muáayik¥ò

1. fhªâaofŸ bj‹M¥ãÇ¡fhÉš ïUªJ âU«ãa âd¤ij Pravaji Bharathiya Diwas âdkhf

vªj ehŸ bfh©lhl¥gL»wJ?
a) #dtÇ 1 b) #dtÇ 26 c) #dtÇ 30 d) #dtÇ 9
2. mo¥gil cÇikfËÈUªJ brh¤JÇik Ú¡f¥g£L Art 300A-š r£l cÇikahf kh‰¿a muR?
a) #djh muR b) fh§»uÞ muR c) ghuâa #djh muR d) Úâ¡f£á muR
3. ïªâa muáayik¥ã‹ gFâ-IV f£L¥gL¤jhj khÃy«?
a) Änrhu« b) #«K fhZÛ® c) nfush d) #h®f©£
4. ïªâa muáayik¥ig ngh‹W mo¥gil flikfis bfh©LŸs ehL?
a) #¥gh‹ b) mbkÇ¡fh c) fdlh d) 炙yhªJ
5. Jiz FoauR jiyt® nj®jš Kiw?
a) neuo b) kiwKf nj®jš c) a (or) b d) ïu©L«
6. bghJ gz¤â‹ ghJfhty® (Guardian of Public Purse) vd¥gLgt®?
a) Ãâaik¢r® b) RBI ft®d® c) FoauR jiyt®
d) ïªâa fz¡F k‰W« j¡if mYty® (CAG)
7. ïªâa ghuhSk‹w« v‹gJ #dhâgâ khÃy§fsit, k¡fsit M»at‰iw bfh©lJ
vd TW« muáayik¥ò Éâ?
a) Art 79 b) Art 76 c) Art 100 d) Art 75
8. ôÅa‹ ãunjr§fËÈUªJ k¡fŸ mit¡F mâfg£rkhf v¤jid ng®
nj®ªbjL¡f¥gL»‹wd®?
a) 2 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
9. ïuh{a rig¡F ïšyhj áy nyh¡rigÆ‹ mâfhu§fŸ
1. e«ã¡if ïšyh Ô®khd«, 2. gzknrhjh, 3. Art 352
a) 1 k£L« b) 2 k£L« c) 3 k£L« d) mid¤J«
10. ïuh{a rigÆš khÃy§fŸ rkmsî ãuâÃâ¤Jt« bg‰WŸs ehLfŸ?
a) mbkÇ¡fh, MÞânuÈah b) ïªâah, ïy§if
c) #¥gh‹, fdlh d) bj‹M¥ãÇ¡fh, gh»Þjh‹
11. ghuhSk‹w cW¥ãd® xUtiu v¤jid eh£fŸ tiu áÉš elto¡iffS¡fhf ifJ
brŒa ïayhJ?
a) 40 b) 60 c) 50 d) 100
12. ghuhSk‹w¤â‹ T£L T£l¤â‰F jiyik t»¥gt®?
a) FoauR¤jiyt® b) ãujk® c) rghehaf® d) Jiz rghehaf®
13. gz knrhjh (Money Bill) ïuh{arigÆš m¿Kf¥gL¤j ïayhJ vd TW« muáayik¥ò Éâ?
a) Art 108 b) Art 109 c) Art 110 d) vJî« ïšiy
14. c©ikahd muáayik¥ã‹ go (Original constitution) c¢rÚâk‹w ÚâgâfË‹ v©Â¡if?
a) 31 b) 26 c) 8 d) 9
15. k¤âa muR nj®î¥ gÂahs® nj®thiza cW¥ãd®fŸ mj‹ jiyt® M»nahiu
Ú¡f #dhâgâÆl« gǪJiu brŒí« mâfhu« bg‰WŸs mik¥ò?
a) c¢rÚâk‹w« b) ca®Úâk‹w« c) kÅj cÇik Miza« d) SSC
16. gH§Fo k¡fË‹ eyD¡fhf jÅ mik¢rf« V‰gL¤j¥g£LŸs khÃy§fËš ïl«
bgwhj khÃy«?
a) k¤âa¥ãunjr« b) xorh c) #h®f©£ d) gŠrh¥
17. jtwhd T‰W vJ?
