Compiled by asma ,asad and rabail

1. Juvenile angiofibroma 1
A. Anterior bowing
B. Intracranial extension
C. Widening of orbital fissure
Erosion of medial pterygoid

2. Preparation for MAG-3 2

A. Hydrate patient
B. Stop void one hour before it

3. TACE 3
A. Mix lipoidal with anti cancer drug
B. Give anti cancer drug before lipoidal

4. “near miss” is
A. An event not by medication but by chance
B. Willingful negligence
C. An event leading to measures more than expected

5. Quality improvement is
A. Assess the employees
B. Do the survey
C. Review the quality procedures you want to improve

6. Intra renal aneurysms in child 5

A. FMD
B. Atherosclerosis

7. 10 days after hysterectomy, patient febrile 6

A. Organized collection
B. Endometriosis
C. Appendicular abcess

8. Uptake in right iliac fossa

A. meckels diverticulum 7

9. Thyroid most common malignancy 8

A. Papillary
B. Medullary
C. Anaplastic

10. Uptake on Tc on base of tongue 9

A. Lingual thyroid
B. Lymph node

11. Girl vomited twice, GCS 14/15, recalls everything

A. No imaging 10
B. Urgent CT head

12. Child with recurrent urine infection, more than 3 years old still positive urine
culture
A. DMSA after 4-6 months later
B. USG 6 months later

13. Renal plus MSK manifestations

A. Marfans (CVS + MSK)
B. Pseudohypoparathyroidism 11
C. Thalesemia Minor

14. Cystic mas seen in retroareolar region

A. Papilloma
B. Papillary carcinoma

15. Low signals in prostate peripheral zone and seminal vesicle are due to (after 1
week)
A. Post biopsy hemorrhage 12
B. Recurrent ca

16. Lymph node age

A. 2 years
B. 3 years

17. Creatining raise 14

A. 2mg/dl
B. 3mg/dl

18. Urine leak in a child with bladder diastasis 15

A. Bladder exostrophy
B. Prune belly

19. Dilated ureters, bladder dilated, cryptorchidism, diagnosis is

A. Prune belly syndrome

20. Intradural extramedullary lesion 17

A. Meningioma
B. Ependymoma

21. PVNS signals

A. Low signals on all sequences

22. MRI artifacts to see fatty lesion in liver 19

A. Chemical shift
B. Aliasing
C. Truncation

23. 2 months after renal transplant showing thick septations and echoes
A. Lymphocele
B. Urinoma

24. Renal transplant tarduspavus pattern, PSV raise 20

A. Renal vein thrombosis
B. Renal artery stenosis
25. Stippled epiphysis and growth retardation
A. Pagets
B. Hypothyroidism

26. Antenatal scan, fetal clinodactyly, short femur, NT > 6mm

A. Turners
B. Down syndrome

27. Lympahngioma
A. Connection to aorta
B. Cystic hygroma

28. Most common congenital 23

A. Anencephaly
B. Myelomeningocele

29. Young patient with multilocular mandibular lesion and cortical eruption
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Giant cell tumor
C. Odontogenic cyst

30. Contrast reaction 24

A. Reassure patient
B. Give anti-hypertensive

31. Neonate born with drop in hemoglobin 25

A. Adrenal hemorrhage

32. Bilateral echogenic kidneys with cysts replacing the kidney loss of CMD in a one
month old child 26
A. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney
B. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney
C. Multicystic dysplastic kidney

33. Two months old child with a mass with whorls of echogenic.. no renal pelvis or
venous invasion
A. Mesoblastic nephroma 27
B. Wilms
C. Rhabdoid

