Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
1. For a given material if ‘E’, ‘N’, and P are the Youngs modulus, Modulus of rigidity
and Poisson's ratio respectively, then which of the following is correct :
(A) E 2 N (1 P ) (B) E 2 N (1 P )
(C) N 2 E (1 P ) (D) E 2 N (1 P )
2. A simply supported beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to two concentrated loads of
‘W’ kN acting at ‘L/4’ from both ends. The shear force at the mid point of the beam
will be :
(A) W (B) W/2
(C) 2 W (D) 0
4. A cantilever beam of span ‘L’ units is subjected to a concentrated load of ‘W’ kN at the
free end. The cross section of the beam is rectangular with breadth ‘b’ units and
depth ‘d’ units. If the modulus of elasticity of the beam material is ‘E’, the ratio of
maximum deflection to maximum bending stress is :
(A) 2 L2 3 Ed (B) L2 6 Ed
(C) L2 4 Ed (D) L2 48 Ed
5. If the value of Euler crippling load of a column with both ends hinged is 100 kN, what
will be the value of Euler crippling load of another column made with the same
material, equal cross section and length but with both ends fixed :
(A) 100 kN (B) 400 kN
(C) 200 kN (D) 25 kN
6. For a perfect truss having ‘m’ members and ‘j’ joints. Which of the following
relationship is correct :
(A) m 2 j 3 (B) m 2 j 3
(C) m j 3 (D) m 2 j 3
A 3
[P.T.O.]
7. For a parabolic three hinged arch subjected to a uniformly distributed load of
intensity ‘w’ kN per unit horizontal length. The span of the arch is ‘L’ units and the
central rise ‘h/2’ units. The horizontal thrust (H) of the arch is :
(A) H w L2 4 h (B) H w L2 8 h
(C) H w L2 16 h (D) H w L2 2 h
8. When a uniformly distributed load shorter than the span is traversing a simply
supported beam. At any point in the beam, maximum value of bending moment will
occur when the load is :
(A) Equally placed about the point
(B) When the point divides the load in the same ratio as it divides the span
(C) When the load is centrally placed
(D) When the tail end of the load is at the left end of the beam
9. If the moment ‘M’ is applied to the hinged end of a prismatic propped cantilever beam
then the moment at the fixed end of the beam will be :
(A) M (B) M/2
(C) 2 M (D) –M/2
10. The relationship between distribution factor used in moment distribution method
( dj) and rotation factor (rj ) used in Kani's method is :
(A) rj dj 2 (B) rj dj
(C) rj 2 dj (D) rj 1.5 dj
11. The ratio of radiation reflected back by a surface to the radiation received by it is
called its :
(A) Radiation coefficient (B) Absorption coefficient
(C) Albedo (D) Bowen's ratio
12. A pipe 0.15 m dia taking off from a reservoir suddenly expands to 0.3 m at the end of
16 m and continues for another 15 m. If the head above the inlet of the pipe is 4.88 m,
the actual velocity at the exit, taking into considerates all the lossess is,
(Assume f = 0.04 for the complete pipe line) :
(A) 1.07 m/s (B) 0.039 m/s
(C) 0.99 m/s (D) 1.22 m/s
010/2020 4 A
14. The discharge through a triangular notch under a constant head of 0.25 m if the
angle of the notch is 120q and Cd, 0.62 is :
(A) 0.132 m3/S (B) 0.006 m3/S
(C) 0.079 m3/S (D) 0.316 m3/S
15. A reservoir has an area of 8.5 u 104m2 and is provided with a weir 4.5 m long. How
long will it take for the level at the sill to fall from 0.6 m to 0.3 m :
(A) 6.91 hrs. (B) 3.112 hrs.
(C) 10.37 hrs. (D) 2.305 hrs.
16. For natural stream channels, the value of Muskingum parameter will generally :
(A) between 0 and 0.3 (B) between 0.3 and 0.6
(C) more than 0.5 (D) more than 1.0
17. A small lead sphere of specific gravity 11.5 has a terminal fall velocity of 7 mm/S in a
fluid of specific gravity 1.25 and dynamic viscosity 7.848 poise :
(A) 1 mm (B) 0.008 mm
(C) 1.428 mm (D) 0.0183 mm
18. The volume of water stored between normal reservoir level and maximum reservoir
level is
(A) surcharge storage (B) live storage
(C) bank storage (D) useful storage
19. A single acting reciprocating pump has a plunger dia 0.3 m and a stroke length 0.4 m.
If the speed of the pump is 60 rpm and Cd is 0.97, actual discharge of the pump is :
(A) 6.8575 l/s (B) 27.43 l/s
(C) 9.143 l/s (D) 30.48 l/s
20. The rating curve of a stream gauging station gives the variation of discharge :
(A) the area of the flow (B) the stage
(C) the velocity of flow (D) the depth of flow
21. The length of a line measured by a 30 m chain was found to be 504.4 m. It was
afterwards found that the chain was 0.05 m too long, then the true length of the line
is :
(A) 505.04 m (B) 505.14 m
(C) 505.24 m (D) 505.34 m
22. A 50 m tape is held 2.5 m out of line. What is the true length?
(A) 49.74 (B) 49.84
(C) 49.94 (D) 50.04
A 5 010/2020
[P.T.O.]
23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line
to an irregular shaped boundary line : 2.52, 4.56, 6.82, 2.82, 5.89, 4.82, 8.27, 7.12 and
5.91 (All measured in metres). Calculate the are a (in m2) enclosed between the
survey line and the irregular shaped boundary line by Simpson's Rule :
(A) 405.6 m2 (B) 415.6 m2
(C) 425.6 m2 (D) 435.6 m2
25. If the distance between two points is 20 km, then the combined correction due to
curvature and refraction (in metres) is :
(A) 6.92 (B) 16.92
(C) 26.92 (D) 36.92
26. The value of a property at the end of the utility period without being dismantled is :
(A) Scrap value (B) Rateable value
(C) Salvage value (D) Market value
27. If C is the original cost, S is the scrap value, n Life of the property (years), then the
Annual depreciation of the property (using declining balance method is given by) :
n 1n
S ª S º
(A) D §¨1 ·¸ (B) D «1 §¨ ·¸ »
© C¹ ¬ ©C ¹ ¼
n
§1 C · ª § C ·1 n º
(C) D ¨ ¸ (D) D «1 ¨ ¸ »
© S¹ ¬ ©S ¹ ¼
28. IS Code 1200 (Methods of measurement of building and Civil engineering works) :
Part I deals with :
(A) Earthwork (B) Concrete work
(C) Brick work (D) Stone Masonry
29. A property fetches a net annual income of Rs. 900/- deducting all outgoings. If the
rate of interest is 5% per annum, then the capitalised value of the property is :
(A) Rs. 16,000/- (B) Rs. 18,000/-
(C) Rs. 20,000/- (D) Rs. 22,000/-
30. In what units are the quantities for the frames of doors and windows computed :
(A) m (B) m2
(C) m3 (D) None of these
010/2020 6 A
31. Grade of Cement refers to :
(A) Particle size (B) Order of grinding
(C) Soundness (D) Compressive strength
35. For an activity in a PERT network, if the Optimistic time, Most likely time and
Pessimistic time are 5,8 and 17 weeks respectively, the expected time is equal to :
(A) 8 weeks (B) 9 weeks
(C) 10 weeks (D) 15 weeks
38. The portion of a wall on which the end of an arch rests is known as :
(A) Abutment (B) Lintel
(C) Soffit (D) Nosing
A 7 010/2020
[P.T.O.]
41. Which of the following tests is not used for determining the workability of concrete?
(A) Compacting factor test (B) Blaine’s test
(C) Flow test (D) Vee-bee consistometer test
42. Identify the statement which is not true. The process of cold working of steel :
(A) increases the yield strength
(B) increases the ductility
(C) decreases the percentage elongation
(D) results in residual strain
43. The best lateral load resisting structural system for a building of 100 storeys is:
(A) Rigid frames (B) Framed tubes
(C) Frame-Shear wall dual system (D) Diagrid system
46. Failure of a component or a structure due to several cycles of repeated loads is called :
(A) Fatigue failure (B) Buckling failure
(C) Brittle fracture (D) Flexural failure
48. The extent of time by which the start of an activity may be delayed without
interfering with the start of the succeeding activity is called :
(A) earliest start time (B) latest start time
(C) free float (D) latest finish time
010/2020 8 A
49. Which is not true?
(A) PERT is used in research and development projects
(B) PERT is activity oriented
(C) Project duration estimate using PERT is probabilistic
(D) PERT is used for projects which are non-repetitive in nature
52. Population forecasting method best suited when the growth rate is having decreasing
trend and the city is heading towards saturation :
(A) Arithmetic (B) Geometric
(C) Graphical (D) Decreased rate of growth
56. The design period for the design of a water supply project is generally taken as :
(A) less than 10 years (B) 20-30 years
(C) 50 years (D) 100 years
57. The appurtenance which provides access for inspection and permits cleaning of sewer
line is known as :
(A) manhole (B) inlet
(C) catch basin (D) vent pipe
A 9 010/2020
[P.T.O.]
