radius R. They all
1
spin with the same angular speed  about e  0.25
4
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
work (W) required to bring them to rest, would 37. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
satisfy the relation frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) WC > WB > WA diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
(2) WB > WA > WC
(3) WA > WB > WC h

B
(4) WA > WC > WB
Answer ( 1 ) A
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest 3

(1) D
2
W = KE
7
1 (2) D
W  I2 5
2
(3) D
W  I for same 
5
(4) D
2 1 4
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2 Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
2 1
= : :1
5 2
h
B
= 4 : 5 : 10
 WC > WB > WA vL
A
36. A moving block having mass m, collides with As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
another stationary block having mass 4m. The energy will remain constant
lighter block comes to rest after collision.
T.M.EI =T.M.EF
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution 1
0  mgh  mvL2  0
(e) will be 2
(1) 0.5 vL2
h
(2) 0.8 2g
(3) 0.25 For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR

(4) 0.4 5gR 5 5
h  R D
Answer ( 3 ) 2g 2 4
10
38. Two wires are made of the same material and S o l . Q = U + W

have the same volume. The first wire has  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of  U = 208.7 J
the first wire is increased by l on applying a 40. The power radiated by a black body is P and
force F, how much force is needed to stretch it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
the socond wire by the same amount? If the temperature of the black body is now
(1) 9 F changed so that it radiates maximum energy
3
(2) 4 F at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
4
(3) 6 F becomes nP. The value of n is
(4) F 3
(1)
Answer ( 1 ) 4
S o l . Wire 1 : 256
(2)
F 81
A, 3l
Wire 2 : 4
(3)
3
F
3A, l 81
(4)
For wire 1, 256
Answer ( 2 )
⎛ F ⎞
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l …(i) S o l . We know,
⎝ AY ⎠
max T  constant (Wien's law)
For wire 2,
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
F l
Y
3A l
3 0
⇒ 0 T  T
4
⎛ F ⎞
 l  ⎜ ⎟l …(ii)
⎝ 3AY ⎠ 4
⇒ T  T
3
From equation (i) & (ii), 4 4
P2 ⎛ T  ⎞ ⎛4⎞ 256
⎛ F ⎞ ⎛ F ⎞ So, ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟ 
l  ⎜ ⎟ 3l  ⎜ 3AY ⎟ l P1 ⎝ T ⎠ ⎝3⎠ 81
⎝ AY ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
41. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
 F  9F viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
39. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and heat when the sphere attains its terminal
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires velocity, is proportional to
54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at (1) r3
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
(2) r5
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is (3) r2
(4) r4
(1) 104.3 J
Answer ( 2 )
(2) 42.2 J
2
(3) 208.7 J S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
(4) 84.5 J VT  r 2
Answer ( 3 )
⇒ Power  r 5
11
42. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
 n
V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field N ⎛ 1⎞


N0 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its t
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- 150 ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2

Broglie wavelength at time t is 600 ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
t
0 2
(1) (2) 0t ⎛ 1⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞ t 1/2
⎛ eE0 ⎞ ⎜2⎟  ⎜2⎟
⎜1 t⎟ ⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
⎝ mV0 ⎠
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
⎛ eE0 ⎞ = 20 minute
(3) 0 ⎜ 1  t⎟ (4) 0
⎝ mV0 ⎠ 44. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
Answer ( 1 ) atom, is
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : –1
h (3) 1 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
0  ...(i)
mV0
Answer ( 3 )
E0 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
V0
F So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
45. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
Acceleration of electron
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
eE0 plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
a
m emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
Velocity after time ‘t’ incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
⎛ eE0 ⎞
V  ⎜ V0  t
m ⎟⎠
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
⎝
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
h h
So,    (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
mV ⎛ eE ⎞
m ⎜ V0  0 t ⎟ Answer ( 1 )
⎝ m ⎠
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
h 0 2
  …(ii)
⎡ eE0 ⎤ ⎡ eE0 ⎤ 1
mV0 ⎢1  t⎥ ⎢1  t⎥ h(20 )  h0  mv12
⎣ mV0 ⎦ ⎣ mV0 ⎦ 2
1
Divide (ii) by (i), h 0  mv12 …(i)
2
0 1
 h(50 )  h0  mv22
⎡ eE0 ⎤ 2
⎢1  t⎥
⎣ mV0 ⎦ 1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
43. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 2
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of Divide (i) by (ii),
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
disintegration of 450 nuclei is 1 v12

