Table of Contents

BIOLOGICAL DRUGS....................................................................................................................................1
PREPARATIONS OF BLOOD.........................................................................................................................7
VACCINES, IMMUNOGLOBULINS..............................................................................................................13

BIOLOGICAL DRUGS.
1. C.S. According to the chemical structure, insulin is a hormone:
a. Derived from amino acids
b. Polypeptides
c. Steroid
d. Derived from arachidonic acid
e. Derived from saturated fatty acids

2. C.S. The zinc-insulin complex is found in the pancreas in the form of:
a. Monomers
b. Dimer
c. Tetramers
d. Pentamer
e. Hexamer

3. C.S. The biochemical structure of insulin was determined by:

a. Frederic Senger
b. Alexandr Fleming
c. Rosalind Franklin
d. James Watson
e. Francis Crick

4. C.S. Select the correct statement regarding PREbiotic preparations:

a. Digested and fermented due to β-glycosidase in the upper gastrointestinal tract
b. Chemical sitetizate
c. They contain substances with antimicrobial action
d. Contains live bacteria, which reduce the development of other dangerous bacteria
e. Contains a saccharide that becomes specific food for the beneficial bacterial
strains
5. C.S. Insulin is secreted by:
a. α Langerhans Islands
b. β Langerhans Islands
c. Central area of the adrenal glands
d. Peripheral area of the adrenal glands
e. Gall bladder

6. C.M. Indicate the physiological inhibitor of insulin:

a. Adrenaline
b. Arginine
c. Lysine
d. Leucine
 e. Norepinephrine
7. C.M. Select amino acids that strongly stimulate insulin secretion:
a. Arginine
b. Lysine
c. Leucine
d. Adrenaline
e. Norepinephrine

8. C.M. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Somatostatin
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Hyperglycemia

9. C.M. Insulin secretion is stimulated by:

a. Hypoglycemia
b. Some amino acids
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Hyperglycemia

10. C.M. List the substances with hyperglycemic action:

a. Glucagon
b. Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3)
c. Catecholamines
d. Corticosteroids
e. Some amino acids

11. C.M. Indicate the hormones that are produced in the peripheral area of the adrenal
glands:
a. Adrenaline
b. Insulin
c. Thyroxine (T4)
d. Mineralocorticoids
e. Corticosteroids

12. C.M. Hormones that are synthesized in the central (medullary) area of the adrenal
glands are:
a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenaline
c. Sex hormones
d. Corticosteroids
e. Mineralocorticoids

13. C.M. The hormones that are produced in the peripheral area of the adrenal glands
are:
a. Adrenaline
b. Noradrenaline
c. Sex hormones
d. Corticosteroids
 e. Mineralocorticoids

14. C.M. Indicate polypeptide hormones:

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Thyroxine

15. C.M. Mark the hormones derived from amino acids:

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Thyroxine

16. C.M. Select steroid hormones:

a. Insulin
b. Adrenaline
c. Noradrenaline
d. Cortisol
e. Aldosterone

17. C.M. Indicate steroid hormones:

a. Testosterone
b. Adrenaline
c. Progesterone
d. Cortisol
e. Aldosterone

18. C.M. Indicate the hormones synthesized in the central (medullary) area of the
adrenal glands:
a. Adrenaline
b. Thyroxine (T4)
c. Noradrenaline
d. Estradiol
e. Oxytocin

19. C.S. The route of administration of insulin suspension is :

a. i/v
b. i/m
c. subcutaneous
d. per os
e. sublingual

20. C.M. Loss of insulin activity may occur under the following conditions:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Deamination
c. Proteolysis
d. Breaking the decks
e. For oral administration
21. C.M. Indicate the methods of obtaining insulin:
a. Chemical synthesis
b. Semisynthesis
c. Extraction of the animal pancreas
d. Genetic recombination (gene cloning)
e. Photosynthesis

22. C.M. Select the correct statements regarding insulin:

a. It is chemically synthesized
b. The extraction method is the most widely used synthesis method
c. It is obtained by genetic recombination (gene cloning)
d. Usually, E.coli is cultivated industrially
e. Has hyperglycemic effect

