Obs Sem 10 2015 Corrected

OBSTETRICS SEM 10, FEB 2015 STUDENT
BASE B.C.Q.S
1. A 38 OLD lady G4P3+0 previous vaginal deliveries, 26 week

gestation with Hb 7.5 gm/dl. What should be treatment
option if cause is iron deficiency?
A. oral iron
B. Parentral iron
C. PCV
D. whole blood
E. PCV and FFP
2. Face presentation
A. requires C section
B. diagnosed only in labor
C. is due to deflexion of head
D. presenting diameter os submento-bregmatic
E. occurs In 1:300 labor
3. 18 yr old primi gravid presented in ER at 30 weeks gestation
and 3 fits at home. Her BP is 160/110 and patient is irritable,
vaginal examination shows that the patient is not in labor.
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

Skype ID : naveednawab3
Facebook/Navid nawab
Email:photocopyshopduhs@Hotmail.com
the most appropriate treatment is
A. stabilize and give anti convulsants and anti hypertensive
and continue pregnancy
B. stabilize and induce labor with oxytocin
C. Emergency CS
D. stabilize and induce labor with PGs
E. stabilize and do Emergency CS
4. Optimum uterine contractions during active labor
A. 1-2/10 min, 30 seconds each
B. 3-4/10 min, 30-45 sec each
C. 3-4/10 min, 45-60 sec each
D. 1/10 min, 30 sec each
E. 3-4/10 min, 60-90 each
5. Management of Primary PPH involves
A. despite proper management if patient is not improving
hemodynamically, look for other causes
B. when bleeding persists despite contracted uterus, look for
RCOPs
C. syntocinon and ergometrine are the standard uterotonics,
they don’t need to be repeated
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

D. PGF2α can be given directly thru Foleys catheter
E. the 1st step is uterine massage or bimanual compression
6. Factors that can delay descent of fetal head

A. in coordinate uterine activity
B. fetal macrosmia
C. fetal malformation
D. inadequate bony pelvis
E. inadequate uterine activity
7. Pregnancy is dated from
A. 1st day of LMP
B. none of these
C. last day of LMP
D. day of conception
E, day of ovulation
8. Vacuum extractor
A. tentorial tearing is a complication
B. is associated with chignon formation
C. is associated with fracture of skull
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. cephal hematoma is a common complication
E. is preferred over forceps because it rotates and pulls fetus
simultaneously
9. Safe motherhood project aims to provide
A. health education fro husbands
B. family planning service for safe abortions
C. community education for women their families and
decision making
D. immediate referral for life threatening obstetric
complications
E. care by any person before, during and after child birth
10. The most important benefit of dating scan is
A. early detection of multiple pregnancy
B. to reduce induction of labor pre maturely
C. to do appropriate tests on time to detect fetal abnormality
D. detection of failed intra uterine pregnancy
E. accurate dating menstrual cycle with irregular rabeea ans
11. A 38 yr old lady diagnosed of having gestational diabetes
delivered a 4.3kg baby 1 hour back. The baby was shifted to
neonatal unit. Which of the following is not a cause of
neonatal morbidity?
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
A. hyperbilirubinemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. birth asphyxia
D. polycythemia
E. hypomagnesaemia
12. Mrs. Husban is G2 P1+0 last deliveries by C section for fetal
distress. Now she is 37 weeks pregnant. best criteria for trial
of scar is
A. breech presentation
B. macrosmic baby
C. IUGR
D. placenta praevia
E. adequate pelvis with cephalic presentation
13. A primigravida is admitted in labor room with term
pregnancy, labor pangs and Os fully dilated. Absent
membranes and high head
A. cord is around fetal neck
B. immediate delivery is required
C. oxytocin infusions can be given if uterine contractions are
inadequate
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

D. hydrocephalus is suspected
E. CPD is suspected
14. CPD is suspected in labor if
A. there is a heavy show
B. VE shows severe molding and caput formation
C. cervix is thick and hanging
D. fetal head s at mid pelvis
E. labor progress is slow
15. Commonest cause of delay in 2nd stage of labor is
A. epidural analgesia
B. secondary uterine inertia
C. mal presentation
D. android pelvis
E. maternal dehydration
16. Commonest cause of poor progress in labor is
A. cervical dystocia
B. cord round fetal neck
C. placenta praevia
D. Inefficient uterine contractions
E. CPD
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