a) #«KfhZÛ® jÅ mªjÞJ Art 370
b) #«KfhZÛ® muáayik¥ò eilKiw #dtÇ 26, 1957
c) brh¤JÇik #«KfhZÛ® khÃy¤âš mo¥gil cÇik
d) #«KfhZÛ® khÃy¤âš khÃy r£lk‹w nj®jÈš g§F bfhŸs ÉU«ònth®
vªj khÃy¤jtuhfî« ïU¡fyh«
18. njáa xUik¥gh£L FGÉ‹ (National Integraction Council) jiyt®
a) ãujk® b) FoauRjiyt® c) MSe® d) rghehaf®
19. vªj mitÆš e«ã¡if ïšyhj Ô®khd« bfh©Ltu ïayhJ?
a) nyh¡rgh b) uh{argh c) a, b d) vJîÄšiy
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 muáayik¥ò, òÉÆaš, tuyhW
1. k¤âa ÉÊ¥ò¥ g Miza« (Central Vigilance Commission) vªj fÄ£oÆ‹
gǪJiuÆ‹ ngÇš mik¡f¥g£lJ?
a) îthf Ó®âU¤j¡ fÄ£o b) nfh®thyh fÄ£o
c) »ÇghÈÅ fÄ£o d) rªjhd« fÄ£o
2. nyh¡ Mí¡jh mik¥ò Kj‹Kiwahf Ñœ¡f©l vªj khÃy¤âš mik¡f¥g£lJ?
a) xorh b) Õfh® c) gŠrh¥ d) kfhuhZouh
3. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) FW»a fhy Éthj« - 1. 1921 a) 4 3 1 2
b) ftd <®¥ò Ô®khd« - 2. 1962 b) 3 4 2 1
c) ó{a neu« - 3. 1953 c) d) 3 2
4 2 1
4
3
1
d) bghJ¡fz¡F FG - 4. 1954
4. Ñœ¡f©l vªj M©L ghuhSk‹w¤âš nyh¡ghš knrhjh jh¡fš brŒa¥glÉšiy?
a) 1968 b) 1971 c) 1978 d) 1985
5. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) c¢rÚâk‹w¤â‹ Úâ¥nguhizfŸ - 1. Éâ 13 a) 4 3 1 2
b) muR¡F vâuhf tH¡»Ljš - 2. Éâ 226 b) 3 4 1 2
c) ca®Úâk‹w¤â‹ Úâ¥nguhizfŸ - 3. Éâ 300 c) 4 3 2 1
d) Úâ¢ÓuhŒî mâfhu¤â‹ njh‰WthŒ - 4. Éâ 32 d) 1 2 3 4
6. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ rÇahf cŸsJ?
1. g£b#£ v‹w brhš muáayik¥ò¢ r£l¤â‹ vªj¥ ãÇÉY« ïl«bgwÉšiy
2. ïªâahÉš Kj‹Kiwahf 1860-š g£b#£ m¿Kf« brŒa¥g£lJ
3. M©L ÃâÃiy m¿¡if g‰¿ ÉtÇ¡F« muáayik¥ò r£l¥ãÇî Éâ -112
a) 1. 2 k£L« b) 2, 3 k£L« c) 1, 3 k£L« d) mid¤J«
7. ã‹tU« bjhl®fËš jtwhdJ vJ?
1. uh{arig vd¥gL« khÃy§fsit gzknrhjhit ÃuhfÇ¡fyh«
2. khÃy§fsit gzknrhjh ÛJ gǪJiufis tH§fyh«
3. khÃy§fsit gz knrhjhit ÃuhfÇ¡f ïayhJ
4. khÃy§fsit gzknrhjhit 14 eh£fS¡FŸ âU¥ãaD¥g nt©L«
5. khÃy§fsit gzknrhjhÉš âU¤j§fŸ nk‰bfhŸsyh«
a) 2, 3 k‰W« 4 b) 1, 2 k‰W« 5 c) 1 k‰W« 5 d) 1 k£L«
8. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) ïªâa¤ âuŸ Ãâ (Consolidated fund of India) - 1. Éâ 110 a) 1 2 3 4
b) gz knrhjh - 2. Éâ 267 b) 2 3 4 1
c) M©L ÃâÃiy m¿¡if - 3. Éâ 266 c) 3 1 2 4
d) ášyiw¢ bryÉd Ãâ (Contingency fund of India) - 4. Éâ 112 d) 3 1 4 2
9. Ñœ¡f©l vªj¢ r£l« ïªâahÉš nj®jš bfhŸifia m¿Kf« brŒjJ?
a) ïªâa fî‹áš r£l« 1861 b) ïªâa fî‹áš r£l« 1892
c) ïªâa fî‹áš r£l« 1909 d) ïªâa fî‹áš r£l« 1919
10. ïªâa¡ T£lh£á KiwÆ‹ áw¥ãašòfshf¡ fUj¥gLgit?
