1.

A dam reservoir which is not provided with gate controls on its spillway and other
sluices is called ________________
a) detention dam
b) storage reservoir
c) retarding basin
d) flood control reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage reservoir is the one having gates and valves installed at its
spillway and at its sluice outlets. The retarding basin is the one with uncontrolled and
ungated outlets. The cost of gate installation is saved and there are no gates hence,
the possibility of human error and negligence in their operation is eliminated.
2. A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water supply and irrigation
needs of the area at its inception stage. The dam reservoir so constructed is known
as __________________
a) multipurpose reservoir
b) single-purpose reservoir
c) distribution reservoir
d) retarding reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A reservoir planned and constructed to serve various purposes together
is a multipurpose reservoir. It is designed to protect the downstream areas from
floods, to conserve water, irrigation, industrial needs, hydroelectric purposes, etc.
Bhakra dam and Nagarjuna Sagar dam are important multipurpose dams.
3. A dam reservoir catering to flood control, irrigation, and water supply basically
designed for irrigation alone is a _______________-
a) multipurpose reservoir
b) single-purpose reservoir
c) distribution reservoir
d) retarding basins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A reservoir planned, designed and constructed for one purpose is
called a single purpose reservoir whereas a reservoir planned and constructed to
serve various purposes together is a multipurpose reservoir. A small storage
reservoir constructed within a city water supply system is called distribution reservoir
4. Which reservoir is also known as Mitigation reservoir?
a) Conservation reservoir
b) Flood control reservoir
c) Multipurpose dam
d) Storage reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A flood control reservoir protects the downstream areas by storing a
portion of the flood flows to minimize the flood peaks. The entire inflow entering the
reservoir is discharged or gradually released to recover the capacity for the next
flood. It is also called as a mitigation reservoir.
5. A reservoir having gates and valves installation at its spillway and at its sluice
outlets ___________
a) storage reservoir
b) retarding basin
c) both storage and retarding reservoir
d) distribution reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Storage reservoir is the one having gates and valves installed at its
spillway and at its sluice outlets whereas retarding basin is the one with uncontrolled
and ungated outlets. It provides more flexibility in operation and better control.
6. Which reservoir is helpful in permitting the pumps or the water treatment plants to
work at a uniform rate?
a) Storage reservoir
b) Detention reservoir
c) Multipurpose reservoir
d) Distribution reservoir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A small storage reservoir constructed within a city water supply system
is called a distribution reservoir. It stores water during hours of no demand or less
demand and supply water from their storage during the critical time of maximum
demand.
7. In which of the following reservoir the flood crest downstream can be better
controlled and regulated properly?
a) Distribution reservoir
b) Multipurpose reservoir
c) Storage reservoir
d) Retarding reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage reservoirs are preferred on large rivers and require better
control. It is provided with gated spillway and sluiceways for more flexibility of
operation, better control and to increase the usefulness of the reservoir.
8. What are the types of flood control reservoirs?
a) Multipurpose reservoir and Single purpose reservoir
b) Storage reservoir and retarding reservoirs
c) Distribution reservoir and Storage reservoir
d) Distribution reservoir and multipurpose reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two basic types of flood-mitigation reservoirs i.e. storage
reservoir and retarding reservoirs. Storage reservoir is the one having gates and
valves installed at its spillway and at its sluice outlets whereas the retarding basin is
the one with uncontrolled and ungated outlets.
9. As the reservoir elevation increases, the outflow discharge increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When floods occur the reservoir gets filled and discharges through
sluiceways and the water level goes on rising until the flood has subsided. The inflow
becomes equal or less than the outflow. The water gets completely withdrawn until
the stored water is completely discharged.
10. The maximum discharging capacity of a retarding reservoir should not be equal
to the maximum safe carrying capacity of the channel downstream.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the retarding reservoir is not always filled much of the land below
the maximum reservoir level will be submerged only temporarily and occasionally.
The automatic regulation of outflow depends upon the availability of water. The
maximum discharging capacity should be equal to the maximum safe capacity of the
channel d/s.

1. What is the most important physical characteristic of a reservoir?

a) Storage capacity
b) Annual Yield
c) Average yield
d) Reservoir water level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of a reservoir is to store water and thus to stabilize
the flow of water therefore, the most important physical characteristic is its storage
capacity. It is determined from the contour maps of the area. The planimeter is used
to measure the area enclosed within each contour.
2. In general practice adopted for capacity computations is to actually survey the site
contours only at vertical distances of __________________
a) 5 m or more
b) Less than 5 m
c) 0.5 m or more
d) Less than 0.5 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The area of the intervening contours at smaller intervals of 0.5 m or so
and at vertical distances of 5 m or so. It is then interpolated by taking the square root
of the surveyed contours. It is also assumed that the square root of the interpolated
ones varies in exact proportion to their vertical distances.
3. The area-elevation curve when integrated will yield the capacity-elevation curve.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The surveyed area at large intervals is plotted on a graph and area-
elevation curve is drawn. The equation of this curve can be obtained by statistical
methods. It can be integrated to obtain the equation of the capacity-elevation curve
to obtain storage capacity.
4. Which of the following method does not give more than 3% error in the
determination of the capacity of a reservoir?
a) Prismoidal formula
b) Trapezoidal method
c) Average formula
d) Integration method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The capacity of the reservoir can be determined by surveying only a
few contours by using this method. When it is cross-checked with the capacity
worked out by surveying a large number of contours this method gives less than 3%
error. Since the areas of contours are not very precise figures this error is not
considered much.
5. The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
________________
a) between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d) below the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Surcharge storage is uncontrolled storage which is the volume of water
stored between the normal pool level and the maximum pool level. It is that portion
above the crest of the dam’s spillway which cannot be regulated.
6. The useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
__________________
a) between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d) below the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Useful storage can be defined as the volume of water stored in a
reservoir between the minimum pool and normal pool level. Conservation storage
and flood-mitigation storage are the two sub-divisions of useful storage in a multi-
purpose reservoir.
7. The dead storage in a dam reservoir is the available volume for collection of silt
and sediment between _______________
a) bed level of the reservoir and minimum reservoir level
b) bed level of the reservoir and the silt level in the reservoir
c) bed level of the reservoir and the normal pool level
d) above the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Useful storage can be defined as the volume of water stored in a
reservoir between the minimum pool and normal pool level. Dead storage is the
water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level. It is not of much use in
the operation of reservoirs.
8. Bank storage in a dam reservoir _________________
a) increases the compound reservoir capacity
b) decreases the computed reservoir capacity
c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases the computed reservoir capacity
d) has no effect on computed reservoir capacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The certain amount of water that seeps into the permeable reservoir
banks when the reservoir is filled up is known as bank storage. This water comes out
as soon as the reservoir gets depleted and it effectively increases the capacity of the
reservoir.
9. The valley storage reduces the effective storage capacity of a reservoir.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effective storage for flood mitigation is equal to the useful storage
plus surcharge storage minus valley storage i.e. storage corresponding to the rate of
inflow in the reservoir. The actual net increase in the storage is equal to the storage
capacity of the reservoir minus the natural valley storage. Thus, the available storage
is reduced for flood mitigation reservoir.
10. The maximum level to which the water rises during the worst design flood is
known as _________________________
a) full Reservoir level
b) maximum conservation level
c) minimum pool level
d) surcharge storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Normal pool level or maximum conservation level is the maximum
elevation to which the reservoir water rises during normal operating conditions.
Minimum pool level is the lowest water surface elevation which has to be kept under
normal operating conditions. Surcharge storage can be defined as the volume of
water stored between the normal pool level and the maximum pool level.
11. Which of the following formula can be used to determine the storage when three
consecutive sections at equal height are taken?
a) Prismoidal formula
b) Trapezoidal method
c) Average formula
d) Integration method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Prismoidal formula,
Storage = h/6 [A1 + 4A2 + A3] where A1, A2, and A3 are the areas of succeeding
contours and h is the vertical distance between two alternate contours.
It can be preferably used where three consecutive sections at equal height are
taken.