34. A patient with RTA diffuse pulmonary infiltrates fail to resolve

A. Due to rupture of hyaline membrane

35. Pancreatic trauma gun shot Inx

A. CECT
B. Ultrasound

36. Pancreatic collection with gas 29

A. Pancreatic phlegmon
B. Pancreatic abscess

37. Prostate -1000 HU 30

A. Prostatic abscess

38. Angle of mandible mass Beak sign between carotid vessels

A. Second branchial cyst
B. First branchial cyst

39. Frontal sinus expansion

A. Mucocele
B. Polyposis

40. History of sinus infection, multiple thick walled cavitory lesions in upper lobe of
lung now after 3 months thinning of cavity wall and debris in dependent part.. 33
A. Tuberculosis
B. Wegners

41. 55-year-old gentleman presented to progressive shortness of breath for one

year. On CXR, there are bilateral peripheral reticular opacities at the lung bases. On
HRCT, there is subpleural basal reticular pattern with areas of honeycombing. The most
likely diagnosis is:
A) Acute interstitial pneumonia
B) Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
C) Desquamative interstitial pneumonia
D) Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia
E) Usual interstitial pneumia
(Answer E Reference: David Sutton page # 205)

42. Patient with left sided pleural effusion old age 90 years, > 3mg proteins 35
A. Cardiac failure
B. Empyema

43. Female patient presented with chest tightness and congestion, no fever rash or
joint pain. Mediastinal lymphadenopathy 36
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Lymphoma

44. Patient with leptomenigeal enhancement and basilar thickening, multiple lesions
also in brain, 37
A. Subdural hygroma
B. Subdural empyema (TB scenario)

45. Female patient with leptomeningeal enhancement and facial nerve thickening
also multiple lesions in the brain 38
A. Carcinomatosis meningitis
B. Sarcoidosis

46. Contrast allergic reaction 39

A. Hypertensive crisis

47. Patient with post op procedure after prostectomy, feels pleuritic chest pain,
raised D dimer. Chest xray after 5 days will show
A. Normal chest xray 40
B. Peripheral infiltrates
C. Pleural effusion

48. In alcoholic liver disease 41

A. Small sized liver showed better prognosis
B. Ascites is a poor prognostic factor

49. Percutaneous biopsy

A. 90% complications occur within first 24 hours
B. 20% complications in first 12 hours

50. Postmenopausal patient hysterectomy and bilateral salpingoopherectomy reveals

endometrial carcinoma. Histological diagnosis is
A. Bening serous carcinoma
B. Malignant cystadenoma
C. Endometroid cancer

51. Mucinous carcinoma of pancreas

A. Cyst measuring 28mm 42
B. Hypervascular
C. Seen more on head

52. Cyst seen in pleuropericardial space change with respiration

A. Pleuropericardial cyst 43
B. Fat pad
Bronchogenic and Pleuropericardial cysts can change position on respiration and
poure.
53. Liver trauma two hypoechoic lesions in liver measuring 3 cm, with hyperdense
area near portal vein (80 to 360 HU) and free fluid in peritoneal cavity
A. Focal hepatic devascularisation
B. Pseudoaneurysm (density same as contrast)
C. Liver hematoma
D. Periportal fluid

54. Suprasellar region, showing low and high signals and compressing the optic
chiasm
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Pituitary adenoma

55. High signals lesion showing nidus in calcaneum

A. Intraosseus lipoma 44

56. Aortoenteric fistula 45

A. Focal disruption at the graft
B. Gas seen at the graft
C. Soft tissue thickening

57. Patient after DSA now have motor palsy

A. Clot detached from embolus
B. Infarct at MCA

58. Difference between chondrosarcoma and enchondromaamelo

A. Arcs and calcifications
B. Ground glass
C. Endosteal scalloping

59. Patient with skin thickening and dysphagia 46

A. Epidermolysis bullosa

60. Buccal pigmentation and small bowel polyps 47

A. Garnders
B. Peutz jegher

61. Multiparous female with symmetric sclerosis on iliac end of SI joints

A. Osteits condesens ili
B. Ankylosing spondylitis

62. Soft tissue calcification with skin hardening and dysphagia

A. Acro osteolysis 48
B. Dermatomyositis
C. Scleroderma

63. Normal measurement of hip joint

A. Alpha angle more than 60
B. Alpha angle less than 60

64. Blue mass near promontory causing erosion and showing avid enhancement
A. Glomus tympanicum 50
B. Glomus juglare
C. Cholestetoma

