Module 07 MCQ

Module 07.
Maintenance Practice Ans : Dry asbestos wool and chalk

powder.
Expl : BL/6-18 12.5.
01. Safety Precautions Aircraft and Workshop.
5. An aircraft should not be refueled

1 A dry powder extinguisher is when.
coloured. A) the APU is running.
A) green. B) navigation and landing light in operation.
B) red. C) within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar
C) blue. operating.
Ans : blue. Ans : within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar
Expl : BS EN3. operating.
Expl : AL/3-8 2.1.6, GOL/1-1 7.3.2.
2. Acetylene gas forms an explosive

compound with. 6. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around
A) tin and silver. an aircraft when refuelling is.
B) tin and copper. A) 15m.
C) copper and silver. B) 10m.
Ans : copper and silver. C) 6m.
Expl : NIL. Ans : 6m.
Expl : Leaflet 5-1 2.2.2.
3. When mixing acid and water.

A) the acid should always be added to the 7. A CO2 extinguisher is used
water. on.
B) it does not matter which way the two are A) solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires.
mixed. B) solid, liquid and electrical fires.
C) the water should always be added to the C) solid and liquid fires.
acid. Ans : solid, liquid and electrical fires.
Ans : the acid should always be added to the Expl : Hot metal and liquid fires would be
water. extinguished with foam.
Expl : NIL.
8. In an oxygen system, if the pressure

4. You are involved with a fire caused by drops to 500 PSI, it.
titanium swarf. What type of extinguishant A) causes anoxia.
should you use to deal with the fire?. B) begins to overheat.
A) Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder. C) blocks the oxygen system regulator.
B) CO2. Ans : blocks the oxygen system regulator.
C) Chemical foam.
Expl : At low pressure, air can mix with the C) green.
oxygen. The moisture in the air freezes as the Ans : black.
gas expands on exit of the system and blocks Expl : NIL.
the regulator. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Page 14-17.
13. Which type of extinguisher can be used
for engine fire?.
9. After working with epoxy resins, how is A) CO2.
natural oil returned to the skin?. B) BCF.
A) Epoxy removing cream. C) Water.
B) Refatting cream. Ans : CO2.
C) Acetone/lanolin mixture. Expl : Leaflet 5-1 4.2.4 (a).
Ans : Acetone/lanolin mixture.
Expl : Acetone is used to remove epoxy resin,
but it dries the skin, so it is mixed with lanolin to 14. Fire on landing gear brake should be
prevent this (same mixture as nail varnish extinguished with.
remover). A) dry powder extinguisher.
B) carbon dioxide extinguisher.
C) water extinguisher.
10. Neither oil nor grease should be used as Ans : dry powder extinguisher.
a lubricant on couplings or pipelines Expl : AL/3-19 10.4. Jeppesen A&P Mechanics
carrying. Handbook Page 503, CAAIP S Leaflet 5-8
A) Oxygen. 10.4.
B) Kerosene.
C) Nitrogen.
Ans : Oxygen. 15. Which type of fire extinguishers can be
Expl : AL/3-25 5.4 (vi). used in the cabin?.
A) C.T.C.
B) water or B.C.F.
11. Which type of extinguisher can be used C) M.B.
for an electric fire?. Ans : water or B.C.F.
A) Foam. Expl : Methyl Bromide and CTC extinguishers
B) Water. are toxic. Jeppesen A&P Mechanics Handbook
C) CO2. Page 502 and 504.
Ans : CO2.
Expl : AL/3-10 3.3.
16. Risk assessments should only be carried
out on.
12. The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher A) all tasks and processes that are
is. performed.
A) red. B) tasks using hazardous chemicals.
B) black. C) tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot.
Ans : all tasks and processes that are Expl : NIL.
performed.
Expl : NIL. 02. Workshop Practices.
17. The most appropriate fire extinguisher 1. On a hollow tube where would a small
for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would indentation normally be unacceptable?.
be. A) Nowhere on the tube is an indentation
A) carbon dioxide. acceptable.
B) dry powder. B) In the mid 1/3 section.
C) water. C) In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the
Ans : dry powder. tube.
Expl : AL/3-19 10.4. Ans : In the mid 1/3 section.
Expl : CAAIP s Leaflet 6-4 Para 7.2.
18. Once a person has been disconnected

from the source of an electrical shock the next 2. What type of grinding wheel would you
step should be. sharpen an HSS drill bit on?.
A) seek assistance immediately. A) A green wheel.
B) check for breathing start AR if necessary. B) A course wheel.
C) check for pulse start cardiac massage if C) A fine wheel.
necessary. Ans : A fine wheel.
Ans : check for breathing start AR if Expl : A Green Grit (Silicon Carbide) wheel is
necessary. used for Tungsten Carbide bit tools (Non-steel).
Expl : NIL. For HSS you need a fine Grey Aluminium Oxide
wheel.
19. What can cause dermatitis?.

A) Washing hands in solvents. 3. When using a reamer.
B) Not wearing eye protection when using A) use no lubricant.
solvents. B) use the same lubricant as was used on the
C) Inhalation of paint fumes. drill bit.
Ans : Washing hands in solvents. C) use lard oil.
Expl : NIL. Ans : use the same lubricant as was used on
the drill bit.
Expl : NIL.
20. If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below
500 PSI.
A) the diluter stick will stick. 4. How many teeth per inch are used on a
B) the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia. hacksaw blade for cutting hard metal?.
C) condensation will cause corrosion. A) 54.
Ans : condensation will cause corrosion. B) 36.
C) 26.
Ans : 26.
Expl : Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI. Greatest 9. In a torque wrench of handle length, L =
TPI is for hard metals. 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in, the desired
torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should
read.
5. How many strokes per minute are used A) 240 lb.ins.
on a hacksaw when cutting thick metal?. B) 375 lb.ins.
A) 30. C) 280 lb.ins.
B) 65. Ans : 240 lb.ins.
C) 55. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-11 4.4.
Ans : 55.
Expl : NIL.
10. When a torque loading is specified for a
castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled new
6. When lifting a bulky component with a bolt.
wire rope sling, the component can be A) the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque
protected from damage by the sling applied and the nut eased back, if necessary, to
by. allow the split pin to be fitted.
A) fabricating alternative lifting points. B) the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque
B) using a suitably shaped sling. increased if necessary to allow the split pin to
C) using spreader bars and packing. be fitted.
Ans : using spreader bars and packing. C) the torque should be applied and the bolt
Expl : NIL. suitably drilled for the split pin.
Ans : the torque should be applied and the bolt
suitably drilled for the split pin.
7. Gas bottles for CO2 air and acetylene are Expl : NIL.
coloured.
A) grey, maroon, green.
B) black, grey, maroon. 11. A reamer with spiral flutes is
C) green, grey, maroon. removed.
Ans : black, grey, maroon. A) clockwise.
Expl : NIL. B) straight.
C) anticlockwise.
Ans : clockwise.
8. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician
correct starting procedure would be. Textbook Page 9-19.
A) to centre drill.
B) to centre punch.
C) to drill 1/4 inch hole direct. 12. The difference between high and low
Ans : to centre drill. limits of a size for a dimension is known as
Expl : CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2. the.
A) deviation.
B) tolerance. 16. When stop drilling a crack, what is the
C) fit. typical drill size used?.
Ans : tolerance. A) 0.025 inch.
Expl : NIL. B) 0.250 inch.
C) 0.125 inch.
Ans : 0.125 inch.
13. Rubber components should be Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
stored. Textbook Page 2-6.
A) in warm and humid conditions.
B) in a well lit room.
C) in a cool dark area. 17. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and
Ans : in a cool dark area. no trichloroethylene is available, a suitable
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 1-8 3.3. alternative is.
A) dilute sulphuric acid.
B) M.E.K.
14. When comparing the machining C) white spirit and naphtha.
techniques for stainless steel sheet material to Ans : white spirit and naphtha.
those for aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally Expl : NIL.
considered good practice to drill the stainless
steel at a.
A) higher speed with less pressure applied to 18. A grinding wheel is normally refaced
the drill. by.
B) lower speed with more pressure applied to A) dressing with a special tool.
the drill. B) grinding through using another grinding
C) lower speed with less pressure applied to wheel.
the drill. C) holding a hard wood scraper against the
Ans : lower speed with more pressure applied rotating wheel.
to the drill. Ans : dressing with a special tool.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Expl : NIL.
Textbook Page 2-27.
19. When checking a torque wrench 15

15. When drilling stainless steel, the drill inches long, the load required to give torque of
used should have an included angle of. 120 lbs.in. is.
A) 140° and turn at a low speed. A) 6 lbs.
B) 90° and turn at a low speed. B) 8 lbs.
C) 118° and turn at a high speed. C) 10 lbs.
Ans : 140° and turn at a low speed. Ans : 8 lbs.
Textbook Page 2-27.
20. How would you check the setting of an Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician
adjustable reamer?. Textbook Page 9-11.
A) Ring gauge.
B) Dial test indicator and 'V' blocks.
C) External calipers. 24. Which procedure is correct when using a
Ans : Ring gauge. reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct
Expl : NIL. size?.
A) Turn the reamer only in the cutting
direction.
21. What is the specified lubricant for drilling B) Turn the reamer in the cutting direction
brass?. when enlarging the hole and in the opposite
A) None. direction to remove from the hole.
B) Paraffin. C) Apply considerable pressure on the reamer
C) Lard oil. when starting the cut and reduce the pressure
Ans : None. when finishing the cut.
Expl : NIL. Ans : Turn the reamer only in the cutting
direction.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician
22. In the Limit System, the term 'allowance' Textbook Page 9-19.
is the.
A) difference between shaft and hole
diameters. 25. Of what tolerance is the following an
B) hole diameter variation. example? 1 in. + 0.002-0.001.
C) shaft diameter variation. A) Bilateral.
Ans : difference between shaft and hole B) Multilateral.
diameters. C) Unilateral.
Expl : NIL. Ans : Bilateral.
Expl : NIL.
23. Which is correct concerning the use of a

file?. 26. How should a scraper be finally
A) The terms 'double-cut' and 'second-cut' have sharpened?.
the same meaning in reference to files. A) By draw filing.
B) Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, B) On a grindstone.
except when filing very soft metals such as lead C) On an oil-stone.
or aluminium. Ans : On an oil-stone.
C) A smoother finish can be obtained by using a Expl : NIL.
double-cut file than by using a single-cut
file.
Ans : Apply pressure on the forward stroke, 27. How is a D.T.I. initially set
only, except when filing very soft metals such as up?.
lead or aluminium.
A) The gauge plunger should be fully extended A) It would cut slowly, if at all.
and the needle zeroed. B) It would produce an oversize hole.
B) The gauge plunger should be partly C) It would tend to pull through the hole
depressed and the needle zeroed. Ans : It would cut slowly, if at all.
C) The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully Expl : External website.
extended. http://www.unionbutterfield.com/tech/drills/tr
Ans : The gauge plunger should be partly ouble_shooting.asp
depressed and the needle zeroed.
Expl : NIL.
32. A tolerance given on a dimension is
indicated.
28. Nickel alloy chisels should be A) by a plus and minus sign preceding the
sharpened. permitted tolerance.
A) by filing. B) by the prefix TOL with the permitted
B) on a grindstone. tolerance.
C) on an oilstone. C) by enclosing the permitted tolerance within
Ans : on an oilstone. a triangle.
Expl : NIL. Ans : by a plus and minus sign preceding the
permitted tolerance.
Expl : NIL.
29. What type of lubricant should be used
when drilling aluminium?.
A) Vegetable oil. 33. How much material should be allowed
B) Paraffin. for reaming?.
C) None. A) 0.001 in.
Ans : Paraffin. B) 0.003 in.
Expl : Paraffin is the lubricant for C) 0.010 in.
aluminium. Ans : 0.003 in.
Textbook Page 9-19.
30. How are spring dividers
sharpened?.
A) By filing the outside of the points. 34. After cutting a 3/8 inch BSF internal
B) By stoning the outside of the points. thread and stud, it is found that the stud is too
C) By grinding the inside of the points. large. How is a fit achieved?.
Ans : By stoning the outside of the points. A) Remove the male thread crests with a fine
Expl : NIL. emery cloth.
B) Grind a taper on the end of the bolt.
C) Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread.
31. What would be the result of an Ans : Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male
insufficient clearance angle on a twist thread.
drill?. Expl : NIL.
38. Draw filing produces.
A) a course finish.
35. You have reamed out a hole in a piece of B) a fine finish.
titanium. How should you remove the reamer C) a mottled finish.
safely to prevent unnecessary Ans : a fine finish.
damage?. Expl : NIL.
A) Allow the reamer to pass right through the
hole.
B) Remove it, but in the same rotation as if 39. A safe edge of a file is used.
cutting. A) against a finished surface.
C) Anti-clockwise. B) to give a fine polished finish to a smooth
Ans : Remove it, but in the same rotation as if surface.
cutting. C) against a rough unfinished surface.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician Ans : against a finished surface.
Textbook Page 9-19. Expl : NIL.
36. Why are some components torque 40. What is the minimum number of
loaded?. hacksaw blade teeth that should be in contact
A) To ensure that their elastic limit is not with the material being cut?.
exceeded. A) 2.
B) To ensure they do not vibrate loose. B) 4.
C) To ensure that they are tightened to their C) 3.
yield point. Ans : 3.
Ans : To ensure that their elastic limit is not Expl : NIL.
exceeded.
Expl : NIL.
41. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is
given as 4.387 inches + 0.005-0.002. Which
37. When using a reamer, in which direction statement is true?.
should it be turned?. A) The maximum acceptable size is 4.385
A) Anti-clockwise when Cutting and inches.
removing. B) The minimum acceptable size is 4.385
B) Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise inches.
when removing. C) The maximum acceptable size is 4.389
C) Clockwise when cutting and removing. inches.
Ans : Clockwise when cutting and Ans : The minimum acceptable size is 4.385
removing. inches.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician Expl : NIL.
Textbook Page 9-19.
42. Chalk when used with a fine file C) 0.000 002 inch.
produces. Ans : 0.002 mm.
A) a finer finish. Expl : 1 micron = 0.001 mm.
B) a milled type surface.
C) a ground type surface.
Ans : a finer finish. 47. The edge or surface of a part from which
Expl : NIL. dimensions are measured from is called
the.
A) water line.
43. When using a hand file correctly, the B) reference plane.
downward pressure should be used only. C) datum.
A) on a return stroke. Ans : datum.
B) on the forward stroke. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.5.1.
C) on the forward and return stroke.
Ans : on the forward stroke.
Expl : NIL. 48. Water Lines are.
A) front to rear measurements on the
fuselage.
44. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers B) vertical measurements on the fuselage.
can be ascertained by. C) left and right measurements on the fuselage.
A) using the standard of 0.693 inches. Ans : vertical measurements on the
B) measuring the steel rule. fuselage.
C) noting the dimension engraved on the Expl : AL/7-2 fig 15.
instrument.
Ans : noting the dimension engraved on the
instrument. 49. When clamping cable looms containing
Expl : BL/3-4 3.5. co-axial cables.
A) distortion of the outer sheath is allowed
providing the inner cable is not affected.
45. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 inches B) the clamps must be no more than 1 metre
+/- 0.003 inches followed by 'MMC' should be apart.
manufactured to what size?. C) avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to
A) 1.228 Inches. maintain the dielectric constant.
B) 1.222 Inches. Ans : avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to
C) 1.225 Inches. maintain the dielectric constant.
Ans : 1.228 Inches. Expl : NIL.
50. If a test or inspection instrument has no

46. 2 microns is. calibration data supplied by the manufacturer,
A) 0.002 mm. you would use the calibration data provided
B) 0.002 inch. by.
A) the British Standards Quality Assurance Ans : Every 1000 crimps.
documentation referring to calibration of Expl : Or every 3 months, whichever comes
instrumentation and test equipment. first.
B) CAAIP S.
C) the Maintenance Manual.
Ans : the British Standards Quality Assurance 54. When using the trepanning tool, the hole
documentation referring to calibration of to be drilled should be.
instrumentation and test equipment. A) 1/32 inch larger than the guide pin.
Expl : Leaflet 2-14 2.2. B) same diameter as the guide pin.
C) 1/32 inch smaller than the guide pin.
Ans : same diameter as the guide pin.
51. Why are test or inspection instruments Expl : NIL.
regularly calibrated and certified?.
A) To ensure they will perform within the
required limits of operation. 55. When using a strip-board, the tracks on a
B) To ensure they can handle the range of PCB are etched.
measurements required of them. A) before component fitment.
C) To ensure they are being used regularly. B) after fitment but before soldering the
Ans : To ensure they will perform within the components.
required limits of operation. C) after fitment and soldering of components.
Expl : Leaflet 2-14 1.2. Ans : before component fitment.
Expl : MMC/1-1 7.
52. Who is responsible for ensuring that

weight and balance instrumentation is 56. A 'light drive' fit for a 3/8 inch diameter
serviceable before use?. bolt has a maximum allowance of.
A) An engineer holding a license in the A) 0.005 inch.
instrument category. B) 0.0025 inch.
B) The manufacturer of the equipment. C) 0.0006 inch.
C) The person responsible for carrying out the Ans : 0.0006 inch.
weight and balance procedure. Expl : AC43.13-1B Page 7-5 Para.7-39.
Ans : The person responsible for carrying out
the weight and balance procedure.
Expl : NIL. 57. The intervals for calibration of test
equipment.
A) are every year.
53. At which frequency is the calibration of B) are different from one appliance to another.
frequently used crimping tools carried C) are as specified in EASA Part-145.
out?. Ans : are different from one appliance to
A) Bi-annually. another.
B) Annually. Expl : EASA Part-145 is not specific.
C) Every 1000 crimps.
Expl : The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a direct
58. What drill angle is used to drill reading type. See Pacific Tensiometer
titanium?. instructions.
A) 130-140 degrees.
B) 105-120 degrees.
C) 90-100 degrees. 62. What temperature should the heat gun
Ans : 105-120 degrees. be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve?.
Expl : BL/6-18 Para. 6. A) At the rated temperature.
B) 100°C below rated temperature.
C) 100°C above rated temperature.
59. When tightening a nut on a bolt the Ans : 100°C above rated temperature.
torque loading applied is. Expl : Rated temperature is the normal
A) inversely proportional to the force applied to working temperature of the heat-shrink
the spanner. material. The shrink at approximately 100°C
B) the tangential application of the force times above that.
the perpendicular distance from the point of
application to the centre of the bolt.
C) independent of whether the threads are wet 63. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic
or dry. weighing equipment is.
Ans : the tangential application of the force A) done once a year.
times the perpendicular distance from the point B) carried out every time before an aircraft is
of application to the centre of the bolt. weighed and adjusted by operator.
Expl : Torque = force * distance of force from C) not required.
centre of bolt. Ans : done once a year.
Expl : Hydrostatic weighing equipment should
be calibrated every year.
60. The UK standard of limits and fits
is.
A) BS4500. 64. When drilling light alloy.
B) BS8888. A) lard oil should be used.
C) BS308. B) use the specified lubricant.
Ans : BS4500. C) no lubricant is required.
Expl : BS4500 is Limits and Fits. Ans : use the specified lubricant.
Expl : Since the question is not specific as to
which light alloy is to be drilled, the 'specified'
61. When using a Pacific tensiometer the lubricant is used (even if the 'specified' lubricant
correct tension is found by. is 'nothing').
A) reading dial, provided the correct riser is
used for the cable diameter.
B) comparing reading to chart provided. 65. The picture shows a torque wrench with
C) adding reading to riser number. an extension. To apply a torque of 350 lb.in. the
Ans : comparing reading to chart provided. reading on the dial should be.
68. What should be done if a tool is found
not to be working to its calibrated
requirements?.
A) It should be removed from service, marked
as unserviceable and sent away for overhaul.
B) It should be placed back into stores and kept
A) 350 lb.in. in service until the next calibration is due.
B) 280 lb.in. C) A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to
C) 245 lb.in. the correct operation.
Ans : 280 lb.in. Ans : It should be removed from service,
Expl : BL/6-30 4.4.1. marked as unserviceable and sent away for
overhaul.
Expl : Tool should be removed from service,
marked as unserviceable and sent away for
overhaul.
66. Reaming light alloy tube is done 69. When carrying out soldering to an end
with. termination and a wire, you should tin.
A) no lubricant. A) only the end of the wire.
B) the same oil and lubrication as used for B) neither the wire or the termination as
cutting. tinning is not required.
C) hard base lubricant. C) both the end of the wire and the
Ans : the same oil and lubrication as used for termination.
cutting. Ans : both the end of the wire and the
Expl : Reaming is lubricated with the same fluid termination.
as cutting (drilling). Expl : BL/6-1 13.2.
67. Tolerance is the. 70. Run-out of a rod is measured

A) the difference between a hole and shaft size. using.
B) allowable error due to faulty workmanship A) DTI, surface plate and V-blocks.
and tools. B) micrometer and V-blocks.
C) difference between worn and new tools. C) vernier and V-blocks.
Ans : allowable error due to faulty Ans : DTI, surface plate and V-blocks.
workmanship and tools. Expl : EL/3-3 Page 2 fig 1.
Expl : Tolerance is allowable error due to faulty
workmanship and tools.
71. How would you mark a defect on an
exhaust system?.
A) Pencil.
B) Chalk.
C) Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool. C) lbs.ft and lbs.in.
Ans : Chalk. Ans : lbs.ft and lbs.in.
Expl : AC43 Para. 8-49. Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Expl : NIL.
Turbine Powerplants 5-31.
76. The calibration of a piece of test

72. Which of the following is the most equipment is suspect. Your actions would
appropriate filing technique?. be.
A) Pressure backwards, relieve pressure A) calibrate/rectify immediately.
forwards. B) note and rectify later.
B) Even pressure forward and backwards. C) remove from service and annotate
C) Pressure forwards, relieve pressure accordingly.
backwards. Ans : remove from service and annotate
Ans : Pressure forwards, relieve pressure accordingly.
backwards. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Mechanics Handbook
Page 537.
77. What should you check before using a
set of V blocks?.
73. Stubborn pins in file teeth should be A) That both blocks have the same
removed by. identification stamps.
A) tapping file gently on workbench. B) It doesn't matter.
B) using file card. C) The calibration date.
C) pricking out with sharp point. Ans : That both blocks have the same
Ans : pricking out with sharp point. identification stamps.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Mechanics Handbook Expl : NIL.
Page 538.
78. When turning the handle on a megger

74. When using low tungsten hacksaw with the probes kept apart.
blades it is recommended to use. A) the needle stays at infinity.
A) 60 strokes per minute. B) the needle deflects to infinity.
B) 50 stroke per minute. C) the needle moves to zero.
C) 40 strokes per minute. Ans : the needle stays at infinity.
Ans : 50 stroke per minute. Expl : The needle of a Megger rests on infinity
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Mechanics Handbook and is deflected to Zero.
Page 535.
03. Tools.
75. Units of torque are.

A) lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2. 1. How many strokes per minute should
B) Lbs and Kg. generally be used with a hacksaw?.
A) 60. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General
B) 30. Textbook Page 15.
C) 55.
Ans : 55.
Expl : NIL. 6. When using a moving coil as an ammeter
the greatest amount of current flows through
the.
2. What type of drill would you use on A) bushes.
carbon fibre?. B) coil.
A) Diamond tipped. C) shunt.
B) Carborundum. Ans : shunt.
C) Tungsten carbide. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General
Ans : Tungsten carbide. Textbook Page 3-89.
Expl : Airbus A340-600 SRM.
7. When using the old style vernier caliper

3. A micro-shaver is used to. for taking internal measurements.
A) cut rivets to length prior to forming. A) add the nib measurements.
B) mill the rivet head after forming. B) subtract the nib measurements.
C) trim the shank diameter prior to forming. C) the nib size has no relevance and can be
Ans : mill the rivet head after forming. ignored.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-37 Ans : add the nib measurements.
and 2-68. Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 9-39.
4. How many teeth per inch are there on a 8. To carry out an insulation test on a wire
fine hacksaw blade?. rated at 115 volts you would use.
A) 64. A) a 250 volt megger.
B) 16. B) a 115 volt megger.
C) 32. C) a 500 volt megger.
Ans : 32. Ans : a 250 volt megger.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.4.2 As a rule of
Textbook Page 13. thumb, the megger should be twice the voltage
of the system under test.
5. What is the normal cutting angle of a

drill?. 9. The normal drill angles are.
A) 59°. A) cutting angle 59°, web angle 130° and
B) 130°. clearance angle 12°.
C) 12°. B) cutting angle 130°, web angle 59° and
Ans : 59°. clearance angle 12°.
C) cutting angle 12°, web angle 130° and 14. If the leads of a megger are held
clearance angle 130°. apart.
Ans : cutting angle 59°, web angle 130° and A) the spring will return the needle to infinity.
clearance angle 12°. B) the spring will return the needle to the zero
Expl : NIL. stop.
C) if the handle was turned the meter would
read infinity.
10. The abbreviation 'A/F' means. Ans : if the handle was turned the meter would
A) American Fine. read infinity.
B) Across Flats. Expl : A megger has no spring.
C) Associated Fine.
Ans : Across Flats.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 Pg.7. 15. One megohm is equal to.
A) 1,000 ohms.
B) 1,000,000 ohms.
11. A rivet shaver is used to. C) 100,000 ohms.
A) mill the head flush. Ans : 1,000,000 ohms.
B) mill the tail after cutting. Expl : NIL.
C) mill the tail after setting.
Ans : mill the head flush.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-68. 16. Reamers are used to.
A) drill accurate holes.
B) to make holes oversize.
12. A drill and wire gauge has holes C) enlarge holes to accurate dimensions.
numbered. Ans : enlarge holes to accurate dimensions.
A) 10 to 60. Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 9-19.
B) 1 to 80.
C) 1 to 50.
Ans : 1 to 80. 17. The pitch of a hacksaw blade
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook Fig.2- is.
47. A) its length.
B) the number of teeth on the blade.
C) the number of teeth per inch.
13. A 250 volt megger should not be Ans : the number of teeth per inch.
used. Expl : NIL.
A) on electronic equipment.
B) in fuel tanks.
C) on radio aerials. 18. The web angle of a normal twist drill
Ans : on electronic equipment. is.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.4.4. A) 59°.
B) 12°.
C) 130°.
Ans : 130°. A) vernier caliper.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-27. B) bevel protractor.
C) micrometer.
Ans : vernier caliper.
19. The leads of a bonding tester. Expl : CAIP S BL/3-4 4.
A) are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having
two prongs and a 6 foot one with a single
prong. 23. One revolution of the thimble of the
B) have critical lengths and the resistance of English micrometer produces a linear
the leads is accounted for. movement of the spindle of.
C) are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths A) 0.001 inch.
but can be varied due to wear. B) 0.025 inch.
Ans : have critical lengths and the resistance of C) 0.040 inch.
the leads is accounted for. Ans : 0.025 inch.
Expl : CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 3-11-2 & CAAIP S Expl : CAIP S BL/3-5.
Leaflet 9.1 3.10.2(b).
24. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw

20. Expanding reamers are used thread is.
to. A) 0.02 mm.
A) ream holes of different diameters by B) 1.0 mm.
adjusting the position of the blades. C) 0.5 mm.
B) ream tapered holes. Ans : 0.5 mm.
C) ream holes in metal that has been Expl : NIL.
heated.
Ans : ream holes of different diameters by
adjusting the position of the blades. 25. When torque loading, a wrench should
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General be selected where the required value falls.
Textbook Page 9-19. A) at the top end of the range.
B) in the middle of the range.
C) at the bottom end of the range.
21. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper Ans : at the top end of the range.
is divided into. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-30 4.5.1.
A) inches, tenths and twentieths.
B) inches, tenths and fortieths.
C) inches, tenths and thousandths. 26. The test equipment normally used to
Ans : inches, tenths and fortieths. carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable
Expl : CAIP S BL/3-4 2. is.
A) a high tension circuit tester.
B) an ammeter.
22. The vernier height gauge uses the same C) a low reading ohmmeter.
principle as the. Ans : a low reading ohmmeter.
Expl : CAIP EEL/1-6 4.2.1 & CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1 31. The measuring capacity of a Vernier
4.2.1. Caliper is.
A) the length of the graduated scale less the
length of the vernier scale.
27. If all three prongs on a bonding tester B) the length of the graduated scale.
were shorted together, the metre would C) the length of the graduated scale plus the
read. width of the nibs.
A) FSD. Ans : the length of the graduated scale less the
B) zero. length of the vernier scale.
C) off-scale high. Expl : NIL.
Ans : zero.
Expl : CAIP EEL/1-6 3.10.2b.
32. Vee-blocks are
manufactured.
28. The pitch of the screw thread on an A) as single items and may be paired with any
English micrometer is. other vee-block.
A) 0.0001 inches. B) in sets of two and identified for use as a set.
B) 0.050 inches. C) in sets of three and identified for use as a
C) 0.025 inches. set.
Ans : 0.025 inches. Ans : in sets of two and identified for use as a
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 9-36. set.
Expl : NIL.
29. The vernier scale on an English caliper is

divided into. 33. The metric micrometer reading shown
A) 50 equal divisions. is.
B) 40 equal divisions. A) 13.87 mm.
C) 25 equal divisions. B) 13.37 mm.
Ans : 25 equal divisions. C) 10.337 mm.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 9-36. Ans : 13.37 mm.
Expl : NIL.
30. The thimble of a metric micrometer is

divided into. 34. A ketts saw is used because.
A) 50 equal divisions. A) it can cut thicker metal than is required by
B) 40 equal divisions. most repair schemes.
C) 25 equal divisions. B) it is available both pneumatic and electric.
Ans : 50 equal divisions. C) its low torque allows single handed use.
Expl : NIL. Ans : it can cut thicker metal than is required
by most repair schemes.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook. It
describes it as electrical, with the advantage of
being able to cut sheet to 3/16 inch thick. Care 39. What is used to measure the depth of a
to be taken to prevent blade from 'grabbing and blend after a corrosion repair?.
kicking back'. A) Dial Test Indicator.
B) Straight edge and slip gauges.
C) Vernier caliper.
35. The gears used in a pistol windy Ans : Dial Test Indicator.
are. Expl : AL/7-14 Page 12. BL/4-20 Page 9.
A) gears in a gearbox.
B) gyrator type gears.
C) spur gears. 40. Vacu-blast beads re-used on a steel
Ans : spur gears. component, after being used on an aluminium
Expl : Sun and planet gear reduction, using component will.
spur gears. A) cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine.
B) be ineffective in abrasion.
C) cause corrosion to the steel component.
36. Cross cut files. Ans : cause corrosion to the steel
A) cut on the backward stroke only. component.
B) cut in both directions. Expl : NIL.
C) cut on the forward stroke only.
Ans : cut on the forward stroke only.
Expl : NIL. 41. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier
caliper is divided into.
A) inches, tenths and thousandths.
37. The correct size spanner for use on a B) inches, tenths and twentieths.
unified 5/16 in. threaded hexagon headed bolt C) inches, tenths and fortieths.
is. Ans : inches, tenths and twentieths.
A) 5/16 in A/F. Expl : NIL.
B) 1/2 in A/F.
C) 1/4 in A/F.
Ans : 1/2 in A/F. 42. Centre punches are made of.
Expl : NIL. A) high carbon steel with the tip hardened and
tempered.
B) case hardened mild steel.
38. The length of the Vernier Scale in a C) high carbon steel hardened and tempered.
24/25 Vernier Caliper is. Ans : high carbon steel hardened and
A) 0.6 in. tempered.
B) 1.2 in. Expl : The whole centre punch is hardened and
C) 2.45 in. tempered.
Ans : 0.6 in.
Expl : NIL.
43. What type of flutes should be used in a
reamer for cutting titanium?.
A) Spiral flutes. Ans : By type and diameter of the small
B) Straight flutes. end.
C) Tapered flutes. Expl : How are spring dividers classified?.
Ans : Spiral flutes.
Expl : BL/6-18 7.1.
48. The length of the legs.
A) The length of the legs.
44. The depth micrometer reading shown B) The diameter of a circle scribed with the legs
is. at 600.
A) 0.261 ins. C) The diameter of the largest circle that can be
B) 0.361 ins. scribed.
C) 0.336 ins. Ans : The length of the legs.
Ans : 0.261 ins. Expl : NIL.
Expl : NIL.
49. The purpose of a taper tap is

45. What should be the included angle of a to.
twist drill for soft metals?. A) produce a fine thread.
A) 118 degrees. B) start a thread.
B) 65 degrees. C) form a tapered thread.
C) 90 degrees. Ans : start a thread.
Ans : 90 degrees. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook Page 2-27.
50. Why is the Vee cut in the base of a
scribing block?.
46. What should the point angle of a drill be A) to reduce the contact area with the marking
if it is to be used for drilling titanium (drill size off table and reduce friction.
below 1/4 inch diameter)? B) to allow the scribing block to be used on the
A) 90° to 105°. edge of the marking off table.
B) 105 to 120°. C) to trap any dirt that may be adhering to the
C) 90°. surface of the marking off table.
Ans : 105 to 120°. Ans : to trap any dirt that may be adhering to
Expl : BL/6-18 6. the surface of the marking off table.
Expl : NIL.
47. How are pin punches

classified?. 51. An inside micrometers normal
A) By length and diameter of the small end. measurement range is.
B) By overall length and type. A) ½ in. to 10in.
C) By type and diameter of the small end. B) 2in. to 10in.
C) 2in. to 12in.
Ans : 2in. to 12in. 56. Which of the following statements is
Expl : BL/3-5 para 3.2 under Note. correct?.
A) To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse
blade.
52. What is the purpose of Target Points on B) To cut an aluminium block use a fine
a Vernier caliper?. hacksaw blade.
A) To enable spring dividers to be accurately C) To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade.
set. Ans : To cut thin sheet metal use a fine
B) To zero the caliper. blade.
C) For scribing lines inside tubes. Expl : AC65-9A Chapt 12-Metal Cutting Tools.
Ans : To enable spring dividers to be accurately
set.
Expl : BL/3-4 3.6. 57. A power meter indicates that a circuit
has a power of 4 kW. Separate readings of the
voltage and current are 400 V and 20 A
53. Die Nuts are used to. respectively. The Power factor is.
A) form internal threads. A) 2.
B) form external threads. B) ½.
C) clean up damaged threads. C) 20.
Ans : clean up damaged threads. Ans : ½.
Expl : NIL. Expl : PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 * 400 =
8000 4000/8000 = 1/2.
54. A Dial Test Indicator may be used

for. 58. What is a key-seat rule used
A) checking a round bar for bow. for?.
B) checking dimensions to within 0.125''. A) Marking lines which are parallel to a true
C) checking any known depth. edge.
Ans : checking a round bar for bow. B) Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round
Expl : EL/3-3 fig 1. bar.
C) Providing a positive driving force.
Ans : Marking lines parallel to an axis of a
55. Which cut of a file should be used on round bar.
mild steel?. Expl : NIL.
A) Single cut.
B) Double cut.
C) Second cut. 59. When measuring current in a circuit, the
Ans : Double cut. ammeter is placed.
Expl : NIL. A) in series with the circuit.
B) in series with the shunt.
C) in parallel with the circuit.
Ans : in series with the circuit.
Expl : NIL.
64. The leads of an ohmmeter should be

60. A 3 ½ bit multimeter will indicate replaced if their resistance is greater than.
readings up-to. A) 0.5 ohms.
A) 9999. B) 1 ohm.
B) 999 ½. C) 0.05 ohms.
C) 1999. Ans : 1 ohm.
Ans : 1999. Expl : NIL.
Expl : A&P General Textbook CH3-109 PG 167
Para 2A, and Eismin Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics 5th edition P171. 65. Torque loading is determined by
multiplying the tangent force applied at the free
end of the spanner.
61. The resolution a bevel protractor can be A) by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its
read to is. point of application.
A) 50' minutes. B) by the distance moved by the point of
B) 5' minutes. application.
C) 1 º. C) by its distance of application from the axis of
Ans : 5' minutes. the bolt.
Expl : BL/3-4 5.2. Ans : by its distance of application from the
axis of the bolt.
Expl : Leaflet 2-11 pg 3 para 4.2.
62. If an English micrometer is showing 4
main divisions, 3 sub-divisions and the 25th
thimble division was in line, what would the 66. Which electrical measuring device needs
reading be?. a power source?.
A) 0.475 in. A) A voltmeter.
B) 0.175 in. B) An ohmmeter.
C) 0.555 in. C) An ammeter.
Ans : 0.475 in. Ans : An ohmmeter.
Expl : BL/3-5 Para 2.3, 4.1.2. Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
5th Edition page 165.
63. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would

be indicated by a reading of. 67. When measuring voltage or current with
A) infinite resistance. a digital multimeter, the indication is.
B) zero resistance. A) Average values.
C) a negative resistance. B) peak values.
Ans : infinite resistance. C) RMS values.
Expl : Eismin Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Ans : RMS values.
P165/166.
Expl : A&P General Textbook Page 3-94. DMMs
are 'Average-Responding' meaning they read
RMS if AC. 72. A voltage drop across a component is
measured by placing the meter in.
A) parallel with the component.
68. On a multimeter, what colour lead is B) series with he component.
connected to the Common socket?. C) series with the power source.
A) Green. Ans : parallel with the component.
B) Red. Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
C) Black. 5th Edition page 164 and CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1,
Ans : Black. 4.3.
Textbook Page 3-94 fig 3-201 and fig 3-202.
73. Which of the following reamers would
you use in a hole having a keyway?.
69. The Vernier scale of a Bevel Protractor is A) Expanding reamer.
shown below. What is the reading?. B) Spiral fluted reamer.
A) 38º 45’minutes. C) Parallel reamer.
B) 86º 15’minutes. Ans : Spiral fluted reamer.
C) 63º 15’ minutes. Expl : NIL.
Ans : 63º 15’ minutes.
Expl : NIL.
74. What is the purpose of a Morse taper on
large sizes of twist drills?.
70. Three point micrometers are for A) To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling
measuring. machine.
A) internal dimensions. B) To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly.
B) external dimensions. C) To give a positive drive when fitted into a
C) linear dimensions. tapered chuck.
Ans : internal dimensions. Ans : To give a positive drive when fitted into a
Expl : BL/3-5 3.4. tapered chuck.
Expl : NIL.
71. When is a coarse hacksaw blade

used?. 75. What should be the included angle of a
A) When cutting material of thick cross section. twist drill for hard metal?.
B) When cutting ferrous metals only. A) 90 degrees.
C) When cutting material of thin cross section. B) 100 degrees.
Ans : When cutting material of thick cross C) 118 degrees.
section. Ans : 118 degrees.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook Page 9-13. Textbook Page 2-27.
80. What is the reading of the Vernier
76. The threads per inch on the spindle of an caliper scale in inches shown below?.
English micrometer are. A) 0.1816.
A) 40 t.p.i. B) 1.816.
B) 50 t.p.i. C) 1.8016.
C) 25 t.p.i. Ans : 1.816.
Ans : 40 t.p.i. Expl : BL/3-4 2.5 and fig 1.
Expl : BL/3-5 4.1.
81. What does the cut of a file refer

77. The spring loaded ratchet attached to to?.
the spindle of a standard external micrometer A) Arrangement of the teeth.
produces. B) Number of teeth per inch.
A) a pre-set feel during use. C) Grade.
B) a means for controlling thread binding. Ans : Arrangement of the teeth.
C) a smooth free run during use. Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
Ans : a pre-set feel during use. 220.
Expl : BL/3-5 2.2.
82. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-

78. The purpose of the land on a twist drill is set?.
to. A) To allow a quick cutting positive action.
A) to allow clearance for swarf. B) To provide greater strength.
B) reduce friction. C) To provide clearance for non-cutting part of
C) present the cutting edge at the required the blade.
angle. Ans : To provide clearance for non-cutting part
Ans : reduce friction. of the blade.
Textbook Page 2-27.
83. How are files classified?.

79. The name given to the moving scale on A) By length, grade and material.
the Vernier caliper is. B) By length, grade, cut and section.
A) the main scale. C) By length, grade, cut, section and material.
B) the vernier scale. Ans : By length, grade, cut and section.
C) the cursor. Expl : NIL.
Ans : the vernier scale.
Expl : BL/3-4 fig 2 (although the whole moving
frame - which has the scale - is called the 84. Hammers are classified by.
cursor). A) shape of head and length of shaft.
B) weight and length of shaft.
C) weight and type of head. 89. When tapping blind holes.
Ans : weight and type of head. A) a set of three taps is used.
Expl : NIL. B) a set of two taps is used.
C) a single tap is used.
Ans : a set of three taps is used.
85. What does the term 'second cut' indicate Expl : NIL.
as applied to hand files?.
A) The grade of the file.
B) The section of the file. 90. On a torque wrench the torque loading
C) A reconditioned file. is.
Ans : The grade of the file. A) the tangential application of the force
Expl : NIL. divided by the perpendicular distance to the
centre of the bolt.
B) the tangential application of the force times
86. What comprises a full set of BA the perpendicular distance to the centre of the
taps?. bolt.
A) A taper, second and plug tap. C) the tangential application of the force plus
B) A taper and second tap. the perpendicular distance to the centre of the
C) A taper and plug tap. bolt.
Ans : A taper and plug tap. Ans : the tangential application of the force
Expl : Most tap sets are sets of 3. Except BA times the perpendicular distance to the centre
tap sets which do not have a second tap. of the bolt.
Expl : Leaflet 2-11 pg 3 para 4.2.
87. The teeth on a hacksaw

blade. 91. Surface Plates are used.
A) does not matter which way they point. A) for marking out work and testing flat
B) should point away from the handle. surfaces.
C) should point towards the handle. B) for filing flat surfaces.
Ans : should point away from the handle. C) only on surface tables.
Expl : NIL. Ans : for marking out work and testing flat
surfaces.
Expl : NIL.
88. What is the clearance angle on a normal
twist drill?.
A) 130 degrees. 92. The main scale of a Metric Vernier
B) 59 degrees. Caliper is calibrated in.
C) 12 degrees. A) millimetres.
Ans : 12 degrees. B) micro-meters.
Expl : NIL. C) millimetres and half millimetres.
Ans : millimetres and half millimetres.
Expl : BL/3-4 2.5.1
97. The reading on the inch micrometer
93. For a drill to cut properly it is essential scale shown is.
that the point angle be the same on each side, A) 0.483 ins.
for general use the angle is. B) 0.488 ins.
A) 12°. C) 4.758 ins.
B) 130°. Ans : 0.483 ins.
C) 59°. Expl : BL/3-5.
Ans : 59°.
Expl : Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe
page 2-27. 98. The vernier height gauge uses the same
principle as.
A) the vernier caliper.
94. The pitch of a hacksaw blade B) the micrometer.
is. C) the bevel protractor.
A) the number of teeth per inch. Ans : the vernier caliper.
B) its length. Expl : BL/3-4 4.
C) the number of teeth on the blade.
Ans : the number of teeth per inch.
Expl : NIL. 99. The pitch of the screw thread on an
English micrometer is.
A) 0.050 in.
95. When using a bench grinding machine B) 0.001 in.
the wheel rotates. C) 0.025 in.
A) from the top down towards the work piece. Ans : 0.025 in.
B) either direction as selected on starting the Expl : BL/3-5 4.1.
machine.
C) from the bottom upwards past the work
piece. 100. An avometer can measure alternating
Ans : from the top down towards the work current because it has a.
piece. A) moving coil.
Expl : NIL. B) bridge rectifier circuit.
C) moving iron.
Ans : bridge rectifier circuit.
96. The thimble of an English micrometer is Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
divided into. 5th Edition page 113 and 167 read together.
A) 50 equal divisions.
B) 40 equal divisions.
C) 25 equal divisions. 101. Taper reamers are classified
Ans : 25 equal divisions. by.
Expl : BL/3-5 fig 1. A) a type number (1 to 10).
B) the diameter of the small end.
C) the diameter of the large end. 'Delay' Reflectometer - which means the same
Ans : a type number (1 to 10). thing.
Expl : Taper reamers are classified by a type
number 1- 10.
105. If the leads of a bonding tester are
damaged, what is the procedure?.
102. A crimped electrical connection is A) The damaged leads and the tester should be
suspected to be high resistance. How would you returned to the manufacturer for repair and
verify this without disconnecting the calibration.
circuit?. B) Provided that the damage is situated close
A) Measure the millivolt drop across the to the end of the leads the cable may be
connection with a millivolt meter. shortened.
B) Measure the resistance with an C) A new lead may be manufactured using the
ohmmeter. correct current rated cable.
C) Measure the resistance with a 250 volt Ans : The damaged leads and the tester should
megger. be returned to the manufacturer for repair and
Ans : Measure the millivolt drop across the calibration.
connection with a millivolt meter. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.1.1. & EEL/1-6 Para 3.11.2.
Expl : EEL/1-6 4.3.
106. When carrying out a continuity test on a

103. How would you measure continuity of a circuit when a known resistance exists, what
coaxial cable?. instrument would you use?.
A) With a safety ohmmeter. A) A lamp and battery.
B) With a reflectometer. B) A high resistance insulation tester.
C) With a 250 volt megger. C) A multimeter.
Ans : With a reflectometer. Ans : A multimeter.
Expl : Other versions of this question say Time Expl : NIL.
Domain Reflectometer, or Time Delay
Reflectometer.
107. Taper pins are classified by.
A) length and diameter of large end.
104. On a long coaxial cable how would you B) length and diameter of small end.
check for discontinuities and shorts in C) length and taper.
situ?. Ans : length and diameter of small end.
A) Continuity tester. Expl : Leaflet 2-5 11. BL/6-13 11.
B) Safety ohmmeter.
C) Time Domain Reflectometer.
Ans : Time Domain Reflectometer. 108. Live AC circuits are to be checked for
Expl : A TDR will find damaged bits of long coax open circuits by the use of.
runs. One version of this question says Time A) multimeter set to AC volts.
B) ammeter set to amps.
C) ohmmeter set to megohms. Expl : One full turn of a vernier micrometer
Ans : multimeter set to AC volts. thimble is 0.025 inch.
Expl : A voltmeter would be used because it
does not require the breaking of the circuit.
113. How does a windy drill get its
power?
109. A multiplier resistance is used to extend A) Spur gears.
the working range of the. B) Impeller.
A) ammeter. C) Bevel gears.
B) voltmeter. Ans : Impeller.
C) ohmmeter. Expl : Windy drills have an impeller to derive
Ans : voltmeter. power from the air pressure.
Expl : Multipliers are used with voltmeters.
A&P Airframe Technician Textbook.
114. How are taper reamers
classified?.
110. On twist drill chart, small drills A) Length, diameter of large end, and diameter
have. of small end.
A) smallest numbers. B) Taper and diameter of small end.
B) largest numbers. C) Length and diameter of large end.
C) their sizes in fractions, in inches. Ans : Length and diameter of large end.
Ans : largest numbers. Expl : Taper reamers are normally classified by
Expl : Numbered drill go from 80 (0.0135 a number 1-10, but if not, by diameter of large
inches - smallest) to 1 (0.228 inches - largest) end.
and are then lettered.
115. An AC voltmeter reads.

111. The Sine Bar is used to. A) peak value.
A) check accuracy of slip gauges. B) peak to peak value.
B) produce angles using slip gauges. C) average value.
C) by itself to calculate angles. Ans : average value.
Ans : produce angles using slip gauges. Expl : An AC voltmeter (known as Average
Expl : Workshop Technology Part 2 WAJ Responding) measures RMS.
Chapman Pg.57.
116. A hydrometer is used to.

112. On a vernier micrometer, what will three A) check battery electrolyte specific gravity.
turns of the barrel represent?. B) check battery electrolyte density.
A) 0.075 inch. C) take humidity reading.
B) 0.100 inch. Ans : check battery electrolyte specific
C) 0.050 inch. gravity.
Ans : 0.075 inch.
Expl : Specific gravity is the density relative to 121. What is a countersink tool used
water at 4 degrees C. for?.
A) To prevent damage to pipework in a blind
hole.
117. A pyrometer is a. B) To adjust the depth of a countersink.
A) thermometer for use at high C) To adjust the angle of a countersink.
temperature. Ans : To adjust the depth of a countersink.
B) pyramid shaped altimeter. Expl : The countersink tool is to cut and adjust
C) foam/granule fire extinguisher. depths of the countersink.
Ans : thermometer for use at high
temperature.
Expl : A pyrometer measures high 122. PIDG crimp tools are marked
temperature. by.
A) wire crimp size on tool only.
B) coloured handles and wire crimp size on
118. A hygrometer is used to. tool.
A) check battery electrolyte relative density. C) coloured handles only.
B) take humidity reading. Ans : coloured handles and wire crimp size on
C) check battery electrolyte specific gravity. tool.
Ans : take humidity reading. Expl : Leaflet 9-3 fig 2. Handles are red, blue or
Expl : A hygrometer measures yellow and the AWG is stamped on the
humidity. jaws.

123. When measuring a square waveform
with a multimeter, what voltage does it
display?.
120. To measure AC with a moving coil, A) Less than RMS value.
it. B) More than RMS value.
A) can be directly connected. C) Equal to RMS value.
B) is rectified and measures peak value. Ans : Equal to RMS value.
C) is rectified and measures average value. Expl : A multimeter measures RMS of whatever
Ans : is rectified and measures average waveform it is measuring.
value.
Expl : Also known as a D'Arsonval meter. See
Jeppesen A&P General Textbook Section 3. 124. If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what
Note that the word 'Average' is incorrect would you be required to do to enable it to read
because the meter reads RMS, but average is 10mA FSD?.
the closest of the three answers. A) Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel
with the meter.
B) Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils.
C) Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the B) small pivoted joints.
meter. C) large pivoted joints.
Ans : Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in Ans : small pivoted joints.
parallel with the meter. Expl : Needle grease points are flush grease
Expl : No calculation necessary (nor possible, nipples which require a pointed adapter on the
with information given). A shunt is used with an grease gun.
ammeter to bypass unwanted
current.
129. A flat chisel being used for aluminium
should have a point angle of.
125. The internal resistance of a voltmeter A) 65 degrees.
is. B) 30 degrees.
A) no more than 0.05 ohms. C) 55 degrees.
B) low. Ans : 30 degrees.
C) high. Expl : NIL.
Ans : high.
Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
5th Edition page 164. 130. A mill file can be used for.
A) corners less than 60 degrees.
B) saw sharpening.
126. The internal resistance of an ammeter C) general purpose.
is. Ans : saw sharpening.
A) low. Expl : External document.
B) 1 ohm. http://www.rockler.com/tech/12369.pdf
C) high.
Ans : low.
Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin 131. A rawhide mallet is.
5th Edition page 162. A) available with copper inserts.
B) less expensive than bossing mallet.
C) used for giving softer blows than boxwood
127. A drill bit of 0.250 inch would mallet.
be. Ans : used for giving softer blows than
A) 7/32 and letter G. boxwood mallet.
B) 8/32 and letter E. Expl : NIL.
C) 6/32 and letter F.
Ans : 8/32 and letter E.
Expl : See a drill chart. 132. Tension files.
A) can be used to cut in one direction only.
B) clog easily.
128. Needle grease points are used C) can cut in either direction.
on. Ans : can cut in either direction.
A) items with gland seals. Expl : Also known as an ABRAFILE.
B) a current carrying coil pivoted in a
permanent magnet field.
133. The scale on an ohmmeter is. C) hairsprings which move the pointer towards
A) cramped at high resistance. full scale.
B) linear. Ans : a current carrying coil pivoted in a
C) cramped at low resistance. permanent magnet field.
Ans : cramped at high resistance. Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 159.
5th Edition page 169 photo, fig 8-26.
138. The force acting on a meter which

134. Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. returns the pointer to zero is called the.
micrometer will show. A) turning force.
A) 0.03 inch. B) deflecting force.
B) 0.075 inch. C) controlling force.
C) 0.003 inch. Ans : controlling force.
Ans : 0.075 inch. Expl : NIL.
Expl : 0.025 inch * 3 = 0.075.
139. The forces acting on a meter which

135. To carry out a continuity test you would moves the pointer over the scale is called.
use. A) the controlling force.
A) ammeter. B) the turning force.
B) an HT circuit tester. C) the deflecting force.
C) a low reading ohmmeter. Ans : the deflecting force.
Ans : a low reading ohmmeter. Expl : NIL.
Expl : NIL.
140. The resistance of an ammeter must

136. What is the resolution of a standard be.
DTI?. A) high to create a large volts drop across it.
A) 0.020 mm. B) low to prevent volts drop across it.
B) 0.050 mm. C) low because the ammeter is in parallel with
C) 0.010 mm. the circuit.
Ans : 0.010 mm. Ans : low to prevent volts drop across it.
Expl : Some modern DTIs can do 1/10th of Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin
that. 5th Edition page 162/3.
137. In a moving coil meter the deflecting 141. The resistance of a voltmeter must
force is provided by. be.
A) a soft iron permanent magnet. A) high so that little current passes through it.
B) low to prevent overloading the circuit. 3. The maximum value of bonding of a
C) low to provide a parallel path for the circuit secondary structure is.
current. A) 1 megohm.
Ans : high so that little current passes through B) 1 ohm.
it. C) 1 kilohm.
Expl : Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Ans : 1 ohm.
5th Edition page 164. Expl : CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 3-8.
142. When operating a grease gun, 4. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried
you. out in the following order:
A) verify grease fitting can accept grease by A) bonding, continuity, insulation, functional.
hand feel. B) continuity, bonding, functional, insulation.
B) apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi. C) functional, bonding, continuity, insulation.
C) clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth Ans : bonding, continuity, insulation,
beforehand. functional.
Ans : clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth Expl : Code to remember, B C I F.
beforehand.
Expl : NIL.
5. Before using a dead weight tester you
04. Avionic General Test Equipment. would.
A) calibrate the tester using a standard
weight.
1. A fuel quantity test set has an externally B) pressurize the tester to the required
adjustable. pressure.
A) capacitor. C) replace the oil.
B) inductor. Ans : pressurize the tester to the required
C) resistor. pressure.
Ans : resistor. Expl : The dead weight tester is first pumped
Expl : AL/10-3 8.2.6. up to the required pressure (platform/weights
floating) then gauge under test is
connected.
2. How would you test a mach switch in-
situ?.
A) Use built in test equipment. 6. How should a dead weight tester be
B) Use an external test kit. used?.
C) It is not possible to test a mach switch in A) The pressure increasing handle should be
situ. screwed in before the addition of fluid and
Ans : Use built in test equipment. screwed out when fluid is added.
Expl : NIL. B) The outlet should not be connected to the
instrument until the required weights are raised
by the platform.
C) The platform should be removed and fluid Ans : Full scale right.
poured into the hole. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 a Infinity is full scale to
Ans : The outlet should not be connected to the right.
the instrument until the required weights are
raised by the platform.
Expl : Handle is wound in until the weights are 10. When using a megger to test insulation
floating, then the outlet pressure is slowly resistance, capacitive filters should be
released to the gauge under test. disconnected for what reason?.
A) Remove the risk of damage to the megger.
B) Remove the spurious readings caused by the
7. When testing thermocouples using a test capacitors charging and discharging.
set the ambient temperature. C) Prevent damage to the filters.
A) never needs to be considered. Ans : Prevent damage to the filters.
B) is considered every time. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.4.4 e AandP Mechanics
C) is only considered when temperatures of General Handbook Pg 351.
20°C or above.
Ans : is considered every time.
Expl : AL/10-3 11.11.1. To test the system the 11. When carrying out a serviceability check
test set has to be trimmed for ambient on a bonding tester - short together the three
temperature, as the system when in operation prongs of both probes and ensure which of the
is adjusted for ambient temperature by the following?.
compensating resistor. This is clearly stated in A) The meter reads 0.1 ohm.
the B 737 AMM. B) A zero reading.
C) A full scale reading is obtained.
Ans : A zero reading.
8. Electronic test equipment for fuel tank Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 (b).
contents systems usually incorporate
variable.
A) resistors. 12. If an insulation resistance tester is
B) inductors. operated and the leads are suspended in free
C) capacitors. air, what will the meter read?.
Ans : capacitors. A) Zero.
Expl : NIL. B) Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and
there is no current flowing in the external
circuit.
9. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot C) Infinity.
lead has the two prongs shorted together with a Ans : Infinity.
piece of metal. What would the indicator Expl : NIL.
read?.
A) Full scale left.
B) Full scale right.
C) Zero at the centre.
13. When using a digital meter to test a A) With the meter in series with the unit.
diode, a correct operation of the diode is B) With the unit disconnected.
indicated by a volt drop of. C) With the meter in parallel with the unit.
A) 0.3V to 0.7V. Ans : With the meter in series with the
B) 2.5V to 2.8V. unit.
C) 1.5V to 2V. Expl : A fuel metering unit is checked with the
Ans : 0.3V to 0.7V. fuel meter in series with the meter under test.
Expl : Forward voltage drop of a diode is 0.2V No reference found.
(germanium) or 0.6V (silicon).
17. When using a bonding tester.