58. Mention the last stage in sludge treatment process :
(A) thickening (B) dewatering
(C) drying (D) digestion
60. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year :
(A) 1991 (B) 2000
(C) 1974 (D) 1981
61. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in concrete beams shall not exceed :
(A) 0.15% (B) 2%
(C) 4% (D) 1.5%
62. Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than :
(A) 4 m (B) 5 m
(C) 6 m (D) 8 m
010/2020 10 A
67. The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective
depth by :
(A) Three times (B) Four times
(C) Five times (D) Six times
69. Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported length does not exceed
their least lateral dimensions :
(A) 2 times (B) 3 times
(C) 4 times (D) 5 times
70. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one
direction, is :
(A) 35 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 20
72. Limit state of serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep,
shrinkage and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and application of
finishes as applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to :
(A) Span/150 (B) Span/200
(C) Span/250 (D) Span/350
73. According to IS – 456 2000 maximum spacing of shear reinforcement for concrete
beams in no case shall not exceed :
(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm
(C) 350 mm (D) 450 mm
74. In the heel slab of a cantilever retaining wall, main reinforcement is provided at :
(A) Bottom of slab (B) Top of slab
(C) Centre of slab (D) Sides of slab
A 11 010/2020
[P.T.O.]
76. In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear key is provided, if the :
(A) Shear stress in vertical stem is excessive
(B) Shear force in toe slab is more than heel slab
(C) Retaining wall is not safe against sliding
(D) Retaining wall is not safe against overturning
77. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of a plate is usually :
(A) More (B) Less
(C) Equal (D) None of the above
81. According to Indian Standard Classification soils more than half the coarse fraction
which is larger than 75 micron IS Sieve and smaller than 4.75 mm IS Sieve is
designated as which of the following?
(A) Gravels (B) Sand
(C) Clay (D) Silt
82. According to Darcy's Law which of the following is defined as the average velocity of
flow that will occur through the total cross sectional area of soil under Unit hydraulic
gradient?
(A) Coefficient of permeability (B) Coefficient of percolation
(C) Seepage velocity (D) Coefficient of transmissibility
85. Which among the following assumptions is not correct according to Rankine's Theory
for active earth pressure behind a retaining wall?
(A) The soil mass is semi-infinite, homogenous, dry and cohesionless
(B) The ground surface is a plane
(C) Shearing stress between the wall and the soil is taken into account
(D) The wall yields about the base and thus satisfies the deformation condition
for plastic equilibrium
86. Which among the following is called net safe bearing capacity?
(A) Safe bearing capacity divided by factor of safety
(B) Net ultimate bearing capacity divided by factor of safety
(C) Ultimate bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure
(D) Safe bearing capacity plus original overburden pressure
87. Which procedure is used for getting undisturbed samples from soil?
(A) Chunk sampling (B) Standard Penetration test
(C) Cone Penetration test (D) Auger boring
95. FAA recommends that the runway length after having been corrected for elevation
and temperature should be further increased at the rate of —————— for every 1%
of effective gradient :
(A) 10% (B) 20%
(C) 7% (D) 15%
98. Structure constructed in tunneling operations, in advance of the main drivage, along
its alignment, to gain information about the ground is called :
(A) Shaft (B) Tunnel invert
(C) Tunnel soffit (D) Pilot tunnel
99. Systems used to prevent damage to ships and berthing structures in the mooring
process is called :
(A) Breakwaters (B) Fenders
(C) Dolphins (D) Piers
————————
010/2020 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 010/2020
[P.T.O.]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
010/2020 16 A
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 011/2020
1. Radial height of a tooth above the pitch circle of a spur gear is:
(A) dedendum (B) pitch point
(C) tooth face (D) addendum
2. Connecting link between the piston rod and ––––––––––––– of a steam engine is cross head.
(A) cylinder (B) valve
(C) connecting rod (D) eccentrics
6. If P and Q are two forces and angle between them is ' ' then according to parallelogram law
of forces the resultant force ‘R’ =:
(A) P Q 2 P Q sin
2 2
(B) P Q 2 P Q cos
(C) P Q 2P Q cos
2 2 2 2
(D) P 2
Q 2 2 P Q cos
7. One kilo gram mass is equivalent as ––––––––––––– N.
(A) 1.5 (B) 9.81
(C) 8.32 (D) 6.12
8. F m x a is derived from:
(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law
(C) Newton’s third law (D) Newton’s law of gravitation
A 3
[P.T.O.]
9. The body which does not deform when subjected to external forces is termed as:
(A) flexible body (B) composit training
(C) elastic body (D) rigid body
10. Geometric center of the area where the entire area can be assumed to be concentrated is
known as:
(A) centroid of area (B) midpoint of area
(C) eccentricity of area (D) concentricity of area
11. Whenever a body moves or tends to move over another body ––––––––––––– force is
developed at the contact surface.
(A) laminar (B) co-planar
(C) anti frictional (D) frictional
12. The angle between normal reaction at the contact surface and the resultant of normal
reaction and limiting friction is:
(A) angle of friction (B) angle of reaction
(C) angle of repose (D) angle of deviation
13. The point about which the body can be assumed to be rotating at the given instant is called
––––––––––––– of rotation.
(A) instantaneous retardation (B) instantaneous motion
(C) instantaneous plane (D) instantaneous center
14. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies inversely as its volume when
the ––––––––––––– remains constant.
(A) volume (B) temperature
(C) flow (D) velocity
15. A machine which converts mechanical energy in to pressure energy is known as:
(A) engine (B) generator
(C) pump (D) motor
16. In double acting reciprocating pumps, the water is acting on ––––––––––––– sides of the
piston.
(A) both (B) one
(C) either in one or two (D) nearer
011/2020 4 A
17. In order to produce air tight reveted joint ––––––––––––– process is required.
(A) bevelling (B) caulking
(C) fillering (D) sealing
20. The device used to connect two shafts together at their ends for the purpose of transmitting
power is known as:
(A) sleeve (B) coupling
(C) bearing (D) nipples
21. Standard size of the part, which is same for both hole and its shaft is known as:
(A) Enlarged size (B) reduced size
(C) Nominal size (D) Measured size
24. The drawing which is used for explaining working principle of any machine is known as
(A) production drawing (B) exploded drawing
(C) schematic drawing (D) tabular drawing
25. Length of the arrow head should be about ––––––––––––– times its maximum width.
(A) three (B) two
(C) four (D) five
A 5 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
26. A section is formed by passing a cutting plane at right angles to the axis of the object is
termed as:
(A) partial section (B) full section
(C) revolved section (D) offset section
28. Width across flats (W) of a hexagonal nut can be found by ––––––––––––– formula.
(A) 2 D + 1 mm (B) D + 3 mm
(C) 3 D + 3 mm (D) 1.5 D + 3 mm
29. If thickness of the plate is ‘t’ then the diameter of a rivet is:
(A) d t (B) d 6 t
30. The bearing pressure is perpendicular to the axis of shaft in ––––––––––––– bearings.
(A) journal (B) pivot
(C) thrust (D) collar
33. In a muff coupling, the outside diameter and the length of the muff are ––––––––––––– and
––––––––––––– the diameter of the shaft.
(A) two times and two times (B) three times and two times
(C) three times and three times (D) two times and three times
011/2020 6 A
34. If width of a ‘V’ belt is 10 mm then the length of the belt will be in a range of
––––––––––––– mm.
(A) 150 to 860 mm (B) 260 to 860 mm
(C) 212 to 1262 mm (D) 420 to 2820 mm
35. The formula for finding out circular pitch of a spur gear is:
(A) module pitch (B) / module pitch
(C) number of teeth (D) /number of teeth
37. A Telescopic gauge can be used to measure a cylinder bore if ––––––––––––– is used to the
telescopic gauge?
