Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)

In LISP, the function returns the list that results after the first element is removed (the rest f the
list), is
a) car
b) last
c) cons
d) cdr

Which of the following contains the output segments of Artificial Intelligence programming?
a) Printed language and synthesized speech
b) Manipulation of physical object
c) Locomotion
d) All of the mentioned

LISP was created by?

a) John McCarthy
b) Marvin Minsky
c) Alan Turing
d) Allen Newell and Herbert Simon

Expert Ease was developed under the direction of

a) John McCarthy
b) Donald Michie
c) Lofti Zadeh
d) Alan Turing

An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive

dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
a) SHRDLU
b) SIMD
c) BACON
d) STUDENT

MLMenu, a natural language interface for the TI Explorer, is similar to

a) Ethernet
b) NaturalLink
c) PROLOG
d) The Personal Consultant

7. Strong Artificial Intelligence is __________

a) the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer
b) A set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to
reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans
c) the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a computer
d) all of the mentioned
The traditional way to exit and LISP system is to enter
a) quit
b) exit
c) bye
d) ok

In which of the following situations might a blind search be acceptable?

a) real-life situation
b) complex game
c) small search space
d) all of the mentioned

. What is Artificial intelligence?

a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Playing a Game

Which search method takes less memory?

a) Depth-First Search
b) Breadth-First search
c) Optimal search
d) Linear Search

A heuristic is a way of trying

a) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
b) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be from a goal
c) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than the other is
d) All of the mentioned

How do you represent “All dogs have tails”?

a) ۷x: dog(x) àhastail(x)
b) ۷x: dog(x) àhastail(y)
c) ۷x: dog(y) àhastail(x)
d) ۷x: dog(x) àhasàtail(x)

Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

a) Representational Verification
b) Representational Adequacy
c) Inferential Adequacy
d) Inferential Efficiency

A series of Artificial Intelligence systems, developed by Pat Langley to explore the role of
heuristics in scientific discovery is
a) RAMD
b) BACON
c) MIT
d) DU

A.M. turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could not
demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is called
a) Turing Test
b) Algorithm
c) Boolean Algebra
d) Logarithm

A Personal Consultant knowledge base contain information in the form of

a) parameters
b) contexts
c) production rules
d) all of the mentioned

Which approach to speech recognition avoids the problem caused by the variation in speech
patterns among different speakers?
a) Continuous speech recognition
b) Isolated word recognition
c) Connected word recognition
d) Speaker-dependent recognition

Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

a) inference engine
b) knowledge base
c) user interface
d) all of the mentioned

A computer vision technique that relies on image templates is

a) edge detection
b) binocular vision
c) model-based vision
d) robot vision

DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American Artificial Intelligence research, is
part of the Department of
a) Defense
b) Energy
c) Education
d) Justice

. Which of these schools was not among the early leaders in Artificial Intelligence research?
a) Dartmouth University
b) Harvard University
c) Massachusetts Institute of Technology
d) Stanford University

A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word ‘artificial intelligence’ in 1956 at
a conference held at Dartmouth college. Can you name the Professor?
a) David Levy
b) John McCarthy
c) Joseph Weizenbaum
d) Hans Berliner

In LISP, the function (copy-list <list>)

a) returns a new list that is equal to <list> by copying the top-level element of <list>
b) returns the length of <list>
c) returns t if <list> is empty
d) all of the mentioned

Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?

a) Fisher Ada
b) John McCarthy
c) Allen Newell
d) Alan Turning

In 1985, the famous chess player David Levy beat a world champion chess program in four
straight games by using orthodox moves that confused the program. What was the name of the
chess program?
a) Kaissa
b) CRAY BLITZ
c) Golf
d) DIGDUG
The explanation facility of an expert system may be used to
a) construct a diagnostic model
b) expedite the debugging process
c) explain the system’s reasoning process
d) expedite the debugging process & explain the system’s reasoning process

A process that is repeated, evaluated, and refined is called

a) diagnostic
b) descriptive
c) interpretive
d) iterative

Visual clues that are helpful in computer vision include

a) color and motion
b) depth and texture
c) height and weight
d) color and motion, depth and texture

The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at?
a) Dartmouth
b) Harvard
c) New York
d) Stanford

Texas Instruments Incorporated produces a low-cost LISP machine called _

a) The Computer-Based Consultant
b) The Explorer
c) Smalltalk
d) The Personal Consultant

When a top-level function is entered, the LISP processor do(es)?

a) It reads the function entered
b) It evaluates the function and the function’s operands
c) It prints the results returned by the function
d) All of the mentioned