65. Which is inconsistent for caudate lobe

A. Dual arterial supply from right and left hepatic artery
B. Posterior to portal vein
C. Separated from left lobe by falciform ligament

66. Patient came with pain in shoulder joint 51

A. Left 2nd rib erosion
B. Left sternoclavicular dislocation
C. Anterior dislocation

67. Patient came with pain 52

A. Brachial plexus injury
B. Axillary artery injury

68. Mucnoius carcinoma

A. Smallest cystic component 28 mm
B. Seen in head

69. Cystic fibrosis 53

A. String of pearl appearance
B. Peripancreatic fat
C. Pancreatic atrophy
70. Chronic pancreatitis calcifications and renal stones 54
A. Hyperparathyroidism

71. Patient with insect bite dilated cavernous sinus and enlarged with filling defects
on post contrast images 55
A. Tolosa hunt syndrome
B. Cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis

72. Child with renal disease nephrocalcinosis

A. Renal tubular acidosis 56

73. Patient with carcinoma history, deviated tongue to one side and mets to left side
of skull base 57
A. Hypoglossal canal (hypoglossal n injury)
B. Juglar foramen

74. Young pt Primary achalasia and fluid level on xray in mediastinum 58

A. Achalasia
B. Scleroderma
C. Chagas

75. Sign seen on X ray initially in Perthe’s disease 59

A. Widening of joint (1st) Subchondral lucency = 2nd
B. Sclerosis of femoral head
C. Fragmentation of femoral head
76. Antenatal scan with normal abdominal surface 60
A. CCAM
B. CDH

77. Left side lung lesion upper lobe filled with fluid after that aeration 61
A. CLO
B. CCAM

78. Adult with air fluid levels repeated infections in lower lobe
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Intralobar sequestration

79. HPOA scenario from bcq book 62

80. Female patient taking ovarian hormone presents with abdominal pain and
ascites. Usg shows ovarian enlargement with multiple follicles 63

A. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

B. Meigs syndrome

81. Medial side with lateral femoral condyle – REMEMBER MNEMONIC LAME 64
A. Osteochondritis dissicans

82. Centrilobular nodule with branching pattern. History of tuberculosis 65

A. Signet ring appearance
B. Finger in glove
C. Tree in bud

83. A patient with pain in second head of metatarsal. Normal blood pool phase. MRI
shows high signals on stir.
A. Stress fracture of second head of metatarsal
B. Frieberg 66

84. A patient presented to OPD with pain in left leg. Xray showed degenerative
changes in lumbar spine. Pain is relieved by lying down 67
A. Herniated disc syndrome
B. Interminttent claudication due to atherosclerosis

85. Carotid Doppler correct is 68

A. > 70% stenosis is moderate to severe
B. Because of vertebral artery intimal thickening

86. After which IC PSV is surgery indicated? 69

A. > 70 cm/sec
B. > 100 cm/sec
C. > 200 cm/sec
D. >250 cm/sec

87. Axillary lymph nodes. the group III nodes are 70

A. Lateral to pectoralis minor 1
B. Medial to pectoralis minor 3
C. Medial to pectoralis major
D. Retrosternal area
E. Underneath pectoralis minor 2
Remember 123 lateral to medial

88. Most sensitive for rotator cuff bursa 71

A. Fluid in subcapsular space

89. Post partum hemorrhage and patient presented with loss of vision 72
A. Sheehan syndrome
B. PRES

90. Nulliparous female on mammogram shows radiating spicules with a central soft
tissue density mass 73
A. Invasive carcinoma
B. Sclerosing
C. Post surgical

