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HAAD EXAM
MATERIAL
PHARMACY
78. Letrozole: (came as 4 statements and then in the choices combinations of them
for example: a only, a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) mild androgenic SE
b) aromatase inhibitor
c) does not cause endometriosis (true as it treat endometriosis)
d) no need corticosteroid co administration ( Double check this one)
79. Maximum duration for the use of tamoxifen is:
a) 2 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 10 years
80. Patient was on cyclosporine and changes to tacrolimus) Tacrolimus comparison
with Cyclosporine all answers are true except: (came as 4 statements and then
in the choices combinations of them for example : a only, a&b, b&d and so on …)
– better to double check each point
a) more potent
b) less nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity
c) longer duration
d) lower rejection rates
* I think the answer is a and b, please double-check
81. Cyclosporine is more toxic in which route:
a) oral
b) IV
c) IM
d) SC
82. Patient take DMARDs and after 2 weeks have eye problem which drug cause
that: (I am not sure it was in my exam)
a) sulfalazine
b) hydroxyquine
83. Enfuvirtide added to HIV patient regimen what true about it:
a) integrase inhibitor.
b) S)C
c) cant used without reconstitution
d) low side effects
*a is wrong it is an infusion inhibitor
84. Dose not promote hyperglycemia:
a) NSAID
B) Diuretic
c) opioid
d) nicotinic acid
b) salicylates
c) Cimetidine
85. Does not potentiate the effects of sulphonylurea:
a) DiazoxideWhich Insulin type that's its reaction time is not effected by site of
administration?
a) Glargine (Lantus)
b) Isophane (Humuline)
c) Aspart
86. Insulin that cannot be given as an IV:
a) Lispro (rapid acting)
b) Aspart (rapid acting)
c) Glulisine (rapid acting)
d) isophane
87. All indications of diabetes except: (came as 4 statements and then in the
choices combinations of them for example : a only, a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) Polyuria and unexplained weight loss
b) Random blood glucose of 200
c) Fasting blood glucose of 140
d) Blood glucose level of 200, 2 hours post oral glucose intake
88. Insulin secretion form:
a) B cell
b) Alpha cell
89. Which drug has least effect of hypoglycemia? (if acrabose is there choose it)
a) metformin
b) glibenclamide
90. Action of insulin except:
a) Decrease glucose production in liver
b) Decrease liver glucose uptake
c) Insert glucose in muscle and adipose tissue answer
91. Adipose tissue and skeletal glucose transporter: GLOUT4
92. Diabetic patient with Nephropathy complications, this called
a) Macrovascular complications
b) Microvascular complications
c) Neurological
93. Medication for prophylaxis of migraine for a patient young patient: propranolol
94. Sumatriptan is: not used in the coronary artery disease, recurrent attacks is
common after first dose, less nausea than with ergotamine.
95. Thrombocytopenia caused by chemo therapy is treated with: Oprelvekin
96. Used for anemia:
a) folic acid
b) B12
C) iron
d) erythropoietin
e) ALL
97. Which drug is high alert and should always be properly labeled and separated:
Epinephrine inj (epipen)
98. A child took peanut butter and he’s allergic to peanut; he developed rashes and
urticarial. What type of allergic reaction is this?
a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Type 3
d) Type 4
99. Patient got stung by bee, suffered from severe bronchospasm, and severe
hypersensitivity reaction, which drug is most suitable for this case:
a) Dopamine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Antihistaminic
100. Ipratropium approved for:
a) Maintaining COPD
b) Asthma
101. The best advice to a patient taking corticosteroid inhaler for asthma (came as 4
statements and then in the choices combinations of them for example : a only,
a&b. b&d and so on …)
a) Take rapid breath after pressing the inhaler
b) Hold your breath for 10 seconds after complete inhalation
c) rinse your mouth with water after using the inhaler
d) keep one finger distance between your lips & the inhaler
102. Side effect that most people who take B2 agonist may have:
a) Hypokalemia
b) Tremors
c) hypomagnesia
103. Cromolyne sodium mechanism: decrease mast cell degranulation
104. after you open an inhaler, it will be valid for: 3 months
105. A child suffered from acute asthma attack and diagnosed with asthma which
single treatment for long term use to prevent exacerbations of asthma:
a) Salmeterol
b)Ipratrobuim
c)Salbutamol
d) Corticosteroid
106. Smoker with COPD, what is the drug of choice:
a) Busonide
b) Ipratopium
c) Theophyllin
d) Montelukast
107. Medication in an Inhalation route can be used for long term to control
asthma:
a) Salmeterol
b) Budesonide
c) salbutamol
108. What is antiphlogistic agent?
a) Cooling by evaporation
b) Makes the skin oily
c) irritates the skin and makes it red
d) do not remember
109. Treatment of glaucoma with heart edema: acetazolamide
110. What is true about antiglaucoma: Reduce intraocular pressure
111. Pilocarpine used in all of the following except:
a) acute attack of closed angle of glaucoma
b) standard drug for close angle glaucoma
c) used alternatively with mydriatic to separate the iris
d) standard one for open angle glaucoma
112. Patient with glaucoma taking ecothiophate, what’s the reoccurring side
effect?