One method of programming a computer to exhibit human intelligence is called modeling or

a) simulation
b) cognitization
c) duplication
d) psychic amelioration
Graphic interfaces were first used in a Xerox product called
a) InterLISP
b) Ethernet
c) Smalltalk
d) ZetaLISP

The Al researcher who co-authored both the Handbook of Artificial Intelligence and The Fifth
Generation is
a) Bruce Lee
b) Randy Davis
c) Ed Feigenbaum
d) Mark Fox

Which of the following is being investigated as a means of automating the creation of a

knowledge base?
a) automatic knowledge acquisition
b) simpler tools
c) discovery of new concepts
d) all of the mentioned

The CAI (Computer-Assisted Instruction) technique based on programmed instruction is

a) frame-based CAI
b) generative CAI
c) problem-solving CAI
d) intelligent CAI

A robot’s “arm” is also known as its

a) end effector
b) actuator
c) manipulator
d) servomechanism

KEE is a product of
a) Teknowledge
b) IntelliCorpn
c) Texas Instruments
d) Tech knowledge

In LISP, the function X (x). (2x+l) would be rendered as

a) (lambda (x) (+(*2 x)l))
b) (lambda (x) (+1 (* 2x)
c) (+ lambda (x) 1 (*2x))
d) (* lambda(x) (+2×1)

A natural language generation program must decide

a) what to say
b) when to say something
c) why it is being used
d) both what to say & when to say something

The hardware features of LISP machines generally include

a) large memory and a high-speed processor
b) letter-quality printers and 8-inch disk drives
c) a mouse and a specialized keyboard
d) large memory and a high-speed processor & a mouse and a specialized keyboard

In which of the following areas may ICAI programs prove to be useful?

a) educational institutions
b) corporations
c) department of Defense
d) all of the mentioned

A network with named nodes and labeled arcs that can be used to represent certain natural
language grammars to facilitate parsing.
a) Tree Network
b) Star Network
c) Transition Network
d) Complete Network

What is Machine learning?

a) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
b) The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
c) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
d) The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs

Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures

Different learning methods does not include?

a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction

In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include?

a) Phonological
b) Syntactic
c) Empirical
d) Logical

A model of language consists of the categories which does not include?

a) Language units
b) Role structure of units
c) System constraints
d) Structural units

What is a top-down parser?

a) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting lower
level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
b) Begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting upper level
constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written
c) Begins by hypothesizing lower level constituents and successively predicting a sentence (the
symbol S)
d) Begins by hypothesizing upper level constituents and successively predicting a sentence (the
symbol S)

Among the following which is not a horn clause?

a) p
b) Øp V q
c) p → q
d) p → Øq

The action ‘STACK(A, B)’ of a robot arm specify to

a) Place block B on Block A
b) Place blocks A, B on the table in that order
c) Place blocks B, A on the table in that order
d) Place block A on block B

Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
d) None of the mentioned

What is meant by agent’s percept sequence?

a) Used to perceive the environment
b) Complete history of actuator
c) Complete history of perceived things
d) None of the mentioned

How many types of agents are there in artificial intelligence?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

What is the rule of simple reflex agent?

a) Simple-action rule
b) Condition-action rule
c) Simple & Condition-action rule
d) None of the mentioned

What are the composition for agents in artificial intelligence?

a) Program
b) Architecture
c) Both Program & Architecture
d) None of the mentioned

In which agent does the problem generator is present?

a) Learning agent
b) Observing agent
c) Reflex agent
d) None of the mentioned
Which is used to improve the agents performance?
a) Perceiving
b) Learning
c) Observing
d) None of the mentioned

Which agent deals with happy and unhappy states?

a) Simple reflex agent
b) Model based agent
c) Learning agent
d) Utility based agent

Which action sequences are used to achieve the agent’s goal?

a) Search
b) Plan
c) Retrieve
d) Both Search & Plan

Which element in the agent are used for selecting external actions?
a) Perceive
b) Performance
c) Learning
d) Actuator

What is Artificial intelligence?

a) Putting your intelligence into Computer
b) Programming with your own intelligence
c) Making a Machine intelligent
d) Playing a Game

Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?

a) PROLOG
b) Java
c) LISP
d) Perl

Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.

a) Planning and Scheduling
b) Game Playing
c) Diagnosis
d) All of the mentioned

What is an ‘agent’?
a) Perceives its environment through sensors and acting upon that environment through actuators
b) Takes input from the surroundings and uses its intelligence and performs the desired
operations
c) A embedded program controlling line following robot
d) All of the mentioned

Agents behavior can be best described by

a) Perception sequence
b) Agent function
c) Sensors and Actuators
d) Environment in which agent is performing

Rational agent is the one who always does the right thing.
a) True
b) False

Performance Measures are fixed for all agents.