(1) 20 (2) 30 4 v22
(3) 10 (4) 15 v1 1

Answer ( 1 ) v2 2
12
46. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
nature? it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
(1) MgO (2) BaO absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
(3) BeO (4) CaO So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO

is
Answer ( 3 )
2
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO  28  2.8 g
 20
Basic character increases. So, the correct option is (2)
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact, 49. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given which of the following statements is
oxides are basic. incorrect?
47. The difference between amylose and (1) They contain covalent bonds between
amylopectin is various linear polymer chains.
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and (2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
1 6 -linkage
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and monomers.
1  6 -linkage
(4) They contain strong covalents bonds in
(3) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6 their polymer chains.
-linkage Answer ( 4 )
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
galactose from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
Answer ( 1 ) and contain strong covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
cross-linking.
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4 So option (4) should be the correct option.
and 1  6 -linkages. 50. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
So option (1) should be the correct option. also gives m-nitroaniline because
48. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic (1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved goes to only m-position.
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH (2) In absence of substituents nitro group
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product always goes to m-position.
at STP will be
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions
(1) 1.4 amino group is meta directive.
(2) 2.8
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
(3) 3.0 present as anilinium ion.
(4) 4.4 Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
NH2 NH3
Conc.H2 SO4
S o l . HCOOH 
 CO(g)  H2 O(l)
 1  1 H
2.3 g or  mol  mol Sol.
 20  20
Anilinium ion
Conc.H2SO4
COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1
mol
1
mol –NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para
COOH 20 20
 1  (51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is

4.5 g or  mol 
 20  also formed in significant yield.
13
51. The compound A on treatment with Na gives Answer ( 1 )

B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react CH3 CCl3 CCl3
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
in the order 3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Fe
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl Br
(C7H8) (A) (B)
(2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
Zn HCl
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl CH3
Answer ( 4 )
C2H5O Na+
Na Br
S o l . C2H5OH
(C)
(A) (B)
So, the correct option is (1)
PCl5
54. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
C2H5Cl pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(C) due to natural and human activity?
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl

SN2 (1) N2O5 (2) N2O
C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C) (3) NO2 (4) NO
So the correct option is (4) Answer ( 1 )
52. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by S o l . Fact
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by 55. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
atoms. (A) is dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) CH  CH
(1) 200 kJ mol–1
(2) CH3 – CH3
(2) 800 kJ mol–1
(3) CH2  CH2
(3) 100 kJ mol–1
(4) CH4
(4) 400 kJ mol–1
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 )
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
(A) Na/dry ether
Wurtz reaction 1 1
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
CH3 — CH3
Hence the correct option is (4) X
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
53. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following 2
reactions: respectively
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl

C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C X X
 H      X  200
2 4
The product 'C' is
(1) m-bromotoluene On solving, we get
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
X X
(3) o-bromotoluene    200
2 4
(4) p-bromotoluene
 X = 800 kJ/mole
14
56. When initial concentration of the reactant is 

n-factor of MnO4  5
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction n-factor of C2 O24  2
(1) Is halved 
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
(2) Is tripled
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
(3) Is doubled
 The balanced equation is
(4) Remains unchanged
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
Answer ( 3 )
59. Which one of the following conditions will
S o l . Half life of zero order favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction,
[A0 ]
t 1/2 
2K X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g)
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
concentration.
(2) High temperature and high pressure
57. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
equation corresponds to (3) Low temperature and low pressure
(4) High temperature and low pressure
(1) Density of the gas molecules
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Electric field present between the gas
molecules X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)
(3) Volume of the gas molecules
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas direction where pressure decreases i.e.
molecules forward direction.
Answer ( 4 ) On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
 2 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT So, high pressure and low temperature
 V 
2
 favours maximum formation of product.
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies 60. Consider the change in oxidation state of
intermolecular forces of attraction. Bromine corresponding to different emf values
58. For the redox reaction as shown in the diagram below :
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
The correct coefficients of the reactants for –

Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
the balanced equation are
Then the species undergoing
MnO4 C2 O24 H+ disproportionation is
(1) 16 5 2 (1) BrO3 (2) Br2
(2) 2 16 5 (3) BrO4 (4) HBrO
(3) 2 5 16 Answer ( 4 )
(4) 5 16 2 1 0
o
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
Reduction 1 5
+7 +3 +4  BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO
– 2– + 2+
S o l . MnO 4 + C2O + H
4 Mn + CO2 + H2O
Oxidation
15
o (2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a

Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
second-order reaction cannot be
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo catalyzed
2 BrO3 /HBrO
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
= 1.595 – 1.5
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
= 0.095 V = + ve second-order reaction does depend on
Hence, option (4) is correct answer. [A]0
61. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic (4) The rate of a first-order reaction does
character is depend on reactant concentrations; the
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 rate of a second-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 Answer ( 3 )
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 0.693

Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
Answer ( 1 ) k
S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the which is independent of initial
group metallic character of metals increases concentration of reactant.
so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
1
Hence the option (1) should be correct option.  For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ]
62. In which case is number of molecules of
which depends on initial concentration of
water maximum?
reactant.
(1) 18 mL of water
64. Which of the following is correct with respect
(2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
273 K
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(3) 0.18 g of water
(2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) 10–3 mol of water
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
Answer ( 1 )
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F
S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
Answer ( 1 * )
18 S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
18
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
= NA
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
however option (2) may also be correct answer.
0.00224
(2) Moles of water = = 10–4 65. Which of the following molecules represents
22.4
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA left to right atoms?
(1) HC  C – C  CH
0.18
(3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18 (2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(3) CH2 = CH – C  CH
= 10–2 NA
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
Answer ( 3 )
63. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that sp2 sp2 sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations; the Number of orbital require in hybridization
rate of a second-order reaction does
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
depend on reactant concentrations atom.
16
66. Which of the following carbocations is
4r
expected to be most stable? S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3
NO2
NO2 For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
 ZM 
(1) (2) H  N a3 
 d25C  A  BCC
 