91. Coarctation of aorta. X ray shows inferior rib notching of right 5th – 8th ribs
A. Type B (MC adult type or post ductal)
B. Type C coarctation
Type A is post left subclavian artery,
Type B between Left subclaian and Left CCA
Type C between left CCA and innominate artery

92. A child showing conus below L4 and thickened filum terminale >4mm
A. Tethered cord
B. Diastomatomyelia

93. UGI studies in a patient shows submucosal mets in stomach = bulls eye
appearance
A. Malignant melanoma
B. GIST

94. A patient with hemophilia. X-ray knees show 75

A. Squaring of patella
B. Widening of joint space

95. Pancreatic staging.. mass seen but not invading adjacent organs or vessels, lymph
nodes
A. T3N1Mo 76

96. Female with multiple sclerosis. Diagnostic procedure 77

A. MRI
B. CT scan

97. In a patient with pagets disease 78

A. Inavasive carcinoma in situ
B. DCIS

98. Cardiac shunts R-L are evaluated by 79

A. First pass
B. Tc with WBC
C. Tc with pyrophosphate

99. Mass in orbit wrapped around optic nerve showing calcifications and enhances
more avidly
A. Optic nerve meningioma (tram track enhancement)
B. Optic nerve glioma

100. Optic nerve sheath complex mass showing strong enhancement, iso on T1 and
T2
A. Hemangioblastoma 80
B. Optic nerve glioma
C. Optic nerve meningioma

101. Mass seen in orbit in an adult patient sparing the apex showing enhancement,
no bone erosions
A. Cavernous hemangiomas
B. Capillary hemangiomas
C. Meningioma

102. A patient who is lactating comes to get mammography done, what will you advise
the patient
A. Lactating breast is dense, postpone the appointment
B. Lactating breast is sensitive to compression, delay the appointment
C. It won’t show much details on mammo
D. Don’t delay the appointment, do the mammo

103. A patient with dropping of eyes, scenario of horner syndrome

A. Right upper lobe mass 81

104. Reversal of flow seen in (subclavian syndrome)

A. Left vertebral artery 82

105. Patient shows pain on elevation of arm, Doppler shows flow reversal in left
vertebral artery. 83
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Subclavian steal syndrome

106. Squamous cell carcinoma, most appropriate for staging is

A. PET 84 = PET CT is better than any other modality DH
B. MRI

107. A patient presented with bilateral palpable masses. She should be advised not
“short term mamo” if?
A. Cystic masses are seen in the previous scan which were not seen previously
B. Uniform mass with smooth margins and shadowing
C. Uniform mass with non shadowing
D. Heterogeneous mass

108. Neonate presented with microcephaly, hearing loss, periventricular

calcifications
A. CMV
B. Congenital rubella
109. Patient presented with suspicious breast mass
A. BIRADS 0
B. BIRADS 4

110. Celiac disease 87

A. Moulage sign (a rare finding)
B. Reversal of jejunal fold

111. Patient with breast mass on MRI shows T2 hyperintense lesion. What will you
mention in the report
A. Category 1 lesion – benign
B. Category 2- benign

112. Chiari malformation? 88

A. Chiari I patient when presents with syringomyelia is symptomatic
B. Tonsillar herniation in Chiari II

113. Multiple polyps in jejunum in barium studies 89

A. Leiomyoma
B. Adenoma

114. Patient gets monthly hematuria 90

A. Endometriosis
B. Pyeloureteritis cystica

115. A patient presented to opd with trauma in abdomen. Blunt trauma to duodenum
presented as 91
A. Intramural hematoma
B. Fluid collection

116. Patient with pancreatitis shows small bowel loops which are dilated
A. Sentinel loop 92
B. Colon cut off

117. A medullary lesion filling the whole of tibial diaphysis with no significant bone
erosion. Lucency is more than that of muscle but less lucent compared to fat
A. Well defined lucency with surrounding sclerosis = Fibrous dysplasia
B. Permeative
C. Ill-defined with bone unknown amount of bone destruction