a) True
b) False

What is rational at any given time depends on?

a) The performance measure that defines the criterion of success
b) The agent’s prior knowledge of the environment
c) The actions that the agent can perform
d) All of the mentioned

An omniscient agent knows the actual outcome of its actions and can act accordingly; but
omniscience is impossible in reality. Rational Agent always does the right thing; but Rationality
is possible in reality.
a) True
b) False

The Task Environment of an agent consists of

a) Sensors
b) Actuators
c) Performance Measures
d) All of the mentioned
What could possibly be the environment of a Satellite Image Analysis System?
a) Computers in space and earth
b) Image categorization techniques
c) Statistical data on image pixel intensity value and histograms
d) All of the mentioned

Categorize Crossword puzzle in Fully Observable / Partially Observable.

a) Fully Observable
b) partially Observable
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

The game of Poker is a single agent.

a) True
b) False

Satellite Image Analysis System is (Choose the one that is not applicable).
a) Episodic
b) Semi-Static
c) Single agent
d) Partially Observable

An agent is composed of
a) Architecture
b) Agent Function
c) Perception Sequence
d) Architecture and Program

allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT

MQTT stands for

a) MQ Telemetry Things
b) MQ Transport Telemetry
c) MQ Transport Things
d) MQ Telemetry Transport
MQTT is better than HTTP for sending and receiving data.
a) True
b) False

MQTT is protocol.
a) Machine to Machine
b) Internet of Things
c) Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
d) Machine Things

Which protocol is lightweight?

a) MQTT
b) HTTP
c) CoAP
d) SPI

PubNub publishes and subscribes in order to send and receive messages.

a) Network
b) Account
c) Portal
d) Keys

By clicking which key the PubNub will display public, subscribe, and secret keys.
a) Pane
b) Demo Keyset
c) Portal
d) Network

The messageChannel class declares the _ class attribute that defines the key string.
a) command_key
b) command-key
c) commandkey
d) Key_command
 method saves the received arguments in three attributes.
a) Init
b) Init
c) Init
d) _init_

and saves the publish and subscribe keys that we have generated with the
PubNub Admin portal.
a) public_key and subscribe_key
b) Public-key and subscribe-key
c) publickey and subscribekey
d) Key_public and key_subscribe

specifies the function that will be called when there is a new message received from
the channel.
a) Reconnect
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Callback

specifies the function that will be called on an error event.

a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect

Specifies the function that will be called when a successful connection with the
PubNub cloud.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect

specifies the function that will be called when a successful re-connection is

completed.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Reconnect
 specifies the function that will be called when the client disconnects.
a) Callback
b) Error
c) Connect
d) Disconnect

What is the java extension file in IoT?

a) .jar
b) .c
c) .exe
d) .py

Do we run our program in the same computer where we have written?

a) True
b) False
c) May or may not
d) Cannot be determined

Publish command message is sent from _

a) Only publisher to broker
b) Only broker to publisher
c) Publisher to broker and broker to publisher
d) Server to client

The message is sent to the input queue of a message flow that contains a _
a) Subscriber
b) Server
c) Publication node
d) Client

Does user has authority for all topics.

a) True
b) False

ROSTOPIC uses at the command line for representing the content of the message.
a) YAML_syntax
b) rostopic bw
c) rostopic delay
d) rostopic echo
Which command displays the band width?
a) rostopic hz
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic bw

rostopic delay will provide delay for _

a) Topics which has header
b) Topics which has tail
c) Topics which has tail and head
d) To all topics

Which command displays messages published to a topic?

a) rostopic bw
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic hz

Which command finds out the topic?

a) rostopic bw
b) rostopic delay
c) rostopic echo
d) rostopic find

Publishing messages is handled through _ Class.

a) Client()
b) Server()
c) Publish()
d) Batch()

client() class provides to create topics.

a) Software
b) Classes
c) Methods
d) Batch

method publishes messages to pub/sub.

a) Client()
b) Publish()
c) Server()
d) Batch()
How many arguments are accepted by publish()?
a) 5 arguments
b) 3 arguments
c) 1 argument
d) 2 arguments

Does publish() method accepts arbitrary arguments.

a) True
b) False

The topic in the publish method is in which form?

a) Binomial form
b) Canonical form
c) Nominal form
d) Message form

The message in pub/sub is an opaque blob of

a) Bits
b) Bytes
c) Word
d) Nibble

error will show if we try to send text string instead of bytes.

a) TypeError
b) Error
c) Linker error
d) Compiler error

What do we call string in python 2?

a) Str
b) Unicode
c) Strs
d) Unicades

When you publish a message is automatically created?