Y  d900C  ZM 
Y H
 N a3 
 A  FCC
NO2 3
NO2 2  2 2 r 3 3
  
 4 4r   4 2 
H  
  3 
(3) (4) Y 69. Which one is a wrong statement?
Y H (1) Total orbital angular momentum of

electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
Answer ( 2 ) (2) The electronic configuration of N atom is
1 1 1
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases 1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
with increase in distance. In option (2)
positive charge present on C-atom at
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum
is minimum and stability is maximum.
numbers while an electron in an atom is
67. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form designated by four quantum numbers
an ionic compound. If the ground state (4) The value of m for dz2 is zero
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
Answer ( 2 )
the simplest formula for this compound is
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
(1) Mg2X3 (2) Mg2X multiplicity, the correct electronic
(3) MgX2 (4) Mg3X2 configuration of N-atom is
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
1s2 2s2 2p3 1s2 2s2 2p3
So, valency of X will be 3. OR

Valency of Mg is 2.
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2.
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
68. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to  Option (2) violates Hund's Rule.
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at 70. Consider the following species :
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming CN+, CN–, NO and CN
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains Which one of these will have the highest bond
constant with temperature) is order?
3 3 3 (1) NO (2) CN+
(1) (2) (3) CN– (4) CN
2 4 2
Answer ( 3 )
4 3 1 S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z ) 2 ,
(3) (4) (2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
3 2 2
10  5
Answer ( 2 ) BO =  2.5
2
17
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 Answer ( 3 )
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
10  4  
BO = 3
 
 
2 F
CN : (1s) , (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
2
 
= (2py)2,(2pz)1
 
F Cl
9 4  
BO =  2.5
2
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
 
 
F
= (2py)2  
8 4 The number of lone pair of electrons on

BO = 2 central Cl is 2.
2
Hence, option(3) should be the right answer. 75. The correct order of N-compounds in its
71. Which of the following statements is not true decreasing order of oxidation states is
for halogens? (1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids (2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
states
(3) All are oxidizing agents (4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain Answer ( 1 )
enthalpy 5 2 0 –3
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
Hence, the correct option is (1).
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in 76. Which one of the following elements is unable
HOF. to form MF63– ion?
72. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (1) Ga (2) B
following metals can be used to reduce (3) Al (4) In
alumina?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Fe (2) Mg
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
(3) Zn (4) Cu
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
Answer ( 2 )
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' BF63(–).
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
Hence, the correct option is (2).
correct option.
73. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 77. In the reaction
elements is OH O–Na+
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In CHO
+ CHCl3 + NaOH
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
Answer ( 4 ) The electrophile involved is
Sol.
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

Elements B Ga Al In Tl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143
74. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
167 170
(2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) One (2) Four
(3) Formyl cation CHO  

(3) Two (4) Three
(4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
18
Answer ( 4 ) 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O

S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
the following reaction OH O
.–.
Acetophenone
(A)
CHCl3  OH–
CCl3  H2 O
I2
COONa + CHI3
.–.
NaOH
Iodoform
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3  Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
Electrophile
80. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
78. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of in Column II and assign the correct code :
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their Column I Column II
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
Answer ( 4 ) d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding v. 15 BM
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
boiling point increases and become more a b c d
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones (1) iv v ii i
and alcohols of comparable molecular (2) iv i ii iii
masses.
(3) i ii iii iv
79. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and (4) iii v i ii
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic Answer ( 1 )
smell. S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
A and Y are respectively
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
CH – CH3 and I2 Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

(2)
OH Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
(3) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
CH3
81. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(4) CH3 OH and I2 (1) Tetranuclear (2) Trinuclear
(3) Mononuclear (4) Dinuclear
S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
present in a complex, they are classified
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
so on.
19
eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear Answer ( 1 )

Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear is 6 and this compound has octahedral
Hence, option (3) should be the right geometry.
answer.
82. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(2) Square planar geometry and
paramagnetic
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic • As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism.
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
85. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
Answer ( 3 )
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
different concentrations :
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
Configuration would be : M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
3
sp -hybridisation 10 10
×× ×× ×× ×× M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
CO CO CO CO
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
M M
sp 3 and thus the complex would be c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. 5 5
CO
M M
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
Ni pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