(A) Micrometer (B) Feeler gauge
(C) Straight edge (D) Dial indicator
38. The depth of water formed by providing a tap in the water closet is called:
(A) Water cussion (B) Water seal
(C) Water meter (D) Water barrier
39. ––––––––––––– bacteria can live and develop in the presence or absence of oxygen.
(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic
(C) Facultative (D) All of the above
40. The waste water from the kitchen, bathroom etc is called:
(A) Sewage (B) Ashes
(C) Garbage (D) Sullage
A 7 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
42. The law related to transmission of pressure is:
(A) Faraday’s law (B) Pascal’s law
(C) Stevin’s law (D) None of the above
43. A bearing shell has a slightly larger arc than bearing housing is called:
(A) Bearing tang (B) Bearing saddle
(C) Bearing crush (D) Bearing spread
44. In a normally operating engine, intake and exhaust valves are opened by a cam closed by the:
(A) Rocker arm or cam follower (B) Lifters or tappets
(C) Valve spring (D) Valve guide or pushrod
47. How many, crankshaft rotations required to get one power stroke in a four stroke single
cylinder diesel engine?
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Two (D) Four
48. The centre of pressure on any surface immersed in a liquid is the point through which the
––––––––––––– acts?
(A) Resultant pressure (B) Weight of surface
(C) Buoyant force (D) Total pressure
49. The bottom edge of the notch over which the liquid flows is called?
(A) Bed (B) Sill
(C) Sluice (D) Vent
011/2020 8 A
50. A Sewage contains:
(A) 0.1% matters (B) 99.9% water
(C) Both of the above are correct (D) None of the above
51. The openings constructed on lines of sewers or drains in order to enable men enter or leave
them is called:
(A) Pot hole (B) Lamp hole
(C) Street inlet (D) Man holes
52. What is the volume of the space above the piston at BDC?
(A) Swept volume (B) Combustion chamber volume
(C) Total volume (D) Clearance volume
58. The equation of continuity in brief states that the ––––––––––––– of the fluid through a
section remains the same :
(A) Velocity (B) Mass
(C) Direction (D) Total head
A 9 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
59. Thrust bearing wear will cause excessive :
(A) Crankshaft bending (B) Crankshaft vibration
(C) Crankshaft endplay (D) Crankshaft speed
66. Which is the most common tool used for drawing circles :
(A) French Curve (B) Mini Drafter
(C) Divider (D) Compass
011/2020 10 A
68. In unidirectional system the dimensions are :
(A) Placed above the dimension line
(B) Placed below the dimension line
(C) Placed by breaking the dimension line in the middle
(D) None of the above
69. The scale of a drawing is given as 1:20 what is the representative fraction :
(A) 20 (B) 1/20
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.02
70. How many external tangents are there for two circles :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
71. The sections cut by a plane on a right circular cone are called :
(A) Parabola sections (B) Conic sections
(C) Elliptical sections (D) Hyperbolic sections
73. A plane is held parallel to horizontal plane in which view we can watch drawing on that
plane :
(A) Top view (B) Front view
(C) Back view (D) Side view
74. A circle is placed at 20 degrees with vertical the view from top view will be :
(A) Line (B) Circle
(C) Ellipse (D) Oval
A 11 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
76. In first angle projection method object is assumed to be placed in
(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant
(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant
80. A point ‘p’ is above horizontal plane and in front of vertical plane. The point is in :
(A) First quadrant (B) Second quadrant
(C) Third quadrant (D) Fourth quadrant
82. How many pairs of parallel lines are there in regular hexagon :
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 1
83. When drawing a perpendicular line through apoint which is nearer to the middle of a given
line is cut at two points on the line?
(A) A circle (B) A square
(C) A rectangle (D) An arc
84. The line perpendicular to a tangent and is passing through the point of contact is called :
(A) Perpendicular bisector (B) Angle bisector
(C) Normal (D) Tangent
011/2020 12 A
85. The preferred size of the drawing sheet is recommended by the :
(A) BIS (B) ASME
(C) ASTE (D) NIST
87. A rectangular field is 40 m long and 30 m wide. Perimeter of rectangular field is:
(A) 20 m2 (B) 18 m2
(C) 160 m2 (D) 140 m2
89. Ninu took two rounds of a ground 180 cm long and 100 m wide. The total distance covered by
him is:
(A) 280 m (B) 560 m
(C) 1120 m (D) 2240 m
92. The area of a square field is 24200 sq.m. How long will a man take to cross the field,
diagonally at the rate of 6.6 km/hr:
(A) 3 minutes (B) 2 minutes
(C) 2.4 minutes (D) 2 min 40 seconds
93. A 5 cm cube is cut in to as many 1 cm cubes as possible. What is the ratio of the surface area
of the larger cube to that of the sum of the surface areas of the smaller cube
(A) 1:6 (B) 1:5
(C) 1 : 25 (D) 1 : 125
A 13 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
94. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 16 cm.
95. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 20 cm and 18 cm long and the distance
between them is 15 cm:
(A) 225 cm2 (B) 275 cm2
(C) 285 cm2 (D) 315 cm2
96. If the edge of a cube is 1cm then which of the following is its volume:
(A) 6 cm3 (B) 3 cm3
(C) 1 cm3 (D) None of the above
97. If the dimensions of a room are l, b, h (l-length, b-breadth, h-height) then which of the
following is the area of its four walls.
(A) 2 h l b (B) 2 h l h
(C) 2 l h b (D) None of the above
98. Two identical cubes each of total surface area of 6 cm2 are joined end to end. Which of the
following is the total surface area of the cuboid so formed.
(A) 12 cm2 (B) 18 cm2
(C) 10 cm2 (D) 8 cm2
100. A man walks entirely around his semi circular garden. What is the area of his garden if he
walks 324 m
(A) 18 m2 (B) 6237 m2
(C) 5248 m2 (D) 5368 m2
————————
011/2020 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 011/2020
[P.T.O.]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
011/2020 16 A
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 013/2020
1. Select the bending moment diagram for the simply supported beam loaded as shown
in the figure :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
A 3
[P.T.O.]
3. The product moment of inertia of a rectangular section of size b u d about its
horizontal centroidal axis is equal to :
b2 d 2 bd2
(A) (B)
4 6
2 2
bd
(C) 0 (D)
6
4. If V denotes the shear force acting at a particular section along the span of a beam
having a rectangular cross-section of width b and depth h, then the shear stress at
the neutral axis is :
3V
(A) 0 (B)
2bh
3V V
(C) (D)
4bh bh
013/2020 4 A
10. A column, hinged at both ends, is having an unsupported length of 3 m,
second moment of area I XX 400 cm 4 , IYY 120 cm 4 and area of cross-section 30 cm 2 .
The slenderness ratio of the column is equal to :
(A) 150 (B) 120
(C) 130 (D) 82.2
11. Find the pressure represented by a column of 10 cm of water if specific weight of
water is taken as 10 kN/m3 :
(A) 1 kN/m2 (B) 1000 kN/m2
(C) 1 N/m 2 (D) 100 kN/m2
12. The flow of a liquid at constant rate in a uniformly tapering pipe is :
(A) Steady, uniform flow (B) Unsteady, uniform flow
(C) Steady, non-uniform flow (D) Unsteady, non-uniform flow
13. The line joining the piezometric heads at various points in a flow is known as the :
(A) Total energy line (B) Hydraulic Gradient line
(C) Datum (D) None of the above
14. A jet of water coming out of a nozzle with velocity 50 m/s is having cross sectional
area of 20 cm2. The jet is directed against a fixed flat plate held normal to the jet.
Find the force exerted on the plate :
(A) 5000 N (B) 2000 N
(C) 5000 kN (D) 200 N
15. In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel the sequent depths
are 0.5 m and 1.5 m. The energy loss in this jump is :
(A) 1 m (B) 1.5 m
(C) 2 m (D) 0.33 m
16. The evaporation through plants and from the surrounding soil together is called :
(A) Infiltration (B) Interception
(C) Evapotranspiration (D) Transpiration
17. Find the delta for a crop if the duty for a base period of 100 days is 4320 hectares per
cumec :
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m
(C) 0.4 m (D) 1 m
18. In the single point method of finding the mean velocity across a vertical in a stream,
if y is the depth of flow, the velocity is measured above the stream bed at :
(A) 0.6 y (B) 0.2 y
(C) 0.8 y (D) 0.4 y
A 5 013/2020
[P.T.O.]
19. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating a confined
aquifer represents :
(A) water table surface
(B) piezometric surface of the aquifer
(C) capillary fringe
(D) cone of depression
20. The time required by rain water to reach the outlet of drainage basin is generally
called :
(A) Time of concentration (B) Duration of the rainfall
(C) Lag time (D) Recession time
21. The sum of exterior angles for a hexagon is :
(A) 720 (B) 1440
(C) 900 (D) 1080
22. If the included angle at station B in an open traverse ABCDE 1s 158º24Ļ then the
deflection angle is :
(A) 21º36ĻL (B) 21º36ĻR
(C) 338º24ĻR (D) 338º24ĻL
23. The following perpendicular offsets were taken at 10 m intervals from a survey line
to an irregular boundary line. The area in square metre enclosed between the survey
line, irregular line, first and last offsets by Simpson’s rule is :
Perpendicular offsets, 5 m, 2 m, 4.5 m, 6 m, 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 2.5 m, 4 m
(A) 260 m2 (B) 520 m2
(C) 180 m 2 (D) 360 m2
24. The probable error of area (in m2) of rectangle sides are 100 + – 0.01 m and
200 + – 0.02 m is :
(A) + – 2 (B) + – 0.0002
(C) + – 0.02 (D) + – 1.47
25. If the cross sectional areas at every 50 m, in a length of 200 m are :
5 m2, 10 m2, 15 m2, 10 m2, 5 m2 then, volume by trapezoidal rule is
(A) 4000 m3 (B) 5000 m3
(C) 2000 m3 (D) 3000 m3
26. The covered area of a building measured at floor level is called :
(A) Floor area (B) Plinth area
(C) Carpet area (D) Circulation area
27. A building costs Rs. 40000. Considering scrap value as 10% of the cost and life as
60 years, the depreciated value after 20 years is :
(A) 33800 (B) 34800
(C) 32800 (D) 31800
013/2020 6 A
28. Steel reinforcement bars in RCC is measured in :
(A) Quintals (B) Metre
(C) Number (D) Cu.m
29. The years purchase for 6% interest is :
(A) 20 (B) 13.33
(C) 16.67 (D) 0.06
30. For 45º cranked or bent up bar of dia ‘‘d’’, the additional length of 2 bent up is
approximately :
(A) 0.9 d (B) 0.45 d
(C) 0.3 d (D) 0.8 d
31. The initial setting time of Ordinary Portland cement as per BIS is :
(A) not more than 100 minutes (B) not more than 30 minutes
(C) not less than 30 minutes (D) less than 30 minutes
32. The main function of Alumina in brick earth is to :
(A) impart plasticity (B) increase durability
(C) prevent shrinkage (D) increase impermeability
33. Ultimate Strength of Ordinary Portland Cement is provided by :
(A) Tricalcium Silicate (B) Dicalcium silicate
(C) Tetracalcium alumino ferrite (D) Tricalcium aluminate
34. Proneness to segregation of fresh concrete is better tested by :
(A) Slump test (B) Flow test
(C) Vee Bee test (D) Compaction factor test
35. As the fineness modulus of aggregate increases its particle size :
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) remains same (D) none of these
36. ‘Float’ which does not interfere with the start of the subsequent activity in a project is :
(A) Total float (B) Independent float
(C) Free float (D) Interfering float
37. Quality of reinforcing steel is evaluated by :
(A) Compressive strength (B) Tensile strength, ductility
(C) Yield strength, ductility (D) None of the above
38. Salt present in brick earth may cause :
(A) Brittleness (B) Efflorescence
(C) Discolouration (D) None of the above
A 7 013/2020
[P.T.O.]
39. One of the main demerits of using Lime mortar is that :
(A) it is not durable (B) it does not set quickly
(C) it swells (D) it has plasticity
40. Grading of aggregates in a concrete mix is mainly essential to achieve :
(A) Adequate workability (B) Higher density
(C) Reduction in voids (D) Better durability
41. Which of the following statements is not correct :
(A) Seasoning of timber increases the strength
(B) Seasoning of timber increases the life
(C) Seasoning of timber results in dimensional instability
(D) Seasoning of timber reduces the weight
42. Choose the correct combination :
1. Retarder P. Fly Ash
2. Accelerator Q. Superplasticizer
3. Pozzolana R. Gypsum
4. Workability S. Calcium chloride
(A) 1–R, 2–S, 3–P, 4–Q (B) 1–S, 2–R, 3–P, 4–Q
(C) 1–R, 2–P, 3–S, 4–Q (D) 1–R, 2–S, 3–Q, 4–P
43. Deformation in concrete due to sustained loading is :
(A) Shrinkage (B) Creep
(C) Segregation (D) Bleeding
44. The foundation provided below a heavily loaded steel column on a soil of low bearing
capacity is :
(A) Isolated column footing (B) Grillage foundation
(C) Raft foundation (D) Strip footing
45. A bond in which both header and stretcher come in the same course is :
(A) English bond (B) Raking bond
(C) Zigzag bond (D) Flemish bond
46. Which of the following does not belong to the class ‘shell roof ’ :
(A) Dome (B) Barrel vault
(C) Warped surface (D) Flat slab
47. Decoupling of the superstructure from substructure resting on a shaking ground is
called :
(A) Base isolation (B) Damping
(C) Shock absorption (D) Retrofitting
013/2020 8 A
48. If to is the optimistic time, t p is the pessimistic time and tm is the most probable
time, then the expected time of occurrence of an activity is :
to 2tm t p to tm t p
(A) t (B) t
4 3
to 4tm t p to 2tm 3t p
(C) t (D) t
6 6
013/2020 10 A
65. In a reinforced concrete footing, the thickness at the edge shall not be less than
150 mm for footing on soils nor less than ___________ mm above the top of piles for
footing on piles:
(A) 250 mm (B) 300 mm
(C) 350 mm (D) 200 mm
66. Poisson’s ratio of concrete is frequently taken as:
(A) 0.15 – 0.25 (B) 0.5 – 0.75
(C) 0.05 – 0.15 (D) none of above
67. One way slabs are those in which most of the load is carried on the ___________ span :
(A) longest (B) shortest
(C) middle (D) quarter
68. The modulus of rupture of M25 Concrete may be taken as ___________ N/mm 2 :
(A) 3 (B) 3.5
(C) 4 (D) 4.5
69. Upright compression members that support decks in bridges are often called as:
(A) Pile (B) Piers
(C) Pedestal (D) Stub
70. Slenderness ratio of a member is defined as the ratio of the effective length to the
___________ of a section:
(A) moment of inertia (B) radius of gyration
(C) thickness (D) area
71. The unsupported length of transverse ties should not exceed ___________ times the
diameter of tie in two directions:
(A) 36 (B) 42
(C) 48 (D) 16
72. The full fixity at the column may be valid only for columns supported by:
(A) an individual footing on rock (B) a thick pile cap
(C) a raft foundation (D) all of the above
73. A ___________ section is one in which the area of tension steel is such that the
ultimate limit state, the ultimate compressive strain in concrete is reached, However
the tensile stain in the reinforcing steel is less than the yield strain:
(A) balanced (B) under reinforced
(C) over reinforced (D) composite
74. In design practice of beams the span to overall depth ratio are generally taken in the
range:
(A) 10 to 16 (B) 25 to 30
(C) 1 to 2 (D) 30 to 45
A 11 013/2020
[P.T.O.]