a) Client
b) Server
c) Batch
d) Server
When the batch is created, it begins a countdown that publishes the batch once sufficient time
has elapsed.
a) True
b) False

What is the time elapsed after a batch is created?

a) 0.5 seconds
b) 0.05 seconds
c) 1.5 seconds
d) 1 second

Every call to publish() will return a class that conforms to the interface.
a) Batch
b) Client
c) Server
d) Future

IaaS stands for

a) Infrastructure as a Service
b) Infrastructure as a Software
c) Internet as a Service
d) Internet as a Software

Mobile cloud computing at its simplest refers to an

a) Intervention
b) Internet
c) Infrastructure
d) Intervention & Internet

Mobile Cloud applications move the Power and away from mobile
phone and into cloud.
a) Computing and internet
b) Data storage and computing
c) Computing and data storage
d) Internet and computing
 SaaS stands for
a) Service as a Smartphone
b) Service as a software
c) Smartphone as a service
d) Software as a Service

reduces the development and running cost of mobile applications on smartphone

devices.
a) Infrastructure
b) Productive business
c) Software
d) Services

PaaS stands as
a) Platform as a Software
b) Photo as a service
c) Platform as a Service
d) Photo as a Software

The architecture of MCC is such that various mobile devices are connected to their respective
mobile networks via
a) Software
b) Satellite
c) Access point
d) Base Station

MCC stands for Mobile Cloud Computation.

a) True
b) False

is the minimum value which an application shall exceed to be offloaded.

a) Static value
b) Critical value
c) Threshold value
d) Dynamic value

Offloading decision depends upon to be offloaded.

a) Size of application
b) Threshold value
c) Critical value
d) Dynamic value

The part of the code which involves complex computations and requires more time to execute is
referred to as _
a) Static session
b) Threshold session
c) Dynamic session
d) Critical session

In offloading application is partitioned during development.

a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading

network environment means changing connection status.

a) Static offloading
b) Dynamic offloading
c) Threshold offloading
d) Critical offloading

is defined as delay between the offloading and final result.

a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost

Depends upon the amount of the code being offloaded.

a) Latency rate
b) Network Bandwidth
c) Heterogeneity
d) Migration Cost
Which one of the following offers CPUs as integrated memory or peripheral interfaces?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Embedded system
d) Memory system

Which of the following offers external chips for memory and peripheral interface circuits?
a) Microcontroller
b) Microprocessor
c) Peripheral system
d) Embedded system

How many bits does an MC6800 family have?

a) 16
b) 32
c) 4
d) 8

Which of the following is a 4-bit architecture?

a) MC6800
b) 8086
c) 80386
d) National COP series

What is CISC?
a) Computing instruction set complex
b) Complex instruction set computing
c) Complimentary instruction set computing
d) Complex instruction set complementary

How is the protection and security for an embedded system made?

a) OTP
b) IPR
c) Memory disk security
d) Security chips

Which of the following possesses a CISC architecture?

a) MC68020
b) ARC
c) Atmel AVR
d) Blackfin
Which of the following is a RISC architecture?
a) 80286
b) MIPS
c) Zilog Z80
d) 80386

Which one of the following is board based system?

a) Data bus
b) Address bus
c) VMEbus
d) DMA bus

VME bus stands for

a) Versa module Europa bus
b) Versa module embedded bus
c) Vertical module embedded bus
d) Vertical module Europa bus

Which of the following provides a buffer between the user and the low-level interfaces to the
hardware?
a) operating system
b) kernel
c) software
d) hardware

Which of the following enables the user to utilise the system efficiently?
a) kernel
b) operating system
c) software
d) hardware

Which of the following can make the application program hardware independent?
a) software
b) application manager
c) operating system
d) kernel

Which of the following speed up the testing process?

a) kernel
b) software
c) application manager
d) program debugging tools
Which of the following includes its own I/O routine?
a) hardware
b) kernel
c) operating system
d) application manager

Which forms the heart of the operating system?

a) kernel
b) applications
c) hardware
d) operating system

Which of the following locates a parameter block by using an address pointer?

a) OS
b) kernel
c) system
d) memory

Which of the following are not dependent on the actual hardware performing the physical task?
a) applications
b) hardware
c) registers
d) parameter block

Which of the following bus can easily upgrade the system hardware?
a) control bus
b) data bus
c) VMEbus
d) bus interface unit

Which of the following is the first widely used operating system?

a) MS-DOS
b) windows XP
c) android
d) CP/M
Which of the following is an example of a single task operating system?
a) android
b) windows
c) IOS
d) CP/M

Which of the following becomes a limiting factor while an application program has to be
complete?
a) memory
b) peripheral
c) input
d) output