23. C.M. Select the structural features of insulin:

a. Polypeptide hormone
b. Steroid hormone
c. The α chain has 21 amino acids and the β chain has 30 amino acids
d. The α-chain has 41 amino acids and the β-50 amino acid chain
e. Two disulfide bridges link the α and β chain

24. C.S. Indicate the human organ which is permeable to glucose without the
involvement of insulin:
a. Smooth muscles
b. Thyroid gland
c. The brain
d. Skeletal muscles
e. Fatty tissue

25. C.M. In the absence of insulin, glucose can supply:

a. The adipose tissue
b. The brain
c. Smooth muscles
d. Nervous endings
e. The crystalline

26. C.M. Select the correct statements regarding the glucose tolerance test:
a. Used for blood glucose determination
b. Used to determine adrenaline
c. 75g of glucose is used for the mature man
d. 5g of glucose is used for the mature man
e. Samples will be collected before and after the glucose tolerance test

27. C.S. Indicate blood glucose reference values:

a. 3,3-5,5 mmol/l
b. 7,8-9,0 mmol/l
c. 1,2-2,5 mmol/l
d. 10-20 mmol/l
e. 7,7-15 mmol/l

28. C.M. Medicinal forms of insulin are:

 a. REGULAR insulin with a maximum duration of 6-8 hours
b. LENTE insulin with a duration of action of 18-24 hours
c. ULTRALENT insulin with maximum duration up to 28 hours
d. PICOLENT insulin with an action duration of 18-36 hours
e. PROREGULAR insulin with a maximum duration of up to 72 hours

29. C.M. Quality control of insulin preparations includes tests on:

a. Impurities with higher molecular weight than insulin
b. Bound proteins
c. Proinsulin
d. Zinc
e. Aluminum

30. C.M. Indicate the action of insulin:

a. Decreases blood glucose concentration
b. Accelerates glycogen synthesis
c. Inhibits glycogen synthesis
d. Accelerates gluconeogenesis
e. Inhibits gluconeogenesis

31. C.M. Indicate the action of insulin:

a. Accelerates protein synthesis
b. Inhibits protein synthesis
c. Accelerates lipolysis
d. Inhibits lipolysis
e. Increases blood glucose concentration

32. C.M. Choose the correct PRObiotics variants:

a. They contain microorganisms that stimulate the development of beneficial
bacteria
b. They contain microorganisms that prevent the development of pathogenic bacteria
c. Contains carbohydrates, which are used as nutrition for live bacteria
d. Colonizes the intestinal tube with the enoxogenic (foreign) microflofa
e. Do not digest or absorb in the upper gastrointestinal tract

33. C.M. Choose the correct PREbiotics variants:

a. They contain microorganisms that stimulate the development of beneficial
bacteria
b. They contain microorganisms that prevent the development of pathogenic bacteria
c. Contains carbohydrates, which are used as nutrition for live bacteria
d. Colonizes the intestinal tube with the enoxogenic (foreign) microflofa
e. Do not digest or absorb in the upper gastrointestinal tract

34. C.M. Choose medications that are PRObiotics:

a. Bifi-form
b. Linex
c. Yougurt
d. Lactofiltrum
e. Sextafag

35. C.M. Choose medications that are PREbiotics:

a. Imoper
 b. Linex
c. Yougurt
d. Lactofiltrum
e. Dufalac

36. C.M. Indicate the composition of the drugs with the PRObiotic action:
a. Enterococcus faecium
b. Bifidobacterium longum
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Lactobacillus
e. Lactulose

37. C.S. Indicate the compound with PREbiotic action:

a. Lactulose
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bifidobacterium longum
d. Lactobacillus
e. Starch

38. C.M. Select the correct statements regarding PRObiotic drugs :

a. Repopulates the normal microflora of the small intestine
b. Repopulates normal microflora of the large intestine
c. Contains live bacteria, which reduce the development of other dangerous bacteria
d. Contains carbohydrates and amino acids
e. Contains only 2 species of beneficial bacteria