CO (1) b (2) d
OC
(3) a (4) c
CO
83. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d Answer ( 4 )
transition and paramagnetism as well? 1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
(1) CrO42– (2) MnO4– 5
(3) Cr2O72– (4) MnO42– 1
Answer ( 4 ) • Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic 10 1
= 
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1 100 10
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic  1
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]  10 
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic 86. On which of the following properties does the
84. The type of isomerism shown by the complex coagulating power of an ion depend?
[CoCl2(en)2] is (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
(1) Geometrical isomerism alone
(2) Ionization isomerism (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
(3) Coordination isomerism the ion
(4) Linkage isomerism (3) Size of the ion alone
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
20
Answer ( 2 ) 90. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the

Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using following sequence of reactions:
an electrolyte depends on the charge Anhydrous
present (positive or negative) on colloidal AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
particles as well as on its size.
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte (i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
depends on the magnitude of charge
present on effective ion of electrolyte. P Q R
87. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be (1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
CH(CH3)2 OH
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 (2) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2 CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
Answer ( 1 )
(3) , ,
2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233
OH
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1) CH(CH3)2
(4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)
s s
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 Answer ( 4 )
= (1.04 × 10–5)2 Cl
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2 S o l . CH CH CH – Cl +
3 2 2 Al
88. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
Cl Cl
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
3.59, which one of the following gases is most 1, 2–H
+ + –
easily liquefied? Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(1) NH3 (2) O2 (Incipient carbocation)
Cl
(3) H2 (4) CO2
Answer ( 1 ) –
AlCl3
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction. Now,
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be CH3
the liquefaction of gas.
CH – CH3
89. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion? CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
(1) Aniline (2) Benzoic acid
(3) Acetanilide (4) Glycine (P)
Answer ( 4 ) CH3
  OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO– O
+
(Zwitterion form) H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34 Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
H2N – CH2 – COO–
21
91. What type of ecological pyramid would be 94. In stratosphere, which of the following
obtained with the following data? elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
Secondary consumer : 120 g ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
Primary consumer : 60 g (1) Carbon (2) Fe

(3) Cl (4) Oxygen
Primary producer : 10 g
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(3) Pyramid of energy method converting into oxygen
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
Answer ( 1 ) ozone layer depletion
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted 95. Niche is
pyramid of biomass, usually found in (1) all the biological factors in the organism's
aquatic ecosystem. environment
• Pyramid of energy is always upright (2) the range of temperature that the
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers organism needs to live
are not possible, as the data depicts (3) the physical space where an organism
primary producer is less than primary lives
consumer and this is less than secondary
(4) the functional role played by the organism
consumers.
where it lives
92. Natality refers to
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Death rate
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat refers the functional role played by the
(3) Birth rate organism where it lives.
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat 96. Which of the following is a secondary
pollutant?
Answer ( 3 )
(1) CO (2) SO2
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
(3) CO2 (4) O3
• Death rate – Mortality
Answer ( 4 )
• Number of individual – Immigration
entering a habitat is S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
• Number of individual – Emigration
leaving the habital CO – Quantitative pollutant
93. World Ozone Day is celebrated on CO2 – Primary pollutant
(1) 5th June SO2 – Primary pollutant
(2) 16th September 97. What is the role of NAD + in cellular

respiration?
(3) 21st April
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
(4) 22nd April
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
Answer ( 2 )
(3) It functions as an electron carrier.
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for
September.
anaerobic respiration.
5th June - World Environment Day
Answer ( 3 )
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron
22nd April - National Earth Day carrier.
22
98. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
by that occur in angiosperms only.
(1) Green sulphur bacteria Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
(2) Cycas 103. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
(3) Nostoc in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(4) Chara (1) –120°C (2) –196°C
Answer ( 1 ) (3) –80°C (4) –160°C
S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H2O as source Answer ( 2 )

of proton, therefore they do not evolve O2. S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
99. Which one of the following plants shows a liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation)
very close relationship with a species of moth, 104. The stage during which separation of the
where none of the two can complete its life paired homologous chromosomes begins is
cycle without the other?
(1) Pachytene (2) Diakinesis
(1) Hydrilla (2) Banana
(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene
(3) Yucca (4) Viola
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
species of moth i.e. Pronuba. chiasmata start to shift towards end.
100. In which of the following forms is iron 105. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
absorbed by plants?
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
(1) Ferric cells
(2) Free element (2) It takes part in spindle formation
(3) Ferrous (3) It is a membrane-bound structure
(4) Both ferric and ferrous (4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
Answer ( 1 * ) synthesis
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric Answer ( 4 )
ions. (According to NCERT) S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) 106. Which among the following is not a
101. Which of the following elements is responsible prokaryote?
for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Nostoc
(1) Magnesium (2) Potassium
(3) Mycobacterium (4) Oscillatoria
(3) Sodium (4) Calcium
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of (unicellular fungi)
cells.
Mycobacterium – a bacterium
102. Double fertilization is
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
107. Stomatal movement is not affected by
tube with two different eggs
(1) Temperature
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(2) O2 concentration
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
nuclei (3) Light
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion (4) CO2 concentration
23
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 112. Offsets are produced by

affect opening and closing of stomata while (1) Meiotic divisions
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
(2) Parthenocarpy
108. Stomata in grass leaf are
(3) Mitotic divisions
(1) Dumb-bell shaped (4) Parthenogenesis
(2) Rectangular Answer ( 3 )
(3) Kidney shaped S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
(4) Barrel shaped by mitosis.
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
Answer ( 1 )
cells.
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
shaped stomata in their leaves. embryo from ovum or egg without
109. The two functional groups characteristic of fertilisation.
sugars are – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl fertilisation, (generally seedless)
(2) Carbonyl and phosphate 113. Select the correct statement