Which of the following cannot carry implicit information?

a) semaphore
b) message passing
c) threads
d) process

Which of the following works by dividing the processor’s time?

a) single task operating system
b) multitask operating system
c) kernel
d) applications

Which of the following decides which task can have the next time slot?
a) single task operating system
b) applications
c) kernel
d) software

Which of the following controls the time slicing mechanism in a multitasking operating system?
a) kernel
b) single tasking kernel
c) multitasking kernel
d) application manager

Which of the following provides a time period for the context switch?
a) timer
b) counter
c) time slice
d) time machine

Which of the following can periodically trigger the context switch?

a) software interrupt
b) hardware interrupt
c) peripheral
d) memory

Which interrupt provides system clock in the context switching?

a) software interrupt
b) hardware interrupt
c) peripheral
d) memory

The special tale in the multitasking operating system is also known as

a) task control block
b) task access block
c) task address block
d) task allocating block

Which of the following stores all the task information that the system requires?
a) task access block
b) register
c) accumulator
d) task control block

Which of the following contains all the task and their status?
a) register
b) ready list
c) access list
d) task list
Which determines the sequence and the associated task’s priority?
a) scheduling algorithm
b) ready list
c) task control block
d) application register

Which can control memory usage?

a) operating system
b) applications
c) hardware
d) kernel

Which can control the memory sharing between the tasks?

a) kernel
b) application
c) software
d) OS

Which of the following can implement the message passing and control?
a) application software
b) operating system
c) software
d) kernel

How many types of messages are associated with the real-time operating system?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Which of the following can carry information and control task?

a) semaphore
b) messages
c) flags
d) address message

What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design metrics of an embedded system?

a. Ability to fit on a single chip

b. Low power consumption
c. Fast data processing for real-time operations
d. All of the above
 Which abstraction level under-go the compilation process by converting a sequential program
into finite-state machine and register transfers while designing an embedded system?

a. System
b. Behaviour
c. RT
d. Logic

Which characteristics of an embedded system exhibit the responsiveness to the assortments or

variations in system's environment by computing specific results for real-time applications
without any kind of postponement ?

a. Single-functioned Characteristic
b. Tightly-constraint Characteristics
c. Reactive & Real time Characteristics
d. All of the above

Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

a. Data theft
b. Forgery
c. Damage to data and systems
d. Installing antivirus for protection

Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only.

a) True
b) False

Cyber-crime can be categorized into types.

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6

Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime?

a) Phishing
b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) MiTM
d) Credit card details leak in deep web

Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime?

a) Credit card fraudulent
b) Spying someone using keylogger
c) IPR Violation
d) Pornography

Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access
b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system

What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?
a) India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
b) India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
c) India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
d) The Technology Act, 2008

In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003

What is the full form of ITA-2000?

a) Information Tech Act -2000
b) Indian Technology Act -2000
c) International Technology Act -2000
d) Information Technology Act -2000
The Information Technology Act -2000 bill was passed by K. R. Narayanan.
a) True
b) False

Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-crime.
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70

What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s
source code from any organization, individual, or from any other means?
a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000
b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000

What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000?

a) IT Act, 2007
b) Advanced IT Act, 2007
c) IT Act, 2008
d) Advanced IT Act, 2008

In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated?

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012

What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian IT Act holds?
a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system
b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components

Accessing computer without prior authorization is a cyber-crimes that come under

a) Section 65
b) Section 66
c) Section 68
d) Section 70

Cracking digital identity of any individual or doing identity theft, comes under of IT
Act.
a) Section 65
b) Section 66
c) Section 68
d) Section 70

Accessing Wi-Fi dishonestly is a cyber-crime.

a) True
b) False

Download copy, extract data from an open system done fraudulently is treated as
a) cyber-warfare
b) cyber-security act
c) data-backup
d) cyber-crime

Any cyber-crime that comes under section 66 of IT Act, the accused person gets fined of around
Rs
a) 2 lacs
b) 3 lacs
c) 4 lacs
d) 5 lacs
How many years of imprisonment can an accused person face, if he/she comes under any cyber-
crime listed in section 66 of the Indian IT Act, 2000?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years

Any digital content which any individual creates and is not acceptable to the society, it’s a cyber-
crime that comes under of IT Act.
a) Section 66
b) Section 67
c) Section 68
d) Section 69

IT Act 2008 make cyber-crime details more precise where it mentioned if anyone publishes
sexually explicit digital content then under of IT Act, 2008 he/she has to pay a
legitimate amount of fine.
a) section 67-A
b) section 67-B
c) section 67-C
d) section 67-D

If anyone publishes sexually explicit type digital content, it will cost that person imprisonment of
years.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Using spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under
of IT Act, 2008.
a) Section 66
b) Section 67
c) Section 68
d) Section 69