1. mâfhu¥ãÇÉid, 2. mâfhu¥g»®î, 3. Rjªâukhd Úâ¤Jiw,
4. ãujkÇ‹ jiyik¤Jt«, 5. vGj¥g£l muáayik¥ò
a) 2, 3, 5 b) 1, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 5 d) 1, 3, 5
11. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ rÇahf¥ bghUªâíŸsJ vJ?
a) 1909 r£l« - nj®jš bfhŸif b) 1919 r£l« - khfhz§fŸ j‹dh£á
c) 1935 r£l« - khfhz§fË‹ ïu£ilah£á d) 1947 r£l« - bghW¥òilik murh§f«
12. ïªâa¤ jiyik j¡iffŸ (CAG) g‰¿a Ñœ¡f©l brŒâfËš jtwhdJ vJ?
1. ït® FoauR¤ jiytuhš 5 M©LfS¡F xUKiw ÃaÄ¡f¥gL»wh®
2. ïtuJ Câa« k‰W« flikfŸ FoauR¤ jiytuhš tiuaW¡f¥gL»wJ
3. ïtuJ XŒî bgW« taJ 60
4. ïtiu FoauR jiyt® jdJ ÉU¥g¤â‹ ngÇš gjÉ Ú¡f« brŒayh«
5. k¤âa khÃy muRfË‹ fz¡Ffis guhkÇ¥gJ ïtuJ bghW¥ò
a) 1, 4, 5 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 3, 4, 5 d) mid¤J«
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13. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ 1935-M« M©L ïªâa muR r£l¤â‹go tH§f¥g£l áw¥ò¡TW mšy?
a) k¤âÆš ïu£ilah£á b) mid¤âªâa T£oirî
c) khfhz§fËš j‹dh£á d) khfhz§fËš ïu£ilah£á
14. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ jtwhf bghUªâíŸsJ?
a) ghFghL fh©gj‰F jil - Éâ 15 b) r§f« it¤J¡bfhŸS« cÇik - Éâ 19
c) ghJfh¥ghd thœÉ‰fhd cÇik - Éâ 23 d) muáayik¥ò Ãthuz« bgW« cÇik - Éâ 32
15. bghU¤Jf?
a) bghJ ntiythŒ¥òfËš rk¤Jt« - 1. Éâ 29 a) A 4 3
B C
1
D
2
b) áWgh‹ikÆd® cÇikfŸ - 2. Éâ 21 b) 3 4 2 1
c) jÅeg® Rjªâu« - 3. Éâ 23 c) 4 2 1 3
d) Ru©lY¡F vâuhd cÇik - 4. Éâ 16 d) 4 1 2 3
16. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) 3-tJ m£ltiz -1. khÃy§fsitÆš ïl§fŸ xJ¡ÑL a) 1 3 4 2
b) 9-tJ m£ltiz -2. f£á¤jhtš jil¢r£l« b) 4 3 1 2
c) 4-tJ m£ltiz -3. áy F¿¥ã£l r£l§fS¡fhd bršYgo Ãiy c) 4 3 2 1
d) 10-tJ m£ltiz -4. gjÉ¥ ãukhz§fŸ d) 1 3 2 4
17. khÃy MSeiu¥ g‰¿a Ñœ¡f©l T‰WfËš rÇahdJ vJ?
1. muáayik¥ò¢ r£l¤â‹ ãÇî IV -š MSeiu¥ g‰¿ ÉtÇ¡f¥g£LŸsJ
2. xUt® MSeuhf ÃaÄ¡f¥g£l Fiwªj g£r« 35 taJ ÃiwtilªâU¡f nt©L«
3. khÃy¤âš brašgL¤J« mâfhu§fŸ mid¤J« MSeÇlnk ïU¡F«
4. ïtuJ gjÉ¡fhy« 5 M©LfŸ v‹gJ FoauR¤ jiytÇ‹ ÉU¥g¤â‹ ngÇyhdJ
5. xnu egiu x‹W¡F nk‰g£l khÃy§fS¡F MSeuhf brašgl mDkâ¡fyhfhJ
a) 1, 2, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 3, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
18. gštª¤uhŒ nk¤jh FG g‰¿a T‰WfËš rÇahdJ vJ?