14. To check that the ident pulse is being A) ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer.
generated from an ATC transponder,. B) ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising
A) select an ATC channel and check the morse layer.
code. C) an anodised component cannot be tested.
B) select ident and check the indication on the Ans : ensure prongs penetrate anodised
instrument panel. layer.
C) press the ident and monitor the indication Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.10.6.
on the ramp test set.
Ans : press the ident and monitor the
indication on the ramp test set. 18. On a static leak tester, pressure is
Expl : The ident is a button on the transponder released by.
panel, which, when pressed, causes the A) an internal balance valve in the tester.
indication on the ATCs radar screen to 'bloom'. B) slowly opening the release knob for 3
minutes.
C) a bleed valve in the tester.
15. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Ans : slowly opening the release knob for 3
Weight Tester. The piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and minutes.
the total mass of the mass carrier and masses is Expl : The pressure in the pitot/static leak
5lb. If the pressure gauge is accurate what tester must be released slowly.
pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI) will it
read?.
A) 1.25 psi. 19. A fuel calibration test set when used to
B) 20 psi. check an aircraft with half a fuel load is
C) 200 psi. connected.
Ans : 20 psi. A) to gauge with fuel level in parallel.
Expl : Pressure = Force / Area = 5/0.25 = 20 B) to gauge with fuel level capacitance.
PSI. C) to gauge with fuel level in series.
Ans : to gauge with fuel level in series.
Expl : The test set is connected in series with
16. When testing a fuel metering unit, how the fuel level conditioner.
is it checked?.
Expl : Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems - Powell
20. A capacitive fuel contents system should Page 136/7.
be tested with.
A) a ratiometer.
B) a Wheatstone bridge. 24. Bonding lead testers are attached
C) a decade box. with.
Ans : a Wheatstone bridge. A) a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth
Expl : By elimination. and a 6 foot test lead is connected to check the
resistance between selected points.
B) a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main
21. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested earth and a 60 feet lead is connected to check
with a. the resistance between selected points.
A) light source and optometer. C) either of the leads can be connected
B) multimeter. anywhere.
C) calibrated light generator and opto-power Ans : a 60 feet lead is connected to the main
meter. earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected to
Ans : calibrated light generator and opto- check the resistance between selected points.
power meter. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.3.
Expl : External website.
http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
25. On a Bonding Tester the number of
probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads respectively
22. When using transistorized test are.
equipment, what should the output A) 1 and 2.
be?. B) 2 and 2.
A) Not affected by impedance. C) 2 and 1.
B) High impedance. Ans : 1 and 2.
C) Low impedance. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.10.
Ans : Low impedance.
Expl : Transistorised equipment generally has a
high input impedance and a low output 26. The damping force in a
impedance. meter.
A) prevents oscillation of the pointer.
B) returns the pointer to zero.
23. To read the transponder coding from an C) assists the pointer to move over the scale.
aircraft's transponder you. Ans : prevents oscillation of the pointer.
A) use the code signal and a chart to determine Expl : NIL.
the signal.
B) use a ATC600 test set.
C) use the output on the flight deck. 27. On a VOR/ILS test set the 'Tone Delete'
Ans : use a ATC600 test set. function.
A) functionally checks that the glideslope
pointer moves down-scale.
B) functionally checks that the glideslope 4. What does GA stand for on a
failure flag operates. drawing?.
C) functionally checks that the glideslope A) General assembly.
pointer moves up-scale. B) General arrangement.
Ans : functionally checks that the glideslope C) Gradient Axis.
failure flag operates. Ans : General arrangement.
Expl : The Tone Delete tests the flag. Expl : NIL.
05. Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and

Standards. 5. Design drawings of aircraft components
are produced by organizations approved
by.
1. What is third angle A) SBAC.
projection?. B) British Standards Institute.
A) each view represents the side of the object C) CAA in accordance with the BCARs.
furthest from the adjacent view. Ans : CAA in accordance with the BCARs.
B) each view represents the side of the object Expl : NIL.
nearest to it in the adjacent view.
C) each view is at an angle of 30 degrees to the 7. Which pictorial projection shows one
plane of projection. face in true elevation and line of depth normally
Ans : each view represents the side of the draw at 30° or 45° to the horizontal?.
object nearest to it in the adjacent view. A) Oblique.
Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 2.1 page 7 para 5.3.1. B) Perspective.
C) Isometric.
Ans : Oblique.
2. This drawing indicates. Expl : NIL.
A) a countersunk hole.
B) a blind tapped hole.
C) a counterbored hole. 8. If a design amendment is made on a
Ans : a blind tapped hole. drawing.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 3. A) a new issue number and date must be
allocated to the drawing.
B) the old issue number is retained, with the
3. The width of a visible outline on a amendment date added.
drawing is. C) no change in issue number or date is
A) 0.3 mm. necessary.
B) 0.7 mm. Ans : a new issue number and date must be
C) 0.5 mm. allocated to the drawing.
Ans : 0.7 mm. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 4.2.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 5.2.
C) drawn four times larger.
9. The British Standard for Engineering Ans : drawn to a quarter.
Drawings is. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.1.
A) BS 308.
B) BS 306.
C) BS 307. 16. An orthographic projection usually
Ans : BS 308. shows.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 1.3. A) one, three-dimensional view of an object.
B) a pictorial view of the object.
C) three, two-dimensional views of an object.
10. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for. Ans : three, two-dimensional views of an
A) Pitch Circle Diameter. object.
B) Pitch Cord Diameter. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.3.
C) Precision Circle Dimension.
Ans : Pitch Circle Diameter.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 table 3. 17. When dimensioning a drawing, the
dimension lines should be.
A) the minimum number of dimensions
. necessary to enable the component to be
13. Drawing numbers are. manufactured.
A) the same as serial numbers. B) as many dimensions as possible.
B) changed after each drawing amended after C) only size dimensions.
May 28, 1999. Ans : the minimum number of dimensions
C) unique to each drawing. necessary to enable the component to be
Ans : unique to each drawing. manufactured.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 4.1. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.5.
14. Hatching lines are usually drawn 18. PFD' on an engineering drawing would
at:. indicate.
A) 60°. A) dye penetrant check.
B) 30°. B) ultra-sonic test.
C) 45°. C) repair and recondition.
Ans : 45°. Ans : dye penetrant check.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook fig 5-20 Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 4.
and Leaflet 2-1 5.4.1a.
19. S.W.G. is an abbreviation

15. The scale of an engineering drawing is for.
shown as 1 : 4. This indicates it is. A) Standard Wire Gauge.
A) drawn to a quarter. B) Screw Width Gauge.
B) drawn to scale. C) Standard Water Gauge.
Ans : Standard Wire Gauge. 27. Where are correct layout, dimensioning,
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 3. numbering and reference procedures for
engineering drawing are to be
found?.
20. If you are unable to identify a structure A) BS 31.
'classification' as either primary or secondary, B) BS 1916.
what action should you adopt?. C) BS 308.
A) Grade it as 'secondary'. Ans : BS 308.
B) Upgrade it to ‘primary’. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 1.1.
C) Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary'.
Ans : Upgrade it to ‘primary’.
Expl : NIL. 28. 10 : 1 on an engineering drawing
indicates.
A) the drawing is full size.
21. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary B) the drawing is one tenth full size.
structure on a diagram or drawing?. C) the drawing is ten times full size.
A) Red. Ans : the drawing is ten times full size.
B) Green. Expl : Aircraft Instruments and Integrated
C) Yellow. Systems, Pallett Page 1 5.1.
Ans : Green.
Expl : NIL. 30. Lines known as short dashes (thin) are
used on drawings to indicate.
A) hidden detail.
22. Which parts of the aircraft are classified B) visible outlines.
secondary structures?. C) cutting revolved.
A) Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not Ans : hidden detail.
cause failure of the aircraft. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 table 1.
B) Highly stressed parts and if damaged may
cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life. 32. Any change to a drawing.
C) Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel A) must be notified to the S.B.A.C.
shields and minor component brackets etc. B) must be accompanied by the new issue
Ans : Highly stressed parts but if damaged will number and date.
not cause failure of the aircraft. C) requires a new drawing number.
Expl : NIL. Ans : must be accompanied by the new issue
number and date.
25. The abbreviation B.A. means. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 4.2.
A) British Assembly.
B) British Association. 35. Break lines are used.
C) British Arrangement. A) to show where components are expected to
Ans : British Association. break.
Expl : Leaflet 3-3. B) in sectional drawing.
C) where it would be inconvenient (because of
limited space) to draw long lengths of the same 39. NTS on a drawing stands for.
section. A) Not True Scale.
Ans : where it would be inconvenient (because B) No Tolerance System.
of limited space) to draw long lengths of the C) Not To Scale.
same section. Ans : Not To Scale.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.45. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 table 3.
36. An oblique projection. 40. A hydraulic system schematic drawing

A) is the same as an isometric projection. would indicate the.
B) has one view looking directly at one face A) type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid.
with the lines representing depth drawn at B) specific location of the individual
90°. components within the aircraft.
C) has one view looking directly at one face C) direction of fluid flow through the system.
with the lines representing depth drawn at a Ans : direction of fluid flow through the
constant angle. system.
Ans : has one view looking directly at one face Expl : NIL.
with the lines representing depth drawn at a
constant angle.
Expl : NIL. 41. Which statement is true regarding an
orthographic projection?.
A) There are always at least two views.
37. A drawing in which the subassemblies or B) It could have as many as eight views.
parts are shown as brought together on the C) One-view, two-view, and three-view
aircraft is called. drawings are the most common.
A) an installation drawing. Ans : One-view, two-view, and three-view
B) a detail drawing. drawings are the most common.
C) a sectional drawing. Expl : NIL.
Ans : an installation drawing.
Expl : NIL.
42. A line used to show an edge which is not
visible is a.
38. A thread on a drawing is labeled ½-20 A) break line.
UNF – 1B. The thread is B) phantom line.
A) either external or internal, depending on the C) hidden line.
application. Ans : hidden line.
B) external. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.2 table 1.
C) internal.
Ans : internal.
Explanation. 43. One purpose for schematic diagrams is
to show the.
A) size and shape of components within a 51. When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a
system. web longitudinally, the web is.
B) functional location of components within a A) sectioned the same as the rest of the
system. view.
C) physical location of components within a B) not sectioned.
system. C) sectioned with different direction of hatch.
Ans : functional location of components within Ans : not sectioned.
a system. Expl : BS 308.
Expl : NIL.
54. When a cutting plane goes through a

45. What type of line is normally used in a bush and bolt assembly, on the sectioned
mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent view.
an edge or object not visible to the A) both the bush and the bolt will be hatched.
viewer?. B) the bush will be hatched but the bolt will
A) Alternate short and long light dashes. not.
B) Medium-weight dashed line. C) neither the bush nor the bolt will be
C) Light solid line. hatched.
Ans : Medium-weight dashed line. Ans : the bush will be hatched but the bolt will
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 5.2 table 1. not.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 fig 5 5.4.1 (b).
46. A specific measured distance from the

datum or some other point identified by the 58. The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a
manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is material indicates that it has.
called a. A) been anodic flaw detected.
A) zone number. B) been annealed fired and doped.
B) station number. C) an across flats diameter bolt.
C) specification number. Ans : been anodic flaw detected.
Ans : station number. Expl : Leaflet 2-1 Table 4.
Expl : AL/7-2 6.
50. In a first angle orthographic projection 59. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA
the plan view is placed. 100?.
A) above the front elevation. A) Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge
B) below the side elevation. of wing.
C) below the front elevation. B) Tip of horizontal stabilizer.
Ans : below the front elevation. C) Fwd of the wing rear spar.
Expl : Leaflet 2-1 Figure 3. Ans : Tip of horizontal stabilizer
Expl : Zone 3xx is empennage.
61. The latest drawing is identified by C) 1 in 600.
the. Ans : 1 in 600.
A) issue number. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10.
B) amendment number.
C) date.
Ans : issue number. 5. Which of the following shafts would you
Expl : CAAIP\'s leaflet 2-1 pg 4 para 4.2. use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch
diameter?.
06. Fits and Clearances. A) 0.752 inch.
B) 0.748 inch.
C) 750 inch.
1. Tolerances are classified in two ways, Ans : 0.748 inch.
these are. Expl : NIL.
A) Dimensional and isometric.
B) Upper and lower.
C) Dimensional and geometric. 6. Which of the following is checked when
Ans : Dimensional and geometric. using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge?.
Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 2-1 p16 para 5.11. A) Clearance.
B) Tolerance.
C) Allowance.
2. The maximum permissible bow in a steel Ans : Tolerance.
tube is. Expl : NIL.
A) 1 : 400.
B) 1 : 200.
C) 1 : 600. 7. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral
Ans : 1 : 600. Tolerance'?.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4. A) 2 inches -0.002.
B) 2 inches +0.002.
C) 2 inches ±0.002.
3. The equipment required to carry out a Ans : 2 inches ±0.002.
run-out check on a shaft would be. Expl : NIL.
A) a DTI and 'V' blocks.
B) a ball bearing and a micrometer.
C) a surface plate and a three leg trammel. 8. A tolerance is.
Ans : a DTI and 'V' blocks. A) a permitted difference between new and
Expl : AC43.13-1B Page 4-20. worn dimensions.
B) a permitted variation on a dimension to
allow for inaccuracy of equipment.
4. What is the maximum bow allowed in a C) a required difference in dimension between
strut?. mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit.
A) 1 in 200. Ans : a permitted variation on a dimension to
B) 1 in 500. allow for inaccuracy of equipment.
Expl : NIL.
13. A press fit requires.
A) some sort of driving force.
9. A transition fit is one in which the shaft B) the shaft to be shrunk by cooling.
is. C) the hole to be expanded by heat.
A) larger than the hole. Ans : some sort of driving force.
B) smaller than the hole. Expl : A press fit is a small interference
C) the same size as the hole. only.
Ans : the same size as the hole.
Expl : BS 4500 Datasheet 4500A., External
document. 14. What is the typical acceptable limit of a
www.tech.plym.ac.uk/sme/disnotes/tola.pdf dent on a frame member?.
A) One and a half times the skin thickness.
B) Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch
10. The length of a blended repair of diameter.
corrosion should be no less than. C) One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter.
A) 10 times its depth. Ans : One gauge depth and 0.75 inch
B) 20 times its depth. diameter.
C) 5 times its depth. Expl : NIL.
Ans : 20 times its depth.
Expl : NIL.
15. A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch
diameter bolt and hole, on a drawing would be
11. If there is a positive allowance between shown as.
the smallest possible hole and the largest A) 0.005 Inches.
possible shaft, the fit is known as. B) 0.0015 Inches.
A) a transition fit. C) 0.0025 Inches.
B) a clearance fit. Ans : 0.0015 Inches.
C) an interference fit. Expl : AC43 says 0.0006 for a 3/8 in. bolt, so
Ans : a clearance fit. 0.0015 is the closest (and reasonable for a 3/4
Expl : NIL. in. bolt).
07. Electrical Cables and Connectors.

12. After mechanical removal of corrosion
on an aluminium alloy casting, the length of the
blended recess should be. 1. In a front release connector the pin will
A) no less than ten times the depth. be.
B) no less than twenty times the depth. A) released from rear and extracted from the
C) no more than twenty times the depth. front.
Ans : no less than twenty times the depth. B) released from the front and extracted from
Expl : AC43 6.118 6-23. the front.
C) released from the front and extracted from A) 260°C.
the rear. B) 135°C.
Ans : released from the front and extracted C) 200°C.
from the rear. Ans : 260°C.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 8.3.2. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 11-5 para 7.2.1.
2. A wire clamped vertically at one end and 6. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic
horizontally at the other end should have a insert/extract tool be used on?.
bend radius of no less than. A) 16 - 14.
A) 3 times the diameter of the wire. B) 12 - 10.
B) 5 times the diameter of the wire. C) 22 - 18.
C) 10 times the diameter of the wire. Ans : 12 - 10.
Ans : 3 times the diameter of the wire. Expl : NIL.
Expl : CAIP S AL/3-2 6.4.
7. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a

3. Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver PIDG crimp tool?.
cable can cause. A) No.
A) a fire. B) Yes by turning a knob.
B) disintegration of the cable insulation. C) Yes by adjusting the pins.
C) corrosion. Ans : Yes by adjusting the pins.
Ans : a fire. Expl : NIL.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5 Para.8.8.
8. What gauge of pin would a red plastic

4. With a rear release connector, the pin insert/extract tool be used on?.
will be. A) 12 - 10.
A) released from the front and extracted from B) 22 - 18.
the rear. C) 16 - 14.
B) released from the rear and extracted from Ans : 22 - 18.
the front. Expl : Boeing Standard Wiring Practices,
C) released from the rear and extracted from External website.
the rear. http://www.cheifaircraft.com/Aircraft/Installati
Ans : released from the rear and extracted onSupply/Terminals.html
from the rear.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3, 8.3.2 (b) (i).
9. What cable would you use where
temperatures are going to exceed 200°C?.
5. The maximum operating temperature for A) Tinned copper or aluminium.
a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector B) Silver plated copper or aluminium.
is. C) Nickel plated copper or aluminium.
Ans : Nickel plated copper or aluminium. 14. To find a high resistance or open circuit,
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5, 7.2.1. carry out.
A) a milli-volt drop test.
B) a continuity check.
10. How long should a fireproof cable last in C) a bonding check.
a fire?. Ans : a continuity check.
A) 5 minutes. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.2.1.
B) 50 minutes.
C) 15 minutes.
Ans : 15 minutes. 15. The maximum bonding resistance on an
Expl : NIL. aircraft primary structure should be.
A) 0.01 ohms.
B) 0.001 ohms.
11. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic C) 0.05 ohms.
insert / extract tool be used on?. Ans : 0.05 ohms.
A) 12 - 10. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 3.8.
B) 16 - 14.
C) 22 - 18.
Ans : 16 - 14. 16. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends
Expl : NIL. of a cable should be.
A) tightly twisted.
B) twisted lightly in the direction of the lay.
12. The insulation resistance for wiring in C) straightened out.
undercarriage wheel-wells should normally be Ans : twisted lightly in the direction of the
not less than. lay.
A) 10 megohms. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3, 7.5.3.
B) 5 megohms.
C) 2 megohms.
Ans : 2 megohms. 17. The number of the dots impressed on
Expl : CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 4-5-4 (a). the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors
during crimping indicates that.
A) the correct connector has been used.
13. What causes knuckling on older type B) the correct tool was used to effect the
electrical cables?. connection.
A) Over-temperature soldering. C) the crimp is properly formed.
B) Applying cable ties too tightly. Ans : the correct tool was used to effect the
C) Excessive pull through forces. connection.
Ans : Excessive pull through forces. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Leaflet 1l-5 8.6.
18. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws A) 3 feet.
on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed B) 12 inches.
by. C) 500 mm.
A) varying the torque applied to the handles. Ans : 500 mm.
B) using different coloured crimping pliers and Expl : NIL.
terminations.
C) changing the position of the pins.
Ans : changing the position of the pins. 23. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 fig 2. exposure to a standard fire for.
A) 30 minutes.
B) 5 minutes.
19. When referring to fuses, HRC C) 15 minutes.
means. Ans : 5 minutes.
A) high rupture capacity. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5 4.5 and EASA CS-1
B) hot running capacity. Pg.6.
C) high running current.
Ans : high rupture capacity.
Expl : High Rupturing Capacity. 24. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it
is important to.
A) fit the correct lock nuts.
20. When wiring an electrical component to B) make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct
a plug, the live wire is coloured. way round.
A) blue. C) not damage any seals fitted.
B) green and yellow. Ans : not damage any seals fitted.
C) brown. Expl : NIL.
Ans : brown.
Expl : NIL.
25. When inserting pins into a front release
connector the inserting tool should be used
21. A hole is placed in the lowest point of with the gap facing which
electrical cable conduit. direction?.
A) to allow for pull-through of the cables. A) The centre of the connector.
B) to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft B) Either direction.
structure. C) The outside of the connector.
C) to allow for drainage of moisture. Ans : The outside of the connector.
Ans : to allow for drainage of moisture. Expl : Leaflet 9-3 Para.8.3.2.
5th Edition page 65.
26. When using a hydraulic crimping tool,
after completing the crimping operation, the
22. The minimum distance between crimp is formed when when.
electrical cable splices is.
A) the bypass valve opens and the ram returns Ans : The tool is inserted from the front and
to neutral. the pin is removed from the rear.
B) the foot pedal force is at maximum. Expl : Leaflet 9-3 8.3.2 (b)(ii).
C) the bypass valve closes and the ram returns
to neutral.
Ans : the bypass valve opens and the ram 30. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened
returns to neutral. so as to compress the dielectric, how will the
Expl : NIL. capacitance change?.
A) Stay the same.
B) Increase.
27. The type of binding tape used for cables C) Decrease.
in temperatures above 260°C is which of the Ans : Increase.
following?. Expl : AC43 11-117. Decreasing dielectric
A) Nomex. thickness (of a capacitor) increases its
B) Teflon. capacitance.
C) Nylon.
Ans : Teflon.
Expl : This is probably referring to the Teflon 31. What is the minimum bend radius of a
tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and single co-axial cable?.
Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. Also A) 10 * diameter.
AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is B) 8 * diameter.
Dupont trade-name for PTFE). C) 6 * diameter.
Ans : 6 * diameter.
Expl : AC43.13-1B Page 11-45 Para.11-96 bb.
28. What is the minimum bend radius of a No British reference found.
loom adequately supported at a terminal
block?.
A) 10 * diameter. 32. What is wet arc tracking?.
B) 8 * diameter. A) A fault caused by hot stamp printing.
C) 3 * diameter. B) A fault caused by insulation damage.
Ans : 3 * diameter. C) A fault caused by 'knuckling through'.
Expl : Leaflet 9-3 7.3. Ans : A fault caused by hot stamp
printing.
Expl : AC43.13-1B, 11-210 and CAAIP S Leaflet
29. How are front release pins 11-5 Para.8.2.
removed?.
A) The tool is inserted from the front and the
pin is removed from the front. 33. When using a heat shrink gun, what
B) The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin should the temperature of the gun be set to?.
Is removed from the front. A) 100° below the heat shrink temperature.
C) The tool is inserted from the front and the B) 15° below the heat shrink temperature.
pin is removed from the rear.
C) 100° above the heat shrink 37. E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is
temperature. a.
Ans : 100° above the heat shrink A) phase indication.
temperature. B) system ID code.
Expl : A trick question. The 'Heat shrink C) cable size.
temperature' is the normal 'room' temperature Ans : system ID code.
of about 20-25°C. Most heat shrink materials Expl : Leaflet 9-3 para.9.1.1.
shrink at around 125°C.
38. To prevent wet arc tracking.

34. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what A) cable grips should be tight.
does the letter E represent?. B) ensure hot stamp printing is controlled.
A) Circuit function. C) cables should not be stretched.
B) Cable size. Ans : ensure hot stamp printing is
C) Segment letter. controlled.
Ans : Circuit function. Expl : Leaflet 11-5 8.2 and 6.7.
Expl : Leaflet 9-3 Para.9.1.1.
39. When splicing a cable with a soldered

35. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance joint, the operation is finished when.
is. A) the solder has melted.
A) proportional to length. B) the solder sleeve disappears.
B) not effected by length. C) the solder and insulation have formed.
C) inversely proportional to length. Ans : the solder and insulation have
Ans : not effected by length. formed.
Expl : The length has nothing to do with a Expl : The solder sleeve is a plastic cylinder
coaxial cable impedance. External with two rings of plastic at each end and a
website. solder ring in the middle. When heated the
http://www.epanorama.net/documents/wiring/ cylinder first melts on to the wires, then the
cable_impedance.html plastic rings melt, sealing the ends of the
cylinder.
36. A secondary earth is.