Using spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under section
67 of IT Act, 2008 and is punished with a fine of Rs. 5 Lacs.
a) True
b) False

Using of spy cameras in malls and shops to capture private parts of any person comes under
section 67 of IT Act, 2008 and is punished with imprisonment of
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years

Misuse of digital signatures for fraudulent purposes comes under of IT Act.

a) section 65
b) section 66
c) section 71
d) section 72

Sending offensive message to someone comes under of the Indian IT Act

a) section 66-A, 2000

b) section 66-B, 2008
c) section 67, 2000
d) section 66-A, 2008

Stealing of digital files comes under of the Indian IT Act.

a) section 66-A
b) section 66-B
c) section 66-C
d) section 66-D
Section 79 of the Indian IT Act declares that any 3 rd party information or personal data leakage
in corporate firms or organizations will be a punishable offense.
a) True
b) False

Which of the following attach is not used by LC4 to recover Windows password?
a) Brute-force attack
b) Dictionary attack
c) MiTM attack
d) Hybrid attacks

is the world’s most popular vulnerability scanner used in companies for checking
vulnerabilities in the network.
a) Wireshark
b) Nessus
c) Snort
d) WebInspect

is a tool which can detect registry issues in an operating system.

a) Network Stumbler
b) Ettercap
c) Maltego
d) LANguard Network Security Scanner

Network Stumbler is a Windows Wi-Fi monitoring tool.

a) True
b) False

5. ToneLoc is abbreviated as
a) Tone Locking
b) Tone Locator
c) Tone Locker
d) Tune Locator

is a debugger and exploration tool.

a) Netdog
b) Netcat
c) Tcpdump
d) BackTrack

is a popular command-line packet analyser.

a) Wireshark
b) Snort
c) Metasploit
d) Tcpdump

is a platform that essentially keeps the log of data from networks, devices as
well as applications in a single location.
a) EventLog Analyser
b) NordVPN
c) Wireshark
d) PacketFilter Analyzer

is competent to restore corrupted Exchange Server Database files as well as

recovering unapproachable mails in mailboxes.
a) Outlook
b) Nessus
c) Mailbox Exchange Recovery
d) Mail Exchange Recovery toolkit

. helps in protecting businesses against data breaches that may make threats
to cloud.
a) Centrify
b) Mailbox Exchange Recovery
c) Nessus
d) Dashline

is a popular corporate security tool that is used to detect the attack on email with
cloud only services.
a) Cain and Abel
b) Proofpoint
c) Angry IP Scanner
d) Ettercap

helps in protecting corporate data, communications and other assets.

a) Snort
b) CipherCloud
c) Burp Suit
d) Wireshark

framework made cracking of vulnerabilities easy like point and click.

a) .Net
b) Metasploit
c) Zeus
d) Ettercap

Nmap is abbreviated as Network Mapper.

a) True
b) False

is a popular tool used for discovering networks as well as in security auditing.

a) Ettercap
b) Metasploit
c) Nmap
d) Burp Suit
Which of this Nmap do not check?
a) services different hosts are offering
b) on what OS they are running
c) what kind of firewall is in use
d) what type of antivirus is in use

Which of the following deals with network intrusion detection and real-time traffic analysis?
a) John the Ripper
b) L0phtCrack
c) Snort
d) Nessus

Wireshark is a tool.
a) network protocol analysis
b) network connection security
c) connection analysis
d) defending malicious packet-filtering

Which of the below-mentioned tool is used for Wi-Fi hacking?

a) Wireshark
b) Nessus
c) Aircrack-ng
d) Snort

Aircrack-ng is used for

a) Firewall bypassing
b) Wi-Fi attacks
c) Packet filtering
d) System password cracking

is a popular IP address and port scanner.

a) Cain and Abel
b) Snort
c) Angry IP Scanner
d) Ettercap

is a popular tool used for network analysis in multiprotocol diverse network.

a) Snort
b) SuperScan
c) Burp Suit
d) EtterPeak

scans TCP ports and resolves different hostnames.

a) SuperScan
b) Snort
c) Ettercap
d) QualysGuard

is a web application assessment security tool.

a) LC4
b) WebInspect
c) Ettercap
d) QualysGuard

Which of the following attack-based checks WebInspect cannot do?

a) cross-site scripting
b) directory traversal
c) parameter injection
d) injecting shell code

is a password recovery and auditing tool.

a) LC3
b) LC4
c) Network Stumbler
d) Maltego
L0phtCrack is formerly known as LC3.
a) True
b) False

is a weakness that can be exploited by attackers.