118. IVP shows dome shaped filling defect in upper 2/3 of ureter and renal pelvis..
patient is diabetic
A. Malakoplakia
B. Xantogranulomatous pyelonephritis
(Malako lower ureter and polyuretritis cytica upper ureter involved)
119. A patient from anesthesia room. Pulmonary edema is developed
A. Mendelson 94
B. Halothane toxicity

120. SMA syndrome 95

A. Duodenal loop is dilated above the ligament of treitz
B. Relieved by lying position

121. Hypervascularmets in liver 96

A. Carcinoid
B. Adenocarcinoma of pancreas

122. Hemagioma signals 97

A. Variable T1 high t2
B. Low t1 high t 2
C. Low on both

123. Hemangioma is most commonly seen in

A. Vertebral body 98
B. Pedicle

124. Liver transplant most common complication

A. Hepatic artery thrombosis 99
B. Hepatic vein thrombosis

125. Anterior esophageal web, iron deficiency anemia, at cricopharyngeal junction

A. Plummer vinson syndrome 1

126. FDG uptake in supraclavicular

A. Brown uptake 2

127. Penile erectile dysfuction at which Doppler velocity

A. <25 cm/sec 3
B. >35 cm/sec
128. Penile erectile dysfunction
A. Deep dorsal vein 4
B. Deep dorsal artery = 2nd option
C. Superficial dorsal artery
D. Cavernosal artery = 1st option

129. Patient with metocarpophayngeal joint, caudate lobe hypertrophy and ascites
A. Primary biliary cirrhosis 5
B. Hemochromatosis

130. Breast cancer, chest xray 6

A. Lymphangitic carcinomatosis

131. 9-12 months after radiotherapy of a breast surgery patient what develops in
chest
A. Fibrosis (Occurs late after many years)
B. Osteonecrosis

132. GCT surgery 8

A. Biopsy and wide resection with packing with xrays
B. Biopsy and wide resection

133. Hellmer sign 9

A. Tuberculous peritonitis
B. Pneumatosis intenstinalis
C. Pneumoperitoneum
D. Medial displacement of liver lateral margins

134. 19 years old tarsal coalition 10

A. Talocalcaneal
B. Calcaneaonavicular = MC

135. > 50 % anterolisthesis unstable injury 11

A. Bilateral facet dislocation
B. Unilateral facet
C. Flexion tear drop

136. Ca cervix after radiotherapy

A. Radiation enteritis 12

137. Rheumatoid arthritis 13

A. Tapered end of distal clavicles
B. Decrease sternoclavicular joint

138. MRI brain of a patient shows bilaterally symmetrical, hyperintense signal changes
in the anterior medial globus pallidus, with surrounding hypointensity in the globus
pallidus, on T2-weighted scanning 14
A. Wilsons
B. Hallvorden spatz
C. Wernickes

139. Most common benign tumor afte radiotherapy 15

A. Osteochondroma
B. Enchondroma

140. A cyanotic child, chest xray shows narrow mediastinal pedicle and widened heart
cardiomegaly
A. TGA = narrow superior mediastinum
B. TOF = No cardiomegaly
C. VSD

141. Dilated right atrium, hypoplastic butfunctioning right ventricle and left atrium
also narrowed in a cyanotic child
A. Ebstein’sanamoly
B. VSD

142. Cystic lesion seen in temporal lobe cortex showing a mural nodule
A. Low grade astrocytoma
B. Pilocytic xanthoastrocytoma

143. Multiple cerebellar lesions in a child associated with

A. TS
B. Sterge weber
C. VHL

144. Urethral injury blood in perineum and scrotum grading with high
A. III
B. II
C. I

145. Prostate carcinoma involving seminal vesicle staging 17

A. T3b
B. T3c

146. Urinary bladder cancer staging lymph node 4 cm common iliac. Perivesical fat not
involved
A. T2N2Mo 18

147. Renal trauma grading mild perivesical fat stranding, pelvicalyceal system involved
and minimal contrast extravasation
A. Grade IV 19
B. Grade III