75. Counter fort retaining wall is economical for heights above ___________ m:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
76. For preliminary calculations the thickness of the base slab of a retaining wall may be
taken as ___________ percent of the height of wall:
(A) 0.8 (B) .08
(C) 8 (D) 80
77. Considering the concept of durability of water tanks, the minimum grade of concrete
shall be:
(A) M10 (B) M20
(C) M30 (D) M40
78. The permissible concrete stress in direct tension of M20 in calculation relating to
resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:
(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 12 kg/cm 2
(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 17 kg/cm 2
79. The permissible concrete stress in tension due to bending of M20 in calculation
relating to resistance to cracking as per IS 3370-1965 part II is:
(A) 20 kg/cm 2 (B) 17 kg/cm 2
(C) 14 kg/cm 2 (D) 10 kg/cm 2
80. The method of prestressing concrete in which pre-stressing steel is tensioned against
the hardened concrete is:
(A) Pre tensioning (B) post tensioning
(C) initial prestressing (D) jack tensioning
81. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from
50 kN/m 2 to 100 kN/m 2 . If the effective stress is further increased from 100 kN/m 2 to
200 kN/m 2 , then further settlement of the clay shall be:
(A) 10 mm (B) 20 mm
(C) 30 mm (D) 40 mm
82. The time taken by clay layer to achieve 50% consolidation is 5 years. If the layer was
half as thick, 5 times more permeable and 4 times more compressible then the time
that would be required to achieve the same degree of consolidation is :
(A) 12 year (B) 5 year
(C) 1 year (D) 16 year
83. A soil sample has a shrinkage limit of 10% and specific gravity of soil solids as 2.7.
The porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is :
(A) 21.2% (B) 30%
(C) 527% (D) 70%
013/2020 12 A
84. What is the range of silt size particles according to IS classification :
(A) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm (B) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
(C) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm (D) 0.75 mm to 0.002 mm
85. In a falling head permeameter, a soil sample 75 mm in diameter and 36 mm in length
was tested. At the commencement of the test, the initial head was 80 cm and after
one hour, the head drops to 40 cm. The coefficient of permeability if the diameter of
the stand pipe is 1 cm, in cm/sec will be :
(A) 1.98 u 10 3 (B) 1.88 u 10 3
(C) 1.98 u 10 2 (D) 1.23 u 10 5
86. A vane 20 cm long and 10 cm in diameter was pressed into soft marine clay at the
bottom of a bore hole. Torque was applied gradually and failure occurred at
2000 kg/cm, the cohesion of the clay in kg/cm2 is :
5 7
(A) (B)
S
7 S
6
12 7
(C) (D)
S
7 S
12
87. An un drained triaxial compression test is carried out on a saturated clay sample
under a cell pressure of 200 kN/m2. The sample failed at a deviator stress of
400 kN/m2. The cohesion of’ the given clay sample is :
(A) 50 kN/m2 (B) 200 kN/m2
(C) 300 kN/m2 (D) 400 kN/m2
88. Flow lines and equipotential lines meet each other at an angle :
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 90 (D) 120
89. Newmark’s chart is used in foundation engineering to determine :
(A) earth pressure
(B) seepage loss
(C) permeability of soils
(D) stresses in soil due to surface loading
90. According to Terzaghi, the ultimate bearing capacity of a purely cohesive soil, at
ground surface for a rough based footing is:
(A) 5.14 Cu (B) 5.14 Cu JDf
(C) 5.7 Cu (D) None of the above
95. The diagram showing the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians involved in
accidents is :
(A) Spot map (B) Condition diagram
(C) Collision diagram (D) Desire line
96. The general equation relating flow (Q), density (K) and space mean speed (U) is :
K U
(A) Q (B) Q
U K
(C) Q UK (D) Q KU
————————
013/2020 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 013/2020
[P.T.O.]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
013/2020 16 A
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 025/2019
S, Whd . .la! i! osidstd as rwo way .lab, it! long .pu to .hort span ratio i3 |
8, t! th. .h.i. t !t of .ssrtsltd tLe D.td.L *hE L!.t diD.ldm is l€€s tbu 0.6 ti@. of
,I!it e.r lit @ ten€d s :
(A) Eldsit.a (B) O.D sa.I€d
(O c[o.. sn&d @) SbrY
{ A D@d pitb DMid€d 6r tlte purDde of euwili .imi. to t@ to tnd iw th. tutry
a.il th..tM i€ dll€d :
(B) t uc6
W i
r.167 (B) 16?e6
(C) 1.?610 @) l.sto 6
G lt riFtts.8 loiri i! the dercin! lc&t bqsd *hich de tEir rebc|' c4 .t d !.Slv
riih4! @uidirs rit! tlD haii @i!a 6 tha oiL.t rncr i. :
( ) ILel (B) C.!she.t
(q rodDut (D) Cndtirs.tsli@
a t
n,to.l
7. { l.ver of eoc(t . b,sod} or .obc ctc. s}r.l B pl,.rd dr Fn'r3tre or ouilct of,
cul\€rt or *atetuat io Feveni thc elri.g ii dllcd :
'br
(A) Abuine.i (D anr
(c) qissn (D) aprcn
{A) a tu.bins
radial doq ibpulse (B) !r uial f,or turbiDe
(O a radidl dN r€actio. tubire (D) animp de turbin€
12. Wher a luid is a. resq the 6lEar 8rreft i! |
16. TLe nqiom mout! of stEiD ener6r wbrh ca. bp stoled i! a uit sluds qthout
pcm$€tr! sr i. callcd :
r9, Iq r cotuEr sid! on. ord tusd a.d th€ oth6r €n'l trine.d |be eft@hre leneth is :
(A) L (a) 2L
\o Ltl.lr) @) Ltz
20. TL6.tud&d saus! lonsb ot a sp(im€n tor t6n6il€ @r sith nill'lso$stron 'Fs oo r3
24, Tto pol6i nonert or ircnia of 6 holla cncdd sfttion *itL elteloul dianet€r
int rnal dird€br 'd' i :
26, Whcn a.lo*d dn !€ricdl 6p.i!g is suhjc(hd b ab dal.mpa5lrve lod. rh€ n,llrial sdl
(B)
(D)
SS. M;ihud a6out of rliadolveil oxyslt d6irablo h srv wdxer bodv is los. than :
(A) *wtg€
8& Tle r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual st.to io that h the renould''I state
t7. lAe difi.rac betwen the tobr lircs lt i 4oint ud rLe poF wlter Dlsw at !!ri Poirt
{0. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction
4\t20r4
47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I
O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.
(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*
a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :
(A, width
oqual E (B) los th.lsidln
(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@
4t. Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :
(A) 6n ntDaiDt
(C) .n.nel Daiit
59- -&ph.li i. a Di*tm of
(A) litqne! and e.le6toE (B) bii@e! a l@@d
(C) t{ andB.b$t s CD) bifuen .nd inolt 6ine..I Dattor
4V1014 t0
65. The vedical int .meaitl. member o{ the iane which divid$ the windos verticauv is :
(D) rail
66, The veriicd window prwided on ihe slopins rcor is kndn a6 :
70. A propped cdntileyer sith unifornly diettibu!€d lold'Wn'and rp,n l, th€n the prcp
7r. A pi! joinEd perl€ci n.6e i5 to sdliltv wh.re 't is Dur+r ol n.nbem dnd
t i6 lhe nub€. of joiDb
(A) r>2j 3 (B) z<2j-3
\c) ^ =2j 0
79. In G€ li;i! 6tate dethod ofdeeier ih€ na*inun mnpbdliw sh.i. in @Dcrete i6 iAlan as :
11 {U20t4
tP.a.ol
?.1. l. .i.cly reinlorced been ir the onc$b 6ft6sed .o aUdable linit earlier ibln steel
rh. secho. n said b bc: '6 'ts
(A) @errcinnftod bean (B)
(C) nndq reinlorced @ction (D)
8?. Th€ pftn JRthikkuDnf wni.h crilicized $; cast cysi.e i n Ke.ala was wdtten bv :
80. Tbe tu;t 6hte in Indiu Fhich i6 docldFd ae tobseo Fee st3i€ :
97. tlF consriiurion'1 anendncnt shich b.dc 'Risht to Education d lundamcnbr lierlt
@ so*
@):,"
98. Th..ong!e$ ssion wiich pacred looro
(A) Bombay
(C) Luctnox
99. $hrh oEonc 'hp.olio\y'n8 E nor s udL hJ \'8uad
'l
Nar!)sn, Mclon?
(A) Umdkeralam
(C) Clitrayogan
100. The sditor ol the newspap.f 'Miiavrdi publhhcd
(A) C.lt ishMn (B) v.lkoE Abdul Fbu&. Moulaii
(c) Ic ndallnshna Pilh
1U2014
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 55/2019
3. The escape velocity from the surface of the earth is approximately equal to:
4. If the momentum of a given particle is doubled, then its kinetic energy will be:
(C) (S / 64 )d 4 (D) (S / 4 )d 4
A 3
[P.T.O.]