1. Average yield of a storage reservoir is the arithmetic average of its

________________
a) firm yields over a long period
b) secondary yields over a long period
c) firm and secondary yields over a long period
d) reservoir yield over a long period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Firm yield is the yield corresponding to the most critical year on record.
Secondary yield is the water available in excess of the firm yield during years of
higher inflows. Average yield is the average of both firm yield and secondary yield.
2. While planning a water supply reservoir as compared to an irrigation reservoir the
design yield may be kept __________________
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) lower or higher as per designers discretion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dependability percentage value will depend upon the risk which
can be absorbed for the proposed use of water. The city water supply projects can
absorb lesser risk as compared to the irrigation projects. Hence, higher percentage
values are considered.
3. Yield of a reservoir represents ___________________
a) the inflow into the reservoir
b) the capacity of the reservoir
c) the outflow demand on the reservoir
d) the optimum value of catchment yield
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The yield of the catchment is the long-range runoff from a catchment. It
helps in designing the capacity of the reservoir. The outflow from the reservoir
(reservoir yield) is represented by the mass demand line.
4. Design yield of a storage reservoir is kept _______________
a) higher than its firm or safe yield
b) lower than its firm or safe yield
c) equal to its firm or safe yield
d) higher or lower than the firm yield depending upon the designer’s intuition
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An intermediate dependability percentage such as 50% to 75% is used
to compute the design yield or dependable yield. This value will depend upon the risk
which can be absorbed for the proposed use of water.
5. Who did the first effort to give empirical relations for converting the yearly rainfall
value into the yearly runoff for the given catchment?
a) Mr. W L Strange
b) Alexander Binnie
c) Mr. T.G Barlow
d) Sir Inglis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first effort made in India was from Sir Alexander Binnie to connect
the long-range rainfall and the yield. The observations were made on two rivers in
the central provinces for the entire monsoon period. He worked out certain
percentages to connect the monthly rainfall with the monthly yield which was further
adjusted by Mr. Garret.
6. In which of the following method, the catchments were categorized as good, bad
and average catchments to account for the general characteristics of the catchment?
a) Binnie’s percentages
b) Strange’s tables
c) Barlow’s tables
d) Inglis formula
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strange’s tables was an improvement over Binnie’s tables. The
catchments prone to producing higher yield were good catchments and that of low
yields were bad catchments. Average catchments were the intermediate types.
7. What is the value of Barlow’s runoff percentage (K) for hills and plains with little
cultivation?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For Flat, cultivated, and adsorbent soils, the runoff percentage is taken
as 10 and for flat, partly cultivated stiff soils, it is taken as 15. For average
catchment, the value is taken as 20 and for hills and plains with little cultivation, the
value of the runoff percentage is 25.
8. What is the value of Lacey’s monsoon duration factor for a good year?
a) 0.5
b) 1.2
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The monsoon duration factor (m) for a bad year is 0.5 and that of the
normal year the value is 1.2. For a good year, the monsoon duration factor is 1.5.
9. Which of the following yield formula is used for the catchments of West
Maharashtra state of India?
a) Inglis formula
b) Khosla’s formula
c) Lacey’s formula
d) Barlow’s table
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inglis formula was given by Sir Inglis derived his formula for catchments
of Maharashtra state of India. He divided the areas into ghat areas (Sahyadri ranges)
and non-ghat areas depending upon the rainfall intensity and gave the formula to
determine the yield.
10. Which of the following formula for calculating yield can be applied to all
catchments?
a) Inglis formula
b) Khosla’s formula
c) Lacey’s formula
d) Barlow’s table
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Khosla formula is based upon the recent research work conducted in
the field. It is a simple and useful formula and can be applied to the entire country.
The formula is given as-
Yield (Q) = P – 0.48 Tm where Q = the yield in cm, P = rainfall in cm, and Tm = mean
annual temperature of the area.
11. According to the Inglis formula, the non-ghat areas are the one where rainfall is
_____________
a) 200 cm or more
b) 200 cm or less
c) 100 cm or more
d) 100 cm or less
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ghat area is the one where rainfall is 200 cm or more and in non-
ghat areas the rainfall is less than 200 cm. The formulas are-
For ghat areas, Yield = (0.85P – 30.48)
For non-ghat areas, Yield = [P (P – 17.78)] / 254 where P is the rainfall in cm.