A) not less than 0.5mm cross sectional 40. When manufacturing an electrical
area. connector the unused holes are.
B) 18 AWG. A) filled with connectors.
C) 22 AWG. B) filled with connectors and blanked.
Ans : 18 AWG. C) covered with blanks.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 para.3.3 & EEL/1-6 3.3.1 (a) Ans : filled with connectors and blanked.
ii. Expl : Leaflet 9-3 para 8.3.2 f)iii) and AC 43.13B
11-234.
Expl : Copper has a low resistance to
41. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe current.
cable in which application?.
A) Where the diameter of cable is not
important. 45. When crimping wires, the wire
B) High frequency interference. should.
C) Low frequency interference. A) be flush with the crimp.
Ans : Where the diameter of cable is not B) extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.
important. C) be beneath the crimp.
Expl : Cable is susceptible to all frequencies of Ans : extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.
interference. Co-axial cable is reasonably well Expl : NIL.
protected from all frequencies of interference
but is much thicker overall than airframe
cable. 46. 1EF6B22 NMSV. What does the B
mean?.
A) Segment letter.
42. Forward release electrical connectors B) Cable number.
are removed by the wire being. C) Circuit function.
A) pushed forwards. Ans : Segment letter.
B) twisted to the right. Expl : Leaflet 9-3 9.1.1.
C) pulled backwards.
Ans : pulled backwards.
Expl : Leaflet 9-3 8.32 II. 47. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool
would be used on a cable of what size?.
A) 10.
43. When crimping wires, the wires should B) 22.
be. C) 16.
A) straight. Ans : 16.
B) lightly twisted. Expl : NIL.
C) twisted.
Ans : lightly twisted.
Expl : Leaflet 9-3 7.5.5 ©. 48. The value of the insulation resistance of
an electric motor compared to its supply leads
is.
44. Why are copper wires used in electrical A) greater.
systems?. B) same.
A) They have high permeability. C) smaller.
B) They do not give off a magnetic field. Ans : smaller.
C) They have a low resistance to current. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.5.4 (c) 'Rated voltage / 150'
Ans : They have a low resistance to whereas supply leads must take the supply
current. voltage at least.
B) outside of the loom.
49. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' C) outer surface of the loom for easy
on a wiring number denotes. inspection.
A) a warning circuit. Ans : outer surface of the loom for easy
B) a ground circuit. inspection.
C) AC power. Expl : NIL.
Ans : AC power.
5th Edition page 79. 53. A conductor after being crimped. The
maximum amount of conductor which
protrudes from the terminal end should
50. When securing wire after it leaves an be
LRU, cable bundle bends should be not less A) 1/32 inch.
than?. B) 1/8 inch.
A) minimum radius of five times the outside C) 1/16 inch.
diameter of the cable, or cable bundle. Ans : 1/32 inch.
B) minimum radius of three times the outside Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Fig 1 (0.8 mm = 1/32
diameter of the cable, or cable bundle. in.).
C) minimum radius of eight times the outside
diameter of the cable, or cable bundle.
Ans : minimum radius of eight times the 54. Two or more operations should be
outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle. performed to strip wire with hand operated
Expl : CAAIP 9-3, 7.4 states 8 times the wire stripper if the total stripping length
diameter (not 3 times, because it is not at a exceeds.
terminal block). A) 0.50 in.
B) 0.75 inch.
C) 0.25 in.
51. When terminating an aluminium cable, Ans : 0.75 inch.
what preparations would be carried out before Expl : Leaflet 9-3 7.5.5 (d).
crimping?.
A) Degrease stripped cable.
B) Just terminate. 55. A cable loom should be protected by
C) Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and conduit when fed through the.
zinc oxide. A) main equipment centre.
Ans : Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly B) wheelwell door.
and zinc oxide. C) cargo compartment ceiling.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1 3.5.4. Ans : wheelwell door.
Expl : NIL.
52. An in-line splice should be positioned on

the. 56. The size of proper conduit for electrical
A) terminal of the loom. wires must be.
A) 75% larger than the maximum diameter of
wires. 2. The strength of a riveted joint compared
B) 25% larger than the maximum diameter of to that of the original metal is.
wires. A) 75%.
C) 100% larger than the average diameter of B) 100%.
wires. C) 125%.
Ans : 25% larger than the maximum diameter Ans : 75%.
of wires. Expl : NIL.
Expl : AC43 11-249.
3. A repair has a double riveted joint. The

57. Blue metal extract tool would be used shear strength would be.
with contacts sized. A) 125%.
A) 16. B) 75%.
B) 12. C) 100%.
C) 22. Ans : 75%.
Ans : 16. Expl : NIL.
Expl : NIL.
4. The standard minimum rivet row spacing

58. A Silver coated conductor in an is.
unpresurised area is subject to moisture and A) 2 1/4 D.
has a damaged coating would be likely to B) 3 D.
cause. C) 4 D.
A) Wet Arc Tracking. Ans : 4 D.
B) Knuckling Through. Expl : NIL.
C) Red Plague.
Ans : Red Plague.
Expl : NIL. 5. What is the normal spacing between
rivets?.
08. Riveting. A) 2 D.
B) 4 D.
C) 3 D.
1. When riveting, the distance from the Ans : 4 D.
edge to the rivet (land) should not be less Expl : NIL.
than.
A) 1D.
B) 2D. 6. In British rivets (solid) what is the length
C) 4D. grading unit?.
Ans : 2D. A) 1/16.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-53. B) 1/10.
C) 1/32.
Ans : 1/16.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-1, 4.2.
10. To replace one 1/8 inch rivet.
A) three 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
7. If the thickness of a single sheet of B) two 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
material, about to be joined by riveting was C) four 1/16 inch rivets would be required.
1/16 of an inch thick what would be the Ans : four 1/16 inch rivets would be
approximate diameter of the rivets to be required.
used?. Expl : CAIP BL/6-27 in the NOTE below para
A) 1/16 inch. 5.3.
B) 3/16 inch.
C) 1/8 inch.
Ans : 3/16 inch. 11. If treated rivets have not been used
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 3. within the prescribed time they can be re-
treated. What is the maximum number of times
that they can be heat-treated?.
8. Regarding riveting, which of the A) If no more in Stores, as many times as
following is correct?. required.
A) Both of the above are correct. B) Twice only.
B) The length of a countersunk rivet (flush C) Three times.
head) is measured from the end of the rivet to Ans : Three times.
the top of the countersunk head. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-27 Para 6-3.
C) The length of a round head or flat head is
measured from the end of the rivet to
underside of rivet head. 12. Rivets kept at a temperature of between
Ans : Both of the above are correct. –15°C and –20°C are usable for.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-36 A) 150 days.
and AC43 page 4.16. B) 150 minutes.
C) 150 hours.
Ans : 150 hours.
9. When riveting, a certain clearance must Expl : CAIP S BL/6-27 Para 6-2.
exist between the rivet and the hole in which it
is fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the
clearance is too large, what could be the 13. Avdel rivets are closed by.
result?. A) a broaching process.
A) Indentations by rivet head on the material. B) a tapered mandrel.
B) Separation of the sheets may occur. C) a squeezing process.
C) Sheet may tend to buckle. Ans : a broaching process.
Ans : Separation of the sheets may occur. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-28 Para 3.2 Fig 2.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 9.3.1 -Fig 4, Too
small a hole causes buckling, too large causes
separation.
14. What is the purpose of the Avdel pin Ans : a special countersinking bit with a pad to
tester?. prevent drilling too deep should be used.
A) To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet. Expl : NIL.
B) To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole.
C) To test the shear strength of the pin.
Ans : To test the tightness of the pin in the 18. The riveting defect in the figure shown
rivet. is.
Expl : Inspection after Installation of AVDEL
rivets. The security of the mandrel must be
tested.Use the AVDEL PIN TESTER (Part Number
79/95-0700) set to 35 Lbs. No movement of the
mandrel is permitted. Ref. SRM A300- A) too much hammering.
600.Chapter 51-40-21. B) the dolly was not square.
C) the snap was not square.
Ans : the snap was not square.
15. The stems of an Avdel rivet Expl : BL/6-29 Para 9-3-1 Fig 4.
are.
A) removed with the riveting tool.
B) nipped off and milled flush with the head.
C) removed with a taper punch.
Ans : nipped off and milled flush with the
head. 19. Rivet allowance is.
Expl : NIL. A) the distance the rivet is positioned from the
edge of the repair plate.
B) the amount of material required to form the
16. What is the pressure range for the Avdel rivet on installation.
Riveter Type F?. C) the distance between rivets in the same row.
A) 40 to 60 lbs per sq. in. Ans : the amount of material required to form
B) 20 to 60 lbs per sq. in. the rivet on installation.
C) 60 to 80 lbs per sq. in. Expl : BL/6-29 8.1.
Ans : 60 to 80 lbs per sq. in.
Expl : NIL.
20. What is the approximate distance of the
sphere of influence of a rivet?.
17. When countersinking rivet holes in a A) 4 D.
material. B) 2 D.
A) a special countersinking bit with a pad to C) 5 D.
prevent drilling too deep should be used. Ans : 5 D.
B) a plain countersinking bit should be used. Expl : NIL.
C) the rivet head should stand 1/32 of an inch
above the surface.
21. Rivet clearance is.
A) the distance between rivets in the same Expl : NIL.
row.
B) the amount that the rivet hole diameter
exceeds the rivet diameter. 25. The strength of a riveted joint is
C) the distance between rows of rivets. determined by.
Ans : the amount that the rivet hole diameter A) shear strength and pitch of rivet.
exceeds the rivet diameter. B) pitch and tensile strength of rivet.
Expl : BL/6-29 4.2. C) shear strength of rivet and material it is
made of.
Ans : shear strength and pitch of rivet.
22. The minimum rivet pitch is. Expl : BL/6-27 5.2 The shear strength of the
A) 2 1/2 * the rivet diameter. rivet is determined by the material it is made of.
B) 3 * the rivet diameter. All rivets are under shear.
C) 2 * the rivet diameter.
Ans : 3 * the rivet diameter.
Expl : A&P Airframe Textbook CH12-37 Fig 12- 26. If the bearing strength of a metal is
57. (BL/6-29 3.1 - staggered double row only). greater than the shear strength of the rivet,
what will occur?.
A) Rivet will joggle.
23. The riveting defect in the figure shown B) Rivet will show incorrectly installed.
is. C) Rivet will pull through the metal.
Ans : Rivet will joggle.
Expl : NIL.
09. Pipes and Hoses.

A) the snap was not square.
B) the hole was too small.
C) an incorrect snap has been used. 1. When carrying out a pressure test on a
Ans : the hole was too small. pipe it should be.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 9.3.1 Fig 4. AC43 21. A) twice the working pressure for two minutes.
B) 1.5 times the working pressure.
C) three times the working pressure for five
minutes.
Ans : 1.5 times the working pressure.
Expl : Leaflet 5-5 8.5.
24. The ‘grip’ of a rivet is.
A) the length of rivet left to form the head.
B) the thickness of plates which can be 2. When checking a hose after installation it
fastened. should be checked for freedom of
C) the area of the plates held firmly together. movement.
Ans : the thickness of plates which can be A) by flexing through the normal operating
fastened. range plus 15°.
B) by flexing through the normal operating C) after normalizing.
range only. Ans : as supplied.
C) by flexing +/-15° either side of the neutral Expl : BL/6-15.
position.
Ans : by flexing through the normal operating
range plus 15°. 7. To allow for shrinkage, vibration and
Expl : Leaflet 5-5 8.4.2. whip all straight hoses must be.
A) 5% longer than the distance between the
fittings.
3. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is B) 2% longer than the distance between the
found to be cracked. fittings.
A) it is unserviceable since it may have a C) 3% longer than the distance between the
restricted flow. fittings.
B) it may still be serviceable. Ans : 3% longer than the distance between the
C) it is unserviceable since it may leak. fittings.
Ans : it may still be serviceable. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 6.5.
8. A flexible hose that cannot be internally

4. A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It inspected by eye or introscope can be ball
should be carried out. tested by suspending from one end at a time to
A) after annealing. check.
B) after age hardening. A) a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed
C) as supplied. through with a metal rod.
Ans : as supplied. B) a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-15 3.3 and 4.4.4 (iii). freely under own weight.
C) ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes
freely under own weight.
5. Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe Ans : ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes
would mean it was. freely under own weight.
A) unserviceable and should be replaced. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 9.5.3 a.
B) not necessarily unserviceable.
C) only unserviceable if the corrosion
penetrates the braids. 9. Hoses are normally pressure tested
Ans : unserviceable and should be to.
replaced. A) maximum working pressure.
Expl : NIL. B) 2 times maximum working pressure.
C) 1½ times maximum working pressure.
Ans : 1½ times maximum working
6. Pipe flaring is carried out. pressure.
A) as supplied. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 8.5.
B) in the annealed state.
14. The international marking for an
10. A fluid line marker with a skull & instrument air pipe line is a.
crossbones is. A) series of dots.
A) fluid line carries toilet waste. B) zig zag line.
B) warning symbol. C) wavy band.
C) radioactive symbol. Ans : zig zag line.
Ans : warning symbol. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Page 10-13, A&P Technician General
Textbook Page 10-13. page 10-13 figure 10-28.
11. The international marking for a water 15. The maximum distance between end
injection pipeline is a series of. fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to
A) chevrons. be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose
B) squares. length should be.
C) dots. A) 51 inches.
Ans : chevrons. B) 51½ inches.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician C) 3 inches.
Textbook Page 10-13. Ans : 51½ inches.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 6.5.
12. The international marking for a fire

protection pipe line is a series of. 16. The length of a hose assembly with
A) circles. elbowed end fittings is taken from.
B) squares. A) the maximum length of the straight portion
C) diamonds. of hose.
Ans : diamonds. B) the centre of the bore at the nipple
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician extremity.
Textbook Page 10-13. C) the extreme overall length.
Ans : the centre of the bore at the nipple
extremity.
13. To prevent corrosion where aluminium Expl : CAIP S AL/ 3-13 Para 2-3.
alloy pipelines are supported by rubber cleats,
the pipe should be treated over the area of
contact with. 17. The international marking for a
A) french chalk. breathing oxygen pipe line is a series
B) varnish. of.
C) petroleum jelly. A) dots.
Ans : varnish. B) diamonds.
Expl : NIL. C) rectangles.
Ans : rectangles.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Technician Expl : BL/6-15 6.2.
Textbook Page 10-13.
22. Identify the parts required to make up a

18. The resistance between a flexible hose flared-tube fitting?.
and a component should not exceed. A) Sleeve and nut.
A) 1 ohm. B) Ferrule and nut.
B) 0.5 ohm. C) Body, sleeve and nut.
C) 0.05 ohm. Ans : Sleeve and nut.
Ans : 0.05 ohm. Expl : BL/6-15 6.2.2. A&P Mechanic General
Expl : Leaflet 5-5 9.5.5. Handbook Pg.103.
19. Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried 23. The flare angle on an AGS pipe
out using a suitable ball or bobbin of. is.
A) 90% of the diameter of the end fittings. A) 90 degrees.
B) 85% of the diameter of the end fittings. B) 45 degrees.
C) 25% of the diameter of the end fittings. C) 32 degrees.
Ans : 90% of the diameter of the end Ans : 32 degrees.
fittings. Expl : BL/6-15 6.1.
Expl : Leaflet 5-5 9.5.3 (a) (ii).
24. Repair to aluminium pipe can be done

20. The 'Lay Line' on a flexible hose using burnishing.
is. A) if damage is surface only.
A) an arrow painted on the hose to show the B) if damage is no more than 5%.
direction of fluid flow. C) if damage is no more than 10%.
B) a white line painted the full length of the Ans : if damage is no more than 10%.
hose to indicate any twist in the hose. Expl : AC43 Pg.9-18 Para.9.30 c.
C) a white line painted the full length of the
hose to indicate any stretch in the hose.
Ans : a white line painted the full length of the 25. Rigid pipes are designed with bends
hose to indicate any twist in the hose. to.
Expl : AL/3-13 4.2 figure 4. A) allow for expansion and contraction due to
heat and absorb vibration.
B) absorb vibration.
21. Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics C) fit to the aircraft structure.
systems is flared. Ans : allow for expansion and contraction due
A) normalized. to heat and absorb vibration.
B) as supplied. Expl : Answer b is just too obvious.
C) annealed.
Ans : as supplied.
26. You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of Expl : EL/3-2 para 4.4 and Aircraft
74°. What specification has it been Reciprocating Engines, Jeppesen. Page 88.
manufactured to?.
A) A.G.S.
B) A.N. 3. Material used for springs is.
C) S.A.E. A) High carbon or alloy steel with low working
Ans : A.N. stresses.
Expl : BL/6-15 6.1. B) Low carbon steel or alloy steel with high
working stresses.
C) Low carbon steel or alloy steel with low
27. Bonding connections between flexible working stresses.
and rigid pipes are achieved by. Ans : High carbon or alloy steel with low
A) ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes. working stresses.
B) using a corrugated strip. Expl : Springs are made from hardened (high
C) tucking the bonding leads between the carbon) or alloy steel, and work under low
flexible and rigid pipes. stress to keep them within the elastic range.
Ans : using a corrugated strip.
Expl : CAAIP S 9-1, 3.6.1. 11. Bearings.
10. Springs.
1. Needle roller bearings.
A) are susceptible to brinelling.
1. Springs are manufactured B) can accept a small amount of misalignment.
from. C) are designed to carry axial loads.
A) high carbon alloy steel with high strength Ans : are susceptible to brinelling.
requirements. Expl : CAIP BL/6-14 para 2.3.1 ii.
B) low carbon alloy steel with high strength
requirements.
C) high carbon alloy steel with low strength 2. When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a
requirements. regular click indicates.
Ans : high carbon alloy steel with high strength A) damage to the balls.
requirements. B) intergranular corrosion in the outer ring.
Expl : Springs are made from high carbon steel C) a cracked ring.
with high strength requirements. Ans : a cracked ring.
Expl : NIL.
2. A wear check on a cylinder head valve

spring should include. 3. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be
A) length under load. caused by.
B) diameter and length. A) rotation of the outer race in the wheel
C) length off-load. housing.
Ans : length under load. B) heavy landing.
C) overheating of the brakes. Expl : CAIP BL/6-14 5.4.
Ans : heavy landing.
Expl : NIL.
8. Graphite prevents seizure and conducts
heat. It is normally used in.
4. Brinelling of a bearing is. A) lithium based greases.
A) bluing of the bearing due to overheating. B) sodium based greases.
B) shallow smooth depressions caused by the C) copper based greases.
rollers being forced against the cup, due to Ans : sodium based greases.
overtorquing. Expl : Graphite is added to sodium based
C) indentations in the race surface caused by greases.
continual static vibration.
Ans : shallow smooth depressions caused by
the rollers being forced against the cup, due to 9. False Brinelling of a bearing
overtorquing. is.
Expl : NIL. A) movement of the outer ring relative to its
housing.
B) indentations on the race-way due to load
5. A tapered roller bearing is designed to transferred through the bearing when
take. static.
A) radial loads only. C) a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball
B) both radial and axial loads. or roller skidding.
C) axial loads only. Ans : indentations on the race-way due to load
Ans : both radial and axial loads. transferred through the bearing when
Expl : NIL. static.
Expl : NIL.
6. Small indentations in the race of a ball

bearing indicate. 10. On completion of assembly the bearing
A) overtorquing. housing.
B) corrosion. A) should be examined for end float.
C) brinelling. B) packed fully with grease.
Ans : brinelling. C) lightly packed with grease.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 1-46. Ans : lightly packed with grease.
Expl : NIL.
7. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it

should be carefully positioned using. 11. When checking a ball bearing for
A) a steel drift with light blows. corrosion and foreign matter.
B) a copper or aluminium tube drift. A) rotate at operational speed and check for
C) a soft steel or brass tube drift. roughness.
Ans : a soft steel or brass tube drift. B) make a strip down inspection.
C) oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for Ans : thrust loads, thus limiting axial
roughness. movement.
Ans : oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for Expl : BL/6-14 2.2.3 and 3.1.
roughness.
Expl : NIL.
16. Chipping of a ball bearing
indicates.
12. What type of load is a journal A) brinelling.
load?. B) chattering.
A) Radial. C) spalling.
B) Axial. Ans : spalling.
C) Centrifugal. Expl : NIL.
Ans : Radial.
Expl : NIL.
17. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of
bearings?.
13. Bearings to be cleaned for further A) Ball Bearings.
examination should be wiped free of all grease B) Needle bearings.
on outer surfaces with the aid of dry C) Plain bearings.
compressed air for cages and rolling parts. The Ans : Needle bearings.
bearings should then be soaked in. Expl : BL/6-14 2.3.1 (ii).
A) M.E.K.
B) lead free gasoline.
C) white spirit. 18. Graphite greases are used for.
Ans : white spirit. A) medium temperature applications.
Expl : CAIPa BL/6-14 8.1. B) high temperature applications.
C) low temperature applications.
Ans : high temperature applications.
14. After cleaning a bearing should be dried Expl : Graphite greases are used in high
with. temperature applications.
A) left in free air to dry naturally.
B) clean, warm, dry compressed air.
C) lint free rags. 19. If during an engine overhaul, ball or
Ans : clean, warm, dry compressed air. roller bearings are found to have magnetised
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician but otherwise have no defects, they.
Textbook Page 9-8. A) are in an acceptable service condition.
B) must be degaussed before use.
C) cannot be used again.
15. Thrust bearings transmit. Ans : must be degaussed before use.
A) thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement. Expl : Leaflet 4-7 4.9.
B) radial loads, thus limiting axial movement.
C) thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement.
20. Ball and roller bearings are made from a Ans : the outer ring can be removed from its
combination of low carbon steel and a housing for inspection.
percentage of. Expl : NIL.
A) Chromium.
B) Nickel. 12. Transmissions.
C) Nickel chrome.
Ans : Nickel.
Expl : Outer rings are made from high carbon 1. A chain removed for routine inspection,
chromium alloy steel. Inner rings are made from it.
low carbon nickel alloy steel and deep case A) does not need proof loading.
carborized. B) must be proof loaded to 50%.
C) must be proof loaded to 150%.
Ans : does not need proof loading.
21. On inspection a bearing is found to have Expl : Leaflet 5-4 6.6.
distortion, what action should be taken?.
A) Reject bearing.
B) No action required. Some distortion is 2. An aircraft control chain is connected
normal. using.
C) Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing. A) nuts and bolts.
Ans : Reject bearing. B) quick release pins.
Expl : NIL. C) a split link and spring clip.
Ans : nuts and bolts.
22. On inspection a bearing is found to show
signs of overheating, what action should be
taken?. 3. If a control chain can be lifted clear of a
A) Reject bearing. tooth, it should be.
B) No action required. Some overheating is A) rejected as unserviceable.
normal. B) removed and an elongation check carried
C) clean up bearing and repack with grease. out.
Ans : Reject bearing. C) cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a
Expl : NIL. period of time.
Ans : removed and an elongation check carried
out.
23. When a bearing has 2 parts and the Expl : Leaflet 5-4 5.3.
inner ring and outer ring is installed.
A) neither of the practices are allowed.
B) the inner ring can be removed from its inner 4. To check a chain for
shaft for cleaning. articulation.
C) the outer ring can be removed from its A) it should be run over the finger through 180°
housing for inspection. and checked for smoothness and kinks.
B) move each link individually and check for Expl : NIL.
tightness.
C) lay on a flat surface and check for kinks.
Ans : it should be run over the finger through 8. Backlash is a type of wear associated
180° and checked for smoothness and with.
kinks. A) gears.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-27. B) rivets.
C) bearings.
Ans : gears.
5. How do you remove a tight link from a Expl : NIL.
chain which is to be used on an aircraft control
system?.
A) Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble 9. After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin
the chain. it should be.
B) If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to A) hung up to drip dry.
be removed from service. B) dried in hot air.
C) You may be able to remove the tight link by C) washed in soapy water then hung to drip
applying a light tap with a hammer. dry.
Ans : You may be able to remove the tight link Ans : dried in hot air.
by applying a light tap with a hammer. Expl : AL/3-2 6.3.1 a.
10. What fraction of the minimum breaking