8. The force applied on a body of mass 150 kg to produce an acceleration of 10 m/s2, is:
(A) 15 N (B) 150 N
(C) 1500 N (D) 3000 N
9. Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller force, the smaller force is:
(A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg
(C) 30 kg (D) 35 kg
10. The process of finding out the resultant force is known as:
(A) Superposition of forces (B) Composition of forces
(C) Addition of forces (D) Resolution of forces
11. The point, at which the whole weight of the body may be considered to act, is known as:
(A) Centre of mass (B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of curvature (D) Moment of inertia
15. The resultant of two forces which are acting at an angle T is:
19. If the tension in a cable supporting a lift moving upwards is twice the tension when the lift is
moving downwards, the acceleration of the lift, is:
(A) g/2 (B) g/4
(C) g/3 (D) g/5
20. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of
6 kN.The velocity ratio of the machine is :
(A) 30 (B) 60
(C) 80 (D) 50
23. The front view of a rectangle, when its plane is parallel to HP and perpendicular to VP, is:
(A) Rectangle (B) Line
(C) Square (D) Point
A 5 55/2019
[P.T.O.]
24. The following are the Polyhedron except:
(A) Prism (B) Cube
(C) Pyramid (D) Cylinder
26. The top view of a right cylinder resting on HP on its base rim is :
(A) Ellipse (B) Rectangle
(C) Circle (D) Square
27. The following is formed by revolving rectangle about one of its sides which remains fixed:
(A) cylinder (B) hemi sphere
(C) sphere (D) cone
55/2019 6 A
33. A right regular hexagonal prism in resting on HP on its base, its top view is a.
(A) square (B) hexagon
(C) rectangle (D) pentagon
36. The ability of engine bearings to accommodates small variation in shaft is its:
(A) Embadability (B) Conformability
(C) Adaptability (D) Fatigue strength
38. Which of the following are provided to the crank shaft to the balancing of main journals?
(A) crank arm (B) vibration damper
(C) crank weight (D) crank pulley
39. To improve the resistance to wear and corrosion, cylinder liners are plated with:
(A) platinum (B) vanadium
(C) zinc (D) chromium
A 7 55/2019
[P.T.O.]
42. The leaking of the combustion charges to the crank case is known as:
(A) blow-by (B) by pass
(C) dilution (D) scavenging
A 9 55/2019
[P.T.O.]
58. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flow is called:
(A) Orifice (B) Notch
(C) Mouth piece (D) Weir
60. The pressure conduit laid underground may not be subjected to:
(A) pressure due to external load
(B) internal pressure of water
(C) longitudinal temperature stress
(D) longitudinal stress due to unbalanced pressure
61. Water consumption per capita per day for hostel use in India as per Indian standard is:
(A) 40 litres (B) 80 litres
(C) 115 litres (D) 135 litres
65. The equipment used to checking the levels of the sewer inverts is :
(A) Dumpy level (B) Theodolite
(C) Boning rod (D) None of these
55/2019 10 A
66. The formula for finding volume of hollow cylinder is ———————.
(A) S h( R r )( R r ) (B) S r 2h
(C) 4 /3 S r3 (D) 2 / 3S r 3
67. Find the area of a circle which inscribe in a square of side 14 cm:
(A) 140 sq.cm (B) 154 sq.cm
(C) 160 sq.cm (D) 196 sq.cm
68. If volume of cylinder is 900 cu.cm with height of 20 cm, then diameter of cylinder is:
(A) 24 cm (B) 9.57 cm
(C) 7.57 cm (D) 12.23 cm
70. How many balls of 2 cm radius can be made by melting of a big ball of diameter 16 cm?
(A) 120 (B) 64
(C) 32 (D) None of the above
71. Find the angle of sector whose radius is 10 cm and area is 78.5 sq.cm:
(A) 60 degree (B) 75 degree
(C) 90 degree (D) 45 degree
72. One side of rectangular field is 4 m and its diagonal is 5 m. The area of the field is :
(A) 12 sq.m (B) 20 sq.m
73. If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 27 : 1. The ratio of their edges is :
(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1
(C) 9:1 (D) 1:6
74. The sides of a triangle are 5 m, 12 m and 13 m. The area of the triangle is ———————.
(A) 30 sq.Cm (B) 45 sq.Cm
(C) 65 sq.Cm (D) none of the above
A 11 55/2019
[P.T.O.]
75. If cube of side “a” the total surface area is :
(A) a2 (B) 3a
(C) 6a 2 (D) 6a
77. When a sheet size 10 m u 5 m cut into small pieces of 25 cm u 20 cm, how many number of
pieces will be cut:
(A) 800 (B) 725
(C) 1000 (D) 825
(A) 2S r 2 (B) 1/ 2 S r 2
(C) 4S r 2 (D) 3S r2
79. A rectangle Carpet has an area of 120 sq.m and perimeter is 46 m, the length of its diagonal
is ———————.
(A) 15 m (B) 16 m
(C) 17 m (D) 20 m
80. If the ratio of the areas of the two squares is 16 : 1, the ratio of their perimeter:
(A) 1:3 (B) 3:1
(C) 4:1 (D) 1:6
55/2019 12 A
83. The trimmed size of A1 drawing sheet:
(A) 841 u 1189 mm (B) 594 u 841 mm
(C) 420 u 594 mm (D) 297 u 420 mm
87. What is the name of the part of circle bounded by two radii and its arc?
(A) Circle (B) Sector
(C) Segment (D) Chord
88. The ratio between two adjacent side of the drawing sheet:
(A) 1: 5 (B) 1: 3
89. In which regular polygon sides are equal to radius of circumscribing circle:
(A) Octagon (B) Heptagon
(C) Hexagon (D) Pentagon
93. The maximum number of tangents drawing to a circle from a point outside the circle:
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) f
96. The following is not included in the title block of drawing sheet:
(A) Sheet number (B) Scale
(C) Date (D) Size of sheet
55/2019 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 55/2019
[P.T.O.]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
55/2019 16 A
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Question Code 060/2019
Draftsman Gr III Civil
Medium of Question :English
Date of Test : 20/11/2019
QUESTION BOOKLET ALPHACODE A
Q No. Q. No.
1 A 51 B
2 D 52 C
3 B 53 D
4 D 54 D
5 B 55 A
6 C 56 B
7 D 57 D
8 B 58 B
9 B 59 A
10 D 60 C
11 C 61 A
12 C 62 B
13 B 63 B
14 B 64 C
15 A 65 C
16 A 66 A
17 A 67 D
18 B 68 A
19 A 69 A
20 C 70 C
21 C 71 A
22 C 72 B
23 D 73 C
24 D 74 D
25 C 75 A
26 B 76 A
27 B 77 C
28 D 78 A
29 D 79 A
30 A 80 C
31 A 81 D
32 A 82 D
33 B 83 B
34 A 84 A
35 D 85 C
36 D 86 A
37 A 87 C
38 B 88 A
39 C 89 D
40 A 90 A
41 D 91 D
42 A 92 D
43 B 93 C
44 A 94 D
45 B 95 A
46 B 96 C
47 C 97 B
48 C 98 D
49 A 99 B
50 C 100 A
60/2019
Question Booklet
Alpha Code A Question Booklet
Serial Number
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of question booklets with question booklet alpha code viz.A,B,C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing
sheet of the question booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position
A in the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing
sheet. If your question booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question
booklet with same alpha code.
6. The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check
that the question booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order.
The question booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so, he/she
should bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet
with same alpha code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for
rough work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet
before marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct
answer. Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question
number using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.
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60/2019–A
A
001. CADD stands for _________
(A) Computer Aided Design and Drafting
(B) Computer Aided Drawing and Design
(C) Computer Aided Design and Demonstration
(D) None of these
002. The command that allows to draw lines at right angles only is
(A) Perpend (B) Right
(C) Set (D) Ortho
004. Which command is used to erase a part of an object between two points?
(A) Close (B) Finish
(C) Complete (D) Break
005. To erase a previously drawn line, which option in LINEcommand can be used?
(A) Erase (B) Undo
(C) Forget (D) Remove
006. The command used to join two non-parallel lines by drawing a beveled line
(A) Extend (B) Trim
(C) Chamfer (D) Rotate
3
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A
009. Letters and Numerals are designated by their _________
011. Which instrument is used to erase a particular spot of a line without erasing the
nearby line?
