Beruflich Dokumente
Kultur Dokumente
Chapter 1
1 Which of the following does not protect body surfaces:
A Skin.
B Mucus.
C Gastric acid.
D Salivary amylase
E Gut microflora.
10 C3b:
A Is chemotactic.
B Is an anaphylatoxin.
C Opsonizes bacteria.
D Directly injures bacteria.
E Is the inactive form of C3.
12 Lysozyme:
A Is a cytoplasmic organelle.
B Activates complement.
C Is a proteolytic enzyme.
D Splits peptidoglycan.
E Is released by mast cells.
14 Interferons:
A Are found only in mammalian species.
B Are divided into 5 main families.
C Induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell.
D Only affect infected cells.
E Are specific for individual viruses.
16 Eosinophils do not:
A Stain with basic dyes.
B Contain a major basic protein.
C Contain peroxidase.
D Give a respiratory burst on activation.
E Have C3b receptors.
5 Plasma cells:
A Have a thin layer of cytoplasm
B Are derived from T-cells
C Develop into B-cells
D Secrete large amounts of gamma interferon
E Have a highly developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
6 Specific antibodies are readily detectable in serum following primary contact with
antigen after:
A 10 min
B 1h
C 5–7 days
D 3–5 weeks
E Only following a second contact with antigen
9 The main reason an experimental animal treated with X-rays can act as a living test
tube for lymphocyte transfer experiments is because:
A It is microbiologically sterile
B Complement components will be inactivated
C The host lymphocytes are destroyed or unable to divide
D Only non-dividing cells are affected
E The requirement for T-cell help is overcome
13 Intracellular parasites within macrophages are killed more readily in the presence of:
A Antibody
B Kinins
C Properdin
D Gamma-interferon
E Anaphylatoxin
19 The secondary, but not the primary, immune response is based on:
A Memory
B The bonus effect of multivalency
C Complement activation
D Mast cell degranulation
E Clonal selection
2 A Fab fragment:
A Is produced by pepsin treatment.
B Is produced by separation of heavy and light chains.
C Binds antigen.
D Lacks light chains.
E Has no interchain disulfide bonds.
11 IgM:
A Is usually of high affinity.
B Is most commonly tetrameric.
C Has the same number of constant domains as IgG.
D Is a weak bacterial agglutinator.
E Is the main class of the 'natural antibodies'.
12 IgD:
A Is pentameric.
B Is resistant to proteolytic degradation.
C Is present mainly as a surface receptor on B-cells.
D Is present with unusual frequency in myelomas.
E Is abundant in milk
13 IgE:
A Is abundant in saliva.
B Binds strongly to mast cells.
C Cannot bind to macrophages.
D Activates the complement cascade.
E Has an insignificant role in worm infestations
14 The Fc receptor with the highest affinity of the following five receptors is:
A CD64.
B FcγRII.
C CD16.
D FcεRI.
E CD23
4 The percentage of human peripheral blood T-cells bearing a gamma delta T-cell
receptor is:
A 30–80%.
B 1-5%.
C 100%.
D 0%.
E Only present during mycobacterial infections.
7 Using only random VDJ recombination, from 40 V, 30 D and 6 J gene segments, the
number of possible variable regions of an antigen receptor molecule would be:
A 40
B 76
C 7,200
D 1.4 × 106
E 1.4 × 109
9 Receptor editing:
A Has been described for antibody but not TCR.
B Is associated with reexpression of RAG-1 in germinal centers.
C Can involve V genes which are 3' of the initially selected V gene.
D Involves the S (switch) sequences.
E For B-cells only occurs in bone marrow.
19 The molecules mediating signal transduction following antigen binding to cell surface
immunoglobulin on a B-cell are called:
A Ig Fc
B Ig-alpha and Ig-beta
C MHC
D CD4
E CD8
14 CD1:
A Is encoded in the MHC region.
B Structurally is most similar to MHC class II molecules.
C Can present antigens to gamma delta, but not alpha beta, T-cells.
D Can present lipid antigens.
E Is encoded by a single gene.
15 NKT cells:
A Bear diverse TCR alpha chains.
B Have a limited TCR beta chain repertoire.
C Comprise 2–3% of T-cells in the mouse liver.
D Following stimulation secrete gamma interferon but not IL-4.
E Are restricted by CD1 but not by classical MHC molecules.
16 Alkylamine antigens:
A Are produced by Listeria monocytogenes.
B Are particularly recognized by V alpha9 V beta2 T-cells.
C Comprise a family of lipid antigens.
D Do not occur naturally.
E Stimulate alpha beta but not gamma delta T-cells.