39. C.M. Select the correct statements regarding PREbiotic drugs:

a. Stimulates the growth of endogenous microflora (own)
b. It is digested and absorbed in the upper gastrointestinal tract
c. Do not digest or absorb in the upper gastrointestinal tract
d. Contains live bacteria, which reduce the development of other dangerous bacteria
e. Contains a saccharide that becomes specific food for the beneficial bacterial
strains

40. C.M. Select the correct statements regarding PREbiotic drugs:

a. Contains a saccharide that becomes specific food for the beneficial bacterial
strains
b. Digested and fermented due to β-glycosidase in the upper gastrointestinal tract
c. It is not metabolized, because in human enzymatic system lack the enzyme β-
glycosidase
d. They arrive in unchanged form in the colon
e. Contains live bacteria, which reduce the development of other dangerous bacteria
 PREPARATE DE SÂNGE

41. C.S. The anti-hemorrhagic vitamin is:

a. A
b. K
c. D
d. E
e. B12
42. C.S. Which statement about erythrocytes is false?
a. They are called white blood cells
b. They are called red blood cells
c. O2 transport
d. Maintain acid-base balance
e. CO2 transport

43. C.S. Select the biological drug:

a. Antithrombin
b. Atropine
c. Dopamine
d. Triiodothyronine
e. Methionine
44. C.S. Select the biological drug:
a. Xylometazoline
b. Heparin
c. Dopamine
d. Thiamin
e. Amlodipine
45. C.S. Select the biological drug:
a. Oxytocin
b. Fibrin
c. Xylometazoline
d. Cyanocobalamin
e. Pseudoephedrine