1. rKjha nk«gh£L¤ â£l« (1952) k‰W« njáa ÉÇth¡f nrit (1953) M»at‰¿‹
brašghLfŸ F¿¤J Muha ï¡FG mik¡f¥g£lJ
2. k¡fsh£á gutyh¡f¤ij ï¡FG gǪJiu¤jJ
3. ï¡FG _‹wL¡F gŠrha¤J Kiwia gǪJiu¤jJ
4. ï¡FGÉ‹ gǪJiufŸ 1958 #dtÇÆš njáa ts®¢á¡ FGthš ÃuhfÇ¡f¥g£lJ
5. ï¡FG kht£l Cuh£áÆ‹ jiytuhf kht£l M£áaiu gǪJiu¤jJ
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 3, 5 d) 1, 2, 4, 5
19. khÃy§fËš FoauR¤ jiyt® M£áia mkšgL¤j tÊtF¡F« ãÇî?
1. Éâ 356, 2. Éâ 360, 3. Éâ 352, 4. Éâ 365
a) 1 k£L« b) 1 k‰W« 2 c) 1 k‰W« 3 d) 1 k‰W« 4
20. bghU¤Jf?
a) MSe® - 1. Éâ 167 a) A 1 2
B C
3
D
4
b) mik¢ruit - 2. Éâ 169 b) 4 3 2 1
c) Kjyik¢rÇ‹ flikfŸ - 3. Éâ 155 c) 3 2 4 1
d) nkyit - 4. Éâ 163 d) 3 4 1 2
21. nyh¡ghš knrhjh Kj‹Kiwahf vªj M©L ghuhSk‹w¤âš m¿Kf« brŒa¥g£lJ?
a) 1971 b) 1967 c) 1968 d) 1972
22. bghU¤Jf?
a) GVK uh› FG - 1. gŠrha¤J uh{ ÃWtd§fŸ
b) gštª¤uhŒ nk¤jh FG - 2. k¡fsh£á k‰W« brašghL _y« gŠrha¤J uh{
ÃWtd§fS¡F ò¤JÆ%£Ljš
c) LM ᧻ FG - 3. V‰fdnt cŸs Cuf nk«gh£L mik¥òfËš
nk«ghL k‰W« tWik xÊ¥ò â£l§fŸ
d) mnrh¡ nk¤jh FG - 4. rKjha nk«gh£L¤ â£l« k‰W« njáa ÉÇth¡f nrit
a) 4, 3, 1, 2 b) 4, 3, 2, 1 c) 3, 4, 2, 1 d) 3, 4, 1, 2
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23. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ jtwhf bghUªâíŸsJ vJ?
a) Éâ 153 - MSe® mYtyf« b) Éâ 156 - MSeÇ‹ gjÉ¡fhy«
c) Éâ 154 - MSeÇ‹ îthf mâfhu« d) Éâ 155 - MSe® gjÉ Ú¡f«
24. bghU¤Jf?
a) FoauR¤ jiytÇ‹ îthf mâfhu« - 1. Éâ 56 a) A 4 1
B C
2
D
3
b) FoauR¤ jiyt® gjÉ¡fhy« - 2. Éâ 61 b) 2 1 3 4
c) FoauR¤ jiyt® nj®jš - 3. Éâ 53 c) 3 1 4 2
d) FoauR¤ jiyt® gjÉÚ¡f« - 4. Éâ 54 d) 3 4 1 2
25. mo¥gil flikfŸ vªj FGÉ‹ gǪJiuÆ‹ ngÇš muáayik¥ò¢ r£l¤âš
nr®¡f¥g£LŸsJ?
a) õh fÄr‹ b) îthf Ó®âU¤j fÄr‹ c) rªjhd« fÄ£o d) Þtu‹á§ fÄ£o
26. bghU¤Jf?
a) muR cWâbkhÊ FG - 1. 1953 A B C D
b) bghJ¤Jiw ÃWtd§fŸ FG - 2. 1921 a) 1 3 4 2
b) 2 3 4 1
c) Jiw rh® Ãiy¡FG¡fŸ - 3. 1964 c) 1 3 2 4
d) kâ¥Õ£L¡FG - 4. 1993 d) 4 3 1 2
27. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ jtwhf bghUªâíŸsJ vJ?
a) CBI - 1963 b) áw¥ò fhtšgil cUth¡f« - 1942
c) CHš jL¥ò¢ r£l« - 1947 d) k¤âa ÉÊ¥ò¥g Miza« (CVC) - 1964
28. Ñœ¡f©l vªj knrhjh ïU mitÆY« jŤjÅahf mW⥠bgU«gh‹ikíl‹
Ãiwnt‰w¥gl nt©L«?