17. The greatest presenting longitudinal diameter of fetal skull
is
A. sub-occipito-bregmatic
B. mento-vertical
C. sub-mento-bregmatic
D. sub-occipito-frontal
E. occipito-frontal
18. Best way of assessment of high risk fetus during labor is
A. intermittent auscultation
B. US
C. Kick chart
D. CTG
E. BPP
19. An 8th gravid presents in ER with labor pains since 2 hours.
On P/A fetal presentation is by breech, uterine contractions
are moderate, fetal HR is 140 bpm. On P/V, cervix is 5 cm
dilated, membranes are intact and foot is felt. What is the
most imp? Condition anticipated?
A. obstructed labor
B. birth asphyxia
C. cord prolapse
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. fetal soft tissue injury
E. fetal head stuck
20. Unique complication of Monochorionic twins
A. twin to twin transfusion syndrome
B. preterm delivery
C. still birth
D. cord accident
E. conjoined twin
21. The most imp. Finding in an ideal obstetric pelvis is
A. shallow and straight side walls
B. sacrospinous ligaments at least 3.5 cms
C. no great projection of ischial spines
D. ischial bi-spinous diameter measuring 10 cms
E. smooth sacral curve
22. A primigravida presents in early labor with vertex
presentation. What will be the most likely normal position of
presenting part
A. left occipito-anterior
B. right mento-transverse
C. left mento-anterior
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