a) System with Virus
b) System without firewall
c) System with vulnerabilities
d) System with a strong password

is the sum of all the possible points in software or system where unauthorized users
can enter as well as extract data from the system.
a) Attack vector
b) Attack surface
c) Attack point
d) Attack arena

is the cyclic practice for identifying & classifying and then solving the
vulnerabilities in a system.
a) Bug protection
b) Bug bounty
c) Vulnerability measurement
d) Vulnerability management

Risk and vulnerabilities are the same things.

a) True
b) False

is a special type of vulnerability that doesn’t possess risk.

a) Vulnerabilities without risk
b) Vulnerabilities without attacker
c) Vulnerabilities without action
d) Vulnerabilities no one knows
A/An is a piece of software or a segment of command that usually take advantage
of a bug to cause unintended actions and behaviors.
a) malware
b) trojan
c) worms
d) exploit

There are types of exploit.

a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4

Remote exploits is that type of exploits acts over any network to exploit on security
vulnerability.
a) True
b) False

type of exploit requires accessing to any vulnerable system for enhancing privilege for
an attacker to run the exploit.
a) Local exploits
b) Remote exploits
c) System exploits
d) Network exploits

is a technique used by penetration testers to compromise any system within a

network for targeting other systems.
a) Exploiting
b) Cracking
c) Hacking
d) Pivoting
A is a software bug that attackers can take advantage to gain unauthorized access in a
system.
a) System error
b) Bugged system
c) Security bug
d) System virus

Security bugs are also known as

a) security defect
b) security problems
c) system defect
d) software error

is the timeframe from when the loophole in security was introduced till the time
when the bug was fixed.
a) Time-frame of vulnerability
b) Window of vulnerability
c) Time-lap of vulnerability
d) Entry-door of vulnerability

ISMS is abbreviated as _
a) Information Server Management System
b) Information Security Management Software
c) Internet Server Management System
d) Information Security Management System

A zero-day vulnerability is a type of vulnerability unknown to the creator or vendor of the

system or software.
a) True
b) False
What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?

a. To think like hackers and know to defend such attacks

b. To hack a system without the permission

c. To hack a system without the permission

d. To corrupt software or service using malware\

Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ethical

practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
c) very good social engineering practice
d) a bad

has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
a) Automated apps
b) Database software
c) Malware
d) Worms

Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior authority is
a crime.
a) True
b) False

is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect IT assets.

a) Ethical hacking
b) Unethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach
The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to of personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking

Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed below is
not mandatory?
a) Know the nature of the organization
b) Characteristics of work done in the firm
c) System and network
d) Type of broadband company used by the firm

An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False

After performing the ethical hacker should never disclose client information to
other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
c) penetration testing
d) exploiting

is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
b) Ethics in cyber-security
c) Corporate ethics
d) Ethics in black hat hacking
. helps to classify arguments and situations, better understand a cyber-crime and helps
to determine appropriate actions.
a) Cyber-ethics
b) Social ethics
c) Cyber-bullying
d) Corporate behaviour

A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the &

requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.
a) privacy and security
b) rules and regulations
c) hacking techniques
d) ethics to talk to seniors

A tries to formulate a web resource occupied or busy its users by flooding the
URL of the victim with unlimited requests than the server can handle.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack

During a DoS attack, the regular traffic on the target will be either dawdling
down or entirely interrupted.
a) network
b) system
c) website
d) router

The intent of a is to overkill the targeted server’s bandwidth and other

resources of the target website.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack

DoS is abbreviated as
a) Denial of Service
b) Distribution of Server
c) Distribution of Service
d) Denial of Server

A DoS attack coming from a large number of IP addresses, making it hard to manually filter or
crash the traffic from such sources is known as a _
a) GoS attack
b) PDoS attack
c) DoS attack
d) DDoS attack

DDoS stands for

a) Direct Distribution of Server
b) Distributed Denial of Service
c) Direct Distribution of Service
d) Distributed Denial of Server

Instead of implementing single computer & its internet bandwidth, a utilizes

various systems & their connections for flooding the targeted website.
a) GoS attack
b) PoS attack
c) DDoS attack
d) DoS attack

There are types of DoS attack.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Application layer DoS attack is also known as

a) Layer4 DoS attack
b) Layer5 DoS attack
c) Layer6 DoS attack
d) Layer7 DoS attack

is a type of DoS threats to overload a server as it sends a large number of requests

requiring resources for handling & processing.
a) Network Layer DoS
b) Physical Layer DoS
c) Transport Layer DoS
d) Application Layer DoS

Which of the following is not a type of application layer DoS?