a) Tonic pupil
b) Cataract
c) Strabismus
113. Mydratic used to determine the true refractory error of the eye:
a) Atropine
b) Tropicamide
114. Prostaglandin anti-glaucoma drug approved for eye lash Hypotrichosis:
a) bimatoprost
b)latanoprost,
c)travoprost
d)Ilosopt
115. Malathion is associated with a delayed toxicity (neurotoxicity) that happens
occasionally, which enzyme inhibition is associated with it?
Acetylcholinesterase
116. Which is NOT a non-mast cell that produce histamine?
a) Adipose tissue
b) CNS cells
c) Epidermis
d) GI cells
117. all are signs of atropine toxicity except:
a) constriction of the pupil
b) Dry mouth
c) hot skin (increase temp)
d) Tachycardia
e) Constipation
118. Temp of refrigeration: 2-8
119. Titanium dioxide protects from sun mechanism:
a) Absorbs UV
b) Reflects UV
case about immunosuppressive:
120. Pt taking isoniazid, ethambutol, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, which is least to
cause urine discoloration? Ethambutol
121. Mutation is the DNA dependent RNA polymerase causes resistance to which
drug? Rifampicin
122. Pharmaceutical equivalent EXCEPT:
a) Same rate and extent of absorption
b) same route
c) same active ingredient
123. Generic drug means:
I name of active ingredient
II drug that is not manufactured by the original company
III drug that is not under the protection by patent from the original company
a) I
B) II, III
124. Patient came to the pharmacy, he was angry and shouting he want to buy a
medicine but as a pharmacist following the roles only can give (medicine Sold):
Original Packet / pack / leaflet / strip
- ALL
125. Patient with low Hb, low small RBCs, which medicine can decrease the cell
size plus iron
a) Vitamin B12
b) folic acid
c) erythropoietin
126. Emulsion preparation and it is homogenous but with oil droplet on the glass
,The emulsion will reform on shaking this is called:
a) Oiling
b) creaming
c) Cracking
127. Emulsions undergoing different temperatures by increasing the temperature
so what the effect will happen to it
-oiling
-Molting
-Caking
-cracking
128. For tablet preparation all can be used except :
a) Wet granulation method
b) Dry granulation method
c) Compressed
d) Incompressed
129. least likely to be seen in a typical tablet formulation: volatile solvent
130. effects of all of the following not mediated by the action of a receptor except:
a) Chlosgramine
b) AL.OH
c) Mannitol
d) Neostigmine
131. Semi control is: CDB class B
132. Case of patient had injury and result in HIB 6 months ago, what is the least
effective in his case
a) Interferon
b) HBV Vaccine
c) HBV immunoglobulin
*must be given with 24 hours to maximum of 7 days after exposure - CDC
133. Histamine autorecepteor found neurons: H3
134. Adipose tissue and skeletal glucose transporter: GLOUT4
135. All renally excreted except: fosinopril
136. Semicontrol drug what is true : licensed GP can prescribe for 30 days with no
refill, specialist prescribe for 30 days with one refill, the Rx valid duration is no
more than 3 days from the date of Rx, all ( answer is all)
137. Controlled drug: licensed GP can prescript for only 3 days, refill must not be
issued for control medicine , duration of Rx to be dispense is no more than 2
days from the date of Rx, all (answer is all)
138. Which treatment is more safely for outpatient with pulmonary embolism
a)heparin only
b)heparin + fendaparinux
c)fendaparinux + low molecular weight heparin
d)fendaparinux + heparin + low molecular weight heparin
139. Leprosy treatment resistance due to:
a)treatment with one drug
b) lepromatous leprosy
inherent resistant
d) all
140. Pt was using pilocarpine for previous 3 years and suddenly she suffered from
breathing difficulty what is best to give manage he condition:
a) atropine
b) Ephinephrine
141. Pt with electroconvulsent and severe psychosis best anesthesia;
a) halothane
b) methohexital
142. Best anesthesia for a cardiac surgery with cardia problem:
a) fentanyl
b) morphine
c) Lidocaine
d)propoxaphen
143. Not used in atrial fibrillation:
a) Lidocaine
b) quinidine,
c) procainamide,
d) flecaninde
144. Drug associated with life threatening hyperkalemia: spironolactone
145. What type of antagonists is phenoxybenzamine: irreversible
146. Pt has sickle cell an suffered from painful symptoms and side effect what
medicine can be helpful: hydroxurea
147. Tablet not using disintegrating, lubricant agent to slow its dissolution:
effervesant tablet
148. Topical treatment for hair loss(baldness) for 25 years old male: Minoxidil.
149. Injectable anticoagulant mechanism of action:
a) potentiate anti thrombin III effect… as injectable is heparin
b) antiplatelet aggregation
c) inhibit coagulation factors synthesis
150. NOT FIRST LINE treatment for TB:
a) streptomycin
b) INH
c) Rifampicin
d) pyrazinamide
151. Facilitated diffusion is : need transported down chemical gradient similar to
P glycoprotein found in the intestine and does not need energy
152. Sumatriptan is: not used in the coronary artery disease, can suffer from
recurrent attack after first dose, less nausea than with ergotamines
153. All SE of desipramine except: bradycardia
154. Pt was taking botox injection for wrinkels in her face , what is a common SE:
a) respiratory paralysis
b) Strabismum
c) Blepharospasm
* Please check the percentages of prevalence as the Q said “common” SE. I do
not think the answer is a
155. Estrogen used in menopause women; ethenylestradiol
156. Site where gastric histamine is secreted : enterochromafin like cells
157. The main acid drug carrier in plasma: albumin
158. All of the following are properties of controlled release drugs except: low cost
159. A drug that has high risk for thrombosis and MI; celecoxib
160. Patient taking INH,Methotrexate and amiodarone What he may have as side
effect of these medications:
a) Pancytopenia
b) liver cirrhosis
161. Drug used in athletes foot:
a) griseofulvin
b) clotrimazole
c) nystatin
162. Conductivity test ,dilution test, dye test used for :
a) Suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Foam
d) Gel
163. Conductivity in emulsion, the dispersed phase for such emulsion is:
a) Aqueous
b) Non aqueous
c) Aqueous and non-aqueous
d) Oily
164. Which is true about dry gum emulsion:
a) Ratio 4:2:1
b) Water gum and oil are added together and triturated slowly
c) Oil and gum are triturated and water added slowly
165. Emulsion inversion: Conversion of W/O emulsion to O/w emulsion and vice
versa
166. Foam in pharmacy spray:
a) Topical
b) Burn dressing
c) Rectal
d) All
167. Advantage of IV route is true: (without except)
a) Used in emergency
b) Dose can be titrated
c) Fastest
d) Safe and convenient
A ,B,C---TRUE
168. Affect dissolution rate, absorption rate, content uniformity and stability:
a) Particle size
b) Size distribution
c) Interaction with surface molecule
All
169. Particle size affect the following :
a) Solubility
b) Dissolution
c) Content uniformity
d) Suspendabililty
e) Penetrability
ALL
170. 50% alcohol is to be diluted with purified water, how many parts of purified
water (0% alcohol) to prepare 20% preparation:
a) 20 parts 50% alcohol + 30parts water
b) 30 part alcohol +20 part water.