(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(3) Carbonyl and methyl
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British
Answer ( 4 ) scientist
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote (4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
carbohydrate. Answer ( 3 )
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
ketone or their derivatives, which means they geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
110. The Golgi complex participates in mode of replication.
(1) Fatty acid breakdown – Transduction was discovered by Zinder
and Laderberg.
(2) Respiration in bacteria
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
(3) Formation of secretory vesicles transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
(4) Activation of amino acid 114. Which of the following has proved helpful in
Answer ( 3 ) preserving pollen as fossils?
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases (1) Pollenkitt

secretory vesicles from their trans-face. (2) Oil content
111. Which of the following is not a product of light (3) Cellulosic intine
reaction of photosynthesis? (4) Sporopollenin
(1) ATP Answer ( 4 )
(2) NADPH S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
(3) NADH helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(4) Oxygen Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Answer ( 3 ) Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light pollen grain known as intine made up
reaction, while NADH is a product of cellulose & pectin.
respiration process. Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
24
115. Select the correct match 118. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
matched?
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
pneumoniae
(2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
determination
and F. Stahl
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Martha Chase
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
Jacques Monod
pleiotropic gene.
Answer ( 4 )
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed matched.
model of gene regulation known as operon
119. Winged pollen grains are present in
model/lac operon.
(1) Mustard (2) Mango
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
technique. (3) Cycas (4) Pinus
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- Answer ( 4 )
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
Proved DNA as genetic material not form the wings of pollen. It is the
protein characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
116. The experimental proof for semiconservative Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
replication of DNA was first shown in a not winged shaped.
(1) Fungus 120. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores

are produced exogenously in
(2) Plant
(1) Neurospora (2) Agaricus
(3) Bacterium
(3) Alternaria (4) Saccharomyces
(4) Virus
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
basidiospores or meiospores are
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
produced exogenously.
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
 Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
117. Which of the following flowers only once in its produces ascospores as meiospores but
life-time? endogenously inside the ascus.)
(1) Bamboo species  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
(2) Mango does not produce sexual spores.
(3) Jackfruit  Saccharomyces (Unicellular ascomycetes)
produces ascospores, endogenously.
(4) Papaya
121. Which one is wrongly matched?
Answer ( 1 )
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
generally only once in its life-time after 50- (2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
100 years. (3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic (4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
their life-time. Answer ( 1 )
25
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
where asexual spores and gametes are • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
non-motile or non-flagellated. and secondary phloem towards outsides.
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly • 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
matched produced than secondary phloem.
122. Match the items given in Column I with those 124. Pneumatophores occur in
in Column II and select the correct option (1) Halophytes
given below: (2) Carnivorous plants
Column I Column II (3) Free-floating hydrophytes
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a (4) Submerged hydrophytes
collection of preserved Answer ( 1 )
plants and animals
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates pneumatophores.
methodically all the  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
species found in an area having lenticels called pneumathodes to
with brief description uptake O2.
aiding identification
125. Sweet potato is a modified
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried (1) Stem (2) Tap root
and pressed plant
(3) Adventitious root (4) Rhizome
specimens mounted on
sheets are kept Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
for storage of food
list of characters and
their alternates which • Rhizomes are underground modified stem
are helpful in • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
identification of various from the redicle
taxa. 126. Which of the following statements is correct?
a b c d (1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Salvinia is homosporous
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Answer ( 4 ) Cycas and Cedrus
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant
specimen Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule.
• Key – Identification of various • Called phanerogams without womb/ovary

taxa 127. Select the wrong statement :
• Museum – Plant and animal (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
specimen are preserved and Plantae
(2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of
structures in Sporozoans
species
(3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
123. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
are produced by
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(1) Apical meristems (2) Phellogen
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Vascular cambium (4) Axillary meristems S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
Answer ( 3 ) sarcodines (Amoeboid)
26
128. Casparian strips occur in S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for

(1) Epidermis (2) Cortex introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocyte.
(3) Pericycle (4) Endodermis
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
Answer ( 4 ) patient are grown in culture outside the body,
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial a functional gene is introduced by using a
and inner tangential wall. retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
• It is suberin rich. 132. In India, the organisation responsible for
129. Plants having little or no secondary growth assessing the safety of introducing genetically
are modified organisms for public use is
(1) Grasses (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Conifers (2) Research Committee on Genetic