a) rhjhuz knrhjh b) gz knrhjh c) Ãâ knrhjh d) muáayik¥ò¢ r£l¤â‹ knrhjh
29. bghJey tH¡F jh¡fš brŒí« fU¤jh¡f« vªj eh£oš cUth¡f¥g£lJ?
a) 炙yhªJ b) MÞânuÈah c) mbkÇ¡fh d) fdlh
30. bghU¤Jf?
a) mo¥gil cÇikfŸ - 1. UK A B C D
b) ghuhSk‹w murh§f Kiw - 2. USA a) 2 4 1 3
b) 4 1 2 3
c) mtru Ãiy ãufld« - 3. ma®yhªJ c) 2 1 4 3
d) muá‹ tÊfh£L be¿Kiw bfhŸiffŸ - 4. b#®k‹ d) 1 2 4 3
0
31. m£rnuifÆš 1 v‹gJ v¤jid »nyh Û£l®?
a) 321 km b) 211 km c) 111 km d) 31 km
32. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ flš Únuh£l¤ij ghâ¡F« fhuÂfŸ vit?
1. òÉÆ‹ RH‰á, 2. fh‰wG¤j« k‰W« åR« âir,
3. flš ÚÇ‹ ml®¤â, 4. òÉ NÇaid R‰WtJ
a) 1, 2 k£L« b) 1, 2, 3 k£L« c) 1, 4 k£L« d) 2, 3, 4 k£L«
33. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) mÞândhÞãa® - 1. tËk©ly¤â‹ ÑHL¡F a) 2 1 3 4
b) bt¥gâU¥g« - 2. nknyh£o‹ nkšgFâ b) 2 1 4 3
c) ȤnjhÞãa® - 3. ghiw¡nfhs« c) 4 1 3 2
d) kh©oš - 4. nknyh£o‹ mo¥gFâ d) 1 3 2 4
34. ill‹ v‹gJ Ñœ¡f©l vªj¡ nfhË‹ Äf¥bgÇa Jiz¡nfhshF«?
a) òj‹ b) btŸË c) rÅ d) be¥oô‹
35. òj‹nfhËš xU M©L v‹gJ v¤jid eh£fŸ?
a) 300 b) 56 c) 36 d) 88
36. Ñœ¡f©l vªj¡ nfhŸ mâfkhd Jiz¡nfhŸfis bfh©LŸsJ?
a) ÉahH‹ b) br›thŒ c) rÅ d) btŸË
37. É©f‰fŸ v‹git?
a) br›thŒ k‰W« ÉahHD¡F ïilÆš cŸsd
b) rÅ k‰W« be¥oôD¡F ïilÆš cŸsd
c) br›thŒ k‰W« btŸË¡F ïilÆš cŸsd
d) òÉÆ‹ tËk©ly¤â‰FŸ EiHªJ ãufhrkhf btË¢r¤Jl‹ vǪJ ÉGgit
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38. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ rÇ?
1. Ô¥ghiwfŸ vÇkiy bto¥ã‹ nghJ btË¥gL« kh¡kh FH«ãdhš Mdit
2. Ô¥ghiwfŸ bghJthf fodkhdit
3. bjhšYÆ® v¢r§fŸ vJî« fhz¥glhJ
4. Ô¥ghiwfËš 40 rjåj« Kjš 80 rjåj« tiu áÈ¡fh fhz¥gL»wJ
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) mid¤J« rÇ
39. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ cUkh¿a ghiw mšy?
a) kh®ãŸ b) Fth®£ir£ c) grhš£ d) itu«
40. T‰W(A): òÉÆ‹ cŸsik¥ãid ÃyeL¡f miyfis¡ bfh©L f¡f ïaY«
fhuz« (R): Kj‹ik miyfŸ âl¥bghU£fË‹ tÊna k£Lnk bršY« Mdhš
ïu©lh« Ãiy miyfŸ âl, âut, thí _‹¿Y« CLUÉ¢ bršY«
a) T‰W(A) k‰W« fhuz« (R) rÇ rÇahd És¡f«
b) ïu©L« rÇ Mdhš rÇahd És¡fkšy
c) T‰W (A) rÇ Mdhš fhuz« (R) jtW d) ïu©L« jtW
41. bghU¤Jf?
a) fyAhÇ - 1. bj‹ mbkÇ¡fh a) A 3 2
B C
1
D
4
b) mlfhkh - 2. MÞânuÈah b) 3 1 4 2
c) jh® - 3. M¥ãÇ¡fh c) 2 3 1 4
d) »nu£ É¡nlhÇah - 4. Máah d) 4 3 2 1
42. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ rÇahdJ vJ?