1. The design annual rainfall for the catchment of a proposed reservoir has been
computed to be 99 cm. The catchment area contributing to the proposed reservoir is
1000 sq.km having a mean annual temperature of 20°C. Calculate the annual design
catchment yield for the reservoir using Khosla’s formula.
a) 89.4 M.m3
b) 8.94 M.m3
c) 894 m3
d) 894 M.m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Using Khosla’s formula –
Q = P – 0.48 Tm where, Rainfall (P) = 99 cm and Mean annual temperature (Tm) =
20°C
Q = 99 – 0.48 x 20 = 89.4 cm = 0.894 m
The total yield produced from the given catchment = 0.894 x 1000 x 10 6 = 894 M.m3.
2. The reservoir capacity cannot exceed the catchment yield.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reservoir capacity is fixed at a value which is lesser of the value of
–
i. The accessed gross storage required to meet the demand
ii. The accessed dependable yield for the reservoir site.
3. With the reduction in reservoir capacity over the passage of time, the trap
efficiency ___________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) may increase or decrease depending upon the reservoir characteristics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the reservoir capacity reduces with constant inflow value, the trap
efficiency reduces. Hence, for small reservoirs having small capacity on large rivers
having large inflow rates, the trap efficiency is extremely low.
4. Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of
___________________
a) total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
b) total sediment deposited in a given period to the total sediment inflow in that
period
c) total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir to the dead storage capacity of
the reservoir
d) reservoir capacity to the total annual sediment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of the total
sediment deposited in a given period to the total sediment inflow in that period. It can
be defined as the percentage of sediment deposited in the reservoir in spite of taking
precautionary control measures.
5. Capacity inflow ratio for a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of
_______________________
a) reservoir capacity to the average annual flood inflow
b) reservoir capacity to the average annual sediment inflow
c) the dead storage capacity of the reservoir to the average annual sediment
deposited
d) total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity-inflow ratio can be defined as the ratio of the reservoir
capacity to the total inflow of water. The trap efficient is a function of the capacity-
inflow ratio which is represented by a graph between them.
6. The capacity-inflow ratio for a reservoir _________________
a) is a constant factor overtime
b) increases with time
c) decreases with time
d) may increase or decrease with time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The silting rate in the reservoir will be more in the beginning as its
capacity reduces due to silting, the silting rate will also reduce. The trap efficiency is
a function of capacity. The capacity reduces when trap efficiency reduces and lesser
sediment is trapped.
7. A sequent peak algorithm is a plot between __________________
a) Accumulated flow v/s time
b) Discharge v/s time
c) (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
d) Mass outflow v/s time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a plot between time on X-axis and cumulative net flow on Y-axis. It
is an excellent alternative to the mass-curve method of determining reservoir
capacity. The positive value of cumulative net flow indicates a surplus of inflow and a
negative value indicates a deficit of inflow.
8. A flow duration curve is a curve plotted between ________________
a) Accumulated flow v/s time
b) Discharge v/s time
c) (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
d) Streamflow v/s Percent of time the flow is equaled or exceeded
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flow-duration curve is a curve plotted between the streamflow and the
percent of the time the flow is equaled or exceeded. It is also called a discharge-
frequency curve and it represents the cumulative frequency distribution.
9. A steep slope of the flow duration curve indicates a stream with
_________________
a) highly variable discharge
b) small variability of flow
c) considerable base flow
d) large flood plains
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A steep slope represents a stream with highly variable discharge and a
flat slope represents a small variability of flow. The considerable base flow is
indicated by a flat portion on the lower end of the curve and the upper end of the
curve is of river basins having large flood plains.
10. The lowest portion of the capacity-elevation curve of a proposed irrigation
reservoir draining 20 km2 of catchment is represented by the following data:
i. The rate of silting for the catchment = 300 m3 / km2 / year
ii. Life of the reservoir = 50 years
iii. Dead storage = 30
iv. The FSD of the canal at the head = 80 cm
v. The crop water requirement = 250 ha.m
vi. Dependable yield of the catchment = 0.29 m
Calculate the gross capacity of the reservoir.
a) 287.5 ha.m
b) 317.5 ha.m
c) 580 ha.m
d) 37.5 ha.m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Net water demand = 250 ha.m and Reservoir losses = 15% x 250 =
37.5 ha.m
Live storage to meet the given demand = 250 + 37.5 = 287.5 ha.m
Gross storage required to meet the demand = live storage + dead storage = 287.5 +
30 = 317.5 ha.m
Dependable yield = 0.29 x 20 x 106 = 580 ha.m
The gross capacity is fixed at the lesser value of the gross storage and the
dependable yield. Hence, the reservoir capacity = 317.5 ha.m.