Manipulation (RCGM)
(3) Deciduous angiosperms
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(4) Cycads
Research (CSIR)
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually (GEAC)
do not have secondary growth.
Answer ( 4 )
Palm like monocots have anomalous
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
secondary growth.
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
130. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a Committee) which will make decisions
foreign company, though such varieties have regarding the validity of GM research and
been present in India for a long time. This is safety of introducing GM-organism for public
related to services. (Direct from NCERT).
(1) Co-667 (2) Lerma Rojo 133. Select the correct match
(3) Sharbati Sonora (4) Basmati (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
Answer ( 4 ) (2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent (3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. Answer ( 1 )
The diversity of rice in India is one of the S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties acid.
of Basmati are grown in India. 134. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf Chain Reaction (PCR) is
varieties and claimed as an invention or a (1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
novelty.
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
(3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
of wheat.
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
131. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in Answer ( 4 )
human lymphocytes? S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
(1) Retrovirus copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
(2)  phage Each cycle has three steps
(3) Ti plasmid (i) Denaturation
(4) pBR 322 (ii) Primer annealing
Answer ( 1 ) (iii) Extension of primer
27
135. Use of bioresources by multinational 138. Which of the following structures or regions is
companies and organisations without incorrectly paired with its functions?
authorisation from the concerned country and
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
its people is called
and cardiovascular
(1) Bio-infringement reflexes.
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
(2) Biodegradation
releasing hormones
(3) Biopiracy and regulation of
temperature,
(4) Bioexploitation hunger and thirst.
Answer ( 3 ) (3) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
interconnect
of bioresources by multinational companies
different regions of
and other organisation without proper
brain; controls
authorisation from the countries and people
movement.
concerned with compensatory payment
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). (4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and
136. The transparent lens in the human eye is held right cerebral
in its place by hemispheres.
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body Answer ( 3 )
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
all emotions in our body but not movements.
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
139. Which of the following is an amino acid
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary derived hormone?
body
(1) Epinephrine
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Estradiol
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(3) Ecdysone
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
body. (4) Estriol
137. Which of the following hormones can play a Answer ( 1 )

significant role in osteoporosis? S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a
catecholamine.
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
140. All of the following are part of an operon
(3) Progesterone and Aldosterone except
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (1) an operator

(2) an enhancer
Answer ( 2 )
(3) structural genes
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female (4) a promoter
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
Answer ( 2 )
estrogen.Parathormone promotes mobilisation
of calcium from bone into blood. Excessive Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
activity of parathormone causes eukaryotes.
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
28
141. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de Vries,
strand of a gene. What will be the the evolution is a discontinuous phenomenon
corresponding sequence of the transcribed or saltatory phenomenon/saltation.
mRNA? 144. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU inherited by
(1) Only daughters
(3) UGGTUTCGCAT
(2) Only grandchildren
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA
(3) Only sons
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Both sons and daughters
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by Answer ( 4 )
‘U’–Uracil in mRNA. Sol. • Woman is a carrier
142. Match the items given in Column I with those • Both son & daughter inherit X–chromosome
in Column II and select the correct option
• Although only son be the diseased
given below :
145. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
Column I Column II
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of lymphatic vessels?
endometrial (1) Elephantiasis (2) Ringworm disease
lining (3) Ascariasis (4) Amoebiasis
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase Answer ( 1 )
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
a b c Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
Culex mosquito.
(1) iii ii i
146. Among the following sets of examples for
(2) ii iii i divergent evolution, select the incorrect
(3) i iii ii option :
(4) iii i ii (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
Answer ( 2 ) (2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start (3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
developing, hence, called follicular phase. (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase Answer ( 4 )
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
the endometrium maintained by
vertebrates which have developed along
progesterone.
different directions due to adaptation to
Menstruation occurs due to decline in different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
progesterone level and involves breakdown of and man are examples of analogous organs
overgrown endometrial lining. showing convergent evolution.
143. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism 147. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
of evolution is disease?
(1) Multiple step mutations (1) Psoriasis
(2) Phenotypic variations (2) Alzheimer's disease
(3) Saltation (3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Minor mutations (4) Vitiligo
29
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 151. Which one of the following population

disorder in which antibodies are produced interactions is widely used in medical science
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. for the production of antibiotics?
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also (1) Commensalism (2) Parasitism
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(3) Mutualism (4) Amensalism
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
Answer ( 4 )
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
acetylcholine. microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
148. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs harm other microbes (eg :
of many vertebrates is an example of Staphylococcus)
(1) Homology  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
(2) Convergent evolution organism which produces it.
(3) Analogy 152. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ

conservation’ except
(4) Adaptive radiation
(1) Wildlife safari parks
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs (2) Botanical gardens
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in (3) Sacred groves
different way as per their adaptation, hence (4) Seed banks
example of homology.
Answer ( 3 )
149. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B12  Represent pristine forest patch as
protected by Tribal groups.
(3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin E
Answer ( 2 ) 153. Match the items given in Column I with those
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk. given below :
 It has enriched presence of vitamins
Column-I Column-II
specially Vit-B12.
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
150. Which of the following characteristics
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
humans? c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
a. Dominance enrichment
b. Co-dominance d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
c. Multiple allele a b c d
d. Incomplete dominance (1) ii i iii iv
e. Polygenic inheritance (2) iii iv i ii
(1) b, c and e (2) b, d and e (3) i iii iv ii
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c and e (4) i ii iv iii
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
relationship
enrichment
 IAIB - Codominance
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
forms of a gene c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation
(multiple allelism) d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
30
154. In a growing population of a country, 157. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more (1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
than the reproductive individuals. preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive (2) is an IUD.

individuals are equal in number. (3) increases the concentration of estrogen
(3) reproductive individuals are less than the and prevents ovulation in females.
post-reproductive individuals. (4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than Answer ( 1 )
the reproductive individuals.
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
Answer ( 1 ) pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or Receptor modulation.
the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an 158. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
increasing population. from
155. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain (1) ectoderm and mesoderm
the drug “Smack”? (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
(1) Flowers (3) endoderm and mesoderm
(2) Roots (4) ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Latex Answer ( 1 )
(4) Leaves S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are

amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Answer ( 3 )
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is side and ectoderm on inner side.
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
Poppy plant. mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
156. Hormones secreted by the placenta to endoderm in inner side.
maintain pregnancy are
159. The difference between spermiogenesis and
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin spermiation is
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin formed.
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
glucocorticoids sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
Answer ( 2 ) seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which stimulates
formed, while in spermiation spermatids
the Corpus luteum during pregnancy to release
are formed.
estrogen and progesterone and also rescues
corpus luteum from regression. Human (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
placental lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
of body of mother and breast. Progesterone are released from sertoli cells into the
maintains pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by cavity of seminiferous tubules.
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
Answer ( 4 )
stimuli.
31
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of 162. Match the items given in Column I with those
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas in Column II and select the correct option
spermiation is the release of the sperms from given below:
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
Column I Column II
tubule.
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
160. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
emphysema, respectively? volume
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
respiratory surface
volume
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
Inflammation of bronchioles
a b c d
(3) Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface (1) iii ii i iv
(4) Decreased respiratory surface; (2) i iv ii iii
Inflammation of bronchioles (3) iii i iv ii
Answer ( 1 ) (4) iv iii ii i
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing Answer ( 3 )
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to expired during normal respiration. It is
which respiratory surface is decreased. approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
161. Match the items given in Column I with those can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
in Column II and select the correct option around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
given below : volume is additional volume of air a person
Column I Column II can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
and left ventricle Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle and
pulmonary artery 163. Match the items given in Column I with those
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
given below:
atrium and right
ventricle Column I Column II
a b c (Function) (Part of Excretory

system)
(1) iii i ii
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
(2) i ii iii
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
(3) i iii ii
of urine
(4) ii i iii
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
Answer ( 1 )
urine
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
between right atrium and right ventricle. d. Storage of iv. Malpighian
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between urine corpuscle
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves
v. Proximal
are present at the openings of aortic and
pulmonary aorta. convoluted tubule
32
a b c d Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium

phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
(1) iv v ii iii
kidney.
(2) v iv i ii Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
(3) iv i ii iii condition of glomerulus characterised by
proteinuria and haematuria.
(4) v iv i iii
165. Which of the following is an occupational
Answer ( 3 ) respiratory disorder?
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine (1) Anthracis (2) Botulism
particles having molecular weight less than (3) Silicosis (4) Emphysema
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
Answer ( 3 )
Concentration of urine refers to water
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by
breaking industries.
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
through ureter. lung damage.
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
urine. by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
164. Match the items given in Column I with those domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
in Column II and select the correct option chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
given below : damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased.
Column I Column II
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of by Clostridium botulinum.
uric acid in joints 166. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised contraction because it
salts within the (1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
kidney of active sites on actin for myosin.
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in (2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
glomeruli filament.
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in (3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to

nephritis glucose urine it.
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
a b c d
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
(1) iii ii iv i filament.
(2) ii iii i iv Answer ( 1 )
(3) i ii iii iv Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level