6. The initial lubricant on a new load should be the proof load for a
chain. chain?.
A) must be replaced with grade altitude A) 0.1.
grease. B) 1/3.
B) should be removed and replaced with the C) 0.1%.
approved oil. Ans : 1/3.
C) should not be removed. Expl : Leaflet 5-4 3.3. AL/3-2 Para 6-6.
Ans : should not be removed.
11. If corrosion is found on a
chain.
7. Control chains should be fitted in an A) replace the chain.
aircraft. B) clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-
A) with the minimum of slack in the chain. fit the chain.
B) so that the chain can be removed easily. C) lubricate the chain.
C) with as much slack as possible to allow for Ans : replace the chain.
contraction. Expl : Leaflet 5-4 5.4. AL/3-2 Para 5-4.
Ans : with the minimum of slack in the
chain.
12. The three principle dimensions specified
for a chain is the diameter of the rollers
and. 16. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft
A) pitch and chain length. and permits.
B) the pitch and width between the inner A) a positive drive with the gear firmly locked.
plates. B) a positive and strong drive transmission.
C) the pitch and width across the outside of the C) a positive drive and axial movement.
plates. Ans : a positive drive and axial movement.
Ans : the pitch and width between the inner Expl : A feather key allows axial movement.
plates.
Expl : Leaflet 5-4 Para.3.1. AL/3-2 3.1.
17. A chain is removed by.
A) nuts and bolts.
13. The distance between the centres of the B) spring clips.
rollers of a chain is called. C) removing chain links on an endless chain.
A) pitch. Ans : nuts and bolts.
B) crest. Expl : Leaflet 5-4 3.4 & 6.
C) length.
Ans : pitch.
Expl : Leaflet 5-4 3.3. AL/3-2 3.1. 18. The box unit in a Teleflex control run
which is not suitable for heavily loaded controls
is called.
14. Which of the following formulas should A) Double entry.
be used to calculate the percentage extension B) Single entry.
of an aircraft control chain? Note: M = C) Straight lead.
Measured length under load in inches X = Ans : Straight lead.
Number of pitches measured P = Pitch of chain Expl : Both single and double entry boxes are
in inches. wrapped lead. External website.
A) M + (X * X) * 100 / P * M. http://saywell.co.uk/pages/morseCon.htm
B) X-(M * P) * 100 / M * P.
C) M-(X * P) * 100 / X * P.
Ans : M-(X * P) * 100 / X * P. 19. How do you check a chain for
Expl : AL/3-2 6.3.1 ©. elongation?.
A) Hang chain up, check sight line and
measure.
15. The maximum allowable extension of a B) Adjust the end fittings.
chain assembly over a nominal length is. C) Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and
A) 3%. measure.
B) 5%. Ans : Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and
C) 2%. measure.
Ans : 2%. Expl : Leaflet 5-4 6.3.2. AL/3-2 Para 6.3.2.
Expl : Leaflet 5-4 6.3.2. AL/3-2 Para 6.3.2.
13. Control Cables. 5. What is the purpose of an aileron
balance cable?.
A) Allows for hands off flying.
1. Proof testing after cable installation B) Equalizes control cable tension.
is. C) Relieves pilot loads.
A) sometimes required. Ans : Equalizes control cable tension.
B) not required. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 1-27.
C) always required.
Ans : not required.
Expl : NIL. 6. How would you inspect a cable for
fraying?.
A) Run your fingers the full length of the cable.
2. A control cable that has been B) Operate the controls and feel for stiffness.
contaminated with acid should be. C) Run a rag the full length of the cable.
A) cleaned. Ans : Run a rag the full length of the
B) rejected. cable.
C) cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 1-43.
period of time.
Ans : rejected.
Expl : NIL. 7. When manufacturing aircraft control
cables, the cable can be cut by.
A) using a hacksaw with the cable under
3. A balance cable is installed in a control tension.
system to. B) using an oxy-acetylene torch.
A) allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off'. C) using a chisel on a flat metal surface.
B) correct for wing heaviness. Ans : using a chisel on a flat metal surface.
C) enable the cable to be tensioned. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-12 3.6.
Ans : enable the cable to be tensioned.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-27.
8. The check for a cable pulling out of a
swaged fitting is by.
4. How would you use a Pacific T5 A) seeing that the cable is still past the safety
tensiometer?. holes in the swage.
A) Use correct chart and correct riser. B) looking for a shiny surface on the cable near
B) Use a standard riser and use the chart to the fitting.
correct for different sized cables. C) seeing that there are no broken wires near
C) Use a load meter to apply the correct load. the fitting.
Ans : Use correct chart and correct riser. Ans : looking for a shiny surface on the cable
Expl : NIL. near the fitting.
Expl : NIL.
9. A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in C) if a chemical spillage is suspected.
storage should have a minimum diameter Ans : if a chemical spillage is suspected.
of. Expl : NIL.
A) at least 25 times that of the cable diameter.
B) at least 50 times that of the cable.
C) at least 40 times that of the cable diameter. 13. What is the proof loading for cables after
Ans : at least 40 times that of the cable swaging?.
diameter. A) 1/3 minimum breaking strain.
Expl : Leaflet 2-12 page 2 para 3.1. B) 2/3 minimum breaking strain.
C) 50% minimum breaking strain.
Ans : 50% minimum breaking strain.
10. Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-12 8.1.
have tension loads that can break the locking
wire or lease lock nuts. How is this
overcome?. 14. The best way to check control cables for
A) The cable is kept slightly slack. broken wires is to.
B) Duplicating the number of cables to cut A) run a rag along the cable in both directions.
down on individual tensile loads. B) examine them visually.
C) A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly C) increase the tension and check with a
and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to prevent magnifying glass.
independent rotation of any part. Ans : run a rag along the cable in both
Ans : A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle directions.
assembly and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to Expl : AC43 7-149 (d).
prevent independent rotation of any part.
Expl : CAIP S AL/3-7 Para. 9.5.8.
15. If the turnbuckles in a control system are
tightened excessively the result will be.
11. To correctly tension cables it can A) the cable will break.
help. B) the cables will vibrate excessively and cause
A) to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every failure of controls.
eight feet. C) the aircraft will be heavy on controls.
B) to take up initial slack by additional pulleys. Ans : the aircraft will be heavy on controls.
C) to have control surface locks in to support Expl : AC43 7-149 (j).
weight and adjust turnbuckles equally.
Ans : to have control surface locks in to
support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. 16. A control cable is proof loaded to ensure
Expl : NIL. that.
A) the end fittings on the cable are secure.
B) it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft.
12. A cable is replaced. C) it will not break after fitting in an aircraft.
A) when a shiny portion is found. Ans : the end fittings on the cable are
B) when each strand is worn to limits. secure.
Expl : Leaflet 2-12 8. Ans : To ensure the cable end passes the
inspection hole on drilled through type fittings
but leaves the locking wire hole clear.
17. British turnbuckles are checked for Expl : Leaflet 2-12 5.2 (d). CAIP S BL/6-24 5.2
safety by. (d).
A) looking through the hole and checking for
threads showing.
B) attempting to pass a hardened pin probe 21. The inspection hole in a turnbuckle
through the inspection hole. is.
C) attempting to push locking wire through the A) to allow the locking wire to pass through for
hole. the purpose of locking.
Ans : attempting to pass a hardened pin probe B) to ensure that the locknuts are adequately
through the inspection hole. tightened.
Expl : AL/3-7 9.5.7. C) to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety.
Ans : to ensure that the turnbuckle is in
safety.
18. A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, Expl : Leaflet 2-12 9.5.7. CAIP S AL/3-7 9.5.7.
you should.
A) clean, inspect and refit immediately.
B) replace the cable. 22. Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked
C) clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later. by.
Ans : replace the cable. A) measuring the length of the barrel before
Expl : NIL. and after swaging.
B) using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel.
C) looking for cracks on the swage indicating
19. HTS aircraft control cables are protected poor swaging.
from corrosion by. Ans : using a go / no-go gauge on the
A) Galvanising. barrel.
B) cadmium coating. Expl : Leaflet 2-12 5.3 (b) Jeppesen A&P
C) zinc plating. Airframe Technician Textbook 1-43.
Ans : Galvanising.
23. A flight control cable is replaced
if.
20. What is the purpose of the hole in the A) single wires are blended together.
swaged end fitting on a swaged cable?. B) a wire is 20% worn.
A) To ensure the cable end passes the C) the protective fluid coating is missing.
inspection hole on drilled through type fittings Ans : single wires are blended together.
but leaves the locking wire hole clear. Expl : AC43 7-149 g.
B) To allow trapped air to escape.
C) To allow a split pin to be inserted.
24. In aircraft control cables, when a lock is 2. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns
fitted to the control surface. black. This would indicate the metal is.
A) it will prevent the control surface movement A) magnesium alloy.
but not the control column movement. B) duralumin.
B) it will prevent the control surface and the C) aluminium.
control column movement. Ans : duralumin.
C) it will not prevent the control surface Expl : NIL.
movement but will lock the control column.
Ans : it will prevent the control surface and the
control column movement. 3. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of
Expl : NIL. metal requires.
A) polishing.
B) blending.
25. When checking cable tensions you are C) burnishing.
looking for. Ans : burnishing.
A) free movement only. Expl : A&P Mechanics Airframe Textbook Page
B) full and free movement. 130.
C) artificial feel.
Ans : full and free movement.
Expl : NIL. 4. When dimpling a sheet of metal you
would require.
A) an oversized rivet and special reaction block.
26. A cable should be replaced when B) a male and female die.
individual wires are worn greater than. C) a male die only.
A) 40%. Ans : a male and female die.
B) 60%. Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-59.
C) 20%.
Ans : 40%.
Expl : AC43 Para 7-149 g. 5. The skin on an aircraft is normally
manufactured from.
14.1. Material Handling - Sheet metal. A) 2024 aluminium alloy.
B) 7075 aluminium alloy.
C) 2117 aluminium alloy.
1. The purpose of a joggle is. Ans : 2024 aluminium alloy.
A) to act as a tear stopper. Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-7.
B) to make the holes for a rivet line up.
C) to produce a flush fit at a metal joint.
Ans : to produce a flush fit at a metal joint. 6. The mold point is.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-8. A) the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of
metal to which the radius dimension is
calculated.
B) the centre of curvature of a radiused corner
in a metal fabricated component. 10. In sheet metal bending, how would you
C) an imaginary point from which real base measure the bend radius to calculate the bend
measurements are provided. allowance?.
Ans : an imaginary point from which real base A) Measure to the inside of the bend radius.
measurements are provided. B) Measure to the outside of the bend radius.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-71. C) Measure to the inside of the bend radius
plus half the metal thickness.
Ans : Measure to the inside of the bend
7. Relief holes are. radius.
A) holes drilled in a battery container to Expl : Jeppesen A & P Tecnician Airframe
provide drainage. Textbook pg 2-70.
B) holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to
prevent cracking.
C) holes drilled to stop a crack. 11. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze
Ans : holes drilled in the corner of a metal box dimpling tool.
to prevent cracking. A) the jaws are not adjustable.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-77. B) adjust the jaws to accommodate different
material gauges.
C) use a lubricant.
8. The 'setback' is. Ans : adjust the jaws to accommodate
A) the distance from the edge of the metal to different material gauges.
the bend tangent line. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-59.
B) the distance from the mold point to the
bend tangent line.
C) the distance from the bend tangent line to 12. Bend radius on sheet metal
the setback line. is.
Ans : the distance from the mold point to the A) inside radius + ½ thickness.
bend tangent line. B) inside radius.
Expl : A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-71. C) outside radius.
Ans : inside radius.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 2-70.
9. Faying surfaces are.
A) surfaces that are in contact with each
other. 13. Aircraft skin is joggled to.
B) surfaces that are stressed. A) Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces.
C) surfaces that have been treated with anti- B) Make a frame lighter but stronger.
corrosion compound. C) Conform with the 'Area Rule'.
Ans : surfaces that are in contact with each Ans : Provide smooth airflow at faying
other. surfaces.
Expl : NIL. Expl : Jeppesen A & P Tecnician Airframe
Textbook pg 2-82.
Ans : one radius from the bend tangent line
that is placed under the brake.
14. DZinc Chromate applied between faying Expl : A&P Airframe Textbook 5-60 Pg 232 Fig
surfaces will. 5-118.
A) improve adhesion thus relieving the amount
of riveting necessary.
B) improve bonding between them. 18. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium
C) inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) alloy it will.
corrosion. A) effervesce to a copper colour.
Ans : inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) B) have no effect.
corrosion. C) effervesce to a black colour.
Expl : NIL. Ans : effervesce to a black colour.
Expl : NIL.
15. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by

chemical test turns black when caustic soda is 19. If it is necessary to compute a bend
applied to the surface, the metal is. allowance problem and bend allowance tables
A) duralumin. are not available, the neutral axis of the bend
B) alclad. can be.
C) aluminium. A) found by adding approximately one-half of
Ans : duralumin. the stock thickness to the bend radius.
Expl : NIL. B) found by subtracting the stock thickness
from the bend radius.
C) represented by the actual length of the
16. To aid marking out on Fe metals required material for the bend.
use. Ans : found by adding approximately one-half
A) graphite grease. of the stock thickness to the bend radius.
B) copper sulphate solution. Expl : Jeppesen A & P Technician Airframe pg
C) engineer's blue. 2-73 fig 2-131.
Ans : copper sulphate solution.
Expl : Fe means Ferrous. Copper sulphate
solution should be used. 20. The formula for setback for a 90° bend
is.
A) (½R + T).
17. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout B) (R + T).
to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured C) (R + ½T).
and marked. Ans : (R + T).
A) one-half radius from either bend tangent Expl : A&P Airframe Textbook 5-55 Pg 227 Fig
line. 5-112.
B) one radius from the bend tangent line that is
placed under the brake.
C) one radius from either bend tangent line.
21. Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad 25. When a piece of metal is bent, the
will turn. surface of the metal on the outside of the bend
A) white – black – white. is.
B) all white. A) in compression.
C) black – white – black. B) neither in tension or in compression.
Ans : white – black – white. C) in tension.
Expl : NIL. Ans : in tension.
Expl : NIL.
22. In marking a light alloy.

A) the scriber must be held at an angle to give a 26. The sight line of a bend is.
smooth line where bending is required. A) at the tangent line.
B) caustic soda is used. B) half a radius from the tangent line.
C) a pencil is used to mark the material and all C) one radius from the tangent line.
marks removed after bending. Ans : one radius from the tangent line.
Ans : a pencil is used to mark the material and Expl : NIL.
all marks removed after bending.
Expl : BL/6-29 4.1A&P General Textbook 9-33
Pg 32. 27. The sharpest bend that can be placed in
a piece of metal without critically weakening
the part is called the.
23. When assembling metals of different A) maximum radius of bend.
potential, corrosion may be inhibited by B) minimum radius of bend.
application of. C) bend allowance.
A) zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet. Ans : minimum radius of bend.
B) zinc or barium chromate & assemble while Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
wet. Textbook Page 2-70.
C) nothing - assemble bare.
Ans : zinc or barium chromate & assemble
while wet. 28. Scribers are used to.
Expl : BL/4-2 4.4.6. A) produce an accurate finish.
B) make centre pop marks for drilling.
C) mark guide lines on material.
24. Steel wire brushes or steel wool Ans : mark guide lines on material.
should. Expl : NIL.
A) be used to clean magnesium alloys.
B) be used to clean aluminium sheet.
C) never be used on light alloys. 29. A hole drilled at the intersection of two
Ans : never be used on light alloys. bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is
Expl : NIL. called.
A) a drain hole.
B) a crack stopper.
C) a relief hole. B) to permanently soften the metal to retard
Ans : a relief hole. the onset of fatigue.
Expl : BL/6-14 2.2.3 and 3.1. C) to increase the rate of artificial ageing.
Ans : to suspend natural ageing for a limited
period.
30. Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding Expl : BL/9-1 9. BL/6-27 6.2.
gives.
A) high strength and ductility.
B) high strength and stiffness. 34. Diffusion bonding and superplastic
C) high strength and brittleness. forming provides.
Ans : high strength and stiffness. A) high strength and high ductility.
Expl : NIL. B) high strength and high stiffness.
C) high stiffness and high ductility.
Ans : high stiffness and high ductility.
31. Marking out on stainless steel can be Expl : NIL.
clarified by application of.
A) ammonia. 14.2. Material Handling - Composite and non-
B) copper sulphate. metallic.
C) sal ammoniac.
Ans : copper sulphate.
Expl : Copper sulphate is used to aid marking 1. In a composite repair lay-up, how much
out of steel. should each layer extend beyond the layer
below it?.
A) 2 - 3 inches.
32. When drawing lines on aluminium alloy B) 1 - 2 inches.
sheet prior to bending. C) 3 - 4 inches.
A) a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should Ans : 1 - 2 inches.
be used, ready for pencil lines. Expl : AC43 Page 3-5.
B) a scriber should be used.
C) a wax pencil should be used.
Ans : a thin coat of zinc chromate primer 2. To enable a composite panel to dissipate
should be used, ready for pencil lines. static charge it would be sprayed with.
Expl : CAIP BL/6-29 4.1. A) polyurethane paint.
B) ferrous paint.
C) aluminium paint.
33. After solution treatment of aluminium Ans : aluminium paint.
alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at a Expl : NIL.
temperature with the range -15°C to -20°C
is.
A) to suspend natural ageing for a limited 3. A mechanic has completed a bonded
period. honeycomb repair using the potted compound
repair technique. What non-destructive testing
method is used to determine the soundness of
the repair after the repair has cured?. 7. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we
A) Eddy current test. use.
B) Metallic ring test. A) alkaline etch.
C) Ultrasonic test. B) acid etch.
Ans : Metallic ring test. C) solvent wipe.
Expl : NIL. Ans : acid etch.
Expl : Phosphoric acid and chromic acid wash.
4. A non-destructive testing technique

which is suitable for inspecting for delamination 8. Glass reinforced panels are bonded
in Redux bonded structure of light aluminium by.
alloys is. A) special conductive paint.
A) ultrasonic. B) wire mesh.
B) eddy-current. C) bonding strips to conductors.
C) magnetic flow. Ans : special conductive paint.
Ans : ultrasonic. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 para.3.4.4.
Expl : NIL.
9. What solvents could you use to clean

5. Why is an extra layer of fibreglass added tools used for fibreglass repairs?.
to a composite repair?. A) Trichloroethylene or acetone.
A) To provide additional flexibility. B) Lead free petrol/kerosene.
B) For sacrificial sanding. C) acetone or MEK.
C) To increase the strength of the repair. Ans : acetone or MEK.
Ans : To increase the strength of the repair. Expl : CAIP S AL/7-6 6.6.
Expl : AC43 3-3(3) page 3-5.
10. Chopped strand mat is a good general

6. How do you reduce or remove purpose mat because.
electrostatic charges which may build up on A) it has short fibres.
fibreglass surfaces?. B) it gives equal properties in all directions.
A) No special treatment is necessary because C) it is a stiffer than woven cloth.
fibre glass is an insulator. Ans : it gives equal properties in all
B) The surface is treated with a special directions.
conductive paint. Expl : NIL.
C) The surface is impregnated with copper
strips. 15a. Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding.
Ans : The surface is treated with a special
conductive paint.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4. 1. Before soldering stainless steel it must
be.
A) pickled.
B) cleaned with emery cloth.
C) sand papered. 6. Plumbers solder is grade.
Ans : pickled. A) C.
Expl : BL/6-1 5.3. B) D.
C) B.
Ans : D.
2. Insufficient heat used in soldering will Expl : NIL.BL/6-1 4.1 table 2.
cause.
A) the joint to oxidize.
B) a high resistance joint potential. 7. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver
C) contamination of the joint. soldering operations?.
Ans : a high resistance joint potential. A) To increase heat conductivity.
Expl : NIL. B) To prevent overheating of the base metal.
C) To chemically clean the base metal of oxide
film.
3. A dry joint when soldering is caused Ans : To chemically clean the base metal of
by. oxide film.
A) too large an iron. Expl : BL/ 6-2 Para 5-2.
B) too much flux.
C) too little heat.
Ans : too little heat. 8. When making a small soldered electrical
Expl : NIL. connection, using flux-cored solder.
A) the connection should be heated first and
then solder applied.
4. The oxyacetylene flame for silver B) the soldering iron and solder should be
soldering should be. applied simultaneously to the connection.
A) oxidizing. C) the soldering iron should be loaded with
B) carbonising. solder and then applied to the connection.
C) neutral. Ans : the soldering iron and solder should be
Ans : neutral. applied simultaneously to the connection.
Expl : BL/6-2 12.2.4 (Silver soldering is also Expl : NIL.
known as low temperature brazing).
9. The type of flux to be used when soft

5. A flux is used in soldering to. soldering on aircraft is.
A) to dissolve oxides. A) active.
B) etch the metals surface for more B) non-active.
adhesion. C) either active or non-active.
C) to prevent solder spikes. Ans : non-active.
Ans : to dissolve oxides. Expl : BL/6-1 4.2.8.
Expl : NIL.BL/6-1 4.2.
Ans : some dissimilar metals.
10. The operational temperature of Expl : NIL.
soldering irons is.
A) fjust above the melting point of solder.
B) below the melting point of the base metal. 15. A flux is used in soldering to.
C) 60°C above the melting point of solder. A) dissolve oxides.
Ans : 60°C above the melting point of B) prevent solder spikes.
solder. C) etch the metal surface for more adhesion.
Expl : NIL. Ans : dissolve oxides.
Expl : NIL.
11. What elements is solder made

from?. 16. On completion of soldering a non-
A) Tin, lead and copper. activated flux.
B) Tin and lead only. A) must be cleaned off with an acid solution.
C) Tin, lead and silver. B) need not be cleaned off.
Ans : Tin and lead only. C) must be cleaned off with a selected solvent.
Expl : BL/6-1. Ans : must be cleaned off with a selected
solvent.
Expl : CAIP BL/6-1 para 4.2.3.
12. General purpose solders are graded
by.
A) a colour coding. 17. A dry joint in soldering is most likely to
B) a letter coding. be caused by.
C) a numerical coding. A) flux not used.
Ans : a letter coding. B) components not hot enough.
Expl : BL/6-1 table 2. C) wrong solder used.
Ans : components not hot enough.
Expl : All are possibly correct, but the iron not
13. What solder should be used to solder being hot enough is sure to produce a dry joint.
aluminium?.
A) D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder.
B) 90% tin and 10% zinc. 18. What action is taken when soldering flux
C) wire flux cored solder. residue may have lodged in deep crevices of an
Ans : wire flux cored solder. assembly?.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-1, 14. A) It must be immersed in a weak solution of
hydrochloric acid and rinsed thoroughly in
running water.
14. Solder can be used to join. B) It must be immersed in a weak solution of
A) some dissimilar metals. phosphoric acid and rinsed in water.
B) only copper based metals.
C) similar metals only.
C) It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak
solution of sulphuric acid and washed in cold 22. A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be
water. used effectively until after the working face has
Ans : It must be immersed in a weak solution been.
of hydrochloric acid and rinsed thoroughly in A) fluxed.
running water. B) polished.
Expl : BL/6-1 8.6. C) tinned.
Ans : tinned.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-1, 6.1.1.
19. A phosphate based flux paste is for
soldering.
A) aluminium. 23. High temperature solder is used where
B) brass. the operating temperature is high. It is an alloy
C) stainless steel. of.
Ans : stainless steel. A) lead / copper / antimony.
Expl : BL/6-1 4.2.5. B) tin / zinc / antimony / silver.
C) tin / lead / antimony / silver.
Ans : tin / lead / antimony / silver.
20. The soldering method where molten Expl : CAIP S BL/6-1, 4.1.2.
solder is pumped from the bottom of a bath
through a slot so that a stationary wave of
solder appears on the surface is known as 24. Soft solder is suited for joints, which
the. are.
A) rotary bath method. A) subjected to fatigue.
B) stationary wave method. B) subjected to strong forces.
C) standing wave bath method. C) subjected to small forces.
Ans : standing wave bath method. Ans : subjected to small forces.
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-1, 9.2. Expl : AC43 page 4061 para 4. BL/6-1.
21. Solders are available in two 25. Silver solder melts within the
forms:. range.
A) stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a A) 400°C - 550°C.
wire form having a rosin core. B) 200°C - 400°C.
B) Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux C) 600°C - 850°C.
and stick solder needing no flux at all. Ans : 600°C - 850°C.
C) stick solder needing a separate flux and Expl : BL/6-2, Para 1.1.
solder in wire form having a rosin core.
Ans : stick solder needing a separate flux and
solder in wire form having a rosin core. 26. The term 'dry joint' is usually applied
Expl : BL/6-1 4.1. to.
A) a metal being lightly heated.
B) a defect associated with a soldered joint.
C) a water tight joint.
Ans : a defect associated with a soldered 2. The shielding gases generally used in the
joint. Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium
Expl : NIL. consist of.
A) nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of
nitrogen and hydrogen.
27. Silver soldering is suited for. B) a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.
A) electronic component soldering. C) helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and
B) high temperature applications. argon.
C) general soldering work. Ans : helium or argon, or a mixture of helium
Ans : high temperature applications. and argon.
Expl : BL/6-1 Para.4.1.2. Expl : NIL.
28. Silver solder is made from. 3. Which items listed below is the most
A) tin, copper and zinc. important consideration when selecting a
B) copper, tin and silver. welding rod?.
C) copper, zinc and silver. A) Thickness of the metal to be welded only.
Ans : copper, zinc and silver. B) Type of torch.
Expl : Workshop Technology WAJ Chapman C) Type and thickness of the metal to be
Page 105. welded.
Ans : Type and thickness of the metal to be
welded.
29. The materials most commonly soldered Expl : BL/6-4 2 & 4.1.
in soft soldering are.
A) brass and mild steel.
B) stainless steel and titanium. 4. What is a good weld?.
C) aluminium and magnesium. A) Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the
Ans : brass and mild steel. weld.
Expl : NIL. B) An oxide coating on the base metals.
C) Sides sloping to the base metals.
15b. Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding. Ans : Sides sloping to the base metals.
Expl : Jeppesen A & P airframe technician
textbook p 4-9.
1. What purpose does flux serve in welding
aluminium?.
A) Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod. 5. Brazing material is made
B) Removes dirt, grease, and oil. from.
C) Minimises or prevents oxidation. A) copper zinc and silver.
Ans : Minimises or prevents oxidation. B) copper and tin and lead.
Expl : NIL. C) copper, silver and tin.
Ans : copper zinc and silver.
Expl : Workshop Technology WAJ Chapman 9. After welding you would normalise
Page 103. to.
A) remove oxidation from the welded joint.
B) remove carbon build up from the welded
6. Filing or grinding a weld joint.
bead. C) release the stresses from the material.
A) may be necessary to avoid adding excess Ans : release the stresses from the material.
weight or to achieve uniform material Expl : Normalising removes local stresses set
thickness. up by the heat, and in turn prevents corrosion.
B) may be performed to achieve a smoother
surface.
C) reduces the strength of the joint. 10. The flux used during brazing is a mixture
Ans : reduces the strength of the joint. of water and.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3. A) zinc chloride.
B) hydrochloric acid.
C) borax powder.
7. The primary reason for using flux when Ans : borax powder.
welding aluminium is to. Expl : NIL.
A) prevent oxides from forming ahead of the
weld.
B) prevent molten metal from flowing too 11. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or
widely. metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when
C) promote better fusion of the base metal at a welding aluminium to use a.
lower temperature. A) solvent.
Ans : prevent oxides from forming ahead of B) filler.
the weld. C) flux.
Expl : BL/6-4 2. Ans : flux.
Expl : BL6-4 8.2.2.
8. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a

stream of inert gas is used to. 12. Which statement concerning a welding
A) lower the temperature required to properly process is true?.
fuse the metal. A) In the oxyacetylene welding process, the
B) prevent the formation of oxides in the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin
puddle. coating of flux.
C) concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent B) In the metallic-arc welding process, filler
its dissipation. material, if needed, is provided by a separate
Ans : prevent the formation of oxides in the metal rod of the proper material held in the
puddle. arc.
Expl : NIL.
C) The inert-arc welding process uses an inert C) amount of heat applied to the work.
gas to protect the weld zone from the Ans : amount of heat applied to the work.
atmosphere. Expl : NIL.
Ans : The inert-arc welding process uses an
inert gas to protect the weld zone from the
atmosphere. 16. The most important consideration(s)
Expl : Jeppesen A & P airframe technician when selecting welding rod is/are.
textbook pg 4-4 Gas Metal Arc Welding A) material compatibility.
paragraph. B) current setting or flame temperature.
C) ambient conditions.
Ans : material compatibility.
13. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by Expl : NIL.
visual means.
A) the penetration should be 100 percent of
the thickness of the base metal. 17. When inspecting a weld, you should
B) the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent make sure that.
of the thickness of the base metal. A) the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused
C) look for evidence of excessive heat in the together.
form of a very high bead. B) the weld has inclusions inside the bead.
Ans : the penetration should be 100 percent of C) there are voids either side of the weld.
the thickness of the base metal. Ans : the parent (or basis) materials are fully
Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 11-4 fused together.
and Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 4- Expl : BL/6-4 13.1 (a) and BL/6-5 8.4 (a) and
2.Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 11-4 and AC43.13-1B Page 4-54 Para.4-48.
Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 4-2.
16a. Aircraft Weight and Balance.
14. What is undesirable in a good

weld?. 1. Fore and aft limits of the
A) oxides mixed in with the filler material. CG.
B) fusing the edges of materials to be joined. A) are determined by the pilot when calculating
C) 100% penetration by filler material. the loading data.
Ans : oxides mixed in with the filler B) are specified by the manufacturer.
material. C) are determined by the licensed engineer
Expl : NIL. after a major check and weighing.
Ans : are specified by the manufacturer.
15. In selecting a torch tip size to use in
welding, the size of the tip opening determines
the. 2. What angle of turn will double the
A) temperature of the flame. weight of the aircraft?.
B) melting point of the filler metal. A) 30°.
B) 60°. 6. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for
C) 45°. commercial air transport purposes are required
Ans : 60°. to be reweighed.
Expl : NIL. A) every 2 years.
B) every 5 years.
C) as required by the CAA.
3. The basic equipment of an aircraft Ans : as required by the CAA.
is. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-3 6.4.
A) that equipment which is required for every
role of the aircraft for which the aircraft is
operated plus unusable fuel. 7. Variable load is weight of.
B) all equipment including fuel and oil A) crew, their baggage and equipment relevant
necessary for a particular flight. to role.
C) the crew equipment, and other equipment B) fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment
including fuel and oil necessary for a particular relevant to role.
flight. C) basic weight plus operating weight.
Ans : that equipment which is required for Ans : crew, their baggage and equipment
every role of the aircraft for which the aircraft is relevant to role.
operated plus unusable fuel. Expl : BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (c).
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 1.2 a.
8. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an

4. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum aircraft refers to.
are. A) the sum of the loads on the main landing
A) either positive or negative. gear only.
B) positive. B) the individual loads on each landing gear.
C) negative. C) the sum of the loads on all of the landing
Ans : positive. gear.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1. Ans : the individual loads on each landing
gear.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (f).
5. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule
is required by.
A) all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA. 9. Aircraft must be reweighed.
B) all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA. A) after two years from manufacture only.
C) all aircraft regardless of weight. B) after two years from manufacture then at
Ans : all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA. periods not exceeding five years.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 2.9.1 (a). C) at periods not exceeding five years.
Ans : after two years from manufacture then at
periods not exceeding five years.
10. For purposes of calculating weight and C 14. A Load Sheet is compiled in the order
of G position, an adult male (with baggage) is of.
considered to have a mass of. A) Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load,
A) 85 kg. Basic Weight.
B) 65 kg. B) Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable
C) 75 kg. Load, Fuel Load.
Ans : 85 kg. C) Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load,
Expl : JAR OPS (with baggage) and AN(G)R Para Disposable Load.
4 refers to Flight Crew mass of 85 kg. (Cabin Ans : Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable
crew 75 kG). Load, Fuel Load.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 Page 24.
11. Points forward of the datum point

are. 15. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule
A) negative. must be signed by.
B) neutral. A) the CAA.
C) positive. B) the pilot.
Ans : negative. C) a Licensed aircraft engineer.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1. Ans : a Licensed aircraft engineer.
12. Where would you find documented, the

fore and aft limits of the C of G 16. An aircraft which has its C of G forward
position?. of the Forward Limit.
A) In the aircraft Maintenance Manual. A) the take-off run will not be affected.
B) In the Flight Manual (or the documentation B) will have a longer take-off run.
associated with the C of A). C) will have a shorter take-off run.
C) In the technical log. Ans : will have a longer take-off run.
Ans : In the Flight Manual (or the Expl : Leaflet 1-4 3.3.1.
documentation associated with the C of A).
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4 and 3.3.2.
17. The basic weight of an aircraft
is.
13. Previous weighing records A) the pilot, flight crew and their luggage.
are. B) the passengers, baggage and fuel.
A) retained for 2 yrs only. C) the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable
B) are kept with aircraft records. fuel and oil.
C) destroyed after 5 yrs. Ans : the aircraft, minimum equipment,
Ans : are kept with aircraft records. unusable fuel and oil.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 2.7. Expl : CAIP S BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (b).
18. When an aircraft has been reweighed 22. The Datum point on an aircraft, for
under JAR OPS, what should be done to the old measuring C of G position could be.
Weight and Balance Report?. A) the front bulkhead.
A) Kept in the aircraft logbook. B) anywhere on the aircraft.
B) Destroyed after 3 months. C) the nose of the aircraft.
C) Kept in the weight and balance schedule. Ans : anywhere on the aircraft.
Ans : Destroyed after 3 months. Expl : AC43 Page 10-1 para F, and A&P general
Expl : JAR OPS Subpart P. textbook 6-4 Pg 250 'Datum'.
19. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full 23. Increasing the weight of an

complement of fuel is calculated. Then. aircraft.
A) the C of G will always be within limits if it A) increases the glide range.
was within limits with full fuel tanks. B) has no affect on the glide range.
B) the C of G must be recalculated with zero C) decreases the glide range.
fuel to ensure it will still be within limits. Ans : has no affect on the glide range.
C) the C of G will only need to be recalculated if Expl : Mechanics of Flight Kermode Page 194.
the fuel weight is behind the aircraft C of G
position.
Ans : the C of G must be recalculated with zero 24. A load Sheet must be signed
fuel to ensure it will still be within limits. by.
Expl : NIL. A) a licensed aircraft engineer.
B) the Commander of the aircraft.
C) the Loading Officer.
20. Cargo placed aft of the datum will Ans : the Commander of the aircraft.
produce a. Expl : NIL.
A) neutral moment.
B) negative moment.
C) positive moment. 25. What is meant by empty
Ans : positive moment. weight?.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 5.4.4 (a). A) Basic weight only.
B) Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil.
C) Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil.
21. A load sheet. Ans : Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus
A) need not be carried on the aircraft if one oil.
remains at base. Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 6-2.
B) is always carried on the aircraft.
C) is never carried on the aircraft.
Ans : is always carried on the aircraft. 26. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule
Expl : NIL. is to be raised.
A) in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and A) BCAR section A.
the maintenance organisation. B) Air Navigation Order.
B) in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator. C) Airworthiness Notices.
C) once only, for the CAA. Ans : BCAR section A.
Ans : in duplicate, for the CAA and the Expl : Leaflet 1-4 2.1.
operator.
30. If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity
Schedule is issued, the old one must be retained
27. Where would you find the information for.
on the conditions for weighing the A) one year.
aircraft?. B) two years.
A) Maintenance Manual. C) six months.
B) Technical Log. Ans : six months.
C) Flight Manual in conjunction with the Expl : JAR OPS 1.920.
documents associated with the CofA.
Ans : Maintenance Manual. 16b. Aircraft Weight and Balance.
Expl : The information is in both Flight Manual
and AMM. However the Flight Manual is for the
loaded aircraft, and the AMM is for the Basic 1. A weighing cell is based on the variation
Aircraft, the latter being most relevant to the of.
aircraft engineer. A) induced voltage with displacement.
B) resistance with strain.
C) differential currents with stress.
28. In aeronautical weighing Ans : resistance with strain.
terms. Expl : NIL.
A) all arms for forward of the reference datum
are positive (+) and all arms aft of the reference
datum are negative (-). 2. When weighing an aircraft using elastic
B) all reference datum are as per company load cells, the load cells go.
procedures. A) as a single unit or combination of units
C) all arms for forward of the reference datum under the aircraft wheels.
are negative (-) and all arms aft of the reference B) between undercarriage and aircraft.
datum are positive (+). C) between top of jack and the aircraft.
Ans : all arms for forward of the reference Ans : as a single unit or combination of units
datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of the under the aircraft wheels.
reference datum are positive (+). Expl : Leaflet 1-4 4.5.1.
Expl : NIL.
3. When weighing an aircraft with load

29. Details on recording of weight and C of G cells.
position can be found in. A) only the main wheels are weighed.
B) the aircraft is jacked. C) Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage
C) a load cell should be placed under each set when wet.
of wheels. Ans : Nylon.
Ans : the aircraft is jacked. Expl : Leaflet 10-1 4.3.1. Although fibre
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 4.4. (manila) rope can be used (with some slack) the
A&P Mechanic General Handbook says Nylon is
preferred (Pg.510). Also, fibre rope does not
4. When weighing an aircraft, the shrink when wet, it shrinks when it dries.
hydrostatic weighing units are
positioned.
A) either under or on top of each jack. 2. Removal of ice by the use of deicing fluid
B) one under each jack. on the aircraft, before flight.
C) one on top of each jack. A) must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid
Ans : one on top of each jack. to be cleaned from aircraft.
Expl : NIL. B) will provide sufficient prevention of ice
formation until take off.
C) may remove ice for a period of time
5. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic depending on the airfield conditions.
system should be. Ans : may remove ice for a period of time
A) empty. depending on the airfield conditions.
B) completely full. Expl : AL/11-3 3.1.4.
C) filled to 'maximum level' mark.
Ans : filled to 'maximum level' mark.
Expl : Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (b). 3. When deicing an aircraft with pressure
deicing fluid, the sensors on the outside of the
aircraft should.
6. When weighing an aircraft by the A) have their heating switched on.
weighbridge method, the aircraft is. B) be fitted with blanks or bungs.
A) only levelled laterally. C) not be blanked.
B) jacked and levelled. Ans : be fitted with blanks or bungs.
C) resting on the wheels. Expl : AL/11-3 5.3.1.
Ans : resting on the wheels.
4. When Ground Power is connected to
17. Aircraft Handling and Storage. aircraft, the generators are.
A) paralleled to supply.
B) paralleled to supply for ground starting only.
1. When mooring an aircraft what type of C) never paralleled.
rope should be used?. Ans : never paralleled.
A) Nylon. Expl : NIL.
B) Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet.
5. If ice and snow is found on the wings of
an aircraft. Before flight the.
A) snow should be removed but ice can remain 9. An aircraft should be cleared of
because it has no appreciable affect on the snow.
airflow. A) using air blast.
B) all snow and ice must be removed. B) using cold fluid.
C) ice should be removed but snow can remain C) using hot fluid.
because the airflow will remove it. Ans : using air blast.
Ans : all snow and ice must be removed. Expl : CAIP S AL/11-3 Para 5.
Expl : GOL/1-1 7.9.2. AL/11-3 3.1.
10. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker,

6. There is ice and snow on a helicopter why are the aircraft and tanker bonded
blade. You. together?.
A) wipe off excess snow and leave ice. A) To discharge static electricity from the
B) leave a layer of ice. aircraft to the tanker.
C) remove all traces of ice and snow. B) To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the
Ans : remove all traces of ice and snow. same electrical potential.
Expl : AL/11-3 2.2. C) To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be
operated from the tanker electrical supply.
Ans : To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the
7. Why is the last part of towing an aircraft, same electrical potential.
done in a straight line?. Expl : Pallett - Aircraft Electrical Systems Pg.95.
A) To relieve side pressure from the main
wheels.
B) To relieve hydraulic pressure from the 11. When turning and towing an aircraft,
steering mechanism. why should sharp radiuses be avoided?.
C) To allow nose wheel chocks to be placed at A) Power steering leaks could occur.
90 degrees to the aircraft. B) Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could occur.
Ans : To relieve side pressure from the main C) Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres could occur.
wheels. Ans : Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could
Expl : NIL. occur.
8. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be

polished with mechanical buffing wheels as 12. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft
this. ground, the equipment should be attached
A) will cause large static charges to build up. to.
B) may remove the aluminium coating. A) the tail cone.
C) may remove the alloy coating. B) the main gear.
Ans : may remove the aluminium coating. C) the nose gear.
Expl : NIL. Ans : the main gear.
Expl : CAIP S GOL/ 1-1 Para 3-1-6. Expl : Leaflet 10-1 4.4.1.
13. When a helicopter lands, how does the 17. Which is bad practice for removing the
pilot signal to ground staff when it is safe to ice and snow in the cold weather?.
approach the aircraft?. A) Dry snow by hot air.
A) Turn the anti collision lights off. B) Deep ice by de-icing fluid.
B) Flash the landing lights. C) Use brush for deep wet snow.
C) Flash the Nav lights. Ans : Dry snow by hot air.
Ans : Turn the anti collision lights off. Expl : AL/11-3 5.0.
Expl : ANO Section 2 Rule 9.
18a. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Assembly Techniques.
14. When the park brake has been applied
on an aircraft which has a pressurized hydraulic
system and is reading maximum system 1. Taper pins resist what loads.
pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right A) compression.
main wheels will read. B) shear.
A) no indication. C) tension.
B) full system pressure. Ans : shear.
C) full scale deflection. Expl : A&P Technician General Textbook 8-29.
Ans : full system pressure.
Expl : NIL.
2. What test do you do on a bonded
join?.
15. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used. A) Shear.
A) for short holdover times. B) Peel.
B) where the ambient temperature is below C) Tension.
-10degrees Centigrade. Ans : Peel.
C) where holdover times are long. Expl : NIL.
Ans : for short holdover times.
Expl : AL/11-3 2.6. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 13-14. 3. What would you use to check the run-
out on a control rod?.
A) Micrometer + ball bearing.
16. When picketing a helicopter B) DTI + V blocks.
you. C) 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge.
A) tie down one blade. Ans : DTI + V blocks.
B) fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if Expl : NIL.
they strike the ground.
C) fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
Ans : fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
4. Taper pins are used in which of the C) with a dilute solution of sodium
following applications?. bicarbonate.
A) To take compression loads. Ans : with a dilute solution of sodium
B) To take shear loads. bicarbonate.
C) To take compression and shear loads. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-2 5.4.1.
Ans : To take shear loads.
Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 1-27.
9. After carrying out an identification test of
aluminium alloy with caustic soda, the caustic
5. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out soda should be neutralized with.
of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate A) Chromic anhydride solution.
a run-out of. B) Copper sulphate solution.
A) 0.025 inches. C) Phosphoric acid.
B) 0.020 inches. Ans : Chromic anhydride solution.
C) 0.040 inches. Expl : BL/4-2 Para 2-4-5 'Note'.
Ans : 0.020 inches.
Expl : CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2.
10. To neutralize spilled battery acid on
aluminium alloy, use.
6. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull A) sulphuric acid.
rod by. B) bicarbonate of soda.
A) passing a ball down its bore. C) caustic soda.
B) callipers and feeler gauges. Ans : bicarbonate of soda.
C) a steel ball and micrometer. Expl : BL/4-1 4.1.3.
Ans : a steel ball and micrometer.
Expl : NIL.
11. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile
steel is caused if it is treated with.
7. What is used on Magnesium to re- A) Zinc Chromate.
protect it?. B) Nitric acid.
A) Selenious Acid. C) Phosphoric acid.
B) Deoxidine. Ans : Phosphoric acid.
C) Chromic Acid. Expl : BL/4-2 3.2.2 (iii) BL/7-4 5.2.
Ans : Selenious Acid.
Expl : NIL.
12. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not
allowed.
8. In the procedure to be followed after A) anywhere on the rod.
spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried B) in the middle third of the rod.
out. C) in the end thirds of the rod.
A) by washing with distilled water. Ans : in the middle third of the rod.
B) by applying a coating of Vaseline. Expl : NIL.
Expl : Bonding - Continuity, Insulation,
Function.
13. When checking a diode forward bias
function, the positive lead of the ohmmeter
should be placed on the. 17. When an earth-return terminal assembly
A) cathode and the negative lead to the anode. has to be replaced which of the following
B) anode and the negative lead to the cathode. checks must be carried out?.
C) cathode and the negative lead the earth. A) Bonding and continuity tests.
Ans : anode and the negative lead to the B) Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
cathode. C) Bonding and insulation resistance tests.
Expl : Positive to the anode. Ans : Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
Expl : EEL/1-6 Para 3.7.2 & Leaflet 9-1 3.7.2.
14. The bonding resistance of primary

structure must not exceed. 18. When carrying out millivolt drop checks
A) 0.05 ohms. on a circuit, what is an approximate guide for a
B) 0.005 ohms. correct reading?.
C) 0.5 ohms. A) 10 millivolts for every 15 amps flowing.
Ans : 0.05 ohms. B) 10 millivolts for every 5 amps flowing.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.8 table 1. C) 5 millivolts for every 10 amps flowing.
Ans : 5 millivolts for every 10 amps
flowing.
15. What is the maximum resistance Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.
between the main earth system and a metal
plate on which the earthing device (tyre) is
resting?. 19. Effective continuity is not possible unless
A) 100 megohms. which of the following conditions
B) 1 megohm. exists?.
C) 10 megohms. A) All circuit earths are disconnected.
Ans : 10 megohms. B) The portion of the circuit under test must
Expl : EEL/1-6 Para 3.10.8 & Leaflet 9-1 3.10.8. constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel
paths.
C) All manually operated switches must be off.
16. The three electrical checks carried out on Ans : The portion of the circuit under test must
aircraft are (1) continuity (2) bonding (3) constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel
insulation. What is the order in which they are paths.
executed?. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.2.3. EEL / 1-6 Para 4-2-3.
A) 2-3-1.
B) 1-2-3.
C) 2-1-3. 20. Why is a low voltage supply used for
Ans : 2-1-3. continuity testing?.
A) To prevent fuses 'blowing' and lamps Expl : EEL/1-6 Para 4-5-4 (a) & Leaflet 9-1 4.5.4
burning out. (a).
B) To avoid damage to the wiring.
C) To avoid breaking down a high resistance
film that might exist between contacting 23. The recommended insulation resistance
surfaces. of a DC motor is.
Ans : To avoid breaking down a high resistance A) 2 megohms.
film that might exist between contacting B) 0.5 megohms.
surfaces. C) 5 megohms.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.2. A problem of poor Ans : 0.5 megohms.
continuity could be caused by oxidation at Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.5.4 (Rotating
connectors. Using too high a voltage in a machinery).
continuity test might 'overlook' the problem
and give a false good reading.
24. Bonding value for secondary structure is
a maximum of.
21. When replacing a bonding connection A) 0.05 ohms.
and the original conductor cannot be matched B) 1 ohm.
exactly, which of the following replacements C) 0.5 ohms.
would you use?. Ans : 1 ohm.
A) One manufactured from the same type of Expl : Leaflet 9-1 para.3.8. EEL 1-6 3.8.
material, but of greater cross sectional area
should be selected.
B) One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin 25. Wrinkling of an aircraft skin
cable having the correct current capacity may will.
be used. A) cause rivets to pull.
C) One manufactured from any conducting B) weaken the skin.
material of the same cross sectional area be C) increase drag on the aircraft.
used. Ans : cause rivets to pull.
Ans : One manufactured from the same type of Expl : All three are possibly correct, but c is the
material, but of greater cross sectional area most probable.
should be selected.
26. You have removed a bolt from a critical
bolted joint for inspection and rectification.
22. What is a typical minimum insulation What action should you take prior to
resistance value for an aircraft undercarriage inspection?.
bay?. A) Before any inspection is carried out, the
A) 10 megohms. nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with a
B) 5 megohms. solvent such as trichloroethylene.
C) 2 megohms.
Ans : 2 megohms.
B) Clean the bolt shank and thread and re- 30. What is used on magnesium to remove
grease and replace bolt and check for side- corrosion?.
play. A) Strontium chromate.
C) A preliminary inspection should be made B) Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution.
before the hole is cleaned. C) Selenious acid.
Ans : A preliminary inspection should be made Ans : Chromic acid / sulphuric acid
before the hole is cleaned. solution.
Expl : CAIP AL/7-5 5.4. Expl : CAIP S BL/4-2 2.4.4. BL/7-5 9.3.5 (i).
27. On inspection of a critical bolted joint 31. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type
you witness black or grey dust or paste. What of.
type of corrosion has taken place and what type A) corrosion between two pieces of
of material is involved?. material.
A) Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys. B) plating process.
B) Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys. C) surface corrosion.
C) Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys. Ans : corrosion between two pieces of
Ans : Fretting corrosion in aluminium material.
alloys. Expl : AC43 6-20.
Expl : CAIP BL/4-1 3.1.5.
32. Chromating used on magnesium alloys

28. What is indicated by the wrinkling of the produces.
underside of an aircraft skin?. A) chromium surface electrochemically.
A) Hogging. B) a chromate film surface.
B) Fretting. C) metal chromates on the electrochemically.
C) Sagging. Ans : a chromate film surface.
Ans : Hogging. Expl : CAIP S BL/7-5 Para.4.
Expl : Hogging produces wrinkling on the
underside of the wing. Sagging produces
wrinkling on the upper side of the wing. 33. Chromating used on magnesium
alloys.
A) uses chromium and converts the surface
29. What is used to re-protect electrochemically.
magnesium?. B) uses chromates and converts the surface
A) Selenious acid. chemically.
B) Deoxidine. C) uses chromium, which is deposited on the
C) Chromic acid. surface.
Ans : Selenious acid. Ans : uses chromates and converts the surface
Expl : CAIP S BL/7-5 6.3.1. chemically.
Expl : BL/7-3 11. Chromate treatment
sometimes called 'chromate conversion'.
A) reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross
sectional area.
34. When carrying out a bonding test in the B) joining similar metals and using jointing
presence of an anodic coating, what should you compounds.
do?. C) ensuring correct heat treatments and
A) Take account of the resistance of the correct alloying.
coating. Ans : joining similar metals and using jointing
B) Disregard the resistance of the coating. compounds.
C) Penetrate the coating so a good electrical Expl : NIL.
contact is made.
Ans : Penetrate the coating so a good electrical
contact is made. 38. The treatment for stress corrosion
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 3.10.6 and note from is.
3.6.6. A) not the same as fatigue corrosion.
B) the same as for surface corrosion or surface
cracks in sheet metal.
35. Maximum value of resistance between C) always the replacement of the part.
all isolated parts which may be subjected to Ans : always the replacement of the part.
appreciable electrostatic charging and the main Expl : NIL.
earth.
A) 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of
surface area whichever is less. 39. Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy
B) 1 ohm. can be removed by.
C) 0.05 ohm. A) using a solvent.
Ans : 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of B) rubbing with wire wool.
surface area whichever is less. C) using Alocrom 1200.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.8 Table 1 or EEL/1-6 3.5. Ans : using a solvent.
Expl : NIL.
36. Removal of corrosion from aluminium

clad alloy is best done. 40. To remove corrosion on Fe metals
A) mechanically by buffing. use.
B) chemically by trichloroethylene. A) selenious acid rust remover.
C) chemically by sulphuric acid solution. B) sulphuric acid rust remover.
Ans : chemically by sulphuric acid C) phosphoric acid rust remover.
solution. Ans : phosphoric acid rust remover.
Expl : NIL. Expl : NIL.
37. Control methods for galvanic corrosion 41. The usual manufacturer's anti corrosive
include. process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts
is.
A) cadmium plating.
B) anodising.
C) metal spraying. 45. How is damage classified on an aircraft
Ans : cadmium plating. skin?.
Expl : NIL. A) Negligible, repairable, replacement.
B) Negligible, allowable, replacement.
C) Negligible, allowable, repairable.
42. An intervention defect is one Ans : Negligible, repairable, replacement.
where. Expl : NIL.
A) the engineer has the discretion on whether
to intervene.
B) there is a requirement for the maintenance 46. When carrying out a millivolt drop test
engineer to intervene. on a terminal, the maximum value should
C) the defect occurred because of some be.
previous maintenance action. A) 50mV/10A.
Ans : the defect occurred because of some B) 10mV/10A.
previous maintenance action. C) 5mV/10A.
Expl : NIL. Ans : 5mV/10A.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.
43. Vapour phase inhibitor should be

used. 47. A jury strut is used.
A) when re-protecting after corrosion. A) as a reference when checking the C of G
B) when degreasing a component. position.
C) when painting an aircraft. B) as a datum when placing the aircraft in a
Ans : when re-protecting after corrosion. rigging position.
Expl : NIL. C) to support the structure during repairs.
Ans : to support the structure during
repairs.
44. When carrying out insulation resistance Expl : NIL.
checks.
A) the measurement is always infinity if the
cable is installed correctly. 48. Run out' on a control rod is measured
B) the measurement will also show cable by.
continuity. A) micrometer, surface plate and vee-blocks.
C) the measurement varies depending upon B) surface plate, vernier callipers and vee-
the ambient conditions of the aircraft under blocks.
test. C) dial test indicator, surface plate and vee-
Ans : the measurement varies depending upon blocks.
the ambient conditions of the aircraft under Ans : dial test indicator, surface plate and vee-
test. blocks.
Expl : EEL/1-6 4.5.3, Leaflet 9-1 4.5.3. Expl : NIL.
B) drilling holes in a metal prior to riveting.
C) drilling a rivet head to remove it from the
49. How do you check the resistance of a fire metal.
bottle cartridge?. Ans : drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack
A) Use an insulation tester. ends.
B) Use a multimeter. Expl : NIL.
C) Use a light and bulb.
Ans : Use a multimeter.
Expl : NIL. 3. When inserting a helicoil insert, which
way does the tang face?.
A) Away from the hole.
50. If after forming a crimp in an electrical B) Towards the hole.
condutor a high resistance is suspected, how C) Towards the mandrel.
would you carry out a check without disturbing Ans : Towards the hole.
the connection?. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Technician General
A) Use a multimeter set to millivolts and carry Textbook Page 8-31.
out a millivolts drop test.
B) Carry out an insulation check.
C) Use a multimeter set to ohms to check the 4. On a patch repair you should
resistance. use.
Ans : Use a multimeter set to millivolts and A) material one gauge thicker than the original
carry out a millivolts drop test. structure.
Expl : NIL. B) the same rivet spacing as the original
structure.
18b. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and C) only aluminium alloy rivets.
Assembly Techniques. Ans : the same rivet spacing as the original
structure.
Expl : AC43 Page 4-32.
1. Damaged chromate film should be
repaired by using.
A) phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water. 5. What tap do you use when fitting a
B) selenious acid 10% by weight in water. Helicoil?.
C) selenious acid 20% by weight in water. A) The same as the original thread size.
Ans : selenious acid 10% by weight in B) The next size up from the original tap size.
water. C) The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit.
Expl : BL/7-3 5.2. Ans : The tap supplied with the Helicoil
kit.
Expl : NIL.
2. Stop Drilling' is the process
of.
A) drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack 6. When fitting a thread insert.
ends.
A) the insert should be tapped in using a A) The broken ends can be repaired with an
hammer. “in-line” splice.
B) the hole should be expanded using a tap B) A new conductor should be fitted.
supplied by the insert manufacturer. C) The broken ends can be soldered.
C) a thread the next size up from the original Ans : A new conductor should be fitted.
should be tapped. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.6.3.
Ans : the hole should be expanded using a tap
supplied by the insert manufacturer.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3.2.2. 11. A UNF threaded wire thread insert may
be identified.
A) by a black painted tang.
7. A stud broken off below the surface is B) by a red painted tang.
removed by. C) by an unpainted tang.
A) using a stud box. Ans : by a black painted tang.
B) a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole. Expl : BL/6-22 3.1.
C) cutting a slot in it and removing with a
screwdriver.
Ans : a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled
hole. 18c. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Expl : A stud box could only be used if it is Assembly Techniques.
broken above the surface.
1. Transducers used in ultrasonic testing