46. C.M. The characteristics of biological drugs are:

a. Macromolecule
b. Micromolecule
c. Complex structure
d. High immunogenicity
e. Reduced immunogenicity
47. C.M. The characteristics of biological drugs are:
a. Protein Structure
b. Micromolecule
c. Complex structure
d. High price
e. Reduced immunogenicity
48. C.M. Mark the particularities of biological drugs:
a. Macromolecules
b. Micromoles
c. Protein structure
d. Dynamic structure
 e. Rigid structure
49. C.M. Purification involves the following steps:
a. Particle removal
b. Concentration of the solution
c. Purification
d. Sterilization
e. Identification
50. C.M. Purification of biological drugs can be accomplished by the following methods:
a. Chromatography by ion exchange
b. Molecular exclusion chromatography
c. UV spectrophotometry
d. Salting
e. Solvent extraction
51. C.M. The identification of biological compounds can be achieved through :
a. Mass spectrometry
b. Chromatography
c. Electrophoresis
d. IR spectrophotometry
e. Polarography
52. C.M. Risk factors specific to recombinant proteins in their manufacture are:
a. Presence of preservatives
b. Passing the proteins into inactive form
c. Light storage
d. Presence of bacterial proteases
e. Transportation under inappropriate conditions
53. C.M. The following procedures are required for the study of nucleic acids:
a. Extraction of nucleic acids from cells
b. Purification of DNA (or RNA) molecules
c. Isolation of the DNA fragment of interest;
d. Analysis of the sequences of interest
e. Analysis of all sequences
54. C.M. Biological drugs can treat patients with the following diseases:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Cold
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Thrombophlebitis
e. Diabetes
55. C.M. Biological drugs can be used successfully in the following diseases:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Cold
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Thrombophlebitis
e. Diabetes
56. C.M. The recombinant DNA technique includes the following procedures:
a. Extraction of the gene of interest
b. Modification of the gene
c. Gene introduction
d. Obtaining the coded protein product
e. Quantitative analysis
57. C.M. The collection of genetic material can be made from:
a. Blood
b. Saliva
 c. Hair
d. Cloth fabric
e. Epithelial tissue
58. C.M. The isolation stages of DNA and RNA fragments are:
a. Denaturation of proteins
b. Protease processing
c. Decanting
d. Differentiated centrifugation
e. Purification with organic solvents
59. C.M. The following substances can be used in salting:
a. PEG
b. Ammonium sulphate
c. Potassium carbonate
d. Trichloroacetic acid
e. Picric acid
60. C.M. The chemical instability of biological drugs is conditioned by the following
reactions:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Aggregation
c. B-elimination
d. Oxidation
e. Precipitation
61. C.M. Processes that affect the chemical stability of biological drugs are:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Deamination
d. Flocculation
e. Precipitation
62. C.M. The reactions that occur in the chemical instability of biological drugs are:
a. B-elimination
b. Oxidation
c. Surface adsorption
d. Deamination
e. Precipitation
63. C.M. The reactions that occur in the physical instability of biological drugs are:
a. Adsorption on the surface
b. Neutralization
c. Precipitation
d. Oxidation
e. Deamination
64. C.M. Factors that facilitate protein denaturation are:
a. The temperature
b. pH
c. The ionic strength of the environment
d. Metabolism compounds
e. Preservatives
65. C.M. Factors that facilitate distortion are:
a. Bacterial proteases
b. Preservatives
c. pH
d. Some solvents
e. Metabolism compounds
66. C.M. When protein is denatured, the following changes usually occur:
a. a. Retention of therapeutic action
b. b. Increased solubility
c. c. Decreased solubility
d. d. Change of therapeutic action
e. e. Biological inactivation of the protein
67. C.M. Usually, the following changes occur when protein is denatured:
a. Increases the vulnerability to proteases
b. Increased solubility
c. Decreased solubility
d. Biological inactivation of the protein
e. Change of therapeutic action
68. C.M. Two biological drugs are considered biosimilar if they have the following
common characteristics:
a. Mechanism of action
b. Dose
c. Pharmaceutical form
d. Mode of administration
e. Packaging
69. C.M. Two biological drugs are considered biosimilar if they have the following
common characteristics:
a. Production standard
b. Manufacturer
c. Pharmaceutical form
d. Mode of administration
e. Packaging
70. C.M. The obtaining of the biosuperior preparations is realized by the modification:
a. Protein structure
b. Production technology
c. Mode of administration
d. Dose
e. Pharmaceutical form
71. C.M. The advantages of biosuperiors are:
a. Lower cost
b. Low risks
c. Rigid chemical structure
d. High safety
e. Attractive packaging
72. C.M. Mark advantages biosuperiors:
a. High compliance with treatment
b. Low risks
c. Alternative administration modes
d. High immunogenicity
e. Attractive packaging
73. C.M. The following biological preparations are of animal origin:
a. Heparin
b. Digoxin
c. Insulin
d. Vicasol
e. Interferon
74. C.M. The following biological preparations are of animal origin:
a. Insulin
 b. Albumins
c. Atropine
d. Oxoline
e. Coagulation factors
75. C.M. The procedures for preparing the blood components are:
a. Blood collection
b. Centrifugation
c. Freezing
d. Defrosting
e. Deleucocitosis
76. C.M. The figurative blood components are:
a. Hormones
b. Leukocytes
c. Platelets
d. Erythrocytes
e. Neuromediators
77. C.M. Stable blood products are:
a. Albumin
b. Coagulative fractions
c. Human immunoglobulins
d. Total autologous blood
e. Insulin
78. C.M. Labile blood products are:
a. Total autologous blood
b. Autologous fresh frozen plasma
c. Coagulating factions
d. Erythrocyte concentrate obtained by cytospheresis
e. Human immunoglobulins
79. C.M. Opotherapy has the following characteristics:
a. The old method
b. Extraction of organs
c. Clearly defined mechanism of action
d. Laborious method
e. Economic method
80. C.M. The conditions and procedures for drying opotherapics are:
a. High humidity
b. Low temperature and vacuum
c. Low temperature without vacuum
d. Atomization
e. Lyophilization
81. C.M. Which of the following are functions of the blood:
a. Transports O2 and nutrients into tissues
b. Transports CO2 to the lungs
c. Maintaining the pH of the organism
d. Participates in the defense of the body
e. Transport metabolism products to tissues

82. C.M. Select statements that refer to erythrocytes:

a. They are also called red blood cells
b. They are called blood platelets
c. Indicated in thrombocytopenia
d. It is given in acute and chronic anemia
 e. Indicated in leukopenia
83. C.M. Which statements about leukocytes are true?
a. Also called white blood cells
b. They are called blood platelets
c. Indicated in thrombocytopenia
d. It is given in acute and chronic anemia
e. Indicated in leukopenia