1. mid¤J goî¥ghiwfS« ÚU¡foÆš cUth»‹wd
2. mid¤J goî¥ghiwfS« mL¡Ffshf cUth»‹wd
3. òÉÆ‹ 3/4 g§F nk‰gu¥ghdJ goî¥ghiwfshš NH¥g£LŸsJ
a) 1, 2 k£L« b) 1 k£L« c) 2, 3 k£L« d) 3 k£L«
43. bghU¤Jf?
a) Éá¿ tot t©lš goî - 1. kiy¥gFâ A B C D
a) 4 1 2 3
b) D tot gŸs¤jh¡F - 2. fl‰fiu b) 4 2 1 3
c) blšlh¡fŸ - 3. M‰¿‹ _¥òÃiy c) 3 2 1 4
d) Fâiu Fs«ò tot VÇ - 4. kiyaothu« d) 3 1 2 4
44. ÃyeL¡nfh£il ïUKiw flªJ bršY« MW?
a) fh§nfh MW b) mnkrh‹ MW c) ie#® MW d) ieš MW
45. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ rÇ?
1. òÉÆ‹ nk‰gFâÆš 3 rjåj« k£Lnk e‹Ü® cŸsJ
2. òÉÆš cŸs e‹ÜÇš 70 rjåj« gÅ¥ghiwfshf cŸsJ
a) 1 k£L« rÇ b) 2 k£L« rÇ c) ïu©L« rÇ d) ïu©L« jtW
46. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ bt¥g Únuh£l«?
a) nygulh® b) fš¥ Únuh£l« c) FÇš Únuh£l« d) fhdÇ Únuh£l«
47. cy»‹ Äf¢áwªj Û‹ão¤js§fŸ vªj¥ gFâÆš fhz¥gL»‹wd?
a) tËk©ly bt¥g« k‰W« FË®¡fh‰WfŸ rªâ¡F« gFâ
b) mâfkhd e‹Ü® flÈš fy¡F« M‰¿‹ Kf¤Jthu«
c) bt¥g« k‰W« FË® Únuh£l§fŸ rªâ¡F« gFâ
d) bkJthf miy åR« f©l¤â£L¥ gFâ
48. bghU¤Jf?
Ãy¥gu¥ò fâ®å¢R vâbuhË¥ò A B C D
a) tw©l Ãy¥gFâ - 1. 15% - 25% a) 2 1 3 4
b) mf‹w ïiyíâ® fhLfŸ - 2. 10% - 20% b) 4 3 2 1
c) CáÆiy¡ fhLfŸ - 3. 5% - 10% c) 1 2 3 4
d) 4 1 2 3
d) òšbtËfŸ - 4. 35% - 45%
49. ÞOt‹r‹ âiu (Slevenson Screen) Ñœ¡f©l vj‰F ga‹glhJ?
a) ca® bt¥gkhÅ b) <u¥gj« k‰W« bt¥g¡FLit bt¥gkhÅ
c) jhœ bt¥gkhÅ d) kiH msî
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50. Fâiu m£r§fŸ v‹git?
a) JUt ca® mG¤j¥ gFâfŸ b) ók¤âa nuif jhœtG¤j¥ gFâ
c) Jiz bt¥gk©ly cauG¤j¥ gFâ d) Jiz JUt jhœtG¤j¥ gFâ
51. bghU¤Jf?
a) á®uÞ - 1. kiH nkf« A B C D
b) Þ£nulÞ - 2. áwFfŸ ngh‹w njh‰w« a) 3 1 4 2
c) ëgÞ - 3. br§F¤jhd ts®¢áíilaJ b) 2 4 1 3
c) 2 1 4 3
d) FKyÞ - 4. »ilk£lkhf ÉuÉ fhz¥gLgit d) 3 4 1 2
52. ïoíl‹ Toa kiH jUgit?
a) ënghÞ£nulÞ b) MšnlhFKyÞ c) Þ£nulÞ d) FKkyh ëgÞ
53. bgU k‰W« <Fbtlh® eh£o‹ fl‰fiunahu§fËš flšÚÇ‹ bt¥gÃiy m›t¥nghJ
caUjt‰F fhuz«?
a) všÃndh k‰W« yhÃdh b) všÃndh c) yh Ãdh d) bj‹df miyî
54. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) A®kh£l‹ - 1. Mš¥Þ a) 1 2 4 3
b) á}¡ - 2. V£Çaho¡ fl‰fiu b) 2 4 1 3
c) nguuh - 3. nk‰F M¥ãÇ¡fh c) 3 2 4 1
d) ÄÞ£uš - 4. uh¡» kiy¥gFâ (USA) d) 3 4 2 1
55. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ vJ bt¥gk©l òaš tifia¢ rh®ªjJ mšyJ?