a) HTTP flooding
b) Slowloris
c) TCP flooding
d) DNS query flooding

Network layer attack is also known as

a) Layer3-4 DoS attack
b) Layer5 DoS attack
c) Layer6-7 DoS attack
d) Layer2 DoS attack

Which of the following do not comes under network layer DoS flooding?
a) UDP flooding
b) HTTP Flooding
c) SYN flooding
d) NTP Amplification
Which of the following do not comes under network layer DoS flooding?
a) DNS amplification
b) UDP flooding
c) DNS query flooding
d) NTP Amplification

DDoS are high traffic events that are measured in Gigabits per second (Gbps) or packets per
second (PPS).
a) True
b) False

A DDoS with 20 to 40 Gbps is enough for totally shutting down the majority network
infrastructures.
a) True
b) False

is an internet scam done by cyber-criminals where the user is convinced

digitally to provide confidential information.
a) Phishing attack
b) DoS attack
c) Website attack
d) MiTM attack

In some cyber-criminals redirect the legitimate users to different phishing

sites and web pages via emails, IMs, ads and spyware.
a) URL Redirection
b) DoS
c) Phishing
d) MiTM attack
Phishers often develop _ websites for tricking users & filling their personal data.
a) legitimate
b) illegitimate
c) genuine
d) official

Which of the following type of data, phishers cannot steal from its target victims?
a) bank details
b) phone number
c) passwords
d) apps installed in the mobile

Algorithm-Based Phishing was developed in the year

a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1991

was the first type of phishing where the phishers developed an algorithm for
generating random credit card numbers.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) Email-based phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing

Email Phishing came into origin in the year

a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 2015

type of phishing became very popular as if it has been sent from a

legitimate source with a legitimate link to its official website.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) Email-based phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing

refers to phishing performed over smart-phone by calling.

a) Algo-based phishing
b) Email-based phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Vishing

= voice + phishing.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) Vishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Email-based phishing

Victims of phishing are mostly

a) Tech enthusiast
b) Professional computer engineers
c) Lack of computer knowledge
d) Lack of management skill

is usually targeted by nature where the emails are exclusively designed

to target any exact user.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) Vishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Spear phishing

. or smishing is one of the simplest types of phishing where the target victims
may get a fake order detail with a cancellation link.
a) Algo-based phishing
b) SMS phishing
c) Domain Phishing
d) Spear phishing

phishing is that type of phishing where the construction of a fake webpage is

done for targeting definite keywords & waiting for the searcher to land on the fake webpage.
a) Voice
b) SMS
c) Search engine
d) Email

Which of the following is not an example or type of phishing?

a) Spear phishing
b) Deceptive phishing
c) Whaling
d) Monkey in the Middle

Which of the following is not an example or type of phishing?

a) Tracking
b) Vishing
c) Smishing
d) Pharming

is data interception method used by hackers.

a) Phishing
b) DoS
c) Sniffing
d) MiTM

Sniffing is also known as

a) network-tapping
b) wiretapping
c) net-tapping
d) wireless-tapping

are programs or devices that capture the vital information from the target
network or particular network.
a) Routers
b) Trappers
c) Wireless-crackers
d) Sniffers

Which of them is not an objective of sniffing for hackers?

a) Fetching passwords
b) Email texts
c) Types of files transferred
d) Geographic location of a user

Which of the following tech-concepts cannot be sniffed?

a) Router configuration
b) ISP details
c) Email Traffic
d) Web Traffic

Which of the following tech-concepts cannot be sniffed?

a) Cloud sessions
b) FTP passwords
c) Telnet passwords
d) Chat sessions
Which of the below-mentioned protocol is not susceptible to sniffing?
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) POP
d) TCP

Which of the below-mentioned protocol is not susceptible to sniffing?

a) NNTP
b) UDP
c) FTP
d) IMAP

There are types of sniffing.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Active sniffing is difficult to detect.

a) True
b) False

Which of the following is not a sniffing tool?

a) Wireshark
b) Dude Sniffer
c) Maltego
d) Look@LAN

A sniffer, on the whole turns your system’s NIC to the licentious mode so that it can listen to all
your data transmitted on its division.
a) True
b) False
A on the whole turns your system’s NIC to the licentious mode so that it can
listen to all your data transmitted on its division.
a) Phishing site
b) Sniffer tool
c) Password cracker
d) NIC cracker

In sniffing, the network traffic is not only supervised & locked but also be can
be altered in different ways to accomplish the attack.
a) passive
b) signal
c) network
d) active

are those devices which can be plugged into your network at the hardware
level & it can monitor traffic.
a) Hardware sniffers & analyzers
b) Hardware protocol analyzers
c) Hardware protocol sniffers
d) Hardware traffic sniffers and observers