8. A thread insert is made from. exhibit which of he following effects?.
A) white metal. A) Hyper-acoustic.
B) aluminium alloy. B) Ferromagnetic.
C) stainless steel. C) Piezoelectric.
Ans : stainless steel. Ans : Piezoelectric.
Expl : NIL. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 3 para 3.2.
9. On a composite repair the vacuum 2. The eddy current method of N.D.T.
should be. uses.
A) above required level. A) AC or DC.
B) below required level. B) Direct current.
C) at the required level. C) Alternating current.
Ans : at the required level. Ans : Alternating current.
Expl : NIL. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 1 para 2.1.
10. If bridging strips or bonding cords are 3. To measure the thickness of a paint
fractured, what action may be taken?. finish, what type of NDT inspection is used?.
A) A woodpecker. A) the dye should be applied to the outside and
B) Ultrasonic. the developer to the inside.
C) Radiographic. B) the dye should be applied to the inside and
Ans : Ultrasonic. the developer to the outside.
Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 para 1.4. C) both the dye and the developer should be
applied to the outside.
Ans : the dye should be applied to the inside
4. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, and the developer to the outside.
after the developer has been applied it should Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
be inspected.
A) after 30 minutes.
B) as soon as the developer is dry and again 8. When leak testing with a colour contrast
after approximately 10 minutes. field kit, the soak time for a component less
C) after 1 hour. than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be.
Ans : as soon as the developer is dry and again A) at least twice the normal soak time.
after approximately 10 minutes. B) at least 3 times the normal soak time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Paras 7-1 and 7- C) at least the normal soak time.
2. Ans : at least 3 times the normal soak time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-2.
5. During a colour contrast test the

penetrant time should be. 9. When using a colour contrast dye
A) longer for a small crack. penetrant kit, and a small crack is suspected in
B) shorter for a small crack. the material.
C) longer for a wide crack. A) less developer should be used.
Ans : longer for a small crack. B) less inhibitor should be used.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-1. C) a magnifying glass is recommended.
Ans : a magnifying glass is recommended.
Expl : CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-2 pg 6 para 7.5.
6. How should a dye penetrant field kit be
stored?.
A) At a cold temperature in a darkened room. 10. What NDT method would you use to
B) In direct sunlight. detect delamination?.
C) At room temperature away from direct A) Colour contrast dye penetrant.
sunlight. B) Ultrasound.
Ans : At room temperature away from direct C) Eddy current.
sunlight. Ans : Ultrasound.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1. Expl : Leaflet 4-5 1.4.
7. When carrying out a colour contrast test 11. Magnetic particle testing detects
on a pressure vessel. faults.
A) transverse. A) the part to be inspected does not require
B) longitudinally. cleaning.
C) longitudinal and transverse. B) the defect must be opened to the surface.
Ans : transverse. C) the penetrant solution works on any non-
Expl : CAAIP 4-7, 2.2 The flaw must be between porous material.
45 degrees and 90 degrees to the flux lines. Ans : the penetrant solution works on any non-
porous material.
Expl : NIL.
12. Dye penetrant in a cold
climate.
A) takes longer to work. 16. To detect a minute crack using dye
B) is not affected. penetrant inspection usually requires.
C) works more quickly. A) the surface to be highly polished.
Ans : takes longer to work. B) a longer than normal penetrating time.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. C) that the developer be applied to a flat
surface.
Ans : a longer than normal penetrating
13. If after spraying the developer, red time.
blotches appear, the part. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-1.
A) has sub-surface defects.
B) was not cleaned properly.
C) is porous. 17. When checking an item with the
Ans : is porous. magnetic particle inspection method, circular
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-3. and longitudinal magnetization should be used
to.
A) evenly magnetize the entire part.
14. What is the purpose of the developer in B) ensure uniform current flow.
a dye penetrant inspection?. C) reveal all possible defects.
A) It acts a s a blotter to draw out the Ans : reveal all possible defects.
penetrant that has seeped into the crack. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2 and leaflet 4-7, 4.5.
B) It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic
attraction.
C) It seeps into the crack and makes it show 18. Which type crack can be detected by
up. magnetic particle inspection using either
Ans : It acts a s a blotter to draw out the circular or longitudinal
penetrant that has seeped into the crack. magnetisation?.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para.6. A) 45°.
B) longitudinal.
C) transverse.
15. The main advantage of dye penetrant Ans : 45°.
inspection is. Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 4-7 para 2.2.
C) high permeability and high retentivity.
19. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and Ans : high permeability and low
forgings may usually be detected by. retentivity.
A) submerging the part in a solution of Expl : NIL.
hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear
water.
B) gamma ray inspection. 23. The 'Dwell Time' of a dye-penetrant NDT
C) the use of dye penetrants and suitable inspection is the.
developers. A) time it takes for a defect to develop.
Ans : the use of dye penetrants and suitable B) time the penetrant is allowed to stand.
developers. C) amount of time the developer is allowed to
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 1.6.2. act.
Ans : time the penetrant is allowed to
stand.
20. Which of these metals is inspected using Expl : A&P General Textbook 12-3 Pg 447 Para
the magnetic particle inspection 2.
method?.
A) Magnesium alloys.
B) Aluminium alloys. 24. What non-destructive testing method
C) Iron alloys. requires little or no part preparation, is used to
Ans : Iron alloys. detect surface or near-surface defects in most
Expl : Leaflet 4-7 1.1. metals, and may also be used to separate
metals or alloys and their heat-treat
conditions?.
21. One way a part may be demagnetized A) Eddy current inspection.
after magnetic particle inspection is by. B) Magnetic particle inspection.
A) slowly moving the part out of an AC C) Ultrasonic inspection.
magnetic field of sufficient strength. Ans : Eddy current inspection.
B) slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic Expl : NIL.
field of sufficient strength.
C) subjecting the part to high voltage, low
amperage AC. 25. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion
Ans : slowly moving the part out of an AC chambers will show up.
magnetic field of sufficient strength. A) grey on white background.
Expl : Leaflet 4-7 4.9.2. B) black on lighter background.
C) light grey on black background.
Ans : light grey on black background.
22. The testing medium that is generally Expl : NIL.
used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a
ferromagnetic material that has.
A) low permeability and high retentivity. 26. Which of these non-destructive testing
B) high permeability and low retentivity. methods is suitable for the inspection of most
metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and B) on the inside, with developer on the outside.
subsurface defects?. C) on the inside with the developer on the
A) Eddy current inspection. inside.
B) Magnetic particle inspection. Ans : on the inside, with developer on the
C) Ultrasonic inspection. outside.
Ans : Ultrasonic inspection. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
Expl : NIL.
31. In order for dye penetrant inspection to

27. Ultrasonic flaw detectors be effective, the material being checked
use. must.
A) high frequency sound waves. A) be non-magnetic.
B) a magnetic field. B) be magnetic.
C) x-rays. C) have surface cracks.
Ans : high frequency sound waves. Ans : have surface cracks.
Expl : NIL. Expl : A&P General Textbook 12-2 Pg 446
(B).
28. Defects are indicated in the dye

penetrant crack detection test by. 32. Which of the following metals can be
A) red lines on a white background. inspected using the magnetic particle inspection
B) yellowish green marks. method?.
C) green lines and dots. A) Aluminium alloys.
Ans : red lines on a white background. B) Iron alloys.
Expl : NIL. C) Magnesium alloys.
Ans : Iron alloys.
Expl : NIL.
29. NDT using colour dye process at
temperatures below 15°C will.
A) not be affected by the temperature. 33. After completion of electromagnetic
B) retard the penetrant action of the dye and crack detection, the test piece must be.
penetration time is extended. A) allowed to cool to room temperature as
C) mean choosing alternative NDT method. slowly as possible.
Ans : retard the penetrant action of the dye B) de-magnetised before returning to
and penetration time is extended. service.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. C) allowed to lose any residual magnetism over
as long a period possible.
Ans : de-magnetised before returning to
30. When using dye penetrant NDT on a service.
tank, the dye penetrant should be applied. Expl : NIL.
A) on the outside with developer on the
outside.
34. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques A) The discontinuity pattern is straight.
cannot be used on a component manufactured B) The discontinuity is found in a highly
from austenitic stainless steel?. stressed area of the part.
A) Magnetic - particle. C) The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed
B) Penetrant dye. area of the part.
C) Hot oil and chalk. Ans : The discontinuity is found in a highly
Ans : Magnetic - particle. stressed area of the part.
Expl : NIL. Expl : NIL.
35. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the 39. When inspecting a component which is
detection of cracks or material defects are used being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process,
with. the examination for defects should be carried
A) a tungsten light source. out.
B) an ultra-violet radiation source. A) whilst the item is still quite hot.
C) an infra-red light source. B) immediately on removal of the item from
Ans : an ultra-violet radiation source. the chalk cabinet.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-3 Para 1-5. C) when the item is quite cool.
Ans : when the item is quite cool.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 3.
36. What is an isotope the power source
of?.
A) X-Rays. 40. Circular magnetization of a part can be
B) Ultra Violet Rays. used to detect defects.
C) Gamma Rays. A) perpendicular to the concentric circles of
Ans : Gamma Rays. magnetisation.
Expl : CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-6 para 2. B) parallel to the long axis of the part.
C) perpendicular to the long axis of the part.
Ans : perpendicular to the concentric circles of
37. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' magnetisation.
method of non-destructive testing is a mixture Expl : CAIP BL/8-5 para 2.1.
of.
A) lubricating oil and petrol.
B) lubricating oil and lard oil. 41. An indication of porosity when using a
C) lubricating oil and paraffin. penetrant dye crack detection method is.
Ans : lubricating oil and paraffin. A) areas where dye is not showing.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 Para 3-2. B) an area of scattered dots of dye.
C) closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line.
Ans : an area of scattered dots of dye.
38. Under magnetic particle inspection, a Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 7.3.
part will be identified as having a fatigue crack
under which condition?.
42. In a test for adequate demagnetization Expl : AandP Mechanics General Handbook Pg
of a component after a magnetic particle test, 474 para 2.
the test compass should not deflect.
A) more than 1° when standing due east of the
component. 46. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack
B) more than 1° when standing due south of test, before the dye is applied the surface being
the component. tested should be.
C) more than 1° when standing north-east of A) etch primed.
the component. B) thoroughly degreased.
Ans : more than 1° when standing due east of C) painted with developer fluid.
the component. Ans : thoroughly degreased.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-7 4.10.2. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 2-4.
43. If on application of developer it all turns 47. When carrying out a dye penetrant
to a pinkish hue, what has happened?. inspection, what time should elapse after
A) Thin porosity. applying the developer before inspecting the
B) The hue has pinked. component?.
C) Incorrect cleaning. A) Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed
Ans : Incorrect cleaning. by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 6-6. B) After 15 minutes.
C) After 10 minutes.
Ans : Initial inspection after 30 seconds
44. If dye penetrant inspection indications followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
are not sharp and clear, the most probable Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-2.
cause is that the part.
A) is not damaged.
B) was not correctly degaussed before the 48. When should the developer be applied
developer was applied. to the component?.
C) was not thoroughly cleaned before A) After excess penetrant has been removed
developer was applied. and the area completely dried.
Ans : was not thoroughly cleaned before B) Before applying penetrant.
developer was applied. C) Before the penetrant dries.
Expl : AC43 5.60 G. Ans : After excess penetrant has been removed
and the area completely dried.
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 Para 1.5, 5.4.1.
45. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic
particle build-up forming.
A) a single line. 49. To check the structure of a
B) parallel lines. wing.
C) a fern-like pattern. A) ultrasound NDT is used.
Ans : parallel lines. B) high voltage X-rays are used.
C) low voltage X-rays are used. 53. Which of the following NDT methods
Ans : high voltage X-rays are used. requires that the surface of the test piece is
Expl : BL/8-4 2.1.6. cleaned down to bare metal?.
A) Eddy Current.
B) Magnetic Particle.
50. Which of the following NDT methods C) Dye-penetrant.
requires that the orientation (or direction) of Ans : Dye-penetrant.
the defect be known before the test can Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
commence?.
A) Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant.
B) Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic. 54. When using the colour contrast
C) X-Ray and Magnetic Particle. NDT.
Ans : Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic. A) the surface paint should be removed.
Expl : Leaflet 4-5 1.2. B) the surface should be lightly scuffed.
C) the surface should be bead blasted.
Ans : the surface paint should be removed.
51. Which of the following defects could not Expl : Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
be detected by Eddy Current NDT
inspection?.
A) A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic 55. When using dye penetrant field kit,
cowl. removal of excess penetrant is done by applying
B) A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting. the solvent by.
C) Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine A) spraying once direct on the part.
blade. B) spraying twice direct on the part.
Ans : A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic C) using a lint free cloth.
cowl. Ans : using a lint free cloth.
Expl : BL/8-8 2. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 5.3.
52. Which of the following methods could be 56. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to
used to detect the presence of tiny drops of detect.
Mercury in a large area of aircraft hull structure A) internal porosity in castings.
after an accident with a mercury B) corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes.
thermometer?. C) fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts.
A) X-Ray. Ans : fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy
B) Magnetic Particle. parts.
C) Ultrasonic. Expl : CAAIP Leaflet 4-2 2.3.
Ans : X-Ray.
Expl : NIL.
57. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ
from Post-emulsification penetrants in that
they.
A) do not need an emulsifier added. C) Magnetic Flaw.
B) need not be removed from surfaces prior to Ans : Radiographic.
development. Expl : NIL.
C) can only be used on aluminium alloys.
Ans : do not need an emulsifier added.
Expl : BL/8-2 1.3. 62. Magnetic Flux detection will show
defects which are.
A) transverse to the flux direction only.
58. When using a post-emulsification B) longitudinal to the flux direction only.
penetrant, the timing is most critical during. C) longitudinal and transverse to the flux
A) penetrant removal. direction.
B) emulsification. Ans : transverse to the flux direction only.
C) penetration. Expl : Leaflet 4-7 2.2.
Ans : emulsification.
Expl : BL/8-7 para 4.2.
63. A hairline crack would show up on a dye
penetrant inspection as.
59. A liquid penetrant test A) a continuous line of small dots.
cannot. B) a thin broken line or chain.
A) be used on porous materials. C) a group of dots spread over a wide area.
B) locate sub-surface discontinuities. Ans : a continuous line of small dots.
C) be used on non-metallic surfaces. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 7.4.
Ans : locate sub-surface discontinuities.
Expl : Leaflet 4-2, A&P Technician General
Textbook 12-4 Pg 448 Para 3 (B). 64. When carrying out an ultrasonic
inspection, what is the gel used
for?.
60. Hot air drying of articles during liquid A) To create a good sonic coupling between the
penetrant testing is carried out at a the probe and the test piece.
temperature of. B) To reduce the friction between the probe
A) 75°F. and the test piece.
B) 250°F. C) To prevent the test piece from becoming
C) 130°F. scratched by the probe.
Ans : 130°F. Ans : To create a good sonic coupling between
Expl : Leaflet 4-2 5.4.3. There is no reference in the the probe and the test piece.
old CAIP S. Expl : Leaflet 4-5 3.4.
61. To check the structure of a wing, which 65. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for
NDT is used?. what materials?.
A) Radiographic. A) Non magnetic non-ferrous materials.
B) Dye penetrant. B) Ferrous magnetic materials.
C) Plastics and non magnetic materials. Ans : two passes at 90 degrees to each
Ans : Non magnetic non-ferrous materials. other.
Expl : Leaflet 4-3 1.2. CAIP S BL/8-7. Expl : BL/8-5 2.1.
66. In film radiography, image quality 70. The substance used in ultrasound
indicators (IQI) are usually placed. inspection is.
A) between the intensifying screen and the A) a couplant to allow sound waves to travel.
film. B) a cleaning agent to keep the components
B) on the film side of the object. clean.
C) on the source side of the test object. C) a developer.
Ans : on the source side of the test object. Ans : a couplant to allow sound waves to
Expl : BL/8-4 3.3.1. travel.
Expl : Leaflet 4-5 4.5.2 BL/8-3 3.3.
67. Which type crack will probably cause the

most build-up in the magnetic particle 71. Dye penetrant defects are marked
indicating medium?. using.
A) Grinding. A) crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area.
B) Shrink. B) pencil.
C) Fatigue. C) chalk.
Ans : Fatigue. Ans : crayon, unless used in a highly stresses
Expl : A&P Mechanics General Handbook area.
Pg.473. Expl : Leaflet 4-3 5.4BL/8-2 7.5.
68. When using dye penetrant NDT on a 72. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16 inch
tank, the penetrant should be applied. to 1/8 inch is being tested with dye penetrant.
A) on the inside, with developer on the inside. The penetrant should be left for.
B) on the outside, with developer on the A) 3 times longer than normal.
outside. B) less than normal.
C) on the inside, with developer on the outside. C) the same length of time as normal.
Ans : on the inside, with developer on the Ans : 3 times longer than normal.
outside. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 9.2.
Expl : BL/8-2 9.
73. Which of the following NDT techniques

69. To detect a fault with magnetic particle cannot be used on a component manufactured
flaw detection, the test requires. from austenitic stainless steel?.
A) two passes in any direction. A) Penetrant dye.
B) one pass in any direction. B) Magnetic particle.
C) two passes at 90 degrees to each other. C) Hot oil and chalk.
Ans : Magnetic particle. B) Coin tap test.
Expl : Austenitic Stainless Steel is non- C) High voltage x-ray.
magnetic. Ans : Low voltage x-ray.
Expl : Leaflet 6-9 Appendix 1 Paragraph 4.
74. The dye penetrant field test kit consists

of cans of. 78. The eddy current method of flaw
A) penetrant, cleaner, developer and a detection can detect.
brush. A) sub surface flaws only.
B) spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray B) surface flaws and those just beneath the
developer. surface.
C) penetrant, cleaner and developer. C) surface flaws only.
Ans : spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray Ans : surface flaws and those just beneath the
developer. surface.
Expl : NIL. Expl : Leaflet 4-8.
75. The liquid applied to a component being 79. With dye penetrant how is the developer
checked by magnetic particle inspection is applied?.
for. A) Using a tank.
A) acting as a transmission medium for the test. B) As an even layer of chalk applied over the
B) to prevent corrosion occurring from contact area.
with the probe. C) At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several
C) to prevent scratching of the surface by the passes.
probe. Ans : At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with
Ans : acting as a transmission medium for the several passes.
test. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 6.
Expl : NIL.
80. When using the dye penetrant method

76. Which is the preferred method of test crack detection, the indications on a short, deep
for aluminium alloy alloy?. crack are.
A) Electroflux. A) single dots.
B) Magnaflux. B) circles.
C) Ultrasonic. C) long chain.
Ans : Ultrasonic. Ans : single dots.
Expl : NIL. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 7.
77. A composite flap panel has corrosion. 81. A deep internal crack in a structural steel
What NDT method will you use to detect?. member is detected by.
A) Low voltage x-ray. A) x-ray or ultrasonic process.
B) fluorescent penetrant method. C) above 15°C.
C) magnetic flaw method. Ans : below 0°C.
Ans : x-ray or ultrasonic process. Expl : Leaflet 4-2 4.2.
Expl : Leaflet 4-6.
86. When using the dye penetrant method,

82. The ultrasonic method of crack detection the part should be kept wet with the penetrant
can be used on. for.
A) surface and subsurface defects on all metals. A) 5 minutes.
B) surface and subsurface defects on ferrous B) 15 minutes.
metals only. C) up to one hour.
C) subsurface defects on all metals. Ans : up to one hour.
Ans : surface and subsurface defects on all Expl : Leaflet 4-2 4.1.
metals.
Expl : leaflet 4-5 1.1 and 4.2.2.
87. What NDT would you carry out on
aluminium alloy?.
83. Porosity in cast materials. A) Electroflux.
A) only occurs on the surface. B) Magnetic flaw.
B) is only detectable on the surface. C) Ultrasonic.
C) is detectable as a surface or sub surface Ans : Ultrasonic.
defect. Expl : NIL.
Ans : is detectable as a surface or sub surface
defect. 18d. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Expl : NIL. Assembly Techniques.
84. When using the fluorescent ink flaw 1. Where would you disconnect a
detection method, the component should be chain?.
inspected using an. A) At a bolted joint.
A) ultraviolet lamp. B) At an riveted joint.
B) infrared lamp. C) At a spring clip joint.
C) ordinary lamp and special glasses. Ans : At a bolted joint.
Ans : ultraviolet lamp. Expl : CAIP S EEL/ 3-1 Para 8-3-1 (b) & CAAIP S
Expl : Leaflet 4-3 1.5. Leaflet 5-4 3.4.
85. When using the dye penetrant method 2. How many times can a locking plate be
of crack detection, it should not normally be used?.
used at temperatures. A) 3 times, then discarded.
A) above 20°C. B) indefinitely providing it is a good fit around
B) below 0°C. the component to be locked.
C) once, then discarded. B) 100°C.
Ans : indefinitely providing it is a good fit C) 160°C.
around the component to be locked. Ans : 120°C.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 2-5 5.1. Expl : NIL.
3. A hi-lock collar should be. 7. What type of rivet would you use when
A) not lubed or washed because they are lubed there is access to only one side of the
at manufacture. work?.
B) washed in solvent before fitting. A) Blind.
C) lubricated before fitting. B) Pop.
Ans : not lubed or washed because they are C) Hilok.
lubed at manufacture. Ans : Blind.
Expl : NIL. Expl : CAIP S BL/6-28.
4. When drilling out a rivet, use a 8. Torque loading is carried out to
drill. provide.
A) larger than the hole. A) as tight a joint as possible.
B) same size as the hole. B) sufficient clamping without over-stressing.
C) smaller than the hole. C) flexibility.
Ans : same size as the hole. Ans : sufficient clamping without over-
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal stressing.
in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIP S Expl : NIL.
BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. We
chose the former, because it is current. Also
A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 2-67. 9. What is generally the best procedure to
use when removing a solid shank rivet?.
A) Drill through the manufactured head and
5. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
metal together the joint should be protected and remove the rivet with a punch.
with. B) Drill through the manufactured head and
A) jointing compound. shank with a shank size drill and remove the
B) paint. rivet with a punch.
C) grease. C) Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet
Ans : jointing compound. head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet
Expl : NIL. shank and remove the rivet with a punch.
Ans : Drill to the base of the manufactured
rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the
6. The maximum temperature for Nyloc rivet shank and remove the rivet with a
nuts is. punch.
A) 120°C.
Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal Ans : a special drill provided by the thread
in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIP S insert manufacturer.
BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. Both Expl : NIL.
documents say 'to the base of the head only'.
14. When fitting Rivnuts into position, how

10. What action is taken with a common are they secured and prevented from
circlip removed from a component?. rotating?.
A) It is replaced with a new item on assembly. A) Locknut at the rear.
B) It is checked for springiness. B) A locating key.
C) It is examined for distortion. C) Peened.
Ans : It is checked for springiness. Ans : A locating key.
Expl : NIL. Expl : Jeppesen A&P Airframe Technician
Textbook Page 2-48.
11. The maximum bolt diameter for which a

1/16 split pin may be used is. 15. Hi-loks are installed with the.
A) 7/16. A) thread and shank not lubricated.
B) 1/4. B) shank lubricated when fitting.
C) 3/8. C) thread lubricated when fitting.
Ans : 3/8. Ans : thread and shank not lubricated.
Expl : Leaflet 2-5 table 1. Expl : The threads are lubricated at
manufacture - not during fitting.
12. Why is a shouldered stud

used?. 16. A jury strut is one giving.
A) To provide a rigid assembly. A) a temporary support.
B) To decrease weight without loss of strength. B) a part of the structure that takes only tensile
C) As a replacement for a damaged stud. loads.
Ans : To provide a rigid assembly. C) additional support to a stressed area.
Expl : NIL. Ans : a temporary support.
Expl : CAIP S AL/7-14 Para 2-3-5.
13. A thread insert is removed

by. 17. Which type of repair has to be used
A) once fitted, a thread insert must not be where the damage is large and lost strength of
removed. the area has to be restored?.
B) using a drill the major diameter of the A) Filling plate and patch.
thread insert. B) Patch repair to the punctured skin.
C) a special drill provided by the thread insert C) Insert and butt strap.
manufacturer. Ans : Insert and butt strap.
Expl : NIL.
C) the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic
system (e.g. skydrol).
18. Which of the following actions would be Ans : the same fluid that is used in the
taken to fit a locking device to a nut or bolt, if hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol).
the correct torque has been reached but the Expl : Hydraulic seals are lubricated with the
locking device will not fit?. same hydraulic fluid that they are used with.
A) Tighten further until device fits.
B) File the base of the nut.
C) Change the nut or bolt for one that will 22. A gap in a firewall can be plugged
achieve the desired condition. by.
Ans : Change the nut or bolt for one that will A) an aluminium plate.
achieve the desired condition. B) a fireproof bung or bush.
Expl : BL/6-30 para 3.3. C) a plastic bung.
Ans : a fireproof bung or bush.
Expl : A gap in a firewall must be filled with
19. In the Push-pull tube linkage used in approved fireproof material.
aircraft flying control systems, how is the length
of the tube adjusted?.
A) Fit anew push-pull tube. 23. In a critically bolted joint.
B) By adjusting end fittings at each end of the A) a PLI washer can be used more than once
tube. only with self locking nuts.
C) It is fixed and does not require adjusting. B) a PLI washer can be affected by thread
Ans : By adjusting end fittings at each end of lubricant.
the tube. C) a PLI washer can only be used once.
Expl : NIL. Ans : a PLI washer can only be used once.
Expl : CAIP AL/7-8 4.5.3.
20. Spotfacing is done to.