c) 50 part alcohol+50 part water
171. Case: Parkinson’s symptoms:
i Tremor & agitation
ii Difficulty to initiate & voluntary movements
iii Abnormalities in postural and normal position
All
172. Best drug to decrease the exacerbation IBS: prednisolone
173. Carvidopa used with levodopa to: Inhibit peripheral conversion to dopamine
174. Effect of levodopa decreased with which vitamin:
a) B12
b) B6
c) B2
d) B3
175. Effect of levodopa on body diminished :
a) After less than 3 yrs
b) After 2 yrs
c) After 3 yrs up to 5 yrs
d) after 5 yrs
176. Drug not used in Parkinson:
a) Levodopa
b) Bromocriptine
c) Chlorthalidone
177. Antiviral used for influenza and Parkinson:
a) Amantidine
b) Lamuvidine
c) Zidovudine
178. Non-competitive ACH except:
a) Rivastigmine
b) Tacrine
c) Donazepil
d) Galantamine
179. Regarding Fluoxetine:
a) Half life is 50 hrs
b) Have a metabolite as active as the prodrug
c) Used in bulimia nervosa
d) Undergo first pass effect
e) All
Case about patient recently widowed, is suffering from severe depression, is taking
imipramine
180. TCA mechanism inhibit / TCA block the uptake of :
a) NE
b) 5HT
c) 5HT & NE
d) Dopamine
181. Alprazolam (Xanax) (CDA) :in steel cupboard well closed well
182. TCA metabolized by: CYP450
183. TCA act on all ,EXCEPT:
a) alpha adrenoreceptor
b) beta adrenoreceptor
c) muscarinic receptor
d) Histamine receptor
184. TCA used in all except:
a) panic attack
b) Schizophrenia
c) Migraine
d) Neuropathic pain
185. For treating morphine dependence all of the following except :
Buprenorphine
a) Clonidine
b) Codiene
c) Methadone
186. Patients admitted with morphine over dose what is the appropriate
treatment:
a) Naletraxone
b) Methadone
c) Prozethacain
* Please check as there was no naloxone in the choices
187. Morphine cause tolerance except:
a) Respiratory depression
b) Euphoria
c) c) Pin point pupil
213. All of the following are side effects of thiazide diuretics except:
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypocalcaemia
c) Hyperuricemia
d) Hypervolemia
214. Loop diuretics are contraindicated in all of the following except:
a) Renal diseases
b) Sensitivity to sulfonamides
c) Anuria despite using loop diuretics
d) Na and water depletion
215. Pseudoephedrine except options :
a) Mixed agonist
b) Short action
c)Synthetic analogue
d) Tachphalaxis on repeated administration
* please double check
216. DOC for pregnant hypertension:
a) methyldopa
b) Hydralazine
217. Patient taking ACEl which antacid should not be used?
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Magnesium
c) Aluminum
d) Potassium bicarbonate due to high risk of hyperkalemia
218. Case patient taking procarbazine. Which amino acid is contraindicated:
a)phenylalanine
b)tyramine
c)valine
d)leucine
219. Patient with arrhythmia given medication that decrease the velocity and force
of contractility which one of this drugs:
a) Verapamil
b) Enalapril
220. Long case about patient diagnosed with MI and arrhythmia discharged from
the hospital 10 days ago which drug is suitable :
a) Verapamil
b) Lidocaine
c) Quinidine
d) Sotalol
221. Which of the following is not true about dry cough associated with ACEI :
a) Mediated by bradykinin and substance p
b) In women more than men
3- Develops within 6 months
c) Dose related
222. Patient with infection sensitive to tetracycline , pt is renal impaired Which one
of tetracyclines is suitable for him:
a) Doxycycline
b) Minocycline
c) Tetracycline
223. All the following drugs decrease B blockers activity except ;
a) Phenytoin
b) Phenobarbital
c) Rifampin
d) Fluoxetine
224. Bacteria move by: Flagella
225. Chest x ray show what like to cause this infection: M. avium complex.
226. Primaquine is contraindicated in all of the following except:
a) SLE,RA
b) G6PD deficiency
c) Lactating female
d) Pregnancy
227). pro-kinetic drug has anti emetic effect:
a) domepridone
b) Cisapride
228. Prevent remission in IBD (Inflammatory bowel disease): Infliximab
229. Charcoal used in poisoning due to which properties:
a) Adsorption
b) Absorption
c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
230. Pt. have lower HDL and lower dyslipidemia management :
a) Atorvastatin
b) Niacin
c) Fenofibtates
d) Rosuvastatin
256. A physician wants to switch a terminally-ill patient from slow release morphine
sulphate tablets, 15 mg twice daily, to a liquid morphine sulphate dosage form
because the patient has difficulty in swallowing tablets. If a morphine sulphate
solution containing 5 mg per mL is prescribed q4h, what volume should be
dispensed for a 20 day supply to provide the same pain relief as the tablet
regimen?
a) 20 ml
b)40 ml
c)60 ml
d)120 ml
257. Case of female who has panic when she has to speak to audience. Treatment
of acute panic attack:
a) benzodiazepines
b) TCAs
c) antipsychotics
D)SSRIs
e) Buspirone
258. True about SSRIs:
a) Best For long term use
b) Effect takes 1-4 weeks to occur
c) Can't be used as first line for anxiety disorders
d) ….
259. Benzodiazepines EXCEPT:
a) Muscle relaxants
b) Anxiolytics
c) Antrograde amnesia
d) antipsychotics
264. Case of patient using 4 drugs ( enalapril, simvastatin, amiodarone? ..) , which
one of them can cause dry cough: Enalapril
265. Not enalapril SE:
a) Dry cough
b) Angioedema
c) hypokalemia
d) postural hypotension
266. Ramipril physiological actions (something like that)
a) Hypokalemia
b) Low level of potassium
c) Increased renin in plasma *
d) Angiotensin II receptor inhibitor
267. ACEI can increase level of ?
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) magnesium