many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(4) iv i ii iii
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
Answer ( 4 ) (troponin "C") which is masking the active
site on actin filament and displaces the
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
sub-unit of troponin.
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this  Once the active site is exposed, head of
is called renal threshold value for glucose. the myosin attaches and initiate
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals contraction by sliding the actin over
in the joint. myosin.
33
167. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
in Column II and select the correct option mitochondrial membrane.
given below :
170. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
Column I Column II mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence (1) Polysome
mechanism (2) Plastidome
a b c (3) Polyhedral bodies
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Nucleosome
(2) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer ( 1 )
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
Answer ( 4 ) formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during ergasomes.
coagulation. These strands forms a network 171. Which of the following terms describe human
and the meshes of which are occupied by dentition?
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
of plasma proteins which means globulins are (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
involved in defence mechanisms. (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
responsible for BCOP.
Answer ( 3 )
168. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis? S o l . In humans, dentition is
(1) Chief cells (2) Goblet cells  Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(3) Mucous cells (4) Parietal cells
Answer ( 4 )  Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and replaced by a set of permanent or adult
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in teeth.
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
be absorbed easily and used during  Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
erythropoiesis. of different types of teeth namely incisors,
canine, premolars and molars.
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes 172. Select the incorrect match :
pernicious anaemia. (1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
169. Which of these statements is incorrect?
chromosomes
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped
mitochondrial matrix
chromosomes chromosomes
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
supplied with NAD that can pick up (3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
hydrogen atoms (4) Polytene – Oocytes of
(3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol chromosomes amphibians
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in Answer ( 4 )
outer mitochondrial membrane S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary
Answer ( 4 ) glands of insects of order Diptera.
34
173. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of 177. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
(1) Proteins and lipids characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
(3) DNA and RNA (1) Amphibia (2) Aves
(4) Free ribosomes and RER (3) Reptilia (4) Osteichthyes

S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
even extend into the dendrite but absent in chambers in their digestive system as crop
axon and rest of the neuron. and Gizzard.
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
protein synthesis. crush food grain.
174. Which of the following events does not occur 178. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) using flagella for locomotion
(1) Protein folding
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) Cleavage of signal peptide
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing
(3) Protein glycosylation
excess water
(4) Phospholipid synthesis
(4) having two types of nuclei
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
involved in lipid synthesis. having two types of nuclei.
175. Which one of these animals is not a eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
homeotherm? macronucleus & micronucleus.
(1) Macropus (2) Camelus
(3) Chelone (4) Psittacula 179. Which of the following organisms are known
Answer ( 3 ) as chief producers in the oceans?
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain (1) Dinoflagellates
constant body temperature, irrespective of (2) Cyanobacteria
surrounding temperature. (3) Diatoms
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
(4) Euglenoids
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
Answer ( 3 )
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
176. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female 180. Which of the following animals does not
cockroach? undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the (1) Earthworm (2) Moth
9th abdominal segment (3) Tunicate (4) Starfish
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina Answer ( 1 )
(3) Presence of caudal styles S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
(4) Presence of anal cerci larva into adult.
Answer ( 3 ) Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal to have indirect development.
styles which are absent in females. In earthworm development is direct which
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal means no larval stage and hence no
segment in male cockroach. metamorphosis.

35

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

5. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%

S o l . For equilibrium, ° Sol.

14. The magnetic potential energy stored in a

Applying Snell's law at M, IC 25  103

(3) A  B  A  B (4) A  B (1) 1.8 mm (2) 2.1 mm

⎛ 1⎞ (3) Large focal length and small diameter

f0 S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant

(2) Rotational kinetic energy

(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change 9

31. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth Sol. Y

S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no S o l . According to law of conservation of linear

(3) WA > WB > WC h

S o l . Work done required to bring them rest 3

(3) 0.25 For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR

38. Two wires are made of the same material and S o l . Q = U + W

(3) BeO (4) CaO So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO

 1  (51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is

51. The compound A on treatment with Na gives Answer ( 1 )

C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl

3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl

56. When initial concentration of the reactant is 

The correct coefficients of the reactants for –

o (2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a

(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 0.693

Y H (1) Total orbital angular momentum of

So, valency of X will be 3. OR

8 4 The number of lone pair of electrons on

Answer ( 4 ) 2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O

(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3

Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM

CH – CH3 and I2 Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5

eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear Answer ( 1 )

Ni pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

Answer ( 2 ) 90. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the

Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2 Answer ( 4 )

Primary consumer : 60 g (1) Carbon (2) Fe

93. World Ozone Day is celebrated on CO2 – Primary pollutant

(1) 5th June SO2 – Primary pollutant

(2) 16th September 97. What is the role of NAD + in cellular

(4) Chara (1) –120°C (2) –196°C

Answer ( 1 ) (3) –80°C (4) –160°C

S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H2O as source Answer ( 2 )

S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 112. Offsets are produced by

(2) Carbonyl and phosphate 113. Select the correct statement

S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases (1) Pollenkitt

(1) Fungus 120. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores

• Key – Identification of various • Called phanerogams without womb/ovary

128. Casparian strips occur in S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for

(1) Grasses (1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

(2) Conifers (2) Research Committee on Genetic

137. Which of the following hormones can play a Answer ( 1 )

(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (1) an operator

S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 151. Which one of the following population

(3) Analogy 152. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ

154. In a growing population of a country, 157. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive (2) is an IUD.

(3) Latex Answer ( 1 )

(4) Leaves S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are

a b c (Function) (Part of Excretory

a b c d Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium

d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in (3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to