a) blh®zhnlh b) iló‹ c) AÇ¡nf‹ d) eh®btÞl®
56. òaÈdhš mâf« kiHbgW« ehL vJ?
a) v»¥J b) ïªâah c) 炙yhªJ d) bk¡ánfh
57. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) ir»nsh‹ - 1. USA a) 2 1 4 3
b) AÇ¡nf‹ - 2. »H¡fháah b) 4 1 2 3
c) iló‹ - 3. MÞânuÈah c) 2 3 4 1
d) ÉšÈÉšÈ - 4. ïªâah d) 4 2 1 3
58. nfh¥gÅ‹ tif¥ghL (Koppen’s Classification) vjndhL bjhl®òilaJ?
a) fhyÃiy b) vÇkiy¥gFâ c) flš Únuh£l« d) ïa‰if ts«
59. rhš k‰W« nj¡F ku§fŸ bghJthf¡ fhz¥gL« gFâ?
a) ók¤âanuif fhLfŸ b) kh§Fnuh› fhLfŸ
c) gUtkiH fhLfŸ d) rth‹dh fhLfŸ
60. bghU¤Jf? A B C D
a) ãÈ¥ig‹Þ- 1. br‹dh a) 4 3 2 1
b) jhŒyhªJ - 2. fD§nfh b) 2 4 1 3
c) ïy§if c)
- 3. fhbu‹ d) 1 2 3 1 4 2
d) #¥gh‹ - 4. jh«uhŒ 3 4
61. bghU¤Jf?
a) á£lfh§ Míj¥òu£á - 1. fšgdh j¤ A B C D
b) mãdt ghu¤ - 2. FU uh«á§ a) b)
1 3
2 4
4
1
2
3
c) mDÓy‹ rÄâ - 3. É.o.rth®¡f® c) 3 1 4 2
d) Ffh ïa¡f« - 4. muɪj nfhZ d) 1 2 3 4
62. Ñœ¡f©lt‰WŸ jtwhf bghUªâíŸsJ vJ?
a) Mdªj kl« - g¡»« rªâu rh£l®Í b) ïªâah É‹Þ ¥ßl« - Rnuªâueh¤ ghd®Í
c) tWikí« ãÇ£oZ M£áa‰w ïªâahî« - jhjhghŒ besnuhÍ
d) m‹nA¥ã ïªâah - yhyh y#gâuhŒ
63. 1951 V¥uÈš M¢rh®ah Éndhghnt ójhd ïa¡f¤ij bjhl§»a ïl«?
a) ngh¢r«gŸË (bjY§fhdh) b) kh©o (f®ehlfh)
c) âU¥gâ (Mªâu¥ãunjr«) d) âU¢á (jÄœehL)
64. gH§fhy Ãidî¢ á‹d§fŸ ghJfh¥ò¢ r£l« ahuila M£áÆš bfh©Ltu¥g£lJ?
a) Ä‹nlh ãuò b) ȋȤnfh ãuò c) f®r‹ ãuò d) fhŧ ãuò
65. ïªâahÉš Kj‹KjÈš btËtªj brŒâ¤jhŸ vJ?