D. right occipito-transverse
E. right occipito-posterior
23. A lady G4 P2+1, 30 week gestation presents with polyuria
and polydipsia. Her SFH corresponds to 36 week gestation.
On H/O symptoms a diagnosis of gestational diabetes is
made, which investigation is the best reliable test in
pregnancy for diabetes mellitus
A. OGCT
B. RBS on 2 different occasions
C. OGTT
D. FBS on 2 different occasions
E. Urine glucose
24. A lady had polyhydramnios, immediate after delivery she
complains off severe chest pain, becomes dyspnoeic and
collapses. Pulse was 140 bpm, BP is 80/40, chest is full of
crepitations, diagnosis
A. cardiac failure
B. ARDS
C. amniotic fluid embolism
D. MI
E. Pulmonary embolism
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
25. Regarding reproduction
A. meiosis only occurs in sex chromosomes
B. Spermatogenesis is the production of mature sperms
C. Primary oocyte are produced during reproductive life
D. the ova determines the sex of a child
E. the mature germs cells are diploid
26. A 52 women presents with C/O spotting/vagina, dysuria
and dyspareunia. She has had D & C 2 months back and
report showed atrophic endometrium. Best treatment for
her
A. progesterone’s
B. Hysteroscopy and biopsy
C. Hysterectomy
D. estrogen creams
E. OCPs
27. The etiology of congenital defects is mainly due to
A. congenital
B. environmental
C. heterogeneous
D. genetic
E. viral infections
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
28. A 30 y old G6 P5+0 presents at 32 week gestation with
essential HTN. She is taking ACE inhibitors, which drug is
most appropriate for her?
A. methyl dopa
B. ACE inhibitors + nifedipine
C. atenolol
D. labetolol
E. Hydralazine
29. A lady 36 yr old G4 P3+1 presents with swelling around
legs, erythema and mild discomfort. She has past History of
DVT 3 years back. She is labeled as
A. intermediate risk
B. high risk
C. low risk
D. none of above
E. immediate risk
30. 21 yr old lady primigravida 30 weeks presents with
headache and blurring of vision for 2 days. Her BP is 160/100.
Urine dipstick shows protienuria ++. What is the most
reliable test which confirms pre eclampsia?
A. deranged clotting profile
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
B. thrombocytopenia
C. raised serum urea and creatinine
D. urine protein > 300mg/day
E. Hb<10gm/dl
31. A para 2+0 woman, presents in ER with 37 week gestation
and severe pre eclampsia and reactive CTG. She had past 2
vaginal deliveries and now bishop score of 6/10 while other
inv. Are normal. The best option for her
A. wait for spontaneous labor
B. control BP and wait up to 40 weeks
C. C section(confirm karo)
D. Induction of labor
E. MgSO4 prophylactically and wait for spontaneous labor
32. The pattern of follow up of antenatal visits
A. schedule is offered regardless of choice of care
B. should be tailored according to the wishes if individual
C. 4 weekly up till 36 weeks
D. minimum 5 visits as advised by RCOG
E. weekly after 32 weeks
33. The most common cause of IUGR
A. maternal viral infections
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
B. drug addiction
C. chromosomal anomalies
D. maternal diseases
E. maternal malnutrition
34. When an HIV +ve women becomes pregnant
A. mother should breast fed in any condition and in any
setup
B. amniocentesis should be done to rule out fetal anomalies
C. she should be counseled for termination of pregnancy
D. ZVT therapy should be started from 2nd month
E. feSO4 tablets should be started from 1st month
35. An A-ve woman primigravida (husband status B+ve)
presented at 12 weeks of pregnancy. The recommended
prophylaxis of Rh iso immunization is anti D IgG at
A. 500IU within 72 hours if fetus is Rh +
B. 500IU at 28 weeks and 32 weeks and within 72 hours if
fetus is Rh +
C. 500IU at 28 weeks and 32 weeks
D. 500IU 28 weeks and 32 weeks and within 72 hours if fetus
is Rh + and kleihauer +
E. 500IU within 72 hours if fetus is kleihauer +ve
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
36. Imp. Factors affecting fetal birth weight
A. paternal height
B. maternal height
C. parity
D. fetal sex
E. maternal age confirm karo
37. Vertex is defined as
A. area of skull bounded by anterior and posterior fontanelle
and occipital bone
B. area of skull bounded by 2 parietal eminences only
C. area of skull bounded by anterior and posterior fontanelle
and 2 parietal eminences
D. area of skull bounded by face brow and anterior
fontanelle
E. area of skull bounded by anterior fontanelle and chin
38. Regarding changer in breast during pregnancy
A. nipples become larger and more erectile
B. breast increase in size because of hyperplasia and
hypertrophy
C. the hypertrophied sebaceous gland are montogometry’s
follicle
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. size of breast increase due to deposition of fat
E. the sweet and sebaceous glands activity is increased
39. Regarding perinatal death
A. it should be notified to identify risk factors
B. it means all still births + death in 1st 28 days of life
C. it is an important tool to know the level of health care
provided tow women confirm plz
D. it is defined similarly in all countries
E. for audit purpose
40. A 25 yr old primigravida was diagnosed as having
Toxoplasmosis at 12 weeks of pregnancy. Most appropriate
treatment
A. vancomycin
B. penicillin
C. gentamicin
D. spiramycin
E. amikacin
41. A para 7+1 has delivered a 3.7 kg baby 2 hours back at
home after prolonged pushing efforts. She is brought to
hospital in unconscious state. Abdomen is tense and tender,
and bright fresh blood is coming thru vagina. Diagnosis
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
A. uterine perforation
B. uterine rupture
C. uterine inversion
D. Primary PPH
E. RCOP
42. A normotensive 2nd gravid presents in OPD at 36 weeks
gestation with breech presentation. Her 1st delivery was
uneventful. Now her US shows flexed breech, fundoposterior
placenta, and EFW about 3 kg. she should be offered
A. IPV
B. ECV
C. LSCS
D. Ventouse delivery