84. C.M. Select the figurative elements that cannot be seen on the microscopic
examination of the blood :
a. Platelets
b. Red blood cells
c. Leukocytes
d. Hepatocytes
e. Albumins

85. C.M. The characteristics of the blood plasma are:

a. It has hypoglycemic effect
b. Contains 9% organic substances
c. It serves as a vehicle for albumin, globulin, fibrinogen
d. Contains 90% water
e. Ensures the transport of hormones, antibodies

86. C.M. Select biological preparations:

a. Heparin
b. Routine
c. Erythrocyte concentrate
d. Concentrated sulfuric acid
e. Platelet concentrate
87. C.M. Mark the biological preparations:
a. The leukocyte concetrant
b. Digoxin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Vicasol
e. Freshly frozen plasma
88. C.M. Select the true platelet statements:
a. It transports oxygen to the lungs
b. Also called blood platelets
c. It is indicated in thrombocytopenia
d. It is administered in acute and corneal anemias
e. Causes nasal bleeding
 VACCINURILE, IMUNOGLOBULINE

89. C.S. The purpose of immunization is:

a. Basic treatment
b. Alternative treatment
c. Prevention
d. Diagnosis
e. Palliative treatment

90. C.S. The vaccine against is not mandatory :

a. Tuberculosis (BCG)
b. Measles
c. Whooping cough
d. Tetanus
e. Flu
91. C.S. Choose the vaccine, which contains fractions from the structure of the pests:
a. HIV
b. Antihepatitis (HepB)
c. Antipoliomyelitis (VPO)
d. Antimalarial
e. Antituberculosis (BCG)

92. C.S. Specific tuberculosis prophylaxis is achieved with the help of :

a. DTP vaccine
b. BCG vaccine
c. Mantoux Test
d. The Wasserman test
e. Vidalea test

93. C.S. The BCG vaccine is given:

a. i / m
b. i / v
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intradermal
e. Per os
94. C.S. The Mantoux test is used for :
a. Diagnosis of tuberculosis
b. Diagnosis of varicella
c. Diagnosis of lung cancer
d. Tuberculosis prophylaxis
e. Influenza prophylaxis

95. C.S. Mantoux test is evaluated over (hours):

a. 6
b. 12
c. 24
d. 36
e. 74

96. C.S. For the prevention of tuberculosis it is used:

a. The BCG vaccine
 b. Antibodies
c. Plasma
d. Serum
e. Tuberculin

97. C.S. The BCG vaccine is used for:

a. Diagnosis of tuberculosis
b. Diagnosis of varicella
c. Diagnosis of lung cancer
d. Tuberculosis prophylaxis
e. Influenza prophylaxis

98. C.S. The BCG vaccine injection has the following particularities:
a. Intradermal introduction
b. In the middle third of the left arm
c. In the middle third of the left forearm
d. In the upper third of the left arm
e. In the upper third of the left forearm
99. C.S. The purpose of immunization is:
a. Basic treatment
b. Alternative treatment
c. Prevention
d. Diagnosis
e. Palliative treatment
100. C.S. Choose the correct variant regarding the structure of the BCG vaccine:
a. Monovalent
b. Bivalent
c. Trivalent
d. Tetravalent
e. Septavalent

101. C.S. The BCG vaccine will be introduced within the range :
a. 2-3 weeks
b. 1-4 months
c. 6-7 months
d. 1-2 years
e. Over 6-7 years

102. C.S. The Hep B vaccine is given in the interval :

a. The first day of life
b. 2-7 days
c. 9-12 months
d. 2-3 years
e. Over 7 years

103. C.S. In general, vaccines are given before the infection with the wild-type strain of
the pathogen, with the exception of the vaccine :
a. Rabies
b. Flu
c. Varicella
d. Antitetanus
e. Antituberculosis
104. C.S. The VPO vaccine contributes to prophylaxis:
a. Pneumococcal infection
b. Rotavirus infection
c. Polio
d. Hib infection
e. Viral hepatitis B