013. Single stroke lettering recommended by Bureau of Indian Standards for use in
engineering drawings is
014. The dimensioning to be used only where the possible accumulation of tolerance does
not endanger the functional requirements of the part
015. When the section plane is inclined to the axis of the cone and cuts all the generators,
the section obtained is
■4 60/2019–A
A
016. In first angle projection method the plane is placed
(C) Lower level to higher level (D) Higher level to lower level
020. The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of field is called
023. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian is known as
5
60/2019–A
■
A
024. The optical square used for setting out _____ angle
026. A line joining the optical center of the object glass and the center of the eyepiece
is called
027. An axis about which the telescope can be rotated in a Horizontal plane is
called _____
028. The power of a telescope to form distinguishable image of objects separated by small
angular distance is called its
030. The projection of a traverse line on a line parallel to the meridian is known as _____of
the line
■6 60/2019–A
A
031. A staff reading taken on a Benchmark should be 2.627. Its reduced level is 150 m.
What should be the height of instrument?
034. Sandstone is
(A) 4% to 6% (B) 6% to 8%
037. The percentage of silica in good brick earth should vary from:
7
60/2019–A
■
A
039. An example of four-centered arch is:
045. For RCC construction the maximum size of course aggregates is limited to
046. The wooden queen post truss is suitable for span varying from
■8 60/2019–A
A
047. A full brick which is laid with its length perpendicular to the face of the wall is
(A) Facing (B) Queen closer
(C) Header (D) King closer
051. For compacting the quantity of earthwork using prismoidal formula the number of
required sectional area
(A) Any number (B) Odd
(C) Four (D) Even
052. The value at the end of the utility period without being dismantled
(A) Book value (B) Scrap value
(C) Salvage value (D) Market value
053. All the work executed shall be measured and entered in a permanent record called
(A) Account Book (B) Field Book
(C) Personal Book (D) M Book
9
60/2019–A
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A
055. The estimated quantity of cement required in cement mortar (1:6) per cubic metre
will be
057. An intermediate floor between two floors above ground level accessible only from the
lower floor is
058. As per National Building Code, the minimum area for a kitchen in residential
building is
059. The total depth of water required by a crop during the entire period the crop is in the
field is known as
061. When the bed level of canal is higher than the highest floor level (HFL) of the drainage,
then the cross drainage work is said to be
10
■ 60/2019–A
A
062. The most efficient channel cross section is
(C) Rectangular
(D) Triangular
065. For a liquid, the variation in its volume with the variation of pressure is known as
068. The ratio of average load to the maximum demand of power during a given period is
(A) Load factor (B) Capacity factor
(C) Utilization factor (D) None of these
11
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A
069. Argillaceous rocks-example
(A) Slate (B) Brick
(C) Stone (D) None of these
071. The horizontal distance between the vertical joints in successive course
(A) Lap (B) Butt joint
(C) Dowel joint (D) Table joint
073. Single flying shore should have a depth of not less than __________ of the clear
spans and width of not less than __________ of its length
(A) 1/8, 1/9 (B) 3/9, 3/8
(C) 1/3, 1/5 (D) 1/2, 1/10
074. Area of the horizontal circulation may constitute about __________ of the total plan
area of a residential building.
(A) 5% to 10% (B) 7% to 8%
(C) 2% to 20% (D) 20% to 25%
12
■ 60/2019–A
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077. It is that part in excess of hygroscopic water which exists in the pore space of the soil
by molecular attraction
078. The hydraulic structure in which the drainage is taken over the irrigation canal is
known as
080. When the expenditure on a work exceeds or is likely to exceed the amount of
administrative sanction by more than 10%,
082. The joint formed by cutting the edge of both the members by an angle is
13
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A
084. Composition of brick earth alumina or clay
(A) 20-30% (B) 35-50%
(C) 20-25% (D) 1-2%
087. Mercantile (includes both retail and wholesale stores) _____ group
(A) Group-C (B) Group-H
(C) Group-F (D) Group-G
14
■ 60/2019–A
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093. A pump can raise 100 litres of water through a height of 200 metre in one minute.
How much work it can do in one hour?
(A) 2000 (B) 14 × 103
(C) 12 × 105 (D) 20
098. Calculate the side of the square which will have the same area as the rectangle
50 mm by 25 mm side.
(A) 42.36 (B) 38.57
(C) 32.10 (D) 35.36
099. A rectangular sheet metal measures 12 cm by 8 cm. Four quadrants of circle of radius
2 cm each are cut away at the corners. Find the area of the remaining portion.
(A) 52.34 (B) 83.44
(C) 64.45 (D) 8.53
100. Find the area of a right angular triangle whose base is 15 cm and hypothesis is
21 cm.
15
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
16
■ 60/2019–A
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 072/2019
1. The part of a circle bounded by an arc and its chord is always called :
(A) Sector (B) Value of Pi
(C) Segment (D) Semi-circle
7. The top view of an object comes above the front view always in :
(A) Second angle projection (B) First angle projection
(C) Fourth angle projection (D) Third angle projection
8. –––––––––– field book is generally used for large scale surveying with detailed dimension
work.
(A) Single line (B) Double line
(C) Topographical (D) Frame work and base line
A 3
[P.T.O.]
9. The error due to bad ranging is always :
(A) Cumulative (B) Instrumental
(C) Compensative (D) Natural
10. To make multiple copies of an objects in a regular interval, in terms of rows or columns or at
a uniform angular distance around a centre point, –––––––––– command is used in Auto
CAD.
(A) Mirror (B) Copy
(C) Array (D) Offset
11. The key board function key for ‘Online Help’ in Auto CAD is :
(A) F11 (B) F6
(C) F8 (D) F1
12. The surveying, which carried out for determining the area of unearthing relics of antiquities :
(A) Mine surveying (B) Geological surveying
(C) Topographical surveying (D) Archeological surveying
15. The lead of the drawing pencil is sharpened to ‘chisel edged’ is used for :
(A) Drawing lines (B) Lettering
(C) Freehand sketching (D) All of the above
16. Files, edit, view etc. are easily available in Auto CAD from :
(A) Title Bar (B) Status Bars
(C) Standard Tool Bar (D) Menu Bar
17. When the locus of a point moving in a plane, in such a way that, the ratio of its distance from
the focus to the distance from the directrix is constant and greater than one is a :
(A) Ellipse (B) Hyperbola
(C) Parabola (D) Hypocycloids
72/2019 4 A
18. When a cone is cut off by a plane inclined to its base, but not passing through base, and the
portion obtained after removing the part containing the apex is :
(A) Tetrahedron (B) Frustum of cone
(C) Pentahedron (D) Truncated cone
19. The abbreviated character or short cut key ‘C’ is used as a command for –––––––––– in Auto
CAD.
(A) Drawing circle (B) Copying selected object
(C) Chamfering (D) None of these
21. For creating ‘an Arc’ in Auto CAD, –––––––––– short cut key is used.
(A) AR (B) A
(C) AC (D) None of the above
23. –––––––––– command creates parallel lines, parallel curves, concentric circles etc, in a
specified distance at the time of Auto CAD drawing.
(A) Copy (B) Array
(C) Mirror (D) Offset
24. The type of light beam usually send out from a modern EDM instrument is :
(A) Gamma rays (B) X-rays
(C) Infrared rays (D) Normal light rays
25. If the length of a survey line is ‘l’ and the reduced bearing is T , then latitude of the line is :
A 5 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
26. The lines joining the points of equal dip are :
(A) Isogonics lines (B) Isoclinic lines
(C) Aclinic lines (D) Agonic lines
30. The correction due to curvature and refraction is ––––––––––, where D is the distance of
observation in kilometer.
(A) 0.0673 D 2 metres (B) 0.0112 D 2 metres
(C) 0.0785 D 2 metres (D) None of the above
31. The imaginary line joining the point of inter section of cross hair at diaphragm and the
optical centre of the object glass and its continuation is :
(A) Axis of the level tube (B) Line of collimation
(C) Axis of the telescope (D) None of the above
32. The Auto CAD command which is used to breaks a polyline into its individual segments :
(A) Extend (B) Extrude
(C) Explode (D) Break
72/2019 6 A
35. Red colour of the tile is mainly due to :
(A) Iron oxide (B) Silica
(C) Alumina (D) None of the above
40. Stair turning through two right angle is known half-turn stair :
(A) Quarter turn stair (B) Half-turn stair
(C) Straight (D) Three quarter turn
41. This is the common type of sloping roof which slope in two direction :
(A) Lean to roof (B) Gable roof
(C) Hip roof (D) Mansard roof
42. A slab when supported on two sides or all four sides and if the length of the slab exceeds two
times its width, is named as :
(A) one way slab (B) two way slab
(C) cantilever slab (D) None of these
A 7 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
44. Which type of piles are commonly recommended for safe and economical foundation in black
cotton soil?