E. wait & NVD
43. A 32 weeks pregnant diabetic mother is having SFH of 36
cms. Most likely cause is
A. polyhydramnios
B. Macrosmia
C. Twin pregnancy
D. mistaken date
E. fetal malformation
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
44. In TTTS, donor fetus is at risk of which organ failure?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Brain
E. adrenal gland
45. Most important sign of severe pre-eclampsia
A. agitation
B. hyper reflexia
C. severe headache
D. poor urine output
E. papilloedema
46. Contraindication to Ventouse delivery
A. vertex presentation
B. 3rd degree perineal tear
C. face presentation
D. 1st degree molding
E. operator is inexperienced
47. Blood glucose levels after 90 min of OGCT will be
A. 130 mg/dl
B. 120 mg/dl
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
C. 140mg/dl
D. 80mg/dl
E. 110mg/dl
48. Most common cause of perinatal mortality
A. infections
B. maternal malnutrition
C. maternal underage
D. obstructed labor
E. preterm birth
49. A pregnant lady comes next day having contact with an
HSV infected patient. What is the most appropriate
management
A. acyclovir for 1 week
B. anti HSV globulins and acyclovir
C. anti HSV vaccine
D. anti HSV globulins and avoid contact for 48 hours
E. none of above
50. LSCS is increasingly done in women because of
A. increased survival of neonates
B. faster mod of birth
C. education
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. decreased stress period
E. reduced pain perception
51. M. Imp point in Obstetrical History is
A. maternal age
B. last menstrual period
C. recurrent abortions
D. counting of fetal kicks
E. late 2nd trimester miscarriages
52. The value of triple assessment test in Down’s Syndrome is
A. ↑ AFP ↑HCG ↑estriol
B. ↓AFP ↓HCG ↓estriol
C. ↑AFP ↓HCG ↑estriol
D. ↓AFP ↑HCG ↑estriol
E. ↓AFP ↑HCG ↓estriol
53. A pregnant lady presents with congenital heart disease.
Examination will not focus on
A. edema
B. fetal lie
C. pulse
D. Rhythm
E. basal crepitations
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
54. Regarding varicose veins during pregnancy
A. affect about one in three women
B. are more prone to bleed than in normal individuals
C. are more symptomatic
D. always return to normal after pregnancy
E. are caused by pressure of enlarged uterus on IVC
55. Deep transverse arrest associated with
A. anthropoid pelvis
B. gynecoid pelvis
C. platypoid pelvis
D. android pelvis
E. both A and D
56. The maternal mortality is highest in
A. Mitral stenosis
B. VSD
C. Ischemic Heart diseases
D. Coarctation of aorta
E. Pulmonary HTN
57. Most common cause of primary hemorrhage
A. uterine atony
B. uterine inertia
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
C. infections
D. RCOP
E. none of above
58. A lady para 6+0 delivered vaginally a baby 2 hours back at
home, is brought by DAI, she is actively bleeding. Diagnosis
A. Primary PPH
B. Uterine rupture
C. uterine inversion
D. RCOP
E. secondary PPH
59. Internal rotation occurs because
A. alignment of head in transverse axis of body
B. alignment of head in longitudinal axis of body
C. alignment of head in opposite direction of body
D. internal pelvis shape
E. to rotate the head anteriorly so that sagittal suture lies in
AP axis of pelvis
60. Ideal progress of labor in primigravida
A. 1
B. 1.8
C. 1.4
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. 1.2
E. 1.3
61. Brow presentation is
A. mento vertical
B. occipito-mental
C. has diameter of 11 cm
D. is always impossible to deliver by Vagina
E. more than half of the cases are delivered by CS
62. A lady is in prolonged 1st stage of labor. CTG shows fetal
stress. What will be the next step
A. BPP
B. CS
C. fetal scalp blood sampling
D. auscultation by Pinard stethoscope
E. oxytocin infusion
63. A lady presents comes after 1 week of delivery, having
fever and pus discharge from the episiotomy site, wound is
not healed. Appropriate management
A. wound dressing with pyodine
B. wash wound with Normal saline and do dressing
C. wound wash by NS, dressing and antibiotic cover
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. apply antibiotic to wound after washing it
E. all of above
64. 2nd degree perineal tear involves
A. skin and perineal muscles with les than 50 % anal
sphincter involved
B. skin involved only
C. involves skin extending to perineal muscles
D. involves skin extending to perineal muscles but not the
anal sphincter
E. involves all layers except anal sphincter
65. A CTG of having FHR 155 BPM, baseline variability of 5
BPM, no acceleration and no deceleration would be regarded
as
A. abnormal CTG
B. reactive CTG
C. normal CTG
D. suspicious CTG
E. low normal CTG
66. Bishop score Is used for
A. induction of labor
B. augmentation of labor
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
C. preparation of cervix
D. none of above
E. favorable cervix
67. The most common compression neuropathy in pregnancy
A. cubital tunnel syndrome
B. piriformis syndrome
C. tarsal tunnel syndrome
D. pudendal nerve entrapment
E. carpal tunnel syndrome
68. A 28 year old G3 P1+1 comes with onset of labor, but after
8 hours vaginal exam shows dilatation of 6 cm. best way to
assess fetal stress
A. CTG
B. BPP
C. FBS
D. FHS
E. all of above
69. Components of biophysical profile include all except
A. CTG
B. fetal breathing movements
C. amniotic fluid volume
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. FBS
E. fetal tone
70. Most common complication of IUGR
A. low birth weight
B. severe infections
C. low mental status
D. meconium aspiration syndrome
E. abnormally high hematocrit
71. Anemia in pregnancy occurs due to
A. decreased iron stores
B. increase volume intravascular
C. increased requirement of fetus
D. low MCV
E. none of above
72. US in 3rd trimester is done for
A. assessing amniotic fluid volume
B. locate the site of placenta
C. to assess fetal well being
D. to screen for adverse pregnancy outcomes
E. to assess detailed anatomical survey
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