1. As the height of a proposed dam is increased, the cost per unit of storage initially
increases and then decreases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cost per unit storage of the dam initially decreases reaches to a
certain minimum value and then increases when the height of the dam is increased.
This lowest point on the curve gives the economical height for which the cost per unit
storage is minimum.
2. The economical height of a dam is that height for which the
____________________
a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
b) benefit-cost ratio is maximum
c) net benefits are maximum
d) benefit-cost ratio is minimum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The height of the dam corresponding to which the cost of the dam per
unit storage is minimum is the economical height of the dam. The cost per unit
storage of the dam initially decreases reaches to a certain minimum value and then
increases when the height of the dam is increased.
3. If 20% of the reservoir capacity is earmarked for dead storage in a storage
reservoir of 30 M.cum and the average annual silt deposition in the reservoir is 0.1 M
cum, then the useful life of the reservoir will start reducing after ____________
a) 60 years
b) 120 years
c) 240 years
d) 300 years
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given, Reservoir capacity = 30 M.cum
Dead storage is 20% of the reservoir capacity = 0.2 x 30 = 6 M.cum
Time during which 6 M cum is filled by sediment @0.1 M.cum/yr = 6/0.1 = 60 years.
4. According to the Central Water Commission, the average annual evaporation loss
is estimated to be _____________
a) 100 cm
b) 125 cm
c) 225 cm
d) 250 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Central Water Commission in 1990 has estimated the average
annual evaporation loss to be 225 cm on the basis of a review conducted on 130
sample reservoirs. The estimated total water loss from all the existing reservoirs to
be 27000 Mm3 per annum.
5. Windbreakers, Integrated operation of reservoirs and Use of underground storage
are all methods of ______________________
a) evaporation control
b) estimation of absorption losses
c) estimation of absorption losses
d) estimation of reservoir leakage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The following are some of the methods of evaporation control such as
Windbreakers, Reduction in the exposed water surface, Use of underground storage
rather than surface storage, Integrated operation of reservoirs, and Use of chemical
for retarding the evaporation rate from the reservoir surface. Use of Water Evapo-
Retardants (WERs) is considered to be an only practical solution for the
conservation of freshwater in spite of its limitations and disadvantages.
6. Which of the following is not used as WERs?
a) Hexa decanol
b) Octa decanol
c) Docosanol
d) Cyclohexanol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fatty alcohols like Cetyl alcohol (popularly known as Hexa decanol),
Stearyl alcohol (also called Octadecanol), and Behenyl alcohol (also called
docosanol) are found to be quite suitable. A mixture of these chemicals have also
been generally used and the chemicals should be 99% pure for getting the desired
properties of the monolayer.
7. Which of the following dam is situated in the seismologically inactive zone in
Peninsular India?
a) Koyna dam
b) Hirakud dam
c) Tehri dam
d) Idukki dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A very strange phenomenon has been observed in several dams of the
world, the reservoir basins which were seismologically inactive started showing
seismic activities when the reservoir was filled up with water. Koyna dam
(Maharashtra) is an important example of such a case.
8. Which of the following measure does not prevent or reduce the intensity of the
earthquake?
a) Filling the reservoir up to a limited safe level
b) Draining out water from weaker adjoining rocks
c) Active exploration of the dam site for the absence of inactive faults before
selecting the same
d) Increasing the pore pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Earthquakes occur due to increased pore-pressure in the adjoining
rocks which lowers their shearing strength resulting in the release of tectonic strain.
Draining out water from weaker adjoining rocks actually reduces pore pressure.
9. Which of the following guideline is incorrect for the selection of a suitable site for a
reservoir?
a) The geological formation should be such that it entails minimum leakage
b) The cost of the dam is a controlling factor
c) Too much silt-laden tributaries should be avoided as far as possible
d) The reservoir basin should have a shallow wide opening in the valley
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The site should be such that a deep reservoir is formed because of
lower land cost per unit of capacity, less evaporation loss, and less possibility of
weed growth as compared to shallow ones. The basin should have a narrow opening
so that the length of the dam is minimum.
1. The vertical component of the earthquake wave which produces adverse effects
on the stability of a dam when is acting in ____________________
a) upward direction
b) downward direction
c) both upward and downward direction
d) any direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the vertical acceleration is acting downward the foundation try to
move downward away from the dam body. This reduces the effective weight and the
stability of the dam. It is the worst case for design.
2. The horizontal component of an earthquake wave producing instability in a dam is
the one which acts __________________
a) towards the reservoir
b) towards the dam
c) away from the reservoir
d) away from the dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic pressure and horizontal inertia force are caused by the
horizontal acceleration of an earthquake wave acting towards the reservoir. As the
foundation and dam accelerate towards the reservoir there is an increase in the
water pressure which is resisted by water, the extra pressure is hydrodynamic
pressure.
3. The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a gravity dam
will ________________________
a) increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b) decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c) increase the uplift by 10%
d) decrease the uplift by 10%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The net effective weight of the dam is given as W [1 – Kv] and vertical
acceleration av = Kv.g = 0.1.g i.e 10%
where W is the total weight of the dam and Kv is the fraction of gravity adopted for
vertical acceleration.
This is considered as the worst case for design as the foundation tries to move
downward away from the dam body when there is downward vertical acceleration.
This reduces the effective weight and the stability of the dam.
4. A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by __________
a) the rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake
acting towards the reservoir
d) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake
acting towards the dam
View Answer
5. In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising force is
provided by the ___________________
a) weight of the dam
b) the water supported against the upstream slope
c) uplift pressure
d) water pressure at the tail end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major resisting force is the weight of the dam body and its
foundation. A unit length of the dam is considered in the 2D analysis of a gravity
dam. The resultant of all the downward forces will represent the total weight of the
dam acting on it.
6. What is the value of horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of
waves in a storage reservoir having a fetch of 52 km due to high wind of 172 km/h?
a) 30 KN
b) 60 KN
c) 130 KN
d) 180 KN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When F > 32 km, the wave height is given by h w = 0.032 (V.F)1/2
hw = 0.032 (172 x 52)1/2 = 3.02 m
The force caused by waves is given by the equation – Pw = 19.62 hw2 KN/m run of
the dam
Pw = 19.62 x 3.022 = 179.69 KN.
7. Calculate the value of free-board that should be provided for a reservoir having a
wind velocity of 92 km/h and it extends up to 18 km upstream.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.6 m
c) 2.25 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When F < 32 km, the wave height is given by – Hw = 0.032(V.F)1/2 +
0.763 – 0.271 F1/4
Hw = 0.032(92 x 18)1/2 + 0.763 – 0.271 (18)1/4 = 1.5 m
Free board is generally provided equal to 1.5 Hw = 1.5 x 1.5 = 2.25 m.
8. The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will
________________________
a) increase the base pressure
b) decrease the base pressure
c) not affect the effective weight of the dam
d) increase the horizontal dynamic force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical acceleration can be resolved in two parts i.e. upward vertical
accelerations and downward vertical accelerations. The effective weight of the dam
increases when there is an upward vertical acceleration as it brings the foundation
closer to the dam. In downward acceleration, the effective weight reduces and is
considered as the worst design case.
9. What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high dams in
seismic zones?
a) 0.1g to 0.15g
b) 0.05g to 0.1g
c) 0.3gs
d) 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An average value of acceleration equal to 0.1 to 0.15 g is sufficient for
high dams in seismic zones and for areas not subjected to extreme earthquake a h =
0.1 g and av = 0.05 g may be used. These forces are neglected in areas of no
earthquake or very less earthquake.
10. What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (Pe)?
a) Pe = 0.726 pe H
b) Pe = 0.424 pe H
c) Pe = 0.555 pe H
d) Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Von-Karman, the hydrodynamic force is given by –
Pe = 0.555. Kh. ϒw H2 where, ϒw is the unit weight of water, H is the depth of water
and Kh is a fraction of gravity adapted for horizontal acceleration which acts at the
height of 4H/3π above the base. In addition to this, an inertia force is also produced
by the horizontal acceleration into the body of the dam.