(A) sheet pile (B) bearing pile
45. A temporary rigid structure having platforms raised up as the building increases in height is
called :
(C) One and a half brick wall (D) Two brick wall
48. A projecting stone which usually provide to serve as support for roof truss, beam, weather
shed is known as :
52. The lower storey of the building below or partly below the ground level :
(A) Cellar floor (B) Ground floor
(C) Mezzanine floor (D) All of the above
54. It is observed by the experiment and experience that the volume of dry material required for
one m3 of wet concrete are :
(A) 1.52 m3 – 1.54 m3 (B) 1.55 m3 – 1.57 m3
(C) 1.57 m3 – 1.59 m3 (D) 1.59 m3 – 1.62 m3
57. It is the value at the end of utility period without being dismantled :
(A) market value (B) salvage value
(C) scrap value (D) book value
A 9 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
59. The total area which can be irrigated by a canal system is called :
(A) gross command area (B) cultural command area
(C) cultural cultivated area (D) cultural uncultivated area
60. The method of irrigation in which water is applied in the form of a spray as in ordination
rain :
(A) furrow irrigation (B) sprinkler irrigation
(C) subsurface irrigation (D) none of the above
62. The difference of water level in the head race and in the tail race in a hydroelectric project is
known as :
(A) Net head (B) Operating head
(C) Gross head (D) None of these
63. It is provided to reduce the water hammer pressure formed in the penstock in hydroelectric
project :
(A) Turbine (B) Surge tank
(C) Fore bay (D) Intake
66. Which dams are made of locally available soils and gravels?
(A) Earthen dam (B) Rock fill dam
(C) Gravity dam (D) Rigid dam
71. The vertical joints separating the bricks in either length or cross direction :
(A) Bat (B) Closer
(C) King Closer (D) Perpends
3
75. Bar Quiteodorous products ventilation air M /h/person :
(A) 35 (B) 45
(C) 50 (D) 25
76. Projection : in the form of balconies, veranda, etc are provided on –––––––––– vasuthu.
(A) All sides (B) East sides
(C) East and west sides (D) North sides
A 11 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
77. Group C –––––––––– buildings.
(A) Institutional building (B) Private building
(C) Flat building (D) All of these
80. ‘C’ Type Area of plot 201 sq.m. to 1000 sq.m. permissible covered area :
(A) 50% of the site area (B) 20% of the site area
(C) 30% of the site area (D) 40% of the site area
82. Non-recording rain gauge is more common in India and the one that is most used in India is
called the –––––––––– gauge.
(A) Simon’s (B) Rain gauge
(C) Meter gauge (D) All of these
72/2019 12 A
86. Series of step between landing :
(A) Rise (B) Flight
(C) Nosing (D) Tread
90. Area of an Isosceles triangle is 1000 mm2 Base = 100 mm, then height of the triangle is :
(A) 10 mm (B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm (D) 25 mm
91. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm. Find its area :
(A) 6.7 cm2 (B) 6 cm2
(C) 8 cm2 (D) 7.8 cm2
d1d2
(A) d1 d2 (B)
2
(C) 2 d1 d2 (D) d1 + d2
S D2
(A) S D2 (B)
2
S D2
(C) (D) (S D )2
4
A 13 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
94. A bucket of base diameter 95 cm rim diameter 120 cm and height 100 cm is full of sand. Find
the volume of sand :
(A) 756600 cm3 (B) 956600 cm3
(C) 553210 cm3 (D) 873214 cm3
95. A car is moving with a velocity of 50 km/hr, is brought to rest in 45 secs. Find out the
retardation :
(A) 3 m sec 2 (B) 0.3 m sec 2
96. When a body offers resistance to deformation when acted by external load is called :
(A) Stress (B) Strain
(C) Poisson’s ratio (D) None of these
97. A load of 1000 kg is lifted by a simple machine having a velocity ratio 5. The mechanical
advantage is –––––––––– if the effort applied is 250 kg.
(A) 20 (B) 4/5
(C) 4 (D) 5/4
98. A man lifted a luggage of 25 kg from the ground and put it on his head 1.5 m above the
ground. What will be the work done?
(A) 37.5 J (B) 367.5 J
(C) 3.82 J (D) None of these
99. A block weighs 100 kg. If the co-efficient of friction between it and ground is 0.3. Find the
force required to move the block :
(A) 30 N (B) 294 N
(C) 98 N (D) 29.4 N
100. A load of 3 kN is applied at the free end of a cantilever beam of length 5 m. Then the bending
momentum at the free end will be :
(A) –3 kNm (B) 0
(C) 15 kNm (D) 1.5 kNm
————————
72/2019 14 A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 15 72/2019
[P.T.O.]
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
72/2019 16 A
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 137/2014
Overseer Gr III/Work Superintendent Gr II - Kerala Land Development Corporation
Ltd
Medium of Question: English
Q Date of Test: 22.08.2014 Q
ALPHACODE ALPHACODE
Q No. Q No.
A B C D A B C D
1 B A A D 51 B A B C
2 x C B A 52 D D A D
3 A A C B 53 x A C C
4 D x x C 54 D D C B
5 C D B B 55 C B C D
6 A C C A 56 A D A A
7 C B D C 57 B A x D
8 B A C D 58 D D B B
9 D C A C 59 B C C D
10 B B D B 60 C B A A
11 A D B A 61 A C B D
12 C A x D 62 D D D C
13 A B A A 63 A C x D
14 x C D B 64 D B D C
15 D B C C 65 B D C A
16 C A A B 66 D A A D
17 B C C A 67 A D B B
18 A D B C 68 D B D D
19 C C D A 69 C D B A
20 B B B D 70 B A C B
21 D A A B 71 C D A A
22 A D C A 72 D C D B
23 B A A C 73 C D A C
24 C B x C 74 B C D x
25 B C D C 75 D A B B
26 A B C A 76 A D D C
27 C A B x 77 D B A D
28 D C A B 78 B D D C
29 C A C C 79 D A C A
30 B D B A 80 A B B D
31 A B D B 81 D A C B
32 D A A D 82 C B D x
33 A C B x 83 D C C A
34 B C C D 84 C x B D
35 C C B C 85 A B D C
36 B A A A 86 D C A A
37 A x C B 87 B D D C
38 C B D D 88 D C B B
39 A C C B 89 A A D D
40 D A B C 90 B D A B
41 B B A A 91 A B D A
42 A D D D 92 B x C C
43 C x A A 93 C A D A
44 C D B D 94 x D C x
45 C C C B 95 B C A D
46 A A B D 96 C A D C
47 x B A A 97 D C B B
48 B D C D 98 C B D A
49 C B A C 99 A D A C
50 A C D B 100 D B B B
X- DENOTES DELETION
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 158/2016
(A) *wtg€
86.
85. Plastioily ilder i6 :
8& Tle
86 r4iio ol unmitsd 6npr6..ion sbenstn ir nstual st.to io that h the renould''I state
. 88.
8& rtlinins tall ooe
WIen a toward. ihe btck6l vrEd th€ ru! tend' to coEpEs th€ sil
Eon@nlalb,tduot:
(.{) At.t.tpE..w G) Actit €arth pd.rF
(C) PasiFearth pftse (D) Elbctivs presd
4u20t4
|Pr.ol
3r,
89.
The byd.onete! .nolysis is based on the princiDle of:
(A) ldq
stokes G) Drrcy's low
(C) Monnn:gola{ (D) Newton'F law
{0.
90. TLe mdidB w8t€. onbtri ol t1'. 30il ,t which no ndher ednction
4\t20r4
97.
47. ']1E matlrirl that i. Ft&iled by a Ftajrins ltluctw is sen lally dsled 3. I
O) surch.lgs G) @ildop.
(c) b.cr6n (D) ,rltl*
98.
a8. Sh.Uos boMg is o! whose d€pth iE :
(A, width
oqual E (B) los th.lsidln
(C) !|GtLuf,idah (D) !@ortt@
4t.
99 Yellow (.dber) 6lou of t olouEd Ucht tE6c si3na:I in a junctiotr:ndiclt . :
.
(A) so (B) 6toD..
(c) he ady to ao . (D) cl€a.m tine
100.
60, The 6!.t railwqr lrain in lndi, ran b€twe! :