73. In CVS, the cells are usually taken from
A. maternal villi cells
B. fetal trophoblast cells
C. maternal RBCs
D. fetal RBCs
E. none of above
74. CASE: A 3 yr old diabetic multipara lady presents at 33
weeks and distension. On abdominal examination the fetus is
engaged. On vaginal exam the Os is open, cause is
A. PPROM
B. Renal agenesis
C. cervical insufficiency
D. FGR
E. twin pregnancy
75. Which investigation will you do?
A. vaginal smear
B. fetal fibronectin
C. amniotic fluid CS
D. TVS for cervical length
E. urine CS
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

76. CASE: 37 old pregnant female of 32 weeks and 4 days
gestation presents to the emergency room because of
significant vaginal bleeding over the past hour. The patient
also reports some contractions, but denies any continuing
abdominal pain. She denies any recent trauma. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Placenta praevia
B. placental abruption
C. vasa praevia
D. Genital tract infections
E. ectropion
77. Most common cause of this condition is
A. multiple gestation
B. previous CS
C. Uterine structural anomaly
D. assisted conception
E. advanced age
78. Regarding Placenta praevia
A. incidence is decreasing due to ↑ CS rate
B. is a placenta which is sited at lower segment of uterus
C. is dangerous for fetus
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
D. is a contraindication to CS
E. Couvelaire Uterus is a classical feature
79. Which of the following clinical conditions is not an
indication for induction of labor?
A. Intrauterine fetal demise
B. Severe preeclampsia at 36 weeks
C. Complete placenta praevia
D. Chorioamnionitis
E. Post term pregnancy
80. In comparing laparoscopic salpingostomy vs. laparatomy
with salpingectomy for the treatment of ectopic pregnancy,
laparoscopic therapy results in
A. Decreased hospital stays
b. Lower fertility rate
c. Lower repeat ectopic pregnancy rate
d. Comparable persistent ectopic tissue rate
e. Greater scar formation
81. A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of
the following events would be most likely to predispose to
ectopic pregnancy?
a. Previous tubal surgery
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
b. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
c. Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD)
d. Induction of ovulation
e. Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
82. A 33-year-old has an infection in pregnancy. Which of the
following is a reinfection, and therefore not a risk to the
fetus?
a. Group B coxsackievirus
b. Rubella virus
c. Chickenpox virus
d. Shingles
e. Herpes virus hominus type 2
83. A 20-year-old female at 34 weeks of gestation develops a
lower urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the
best choice for treatment?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Tetracycline
c. Sulfonamide
d. Nitrofurantoin
e. Ciprofloxacin
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