148. Wedge shaped defect in kidney

A. Renal infarct 20
B. Renal artery thrombosis

149. Liver transplant few days back and now shows multiple lesions scattered through
out the liver with edema 21
A. Candidasis
B. Mets
C. Septic emboli

150. Normal perfusion diminished excretion

A. Tubular necrosis 22
151. Thonatotropic dysplasia with narrowed thorax -------- telephone shaped femur
152. Bronchiolitiis obliterans decrease vessels 24
153. Junctional zone >12mm - Adenomyosis
154. Frieberg disease decrease uptake 2nd metatarsal 25
155. Medullary sponge
156. Young pt with testicular mass raised AFP
Seminoma (AFP not raised)
Teratoma
157. Furniers gangrene ------ Crepts scrotum
158. FNH liver Low on T1 and High on T2
159. Pheochromocytoma ------- Biopsy contraindicated
160. Thymoma
161. MRI-------------- Undescended testis
162. NSAIDs ------- Erosive gastritis
163. Pulm abscess33
164. Pelvic inflammatory disease
165. CROUP
166. VHL
167. Cortical necrosis
168. Dilated transverse colon on X-ray colon mucosal islands
169. Bull’s eye ----- target lesion in stomach
170. Round lymph node ------- malignant
171. Xanthopyelonephritis
172. Cholangio carcinoma
173. Budd chiari
174. Mortons neuroma
175. Osteoblastoma nidus
176. Tarlov cyst
177. 90% complications 24 hours after liver transplant
178. Centrilobar emphysema---- smoker
179. Mrs prostate = Increased Choline/ Creatine to citrate ratio (Radiopedia)
180. Complications IA angio of catheter tip
181. Hyperacute rejection
182. Endometriosis urethral stricture 48
183. Prostate Ca capsule route -------- through neurovascular bundle 49
184. Ovarian fibroma scenario with right pleural effusion
185. Mucosal hyperenhancement ------- Ischemic colitis 50
186. Liver laceration 2cm deep 8cm long ----- Grade 2 tear
187. Ankle deformity marked bone destruction, reduced propioception = Charcot
marie
188. Thoracic aorta injury -----------Indistinct aortic margins 52
189. Pseudomyxoma peritonei --- Scalloping of liver 53
190. Reveals sclerosis in both femoral heads and H-shaped vertebrae. The spleen is
small ----- Sickle-cell disease. 54
191. Carcinoid ----- Hypervascular liver mets 2nd question
192. Pyknodiastosis ---- Wormian bones
193. Ruptured angiomyolipoma ------- Risk of bleed 37
194. Polka dot sign. Haemangioma 38
195. Multiple cysts kidneys. CT Angio 39
196. Ileo-pectineal ridge thick increase bone scan uptake on right side (left side normal)
------ Paget’s disease
197. Gall stone ileus with dilated bowel scenario
198. Benign ulcer—Hamptons line
199. A young male presented to ER after road traffic accident and complains of pleuritic
chest pain and shortness of breath. An initial supine CXR performed in the Emergency
Department demonstrates several left sided posterior rib fractures with suspicion of
pneumothorax. Subsequently, patient was stabilized and taken to the Radiology
Department for an erect PA CXR. Which one of the following signs not seen on initial
supine film will now predominate?
A) A deep left costophrenic recess laterally
B) Left apical transradiancy and pleural line
C) Undue clarity of the left mediastinal border
D) Unilateral left lung transradiancy
E) Visualization of the undersurface of the heart
(Answer B Reference: Grainger and Allison’s Page # 228-229)

200. Cardiac CT Gating ------- Ejection fraction evaluation requires retrospective gating