1. The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between ___________

a) 2 to 3
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1.5
d) 1 to 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor of safety against overturning can be determined by the ratio of
righting moments about the toe to the overturning moments about the toe. The value
generally varies between 2 to 3.
2. What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam
under worst conditions?
a) 500 KN/m2
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 5 kg/m2
d) 50 KN/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The masonry and concrete gravity dams are usually designed in such a
way that no tension is developed anywhere in the structure. The maximum
permissible tensile stress for high gravity dams is taken as 500 KN/m2 under worst
conditions. If subjected to such tensile stresses crack develops near the heel.
3. Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the dam or
at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at that level?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) BY development of tension
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sliding should always be fully resisted. At any horizontal section of the
dam, the factor of safety against sliding is –
FOS = u Ph / Pv where u = coefficient of friction, Ph = Sum of horizontal forces
causing sliding and Pv = Algebraic sum of vertical forces.
4. Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable
compressive stress of the dam material?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) By development of tension
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressive stress produced if exceeds the allowable stresses
then the dam material may get crushed, a dam may fail by the failure of its own
material. The allowable compressive stress of concrete is generally taken as 3000
KN/m2.
5. Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure by?
a) Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) Overturning about the toe
c) Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d) Both overturning and crushing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When tension prevails, cracks develop near the heel and uplift pressure
increases, reducing the net salinizing force. This crack by itself does not fail the
structure but it leads to failure of the structure by producing excessive compressive
stresses.
6. The major principal stress at the toe of a gravity dam under full reservoir condition
neglecting the tailwater effect is given by ____________________
a) Pv
b) Pv tanQ2
c) Pv secQ2
d) Pv sinQ2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When there is no tailwater, the principal stress in such a case is
Pv secQ2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure. This value of principal stress
should not be allowed to exceed the maximum allowable compressive stress of dam
material.
7. Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point on a
gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the base
of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the middle third
of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of the
middle third of the base
d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity of the
middle third of the base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum vertical stress Pmin is equal to zero in order to ensure that
no tension is developed anywhere. If Pmin = 0, e = B/6 i.e. the maximum value of
eccentricity that can be permitted on either side of the center is equal to B/6. This
concludes the fact that the resultant of all forces must lie within the middle third of
the joint width.
8. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped in
order to _______
a) increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b) increase the shear strength
c) decrease the shear strength
d) increase the frictional resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The foundation is stepped at the base to increase the shear strength at
the base and at other joints and measures is taken to ensure a better bond between
the dam and the rock foundation. By ensuring a better bond between the surfaces
the shear strength of these joints should be made as good as possible.
9. The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not be
allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m 2 while analyzing full
reservoir case is ____________________
a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) the major principal stress at toe
c) the shear stress at the toe
d) the principal stress at the heel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In reservoir full case, the resultant is nearer to the toe and hence,
maximum compressive stress is produced at the toe. The vertical direct stress
distribution at the base is the sum of the direct stress and the bending stress and is
given by the equation –
Pmax = V/B [1 + 6e/B] where V is the total vertical force, e is the eccentricity of the
resultant force from the center of the base and B is the base width.
10. If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the resultant
will shift towards the toe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant shifts towards the toe if the uplift increases and the net
effective downward force reduces. This further increases the compressive stress at
the toe and further lengthening the crack due to the development of tension. It finally
leads to the failure of the toe by direct compression

This set of Irrigation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Gravity Method”.

1. When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self-weight of the
dam which acts at a distance of ____________
a) B/2 from the heel
b) B/6 from the heel
c) B/3 from the heel
d) B/4 from the heel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The only single force on the dam when the reservoir is empty is the
self-weight of the dam acting at a distance of B/3 from the heel. It provides maximum
possible stabilizing moment about the toe without causing tension.
2. When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to
________________
a) At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0
b) At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c) At heel = toe = zero
d) At heel = toe = 2W/B
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vertical stress distribution at the base when the reservoir is empty
is given as –
Pmax/min = V/B [1 + 6e/B] and V/B [1 – 6e/B] where e = B/6 and V = total vertical force
= weight W
Pmax = 2W/B and Pmin = 0.
The maximum vertical stress at the heel is equal to 2W/B and at the toe is zero.
3. The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better for U-shaped
valleys than for V-shaped valleys.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transverse joints in the dam body are generally not grouted in U-
shaped valleys but are keyed together in V-shaped valleys. In V-shaped valleys, the
entire length of the dam acts monolithically as a single body. The assumption that
the dam is considered to made up of a number of cantilevers of unit width each may
involve errors here.
4. Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary triangular concrete
gravity dam supporting 72 m height of reservoir water and full uplift? (Take specific
gravity of concrete as 2.4 and coefficient of friction as 0.7)
a) 36.28 m
b) 39.77 m
c) 51.5 m
d) 73.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Using formula –
Case 1: B = H / (Sc – c)1/2 (For full uplift c = 1 and specific gravity of concrete = 2.4 )
= 72/ (2.4 – 1)1/2 = 60.85 m
Case 2: B = H/μ (S – 1) where μ = coefficient of friction taken as 0.7
B = 72 / 0.7 x 1.4 = 73.46 m
The highest among the two base width value is to be selected i.e. B = 73.46 m.
5. For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of
concrete, a high concrete gravity is the one whose height exceeds ______________
a) 48 m
b) 70 m
c) 88 m
d) 98 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The limiting height is – Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) ϒw Permissible strength of
concrete = 3000 KN/m2, Sc = specific gravity of concrete = 2.4
Hmax = 3000/[(2.4 + 1) x 9.81] = 89.9 m.
6. For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the action of water
pressure, self-weight and uplift pressure, the minimum base width required is
_____________
a) H / (S-1)
b) H / S1/2
c) H / (S – 1)-1
d) H / (S-1)1/2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum base width (B) of a gravity dam having an elementary
profile –
B = H / (S – 1)-1 where S is specific gravity of concrete and H is the height of water.
If uplift is not considered – B = H/S1/2.
7. If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the ultimate failure
of the dam occurs by ______________
a) tension
b) crushing
c) sliding
d) overturning
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When eccentricity is greater than B/6 (eccentricity falls outside the
middle third), tension may develop. When tension prevails, cracks develop near the
heel and uplift pressure distribution increases reducing the net salinizing force.
8. What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam?
a) e < B/6
b) e > B/6
c) e > B/3
d) e < B/3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant of all the forces i.e hydrostatic water pressure, uplift
pressure and self-weight of the dam should always lie within the middle third of the
base for no tension. When e < B/6, the value of stress intensity at toe and heel are
positive i.e compression on both sides.
9. What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam?
a) Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw
b) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c) Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw
d) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical height or limiting height of a dam having elementary profile
is –
Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw where f = allowable stress of the dam material, Sc = Specific
gravity of concrete and γw = unit weight of water.
This limiting height draws a dividing line between a low gravity dam and a high
gravity dam.
10. Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is 84m.
a) 5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 5.55 m
d) 7.75 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bligh has given an empirical formula for finding out the thickness of the
dam at top.
A = 0.522 H1/2 = 0.522 x 841/2 = 5.05 m.
As per Creager, the economical top width has been found to be equal to 14% of the
dam height without considering earthquake forces.
1. In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for friction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The safety against sliding should be checked only for friction in case of
low dams and in high dams, the shear strength of the joint (i.e. an additional shear
resistance) is also considered for economical design. The dam section is given an
extra slope or batter on the U/s or D/s side as per requirements for achieving
stability.
2. For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination of vertical and
horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability is
________________________
a) vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b) vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c) vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d) vertically downward and horizontally upstream
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal inertia force should be considered to be acting at the center
of the gravity of the mass regardless of the shape of cross-section and it acts
horizontally downstream in worst cases under full reservoir case. This force would
produce the worst results is it is additive to the hydrostatic water pressure (acting
towards the downstream).
3. The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having an
elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a) 64.68 m
b) 54.80 m
c) 164 m
d) 80 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The base width at bottom is given by B = H/Sc1/2 (c = 0 since uplift is not
considered).
B = 35 m and Sc = 2.45
Allowable height of the dam H = 35 x 2.451/2 = 54.8 m.
4. A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative density
2.57 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is the maximum
height of the dam without considering the uplift force?
a) 120 m
b) 217 m
c) 279 m
d) 325 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum possible height of low gravity dam is H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1)
where f = allowable stress of dam material = 4.2 MPa, Sc = 2.57, and ϒw = 9.81
KN/m2.
H = [4.2 / (9.81 x 3.57)] x 1000 = 119.92 m.
5. The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of the gravity
dam section. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.617 horizontal: 1
vertical, the maximum principal stress at the toe of the dam when there is no
tailwater is _______________
a) 1.7 MPa
b) 2.4 MPa
c) 3.6 MPa
d) 4.8 MPa
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The principal stress at the toe is given by Pat toe = Pv. secΦ2 (without
considering the tailwater) where Pv = 3.44 MPa and tan Φ = 0.617/1 i.e.Φ = 31.67°
Pat toe = 3.44 x sec(31.67°)2 = 4.74 MPa.
6. What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a) More than unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than 3 to 5
d) Less than 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Friction Factor is given by –
SFF = sliding factor (SF) + B.q / ∑Ph where B = width of joint or section area = B x 1,
q is the shear strength of the joint, and Ph is the sum of horizontal force causing
sliding. SF must be greater than 1 and SFF must be greater than 3 to 5. This
analysis is carried out for a full reservoir case as well as an empty case.
7. The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam such as
sluices and inspection galleries can be assumed to be causing only local effects
without any appreciable effect on the distribution of stresses as per the principle
of_____________________
a) Laplace
b) St. Venant
c) Reynold
d) St. Francis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Small openings made in the dam only produce local effects as per St.
Venant’s principle. They do not affect the general distribution of stresses. This is one
of the most important assumptions made in the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams.
8. A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the RL of
the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive stress in
concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4. Calculate the
height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low dam.
a) H = 90 m High gravity dam
b) H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c) H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d) H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The limiting height of the dam is given by-
H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1) where f = allowable stress of dam material = 3000 KN/m 2, Sc =
2.4, and ϒw = 9.81 KN/m2.
H = 3000 / 9.81 x 3.4 = 89.9 m.
This value is more than the height of the dam so it is a high gravity dam.
9. The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________
a) line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b) line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c) centre-line of the top width of the dam
d) line joining mid-points of the base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The axis of the dam is taken as the reference line which is defined
separately in the plan and in the cross-section of the dam. In plan, it is the horizontal
trace of the U/s edge of the top of the dam. In the cross-section, the vertical line
passing through the U/s edge of the top of the dam is considered as the axis of the
dam.
10. Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________
a) increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c) decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The principal stress is given by the formula –
P = Pv sec(Φ)2 – p’ tan(Φ)2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure and p’ is the
tail-water pressure
The shear stress on the horizontal plane near the toe is given by –
S = (Pv – p’) tan(Φ)
From both the equations, it is clear that the tail-water pressure is opposite in nature
and it reduces the value of principal stress and shear stress.