105. C.S. BCG vaccine contributes to prophylaxis:

a. Diphtheria
b. Tetanus
c. Yellow fever
d. Tuberculosis
e. Whooping cough
106. C.S. The Hib vaccine contributes to prophylaxis:
a. Viral hepatitis B
b. Viral hepatitis D
c. HIV infection
d. Haemophilus influezae type b infection
e. Rotavirus infection

107. C.M. Select the correct vaccine statements:

a. Contains inactive or attenuated microorganisms
b. It represents the blood extract of the vaccinated animals
c. Stimulates the production of antibodies against certain diseases
d. Used for treatment
e. Used for prophylaxis

108. C.M. Choose the correct immunoglobulin variants:

a. Contains inactive or attenuated microorganisms
b. It represents the blood extract of the vaccinated animals
c. Contains antibodies against certain diseases
d. Used for prophylaxis
e. Used for treatment

109. C.M. Write down the correct statements about the vaccine:
a. The effect occurs over a certain time
b. The effect appears immediately (acts immediately)
c. Immunity is formed with a long duration of action
d. Immunity is formed with a short duration of action
e. Used for prophylaxis

110. C.M. Choose the correct immunoglobulin variants:

a. Effect occurs over a certain time
b. Effect appears immediately (acts immediately)
c. Immunity is formed with a long duration of action
d. Immunity is formed with a short duration of action
e. Used for treatment

111. C.M. Indicate the mechanisms of action of the vaccines:

a. Activation of humoral immunity
b. Active production of specific antibodies
 c. Activation of cellular immunity
d. Introduction of specific antibodies to one or more pathogens
e. Introduction of specific immunoglobulins to one or more pathogens

112. C.M. Depending on the number of related or different antigens in the same drug,
vaccines are classified into:
a. Monovalent (pneumococcal infections)
b. Bivalent (DT)
c. Trivalent (DTP)
d. Tetravalent (DTP-VPI)
e. Septavalents (pneumococcal infections)

113. C.M. Vaccines may contain:

a. Live attenuated microorganisms
b. Inactivated microorganisms
c. Protein conjugated purified, protein or polysaccharide microbial components
d. Toxoids
e. Antibodies

114. C.M. Choose vaccines that contain fractions from the virus structure:
a. HIV
b. Antihepatitis (HepB)
c. Antipoliomyelitis (VPO)
d. Antimalarial
e. Antituberculosis (BCG)

115. C.M. Select vaccines that contain fractions from the bacterial structure:
a. HIV
b. Antihepatitis (HepB)
c. Antipoliomyelitis (VPO)
d. Anti convulsive cough
e. Antituberculosis (BCG)
116. C.M. Depending on the target species, we distinguish vaccines:
a. For vegetable use
b. For human use
c. For veterinary use
d. Live attenuated
e. Inactivated

117. C.M. DTP vaccine contributes to prophylaxis:

a. Diphtheria
b. Tetanus
c. Yellow fever
d. Tuberculosis
e. Whooping cough

118. C.M. The ROR vaccine contributes to prophylaxis:

a. Varicella
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Rubella
e. Rotavirus
119. C.M. Choose the correct statements about the autovaccine:
a. It is prepared from a strain of a microorganism isolated from a patient
b. It is prepared from a strain of a virus isolated from a patient
c. It is intended to be used only for the vaccination of the patient from whom the
isolation was made
d. It is intended for the immunization of the entire susceptible population
e. Represents passive immunotherapy

120. C.M. Choose the correct statements about vaccine stock:

a. They are obtained from the mixture of several strains of infectious agents
b. Are vaccines prepared with a strain of a microorganism or a virus, isolated from a
patient
c. They are intended for the immunization of the entire susceptible population
d. They are intended for immunization of the patient from whom the isolation was
made
e. Represents passive immunotherapy

121. C.M. In the Republic of Moldova, vaccines against are mandatory :

a. Tuberculosis (BCG)
b. Influenza
c. Diptheria
d. Viral hepatitis B
e. Mumps