84. A 30-year-old class D diabetic is concerned about
pregnancy. She can be assured that which of the following
risks is the same for her as for the general population?
a. Preeclampsia and eclampsia
b. Infection
c. Fetal cystic fibrosis
d. Postpartum hemorrhage after vaginal delivery
e. Hydramnios
85. Which of the following abnormalities of labor is associated
with a significantly increased incidence of neonatal
morbidity?
a. Prolonged latent phase
b. Protracted descent
c. Secondary arrest of dilation confirm plz
d. Protracted active-phase dilation
E. None of above
86. A primipara is in labor and an episiotomy is about to be
cut. Compared with a midline episiotomy, an advantage of
mediolateral episiotomy is
a. Ease of repair
b. Fewer breakdowns
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
c. Less blood loss
d. Less dyspareunia
e. Less extension of the incision b/c others are wrong
87. In the mother, suckling leads to which of the following
responses?
a. Decrease of oxytocin
b. Increase of prolactin-inhibiting factor
c. Increase of hypothalamic dopamine
d. Increase of hypothalamic prolactin
e. Increase of luteinizing hormone–releasing factor
88. A 26-year-old patient has had three consecutive

spontaneous abortions early in the second trimester. As part
of an evaluation for this problem, the least useful test would
be
a. Hysterosalpinogram
b. Chromosomal analysis of the couple
c. Endometrial biopsy in the luteal phase
d. Postcoital test
e. Tests of thyroid function
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

89. In terms of birth defect potential, the safest of the
following drugs is
a. Alcohol
b. Isotretinoin (Accutane)
c. Tetracyclines
d. Progesterones
e. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
90. Rates of successful pregnancy following three spontaneous
losses (habitual abortion) are
a. Very poor
b. Slightly worse than those in the baseline population
c. No different from those in the baseline population
d. Just under 50%
e. Good unless cervical incompetence is diagnosed
91. A 24-year-old woman is in a car accident and is taken to an
emergency room, where she receives a chest x-ray and a film
of her lower spine. It is later discovered that she is 10 weeks
pregnant. She should be counseled that
a. The fetus has received 50 rads
b. Either chorionic villus sampling (CVS) or amniocentesis is
advisable to check
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
for fetal chromosomal abnormalities
c. At 10 weeks, the fetus is particularly susceptible to
derangements of the central
nervous system
d. The fetus has received less than the assumed threshold for
radiation damage
e. The risk that this fetus will develop leukemia as a child is
raised
92. A 41-year-old had a baby with Down syndrome 10 years
ago. She is anxious to know the chromosome status of her
fetus in a current pregnancy. The test that has the fastest lab
processing time for karyotype is
a. Amniocentesis
b. Cordocentesis
c. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
d. Doppler flow ultrasound
e. Cystic hygroma aspiration
93. A 39-year-old wants first-trimester prenatal diagnosis.
Advantages of early amniocentesis over CVS include
a. Amniocentesis can be performed earlier in pregnancy
b. Amniocentesis is usually less painful
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
c. Second-trimester diagnosis allows for safer termination of
pregnancy when termination
is chosen by the patient
d. CVS has a higher complication rate than midtrimester
amniocentesis
e. CVS has a higher complication rate than first-trimester
amniocentesis
94. A 17-year-old primipara at 41 weeks wants an immediate
cesarean section. She is being followed with biophysical
profile (BPP) testing. Which of the following is correct
information to share with the patient?
a. BPP testing includes amniotic fluid volume, fetal breathing,
fetal body movements,
fetal body tone, and contraction stress testing.
b. The false-negative rate of the BPP is 10%.
c. False-positive results on BPP are rare.
d. Spontaneous decelerations during BPP testing are
associated with significant
fetal morbidity.
e. A normal BPP should be repeated in 1 week to 10 days in a
post-term pregnancy.
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
95. A 28-year-old G1 presents to your office at 8 weeks
gestation. She has a history of diabetes since the age of 14.
She uses insulin and denies any complications related to her
diabetes. Which of the following is the most common birth
defect associated with diabetes?
a. Anencephaly
b. Encephalocele
c. Meningomyelocele
d. Sacral agenesis
e. Ventricular septal defect rabeea’s ans
96. All of the following represent part of routine neonatal care
in a healthy infant except
a. Administration of silver nitrate to the eyes for prophylaxis
for gonorrhea and
chlamydia
b. Administration of vitamin K to prevent bleeding problems
c. Administration of hepatitis B immune globulin for routine
immunization
against hepatitis B
d. Keeping the infant in a heated, warm crib
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