a) â bk£uhÞ bkÆš b) â il«Þ M¥ ïªâah
c) â bg§fh§ bf#£ d) â ïªâa‹ nõhÎaš Çgh®k®
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 APTITUDE
1. The unit’s digit in the product (2467) x (341)72 = 7
153

2. The unit’s digit in (264)102 + (264)103 = 0

3. The remainder when 231 is divided by 5 = 3
4. How many numbers between 11 and 90 are divisible by 7 = 11
5. The sum of all odd numbers upto 100 = 2500
6. The sum of all 2 digit numbers divisible by 3 = 1665
7. How many terms are there are there in 2, 4, 8, 16,......., 1024 = 10
8. 2+22+23+.....+28 = 510
9. The smallest three digit prime number is = 101
10. Which one of the following is a prime number (161, 221, 373, 437) = 373
11. If (12 + 22 + 32 + .......... +102) = 385, then the value of (22+42 + 62+ ...... + 202) is = 1540
12. The value of (112 + 122+ 132 + 142 + ............ + 202) is = 2485
13. 461 + 462 + 463 + 464 is divisible by = 10
14. The H.C.F. of 23x32x5x74, 22x35x52x73, 23x53x72 = 980
15. The H.C.F. of 108, 288 and 360 = 36
16. The L.C.M. of 22x33x5x72, 23x32x52x74, 2x3x53x7x11 = 23 x 33 x 53 x 74 x 11
17. The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of 0.63, 1.05 and 2.1 = 6.30
18. Three numbers are in the ratio 1:2:3 and their H.C.F. is 12 The numbers are = 12, 14, 36
19. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their H.C.F. is 4 Their L.C.M. is = 48
20. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 1 + 1 + 1 + is ...... = 0.16
5x6 6x7 7x8
21. 4 + 4 x 18 - 6 - 8 = 7.75
123 x 6 - 146 x 5
22. 180 x 15 - 12 x 20 = 2
140 x 8 + 2 x 55
23. A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs. 71. The number of 25 paise
coins is = 124
24. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee
notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has = 90
25. The average of first 20 multiples of 7 = 73.5
26. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. Find the largest of these numbers = 30
27. Raman’s salary was decreased by 50% and subsequently increased by 50% How much
percent does he lose = 25%
28. Paulson spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and he increased his
expenditure by 10%. The precentage increase in his savings = 50%
29. When the price of a product was decreased by 10%, the number sold increased by 30%. What
was the effect on the total revenue = 17%
30. If the numerator of a fraction be increased by 15% and its denominator be diminished by 8%,
the value of the fraction is 15/16. The original fraction = 3/4
31. In the new budget, the price of kerosene oil rose by 25%. How much percent must a person
reduce his consumption so that his expenditure on it does not increase = 20%
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32. If A earns 33 1/3% more than, B how much percent does B earn less than A = 25%
33. If A’s salary is 20% less than B’s salary. by how much percent in B’s salary more than A’s= 25%
34. If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4 : 5 and C : D = 6 : 7, then A : B: C : D is = 16 : 24 : 30 : 35
35. If 2A = 3B = 4C, then A : B : C : is = 6 : 4 : 3
36. If A = B = C, then A : B : C is = 3 : 4 : 5
3 4 5
1
37. At what rate percent per annum will a sum of money double in 16 years = 6 4 %
1
38. At what rate percent of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 12 years = 8 3 %
39. If a sum of money at simple interest doubles in 6 years, it will become 4 times in = 18 Years
40. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum at 10%
per annum for 2 years is Rs. 631 = 63100
41. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest accrued on an amount
of Rs. 18,000 in 2 years was Rs. 405. What was the rate of interest = 405
42. One side of a retangular field is 15 m and one of its diagonals is 17m.
The area of the field = 120 m2
43. The diagonals of two squares are in the ratio of 2:5. The ratio of their areas = 4 : 25
44. If each side of a square is increased by 25%. The precentage change in its area = 56.25%
45. If the sum area of an equilateral triangle is 24Î 3 sq.cm, then its perimeter is = 12Î 6 cm
46. The height of an equilateral triangle is 10 cm. Its area is = 100 /Î 3 cm2
47. If the side of an equilateral triangle is decreased by 20%, its area is decreased by = 36%
48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 75%, then its circumference will increase by = 75%
49. If the radius of a circle is diminished by 10%, then its area is diminished by = 19%
50. If the radius of a circle is doubled, its area is increased by = 300%
51. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4 to 8 , what change occurs in its area =
It quadruples
52. A rentangular block 6 cm by 12 cm by 15 cm is cut up into an exact number of equal cubes.
The least possible number of cubes = 40
53. A cube of edge 15cm is immersed completely in a retangular vessel containing water. If the
dimensions of the base of vessel are 20cm x 15 cm, the rise in water level = 11.25 cm
54. The surface area of a cube is 1734 sq. cm its volume = 4913 cm3
55. If each edge of a cube is increased by 50%, the percentage increase in its surface
area = 125%
56. Two cubes have their volumes in the ratio 1 : 27 . The tatio of their surface areas = 1:9
57. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is = 24
58. The mean proportional between 234 and 104 is = 156
59. The third proportional to 0.36 and 0.48 is = 0.64
60. The third proportional to (x2 - y2) and (x-y) is = x-y / x+y
61. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days
and left the job. In how many days: A alone can finish the remaining work = 6
62. X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in 16 days.
1
How long will they together take to complete the work = 13 days
3
63. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days, B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in
36 days. In how many days will A, B and C finish it, working together and separately
Thus, A, B and C together can finish the work in 16 days
A alone can finish the work in 48 days B alone can finish the work in 28 4/5 days
C alone can finish the work in 144 days
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