1. The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing

____________________
a) hydrostatic pressure
b) seepage pressure
c) silt pressure
d) both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An opening or passage left in the dam which runs longitudinally is
called the gallery. This is to provide space for drainage of water percolating through
the upstream face of the dam or seeping through the foundation. It is also used for
inspection purposes and for the mechanical equipment used in the operation of
gates in spillways.
2. Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in order to
economize on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways
a) i and ii
b) i, ii and iii
c) i, ii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a gravity dam, the grout curtain is provided near the toe to reduce the
exit gradient. A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in gravity
dam reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level. Vertical
cut-off walls are the most effective to reduce seepage flow and uplift force.
3. Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the
___________________________
a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) vertical construction joints of full height and width
c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) longitudinal construction joints of full width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that run through the entire height
and extend through the full width of the dam section. These joints are continuous
from the upstream face to the downstream face.
4. Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by
____________
a) shear keys
b) keyways
c) water stops
d) galleries
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Water bars or water stops are provided in the transverse as well as
horizontal joints in concrete adjacent to the upstream face of the dam. The openings
of the joints are sealed properly with water stops to avoid passage of seepage of
water through the body.
5. In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done is
____________________
a) curtain grouting near the heel
b) consolidation grouting near the heel
c) curtain grouting near the toe
d) consolidation grouting near the toe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Curtain grouting helps in forming a principal barrier against the seepage
through the foundations and thus reduces the uplift pressure. This grouting can be
accomplished from the foundation gallery or from other galleries within the dam.
6. The general value of lift for concrete is taken as __________________
a) 1.5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete is poured from a certain height in the first attempt and this
height is called a lift. Maximum height of single pour of concrete is usually about 1.5
m. If this is reduced, more horizontal joints will get developed.
7. The horizontal joints that extends through the entire width of the dam section and
are developed at each lift height is called as ___________________
a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) contraction joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The longitudinal joint is developed at each lift height and extends
through the entire width of the dam section. These joints shall run through the entire
length of the dam but are staggered between transverse joints.
8. Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams?
a) Longitudinal joints
b) Transverse joints
c) Construction joints
d) Contraction joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that divide the dam length into a
number of vertical cantilevers each of which is independent of the other. It runs
through the entire height and extends through the full width of the dam section.
Hence, it justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity dams.
9. The foundation pressure used in the pressure grouting is equal to
_________________
a) 2.0 D N/cm2
b) 2.5 D N/cm2
c) 5.0 D N/cm2
d) 3.0 D N/cm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The grouting pressure is kept as high as possible without lifting the
foundation strata and the pressure used in this grouting is equal to 2.5D. It is carried
out only after some portion of the dam section is laid and is generally done in stages
of depth equal to 15 m or so.

1. Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Non-homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homogenous earth dam may be constructed of uniform and
homogenous material when locally available. The percolation of water is not checked
in such dams. It is suitable only on impervious foundations.
2. Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping through
cracks?
a) Central core
b) Transition zone
c) Outer zone
d) Core wall
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The outer zone is made of fairly pervious material like grit, gravel, and
murrum. The innermost zone is done with fairly impervious material. The central core
is covered by comparatively pervious transition zone which prevents piping through
the cracks which may develop in the core.
3. Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core material
of zoned embankment type dam?
a) Highly impervious clay
b) Sands or silty clays
c) Coarse sands
d) Gravels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clay shrinks and swells and is highly impervious is not suitable. It is
sometimes mixed with fine sand or fine gravel so as to make it a suitable material for
the impervious central core. Coarse sands and gravels are used in the outer shell.
4. Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less than
10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding elevation?
a) Diaphragm type dam
b) Zoned type dam
c) Non-homogenous earth dam
d) Homogenous earth dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of the core differentiates the diaphragm embankment
from the zoned type embankment.

Embankment type The thickness of core or diaphragm

< 10 m or
1. Diaphragm-type embankment
< the height of embankment

2. Zoned-type embankment ≥ 10 m
5. The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________
a) at the ground level on u/s side
b) at the ground level on the d/s side
c) at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d) on the D/s slope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A blanket of relatively impervious material may be placed on the
upstream face. Since homogenous earth dam poses the problems of seepage, a
homogenous section is generally added with an internal drainage system. This
keeps the seepage line well within the body of the dam.
6. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?
a) These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b) Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c) These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation
d) Highly skilled labor is generally not required
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earthen dams are suitable for any type of foundation but there has to
be a separate provision for the spillway location. The mode of failure is sudden and
requires high maintenance and the overall life is not so long. It requires low to
moderately skilled labors and moderate capital cost.
7. During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method, development
of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a) central impervious core
b) pervious outer shell
c) transition zone
d) both central core and outer shell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, an embankment is created by water and earth slurry
which is discharged inwards to form a central pool at site. When water is pumped to
the site it spreads the coarser material drops out first and the finest at last. Thus the
core material settles within the central pool forming a zoned embankment and high
pore pressures develop in the core.
8. The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under OMC
for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a) Rolled fill method
b) Hydraulic fill method
c) OMC method
d) Compaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the rolled-fill method, the embankment is constructed by placing
suitable soil materials in thin layers and compacting the layers with rollers. Power-
operated rollers are used for dams and ordinary road rollers can be used for low
embankments. The best compaction can be obtained at the optimum moisture
content (OMC).
9. The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam
________________________
a) checks the seepage
b) prevents piping
c) gives stability to the central impervious fill
d) distribute the load over a large area
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The central core or hearting is done with fairly impervious material and
it checks the seepage. The transition zone of mediocre permeability prevents piping
through cracks. The outer zone gives stability to the central fill.
10. Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?
a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoned earth dam is also called a non-homogenous or heterogeneous
earth dam and it is suitable on shallow pervious foundations. This dam is widely
constructed and the materials of the zone are selected depending upon the
availabilities.

1. What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the height of the
dam is more than 60 m?
a) 2 m to 3 m
b) 2.5 m above the top of gates
c) 3 m above the top of gates
d) More than 3 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For controlled spillway, if the height of the dam is less than 60 m, the
minimum recommended freeboard value is 2.5 m above the top of gates. If the
height of the dam is more than 60 m, the minimum freeboard value is 3 m.
2. What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam?
a) H + 3
b) 0.2H + 3
c) 0.2 H
d) H + 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The top width (A) is generally governed by minimum roadway width
requirements in case of small dams. The top width of the earth dam for very low
dams is given by –
A = H/5 + 3 where H is the height of the dam.
3. What is the Terzaghi’s recommended value of U/s side slope for earth dam of
height less than 15m of homogenous silty clay?
a) 2: 1
b) 2.5: 1
c) 3: 1
d) 3.5: 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For earth dams of homogenous silty clay of height less than 15 m, the
recommended u/s slope is 2.5: 1 and d/s slope is 2: 1. For height more than 15 m,
u/s slope value is 3: 1 and d/s slope is 2.5: 1.
4. If the height of the dam is 10 m, then the value of top width (A) according to
Strange’s recommendations is _________________
a) 1.85 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 4.0 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the height of the dam is up to 7.5 m then the top width value
according to Strange’s recommendation is 1.85 and if the height is in between 7.5 to
15 m, then the recommended value is 2.5. If the height is in between 15 to 22.5 m
then the top width is 3.0 m.
5. When the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15, the Strange’s recommended
value for maximum freeboard of low earth dams is ______________
a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 1.8
c) 1.85
d) 2.1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the height of the dam up to 4.5 m, the maximum freeboard is 1.2 to
1.5 m and for the height range 4.5 to 7.5 m, the maximum freeboard is 1.5 to 1.8 m.
If the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15 m, the maximum value is 1.85 m.
6. Calculate the top width (A) of the earth dam of height 50 m.
a) 5.0 m
b) 4.75 m
c) 6.10 m
d) 3 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For dams higher than 30 m, the top width (A) is given by the following
formula-
A = 1.65 (H + 1.5)1/3 where H is the height of the dam.
A = 1.65 (50 + 1.5)1/3 = 6.13 m.
7. A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which pressure is
_______________
a) equal to the atmosphere
b) greater than atmosphere
c) lower than atmosphere
d) varying
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line which joins the points in a dam section at which pressure is
equal to the atmospheric pressure is called phreatic line. It is also called as line of
seepage or saturation line. There is capillary fringe i.e zone of capillary which has
negative hydrostatic pressure above this line.
8. Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in the
downstream face of an earthen dam in order to _________________
a) allow the movement of cattle
b) allow the inspection of vehicles to move
c) reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater
d) increase the erosion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The provision of berms serves the following purposes –
1. It behaves like a good lining for reducing losses and leakage.
2. They provide protection against erosion and breaches due to wave action.
3. They help the channel to attain regime conditions as they help in providing
a wider waterway.
4. It can be used as borrow pits for excavating soil to be used for filling.
9. During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is
________________ to the equipotential lines.
a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) not defined
d) diagonal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The seepage through a pervious soil material for 2-D flow is given by
Laplacian equation and the graphical solution suggests that the flow through the soil
can be represented by flow-net. It consists of 2 sets of curves equipotential line and
streamlines which is mutually perpendicular to each other.
10. The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as _____________________
a) equipotential line
b) streamline
c) streak line
d) path line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equipotential lines are the lines of equal energy. Every point on the
upstream face of an earth dam will be under equal total energy, this line acts as an
equipotential line. Similarly, the upstream floor of a weir acts as an equipotential line.
10. The effects of capillary fringe are on the slightly safer side and are neglected.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is appreciable flow through the dam body below the
phreatic line, it reduces the effective weight of the soil and also the shear strength of
the soil due to pore pressure. The capillary tension in water leads to increased
intergranular pressure as the insignificant flow through the fringe leads to greater
shear strength. Hence, the effects are neglected.
11. Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or moist) and
submerged line?
a) Equipotential line
b) Path line
c) Seepage line
d) Streak line
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The soil above the phreatic line or seepage line will be taken as dry and
the soil below it shall be taken as submerged for computation of shear strength of
the soil. This helps in drawing the flow net.

1. Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

a) over-topping
b) erosion of U/s and d/s face
c) cracking due to frost action
d) gully formation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The waves developed near the top surface due to the winds notch out
the soil from the U/s face and the D/s toe of the dam may get eroded due to the
cross currents and due to tailwater. Stone pitching or riprap should be provided to
avoid such failures.
2. Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________

i. Over-topping failure

ii. Erosion of U/s face

iii. Erosion of D/s face

iv. Cracking due to frost action

v. Gully formation

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) i and v
b) ii and iii
c) iv and v
d) i and iv
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Over-topping of the dam generally occurs due to insufficient free-board,
inadequate spillway capacity, and clogging of the spillway, etc. Frost causes heaving
and cracking of the soil with seepage and consequent failure, an additional freeboard
allowance of about 1.5 m should be provided as an additional safety measure.
3. The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward velocities is
ensured by provision of ____________________
a) berms
b) freeboard
c) burrow pits
d) spoil banks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rainwater that acquires high downward velocities causes
consequent erosion which can be reduced by the provision of berms.
The provision of berms serves the following purposes –
• It behaves like a good lining for reducing losses and leakage
• They provide protection against erosion and breaches due to wave action
• They help the channel to attain regime conditions as they help in providing a wider
waterway
• It can be used as borrow pits for excavating soil to be used for filling.
4. In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the earthen
embankments, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a) counter berms
b) sides walls of sufficient height and length
c) spoil banks
d) sufficient freeboard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cross-currents that may come from the spillway buckets is one of
the reasons for the d/s toe erosion. To prevent the possibility of cross-flow towards
the earthen embankment, sidewalls of the spillway also called diaphragm walls of
sufficient height and length is provided.
5. Sloughing is the process of _________________
a) progressive erosion
b) subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c) uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d) progressive removal of soil from the D/s face
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The progressive erosion and the subsequent removal of soil grains from
within the dam or from the foundation is piping. The progressive removal of soil from
the d/s face is sloughing.
6. In foundation slide failure___________________________
a) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming large
mud waves near the heel
b) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large
mud waves near the heel
c) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
large mud waves near the heel
d) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large
mud waves near the heel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entire dam may slide or just one face slides over the foundation
when the foundation of earth dams is made of soft soils. Then the foundation bulges
out on the side of the movement. The top of the embankment gets cracked and
lower slope moves outward forming large mud waves near the heel.
7. What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?
a) The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b) Reservoir full condition
c) Steady seepage condition
d) Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the upstream slope is steep and when the soil used in the
construction of the dam is poor and compaction is not adequate, the sudden
drawdown of water causes sliding of the upstream face. This failure seldom leads to
catastrophic failures.
8. When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is
_____________________
a) the upstream slope
b) the downstream slope
c) both upstream and downstream slope
d) no effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The D/s slope is most likely to slide when the reservoir is full. For
downstream face also, when the slope is steep and soil used is poor with inadequate
compaction, saturation and softening of soil due to rainfall and seepage causes
sliding of the downstream face.
9. In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe, it is
necessary to provide _____________________
a) spoil bank
b) counter berm
c) freeboard
d) berm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The saturation gradient line may cut the downstream end of the bank
even after providing sufficient section for bank embankment. By the provision of
counter-berms, the saturation line can be kept covered at least by 0.5 m.
10. Which of the following failures generally occur due to the development of
unaccounted pore pressures?
a) Hydraulic failures
b) Piping through the dam body
c) Sliding in embankments
d) Sloughing of the d/s toe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Excessive pore pressure developed due to consideration of clay
embedded between sands or silts may reduce the shear strength of the soil. It
becomes incapable of resisting the induced shear stresses leading to the failure of
dam foundation without warning.

1. Which of the following method is also called as the Slices method?

a) Fellenius method
b) Swedish slip circle method
c) Bishop’s simplified method
d) Spencer’s method
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Swedish circle method is also called as the method of slices and
Fellenius method is a modified version of it. Swedish circle method assumes the
condition of plain strain with failure along a cylindrical arc. The location of the center
of possible failure arc is assumed and the earth mass is divided into slices.
2. In Fellenius method for small values of angle of internal friction of soil, the critical
arc passes ________________
a) through the toe of the slope
b) above the toe of the slope
c) below the toe of the slope
d) anywhere near the toe of the slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The critical arc passes below the toe of the slope for small values of
angle of internal friction of the soil (0° to 15°) if the angle of inclination is less than
53°. For large values of internal friction angle, the critical arc passes through the
slope.
3. What is the correct expression of equivalent liquid unit weight?
a) ϒeq.tan2 [45 – Φ/2]
b) ϒeq.tan2 [45 + Φ/2]
c) ϒeq.tan [45 – Φ/2]
d) ϒeq.tan [45 + Φ/2]
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This term is used in the analysis of the stability of the foundation
against shear. It is based on the assumption that soil has an equivalent liquid unit
weight which would produce the same shear stress as the soil itself.
ϒeq.tan2 [45 – Φ/2]
where ϒeq = the equivalent unit weight of dry soil in foundation and dam and Φ = the
equivalent angle of internal friction.
4. Calculate the maximum shear-stress induced if the horizontal average shear
stress induced in u/s portion of the dam at the base is 36.45 kN/m 2.
a) 43.74 kN/m2
b) 47.38 kN/m2
c) 51.03 kN/m2
d) 54.67 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By Photoelastic studies, the maximum intensity of shear stress is equal
to 1.4 times the average shear intensity at a distance 0.6 B from the heel.
Ꞇmax = 1.4 Ꞇavg = 1.4 x 36.45 = 51.03 kN/m2.
5. Calculate the factor of safety at the point of maximum shear if unit shearing
resistance is 97.9 kN/m2 and the maximum shear-stress induced is 55.72 kN/m2.
Check whether the dam is safe or unsafe.
a) F.O.S = 1.93 and safe
b) F.O.S = 1.75 and unsafe
c) F.O.S = 0.569 and safe
d) F.O.S = 1.75 and safe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: F.O.S will be the ratio of the unit shearing resistance to the maximum
shear stress developed.
F.O.S = 97.9 / 55.72 = 1.75
this value should be more than unity, hence safe.