e. Application of an identification band immediately to the
infant
97. True statements regarding postpartum depression include
which of the following?
a. A history of depression is not a risk factor for developing
postpartum depression
b. Prenatal preventive intervention for patients at high risk
for postpartum depression
is best managed alone by a mental health professional
c. Young, multiparous patients are at highest risk
d. Postpartum depression is a self-limiting process that lasts
for a maximum of 3
months
e. About 10 to 12% of women develop postpartum
depression
98. A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an
intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks
later and her vital signs are: blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg,
pulse 93 beats per minute, temperature 36.38°C, respiratory
rate 16 breaths per minute. She has not had a miscarriage,
although she has had some occasional spotting. Her cervix is
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
closed on examination. This patient is at increased risk for
which of the following?
a. Septic abortion
b. Recurrent abortion
c. Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
d. Future infertility
e. Ectopic pregnancies
99. Advantages of ultrasound nuchal translucency over
biochemical screening for Down syndrome include
a. Uses transvaginal approach
b. More consistent measurements than lab tests
c. Better in multiple gestation
d. Wide gestational age range
e. More convenient for patients
100. A 17-year-old primipara at 41 weeks wants an immediate
cesarean section. She is being followed with biophysical
profile (BPP) testing. Which of the following is correct
information to share with the patient?
a. BPP testing includes amniotic fluid volume, fetal breathing,
fetal body movements,
fetal body tone, and contraction stress testing.
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219
b. The false-negative rate of the BPP is 10%.
c. False-positive results on BPP are rare.
d. Spontaneous decelerations during BPP testing are
associated with significant
fetal morbidity.
e. A normal BPP should be repeated in 1 week to 10 days in a
post-term pregnancy.
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

ANSWER KEY OBS SEM 10, FEB 2015
1 A 26 B 51 C 76 A
2 A 27 A 52 D 77 B
3 E 28 A 53 B 78 B
4 B 29 A 54 D 79 C
5 E 30 D 55 D 80 A
6 E 31 C 56 E 81 B
7 A 32 D 57 A 82 A
8 D 33 E 58 A 83 A
9 C 34 D 59 E 84 C
10 A 35 B 60 D 85 C
11 E 36 E 61 A 86 E
12 E 37 C 62 C 87 D
13 E 38 C 63 C 88 D
14 B 39 B 64 C 89 D
15 B 40 D 65 B 90 B
16 D 41 B 66 A 91 D
17 B 42 B 67 E 92 C
18 E 43 A 68 C 93 E
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

19 C 44 A 69 D 94 D
20 A 45 B 70 A 95 E
21 A 46 C 71 B 96 C
22 A 47 E 72 C 97 E
23 C 48 A 73 B 98 C
24 C 49 D 74 A 99 C
25 B 50 E 75 B 100 D
CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219


Obs Sem 10 2015 Corrected

Hochgeladen von

Dokumentinformationen

Originaltitel

Copyright

Verfügbare Formate

Dieses Dokument teilen

Dokument teilen oder einbetten

Freigabeoptionen

Stufen Sie dieses Dokument als nützlich ein?

Sind diese Inhalte unangemessen?

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

Obs Sem 10 2015 Corrected

Hochgeladen von

Copyright:

Verfügbare Formate

OBSTETRICS SEM 10, FEB 2015 STUDENT

1. A 38 OLD lady G4P3+0 previous vaginal deliveries, 26 week

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

6. Factors that can delay descent of fetal head

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

88. A 26-year-old patient has had three consecutive

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

CONTECT No.0305-2203065 03360087219

Das könnte Ihnen auch gefallen