A) provide a flat area on a rough surface. 24. Which of the following jointing
B) compensate for height in lieu of a spring compounds should not be used in the vicinity of
washer. a joint where the temperature may exceed
C) provide a good surface for welding. 200°C?.
Ans : provide a flat area on a rough A) DTD 900.
surface. B) DTD 200.
Expl : NIL. C) DTD 369.
Ans : DTD 369.
Expl : CAIP S AL/7-8 3.4.
21. When fitting a hydraulic component, the
hydraulic seal should be lubricated with.
A) with a specified hydraulic oil. 25. Why is jointing compound applied to the
B) grease. surfaces of material being joined together prior
to riveting?.
A) To act as a sealant and prevent filiform A) are of opposite hand at each end of the plain
corrosion. of portion.
B) To inhibit electrolytic action. B) are of the same hand at each end of the
C) To prevent swarf damage. plain portion.
Ans : To inhibit electrolytic action. C) are continuous throughout its length and
Expl : CAIP S BL/6-29. there is no plain portion.
Ans : are of the same hand at each end of the
plain portion.
26. A metallic stiff nut. Expl : The threads on a stud are the same hand
A) cannot be torque loaded. at each end of the plain portion.
B) cannot be used in areas in excess of 250oC.
C) is pre lubricated and does not need
lubricating. 30. The angle between starts on a double
Ans : cannot be used in areas in excess of start thread is.
250oC. A) 180 degrees.
Expl : Leaflet 3-4 4.2.3 (assuming it means HTS B) 120 degrees.
cad plated and not CRS, but a and b are not C) 90 degrees.
correct anyway). Ans : 180 degrees.
Expl : NIL.
27. How do you prevent earth loops forming

on screened cables?. 31. What does 18N and contiguous circles
A) Do not earth the screen. on the head of a bolt indicate?.
B) Earth both ends of the screen. A) 1.8 inch threaded portion and plain shank
C) Earth one end of the screen. 1/2 inch UNF.
Ans : Earth one end of the screen. B) 1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch BSF.
Expl : Electromagnetic Compatibility. Earth one C) 1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.
end of the screen. Ans : 1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.
Expl : Leaflet 3-3 2.3.4. BL/2-3 2.1.2.
28. When fitting a shackle pin, fit

with. 32. A UNF bolt is indicated by.
A) head uppermost. A) a triangle on the head.
B) 0.020. B) 2-3 rings on the head.
C) a shake-proof washer under the head. C) green dye.
Ans : head uppermost. Ans : 2-3 rings on the head.
Expl : The heads of all fasteners should be Expl : CAAIP Leaflet 3-3 2.3.4 (a).
uppermost where possible.
18e. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Assembly Techniques.
29. The threads on a stud.
1. Immediately after carrying out an
insulation check, which of the following
applies?. 4. After the normal function test of an
A) A continuity check must be carried out individual circuit has been completed and the
before switching on the circuit for the first circuit switched off.
time. A) a second function test must be carried out to
B) The readings observed and the atmospheric verify the first.
conditions at the time should be noted and B) the fuse should be removed and the circuit
compared to previous readings. again switched on to check the isolation of the
C) The observed readings should be noted and circuit concerned.
an independent check carried out by another C) a duplicate check must be carried out in
engineer. accordance with AWN 3.
Ans : The readings observed and the Ans : the fuse should be removed and the
atmospheric conditions at the time should be circuit again switched on to check the isolation
noted and compared to previous readings. of the circuit concerned.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.5.3. EEL / 1-6 Para 4-5-3. Expl : CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 4-6-3.
2. An Insulation test is carried out on a 5. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out
group of cables and a low reading obtained. on a heavy duty relay. The Millivoltmeter would
What action would you take?. be connected to the relay.
A) A low reading would be expected because A) when contacts closed and power is on.
the cables are in parallel. B) when contacts open and power off.
B) Change or renew all the cables involved in C) when contacts are open and power is on.
the test. Ans : when contacts closed and power is
C) Break the circuit down and carry out further on.
checks. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.3.
Ans : Break the circuit down and carry out
further checks.
Expl : EEL / 1-6 Para 4-4-2 & Leaflet 9-1 4.4.2. 6. Electrical cables installed on aircraft.
What is used to indicate a fault?.
A) Bonding test.
3. BITE systems to be used on the ground B) Continuity test.
only are deactivated by. C) Resistance test.
A) on take off. Ans : Continuity test.
B) the parking break. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.2.1.
C) by the undercarriage retraction.
Ans : on take off.
Expl : A proximity switch on the undercarriage 7. When checking resistance of a cable to
will signal a computer (Airbus) or a Proximity the starter motor what test is carried out?.
Sensor Control Unit (Boeing). This signal is then A) Millivolt drop test.
sent to all appropriate units. B) Safety Ohmmeter.
C) Time Domain Reflectometer. A) Reduce flare.
Ans : Millivolt drop test. B) Use reverse thrust.
Expl : NIL. C) Put flaps up.
Ans : Use reverse thrust.
19a. Abnormal Events. Expl : Aquaplaning is caused by excessive
speed on a wet runway. Reverse thrust slows
the aircraft and allows the wheels to continue
1. When inspecting an aircraft after a turning (rather than 'planing' which they do if
lightning strike, you should observe. they are locked by the brakes).
A) entry damage.
B) all signs of burning.
C) entry and exit damage. 5. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a
Ans : all signs of burning. wing is caused by.
Expl : AL/7-1 5.4. A) hogging.
B) tension.
C) sagging.
2. To ensure protection against HIRF Ans : hogging.
affecting audio and navigation aids. Expl : NIL.
A) ensure that all audio and navigation
equipment is adequately screened.
B) inspect and check all bonding leads to 6. After a report of flight through heavy
ensure their serviceability and replace if turbulence, you would.
defective. A) check the aircraft symmetry.
C) ensure that the correct number of static B) carry out a major overhaul.
wicks are fitted. C) not carry out any checks.
Ans : ensure that all audio and navigation Ans : check the aircraft symmetry.
equipment is adequately screened. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 6-3.
Expl : Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
7. After a heavy landing you should

3. Which of the following is a preventive check.
process against HIRF?. A) engine compressor shaft alignment.
A) Monitoring HIRF on the communication B) engine thrust alignment.
system. C) engine module alignment.
B) Visual inspections. Ans : engine thrust alignment.
C) Periodically checking aircraft bonding. Expl : Leaflet 6-3 2.8 (b)©.
Ans : Visual inspections.
Expl : Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
8. A lightning strike on an aircraft would
show.
4. How do you prevent aquaplaning during A) the entry and exit point.
landing?. B) the entry point only.
C) the exit point only. 12. Non metallic parts of the
Ans : the entry and exit point. aircraft.
Expl : NIL. A) do not require to be bonded because they
are non conductive.
B) must be bonded by bonding leads.
9. When an engine is not in direct electrical C) must be bonded by application of conductive
contact with its mounting, how should it be paint.
bonded?. Ans : must be bonded by application of
A) With at least one primary conductor. conductive paint.
B) With at least two primary conductors on one Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.4.4.
side of the engine.
C) With at least two primary conductors, one
each side of the engine. 13. Whenever possible a functional test
Ans : With at least two primary conductors, should be carried out on an aircraft using which
one each side of the engine. power supply?.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.5.9. EEL/1-6 Para 3.5.7. A) The aircraft battery.
B) The aircraft generators.
C) An external supply.
10. On a composite aircraft, large items are Ans : An external supply.
bonded. Expl : Leaflet 9-1 4.6.1.
A) by use of large copper strips.
B) Don't need to be bonded because they are
made of an insulating material. 14. How many primary bonding conductors
C) by primary bonding leads attached to a are required on an engine?.
cage. A) 1 only.
Ans : by primary bonding leads attached to a B) 2 on one side.
cage. C) 1 on each side.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.4.2. Ans : 1 on each side.
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 Para 3.5.9 and EEL/1-6
Para.3.5.9.
11. HIRF interference occurs
when.
A) in use on mid frequencies. 15. What is the primary purpose of bonding
B) in use on low frequencies. of metallic parts of an aircraft?.
C) in use on all frequencies. A) To provide a return path for electrical two-
Ans : in use on all frequencies. wire system.
Expl : HIRF is a problem from 10kHz - 18GHz B) To prevent high potential differences
(Civil-40 GHz Military) Understanding HIRF By between metallic parts from building up.
Gerald L. Fuller. C) To prevent lightening strikes.
Ans : To prevent high potential differences
between metallic parts from building up.
A) Corrosion on bonding leads.
B) Broken or missing static wicks.
16. In order to maintain HIRF protection, C) Unserviceable radio filters.
bonding checks between airframe and electrical Ans : Unserviceable radio filters.
components carrying voltages greater than 50V Expl : Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller.
RMS or dc should not exceed.
A) 0.05 ohm.
B) 1 ohm. 3. What is the reason for a primary bonding
C) 1 M ohm. connection’s large cross-sectional area?.
Ans : 1 ohm. A) To carry the static discharge current to the
Expl : Leaflet 9-1 3.8 table 1CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para conducting nose wheel.
3.8 Table 1. B) To carry lightening discharge current should
the need arise.
C) To maintain the airframe at the same
17. Ribbon cables affected by mutual potential throughout.
impedance and current loop leakage should be Ans : To carry lightening discharge current
protected by. should the need arise.
A) earthing each alternate conductor to Expl : CAAIP S leaflet 9-1 3.3.1 Jeppesen A&P
separate points. Mechanics Handbook Pg.452.
B) connecting all conductors to a common
earth.
C) shielding each individual conductor. 4. When an aircraft has been struck by
Ans : earthing each alternate conductor to lightning.
separate points. A) control surface bearings and hinges should
Expl : NIL. be checked for stiffness in operation.
B) control surface freedom of movement need
19b. Abnormal Events. not be checked provided skin punctures are less
than 3/16 inch diameter.
C) control surface freedom of movement need
1. An aircraft with under-wing mounted not be checked providing the bonding is
engines has a heavy landing, where would you undamaged.
expect to see wrinkling of the skins?. Ans : control surface bearings and hinges
A) Bottom skin caused by engine inertia. should be checked for stiffness in operation.
B) Top skin only. Expl : Leaflet 6-3 6.4 CAIP S AL/7-1 5.4.
C) On the top and bottom skins.
Ans : On the top and bottom skins.
Expl : Leaflet 6-3 2.6 (a) and AL/7-1 Para 2-6 5. On an aircraft which has had a heavy
(a). landing, on the lower wing you may see.
A) sagging.
B) hogging.
2. Which of the following could be a C) wrinkling.
primary cause of HIRF protection failure?. Ans : wrinkling.
Expl : Leaflet 6-3 para.2.6. 3. When storing parts you should
use.
A) monitor the temperature.
6. After a reported lightning B) silica gel.
strike. C) place in a sealed container.
A) the flight controls should be checked for full Ans : silica gel.
and free movement before the next flight. Expl : CAAIP S Leaflet 1-8 2.2.3.
B) the flight controls need to be checked for full
and free movement only if a bonding lead to
one of the control surfaces is found to be 4. ATA specification 100 is.
burned or broken. A) the procedures which must be complied
C) the aircraft and its systems must have a with before an aircraft can be given a Certificate
major overhaul before the next flight. of Airworthiness in the Transport Category
Ans : the flight controls should be checked for (Passenger).
full and free movement before the next flight. B) the International standardization of
Expl : NIL. maintenance manuals, illustrated parts
catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals,
20. Maintenance Procedures. service bulletins and letters.
C) the American FAA specification controlling
the manufacture of aluminium and its alloys.
1. Mandatory Warning Plaques and Ans : the International standardization of
symbols. maintenance manuals, illustrated parts
A) must be displayed on all flights. catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals,
B) must be displayed in the cabin only if they service bulletins and letters.
are legible. Expl : Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 14-12.
C) need not be displayed if they are
incorporated in the flight manual.
Ans : must be displayed on all flights. 5. An aircraft should carry at least the
Expl : NIL. following number of spare fuses:.
A) 10.
B) 3.
2. Following a major defect the C of C) 3 or 10%, whichever is greater.
A. Ans : 3 or 10%, whichever is greater.
A) is not affected, however may run out on a Expl : ANO Schedule 4.
time basis.
B) will be invalidated and needs renewing.
C) Nothing will happen. 6. Maintenance Schedules are
Ans : is not affected, however may run out on issued.
a time basis. A) in a folder with the operators name on the
Expl : NIL. cover.
B) with an approval certificate by the CAA.
C) by the operator with CAA approval.
Ans : by the operator with CAA approval. Ans : a repair has been carried out in
Expl : BCAR A/B 6-2 Para. 3.4. accordance with an approved repair
scheme.
Expl : NIL.
7. After a mandatory inspection has been
carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is
issued. 11. If the operator varies the content of the
A) a Certificate of Maintenance Review. maintenance schedule, what action must be
B) Certificate of Release to Service. taken?.
C) a Flight Release Certificate. A) Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek
Ans : Certificate of Release to Service. the CAA approval.
Expl : NIL. B) Await CAA approval before amending the
Maintenance Schedule.
C) Amend the Maintenance Schedule.
8. A hard time engine inspection Ans : Await CAA approval before amending the
involves. Maintenance Schedule.
A) replacement with a new or overhauled Expl : NIL.
component.
B) an in-situ function test.
C) removal of an engine component, its 12. When is an EASA Permit to Fly conditions
inspection and refitting. required?.
Ans : replacement with a new or overhauled A) To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air
component. test.
Expl : Leaflet 1-7 2.2.1. B) To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check
out a modification.
C) After a Certificate of Maintenance Review
9. Who approves Maintenance has been signed.
Manuals?. Ans : To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to
A) The CAA. check out a modification.
B) The Department of Trade and Industry. Expl : NIL.
C) The Board of Trade.
Ans : The CAA.
Expl : NIL. 13. When there is an overlap of
responsibility, how is the CRS
signed?.
10. A Certificate of Release to Service must A) Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft
be issued after. Engineers must each certify the parts
A) a repair has been carried out in accordance appropriate to their license coverage.
with an approved repair scheme. B) Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed
B) a re-fuel has been done. Aircraft Engineer may sign the CRS as he
C) engine runs. assumes responsibility for the operation, the
other engineers must sign the paperwork.
C) An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft C) CAA Printed Manual CAP 393.
Engineer and an ATPL holder sign the CRS when Ans : CAA Printed Manual CAP 393.
the aircraft is away from base. Expl : CAIP S BL/1-9 Para 8-11.
Ans : Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft
Engineers must each certify the parts
appropriate to their license coverage. 17. The information in the ANO is given in
Expl : AWN 3. the form of.
A) Articles of Law, some of which are further
clarified by Schedules.
14. Information contained in the ANO B) Chapters, each one dealing with a different
is. aspect of Civil Aviation, these chapters being
A) of a legal nature in all sections and is backed up by the schedules.
therefore mandatory. C) Regulations, each one covering a different
B) of a mandatory nature where safety is aspect of Civil Aviation and as such is
concerned. mandatory.
C) written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Ans : Articles of Law, some of which are
Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO Convention. further clarified by Schedules.
Ans : of a legal nature in all sections and is Expl : CAIP S BL/1-9 Para 4.
therefore mandatory.
Expl : NIL.
18. British Civil Airworthiness
Requirements.
15. An 'On Condition' Inspection A) form the Technical requirements for the
involves. design and operation of aircraft and their
A) a program of inspections used to increase equipment.
the life of lifed components. B) interpret the ANO and form the Technical
B) an inspection of a component with a view to requirements for the design.
continued operation if its condition warrants C) are printed by the CAA and are of an
such action. advisory nature.
C) replacement of life expired components for Ans : interpret the ANO and form the Technical
new ones. requirements for the design.
Ans : an inspection of a component with a view Expl : CAIP S BL/1-9 Para 4-4.
to continued operation if its condition warrants
such action.
Expl : CAIP S BL/ 1-16 Para 2-2-2. 19. A CMR is raised after.
A) defect rectification.
B) scheduled servicing at specified intervals.
16. Air Navigation General Regulations are C) major overhaul.
to be found in. Ans : scheduled servicing at specified
A) Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455. intervals.
B) British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Expl : NIL.
Section A.
Ans : after an area is disturbed.
20. Compliance with the ANO is restricted Expl : BCAR A5-3 para 3 states: VITAL POINTS
to. are any point on an aircraft at which single mal-
A) aircraft and their equipment which are on assembly could lead to catastrophe.
the UK Civil Register only.
B) aircraft and their equipment which are on
the UK & Commonwealth Civil Registers. 24. What colour is used to identify a
C) All civil aircraft and their equipment on the 'primary structure' when using the aircraft
international Civil Register. Maintenance Manual?.
Ans : aircraft and their equipment which are A) Yellow.
on the UK Civil Register only. B) Green.
Expl : NIL. C) Red.
Ans : Red.
Expl : NIL.
21. A Certificate of Release to service states
that.
A) a task has been carried out in accordance 25. Which of the following NDT methods can
with the ANO. be carried out and certified by a mechanic not
B) an operator has satisfied the CAA of his approved specifically for NDT
competence. inspections.
C) the aircraft has been maintained to an A) Ultrasonic.
approved schedule. B) Magnetic Particle.
Ans : a task has been carried out in accordance C) Neither of the above.
with the ANO. Ans : Neither of the above.
Expl : NIL. Expl : AWN 3 para 1.7.
22. Technical and Administrative 26. B.C.A.R’s.

information is officially circulated to L.A.M.E.S. A) contain minimum requirements to be
in. met.
A) B.C.A.R.s. B) are issued by Ministry of Trade and
B) A.W.N.s. Industry.
C) CAIP.s. C) detail mandatory requirements for aircraft
Ans : A.W.N.s. design and construction.
Expl : NIL. Ans : contain minimum requirements to be
met.
Expl : CAIP S BL / 1-9 Para 6-1.
23. Vital point inspections are carried
out.
A) after an area is disturbed. 27. The purpose of the CRS is.
B) on a 'C' check. A) to ensure that the log book entry is
C) on an 'A' Check. complete.
B) to turn a log book or job card entry into a C) the Civil Aviation Act 1971.
legal document and to ensure that the signatory Ans : the Air Navigation Order.
takes full responsibility for the work done. Expl : NIL.
C) to comply with article 15 of the ANO which
states that an aircraft must not fly unless it is
properly equipped for the intended flight. 31. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are
Ans : to turn a log book or job card entry into a constructed from parts that have been.
legal document and to ensure that the signatory A) manufactured to approved drawings.
takes full responsibility for the work done. B) manufactured by British Aerospace.
Expl : AWN 3 para 1.5. C) tested to destruction.
Ans : manufactured to approved drawings.
Expl : NIL.
28. Duplicate inspections are.
A) inspections which have to be duplicated but
which can finally be certified by one LAE or 32. Design drawings of aircraft components
approved signatory. are produced by organisations approved
B) inspections certified by one approved by.
signatory or LAE and then certified by a second A) C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR.
approved signatory or LAE. B) British Standards Institute.
C) inspections signed by a mechanic and C) S.B.A.C.
countersigned by an approved signatory or Ans : C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR.
licensed engineer. Expl : CAIP S BL / 1-4 Para 2.
Ans : inspections certified by one approved
signatory or LAE and then certified by a second
approved signatory or LAE. 33. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information
Expl : NIL. Procedures.
A) contain information of a mandatory nature.
B) contain approved inspection schedules.
29. When related to aeronautical C) are a guide to the general maintenance of
engineering, the term 'Inspection' is defined in aircraft.
the publication. Ans : are a guide to the general maintenance
A) Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3. of aircraft.
B) ANO article 11. Expl : NIL.
C) BCAR Section L.
Ans : Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3.
Expl : AWN 3 page 2 para 1.2 (d). 34. British Civil Airworthiness
Requirements.
A) specify the minimum qualifications for
30. The technical laws relating to Civil aircrew and engineers.
Aviation are contained in. B) list the minimum design requirements for
A) the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures. aircraft.
B) the Air Navigation Order. C) give General technical information.
Ans : list the minimum design requirements for B) That is has a green serviceable tag.
aircraft. C) The correct part number, the modification
Expl : CAIP S BL / 1-9 Para 6-1. state and the serviceability of the component.
Ans : The correct part number, the
modification state and the serviceability of the
35. What work has to be recorded and component.
signed for?. Expl : NIL.
A) Only work which entails a duplicate
inspection.
B) Only work involving replacements. 39. If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM, when
C) All work carried out. shall the crew report the incident in the
Ans : All work carried out. appropriate channels.
Expl : NIL. A) 48 hrs.
B) 24 hrs.
C) 72 hrs.
36. Are CAAIP. mandatory?. Ans : 72 hrs.
A) Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R. Expl : Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum
B) Yes, but only for six months at a time. excedance is an 'Incident'. JAR OPS Subpart D.
C) No, nothing in CAAIPs is mandatory. Para.1.420.
Ans : No, nothing in CAAIPs is mandatory.
Expl : NIL.
40. If the aircraft is away from base who may
certify the second part of the duplicate
37. With a serviceable chain not required for inspection?.
use, how should you store it?. A) a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type.
A) Lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and B) a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft
wrap in brown paper to exclude all dirt and type.
moisture. C) any licensed engineer.
B) Clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease Ans : a pilot with a licence for the aircraft
proof paper and suspend. type.
C) Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in Expl : BCAR A/B 6-2 10.3.9.
grease proof paper.
Ans : Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap
in grease proof paper. 41. Block cumulative maintenance means
Expl : DLeaflet 5-4 6.7. CAIP S AL/3-2 Para 6.7. that.
A) all the checks require the same man hour
input except for the major inspections.
38. What is the licensed engineer B) each check usually involves an increased
responsible for when fitting a new component aircraft down time.
to an aircraft?. C) all the maintenance is carried out in blocks.
A) That the paperwork is signed by an Ans : each check usually involves an increased
approved signatory. aircraft down time.
Expl : NIL. C) That he/she has had continuation training
within the previous 2 years.
Ans : That he/she has worked for 6 months on
42. A separate modification record book is the aircraft type within the previous 2 years.
required for. Expl : JAR 145.35 and associated IEM.
A) passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs
MTWA.
B) all aircraft. 46. Rubber components should be
C) passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs stored.
MTWA. A) in a cool dark area.
Ans : passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs B) in warm and humid conditions.
MTWA. C) in a well lit room.
Expl : BCAR A/B 7-9 Para.1.3. Ans : in a cool dark area.
Expl : Leaflet 1-8 3.13.1 and 3.13.3.
43. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs,

must be. 47. Storage of components to prevent
A) at least duplicated. corrosion is helped.
B) retained for two years from the date of A) by using silica gel.
issue. B) by wrapping in grease proof paper.
C) retained for four years from the last C) by placing them in a plastic box.
effective date. Ans : by using silica gel.
Ans : at least duplicated. Expl : BL/1-7 2.2.3Silica gel (silica dioxide) is a
Expl : BCAR A/B 7-8 Para.4.1. 'desiccant' i.e. it absorbs moisture.
44. Minimum equipment to be carried is 48. Dye penetrant kits should be

listed in. stored.
A) JAR 145. A) out of sunlight in a dry place.
B) JAR OPS. B) in direct sunlight to keep it dry.
C) JAR 25. C) in a dark damp cupboard.
Ans : JAR OPS. Ans : out of sunlight in a dry place.
Expl : JAR OPS subpart K. Expl : NIL.
45. What should be checked before a 49. When receiving new parts it is the
licensed engineer signs a CRS?. responsibility of the engineer to check.
A) That he/she has worked for 6 months on the A) it has a green serviceable label attached.
aircraft type within the previous 2 years. B) it is of the correct modification state and is
B) That he/she has worked for 4 months on the serviceable.
aircraft type within the previous 2 years. C) it was designed to acceptable standards.
Ans : it is of the correct modification state and A) the pilot, type rated on that particular
is serviceable. aircraft.
Expl : AWN 3. B) a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer.
C) a CAA surveyor or person approved within
the CAA.
50. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft Ans : a appropriate licensed aircraft
structural parts are graded as. engineer.
A) primary, secondary and tertiary. Expl : NIL.
B) class A, B and C.
C) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans : primary, secondary and tertiary. 54. An unauthorised repair has been carried
Expl : Primary, secondary and tertiary are the out.
three 'structure' classifications. A) sign a CRS for the repair.
B) apply for it as a modification.
C) carryout an approved repair.
51. If an unauthorized repair is carried Ans : carryout an approved repair.
out Expl : NIL.
A) the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of
Fitness for Flight.
B) the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized 55. A Part-66 licensed engineer, when
repair has been done. signing a CRS for a non-Part-145 company
C) the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is would need to have.
issued. A) maintenance experience for 6 months within
Ans : the Cof A is invalidated until an the last 24 months.
authorized repair has been done. B) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24
Expl : NIL. months.
C) maintenance experience for 4 months within
the last 24 months.
52. A C.of A. for export. Ans : maintenance experience for 6 months
A) does not give authority by it self for the within the last 24 months.
aircraft to fly. Expl : NIL.
B) gives authority for the aircraft to fly.
C) is required before aircraft registration in a
foriegn country. 56. A National UK licensed engineer, when
Ans : does not give authority by it self for the signing a CRS would need to have.
aircraft to fly. A) an aircraft type refresher in the last 24
Expl : NIL. months.
B) maintenance experience for 4 months within
the last 24 months.
53. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft C) maintenance experience for 6 months within
after a major modification by. the last 24 months.
Ans : maintenance experience for 6 months 2. When removing a piece of equipment
within the last 24 months. from an aircraft that supports the aircraft, what
Expl : AWN 3 (issue 20) pg 4 para 1.8. should you do?.
A) Go ahead and remove the part.
B) Wait for the new part to arrive before
57. Vital point inspections. replacing.
A) are points which require special certifying C) Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part.
LAEs. Ans : Fit a jury strut in place of the removed
B) are components which involve duplicate part.
inspections. Expl : NIL.
C) are lifed components.
Ans : are components which involve duplicate
inspections. 3. How do you prime a dead weight
Expl : BCAR A5-3 para 3 states: VITAL POINTS tester?.
are any point on an aircraft at which single mal- A) wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the
assembly could lead to catastrophe, ie. result in reservoir.
loss of aircraft and/or in fatalities. Hence the B) Remove the weights and pour fluid into the
need for duplicate inspections, AWN 3 pg 3 para hole.
1.6. C) wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the
reservoir.
Ans : wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the
58. On a pre flight check you notice an reservoir.
instrument glass is cracked. You should. Expl : It is normal to wind the handle (and
A) enter into technical log. plunger) fully in, fill the reservoir, then wind the
B) check MEL. handle out, to draw the fluid.
C) tell oncoming captain.
Ans : check MEL.
Expl : NIL. 4. When you change an EGT gauge, you
should.
A) do a test without considering ambient
temperature, as it is already accounted for by
1. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign the instrument.
a CRS for what?. B) do a test immediately, taking ambient
A) A task he has been locally trained for. temperature into consideration.
B) An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings C) do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30
for. minutes then do test taking ambient
C) A task that someone else has completed. temperature into consideration.
Ans : A task he has been locally trained Ans : do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30
for. minutes then do test taking ambient
Expl : NIL. temperature into consideration.
Expl : Correction factors for ambient
temperatures are usually found on the inside of
teh test instrument's lid.
5. What is the problem with using a megger

on a piece of equipment containing
capacitors.
A) Fluctuating readings will occur while the
capacitors charge up.
B) Feedback from the capacitors will blow the
megger up.
C) Impedance in the capacitors will give a false
high reading.
Ans : Fluctuating readings will occur while the
capacitors charge up.
Expl : NIL.
6. Water marks on bearings are indications

of.
A) bearing insufficiently lubricated.
B) intergranular corrosion.
C) bearing been run dry.
Ans : intergranular corrosion.
Expl : Jepperson A & P Airframe Technician
Textbook page 9-9 fig 9-11.
7. What is the allowable reaction on a

rivet?.
A) 2D.
B) 1D.
C) 1.5D.
Ans : 1D.
Expl : Allowance is 1.5D, formed tail is 0.5D, so
reaction must be 1.0D.

Module 07 MCQ

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Module 07 MCQ

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Module 07.

Maintenance Practice Ans : Dry asbestos wool and chalk

5. An aircraft should not be refueled

2. Acetylene gas forms an explosive

3. When mixing acid and water.

8. In an oxygen system, if the pressure

18. Once a person has been disconnected

19. What can cause dermatitis?.

19. When checking a torque wrench 15

23. Which is correct concerning the use of a

50. If a test or inspection instrument has no

52. Who is responsible for ensuring that

67. Tolerance is the. 70. Run-out of a rod is measured

76. The calibration of a piece of test

78. When turning the handle on a megger

75. Units of torque are.

7. When using the old style vernier caliper

5. What is the normal cutting angle of a

24. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw

29. The vernier scale on an English caliper is

30. The thimble of a metric micrometer is

49. The purpose of a taper tap is

47. How are pin punches

54. A Dial Test Indicator may be used

64. The leads of an ohmmeter should be

63. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would

71. When is a coarse hacksaw blade

81. What does the cut of a file refer

82. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-

83. How are files classified?.

87. The teeth on a hacksaw

106. When carrying out a continuity test on a

115. An AC voltmeter reads.

116. A hydrometer is used to.

138. The force acting on a meter which

139. The forces acting on a meter which

140. The resistance of an ammeter must

17. When using a bonding tester.

05. Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and

19. S.W.G. is an abbreviation

36. An oblique projection. 40. A hydraulic system schematic drawing

54. When a cutting plane goes through a

46. A specific measured distance from the

07. Electrical Cables and Connectors.

7. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a

8. What gauge of pin would a red plastic

38. To prevent wet arc tracking.

39. When splicing a cable with a soldered

36. A secondary earth is.

52. An in-line splice should be positioned on

3. A repair has a double riveted joint. The

4. The standard minimum rivet row spacing

09. Pipes and Hoses.

8. A flexible hose that cannot be internally

12. The international marking for a fire

22. Identify the parts required to make up a

24. Repair to aluminium pipe can be done

2. A wear check on a cylinder head valve

6. Small indentations in the race of a ball

7. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it

10. What fraction of the minimum breaking

15. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by

22. In marking a light alloy.

4. A non-destructive testing technique