17 Superantigens:
A Do not cause pathology.
B Are not mitogenic for T-cells.
C Bind to MHC class III.
D Bind to all members of a given V beta T-cell receptor family.
E Have to be processed before recognition by the T-cell.
19 An epitope:
A Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody.
B Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen.
C Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition.
D Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids.
E Is usually associated with a concave region of the antigen.
18 A T-cell hybridoma
A Is obtained by continuous culture of T-cells with antigen.
B Is obtained by cloning antigen-specific splenic T-cells.
C Is obtained by fusing T-cells with a T-cell tumor cell line and cloning.
D Expresses a multiplicity of T-cell receptor specificities.
E Results from producing a mouse which is transgenic for the rearranged alpha-
and beta-receptor from a T-cell clone
19 Which of the following is not used as a direct conjugate to the antibody for visualizing
tissue antigens:
A Fluorescein.
B Anti-immunoglobulin.
C Alkaline phosphatase.
D Peroxidase.
E Gold particles.
21 The use of green fluorescent protein in flow cytofluorimetry permits measurement of:
A Cell size.
B Cell granularity.
C Antibody secretion.
D DNA content.
E Intracellular gene expression.
30 Which of the following is not used for the precipitation of immune complexes?
A Nephelometry.
B Polyethylene glycol.
C Ammonium sulfate.
D Antibody to immunoglobulin.
E Staphylococci.
4 The specialized cell type involved in the entry of lymphocytes into lymph nodes are
called:
A M-cells
B Mesangial cells
C PALS
D HEV endothelial cells
E Selectins
6 On entering a germinal center, the primary B-blasts grow exponentially to form which
cell type in the dark zone:
A Secondary B-blasts
B Centrocytes
C Centroblasts
D Memory B-cells
E Plasma cells
13 When Langerhans' cells differentiate into fully mature dendritic cells (DCs) they:
A Downregulate CD1 expression.
B Increase their endocytic activity.
C Increase expression of B7.1
D Decrease expression of B7.2.
E Become resistant to infection by HIV-1.
15 Lymphocytes:
A Enter the tissues and remain there for the rest of their life.
B When mature are only found in secondary lymphoid organs.
C Recirculate between blood and lymphoid tissues.
D Are only educated in the thymus.
E When present in the lymph are called veiled cells.
16 Follicular dendritic cells:
A Can bind immune complexes.
B Are small round cells.
C Retain antigen for up to 24 h.
D Possess Fc receptors but lack C3b receptors.
E Are not found in germinal centers.
17 The spleen is largely involved with the response to antigens which are in the:
A Tissues
B Blood
C Gut
D Lungs
E Urogenital tract
2 CD4:
A Is essentially an intracellular glycoprotein.
B Is heterodimeric.
C Binds processed peptide in its outer groove.
D Binds to MHC class II on antigen-presenting cells.
E Is highly polymorphic.
4 When a resting naive T-cell engages its specific MHC/peptide complex displayed on
the surface of a fibroblast it:
A Undergoes blast cell formation.
B Produces IL-2.
C Moves from Go to G1 of the cell cycle.
D Becomes anergic.
E Secretes IL-1.
10 The nuclear AP-1 site responsible for 90% of IL-2 enhancer activity binds:
A The Oct – 1 transcriptional factor.
B The Fos/Jun transcription factors.
C The nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT).
D The NF-kappa B transcriptional factor.
E Polyclonal mitogenic agents such as concanavalin A.
11 In the immunological synapse:
A The acetylcholine receptor in expressed on the T-cell.
B Production of substance P by the antigen-presenting cell is a key event.
C The initial interaction between TCR and MHC is unstable.
D Adhesion molecule pairs eventually move to the center of the synapse.
E The B7–CD28 interaction is redundant.
12 T-cell mutants lacking CD45 cannot transduce signals received through the specific
T-cell receptor because CD45:
A Has protein tyrosine kinase activity.
B Directly phosphorylates CD4.
C Is a calcium ion channel.
D Removes a phosphate group from a negative regulatory site on the Lck kinase.
E Acts as a nuclear transcription factor.
20 The main costimulatory signal for activation of resting T-cells is provided by ligation
of:
A CD28
B Surface Ig
C LFA-1
D VLA-4
E IL-2
21 Which one of the following events occurs earliest in T-cell signaling:
A Activation of phospholipase C.
B Activation of protein kinase C.
C Production of inositol triphosphate.
D Activation of protein tyrosine kinase.
E Mobilization of intracellular calcium.
22 On injection into mice, bovine serum albumin conjugated with dinitrophenol (DNP)
behaves as a:
A Type 1 thymus-independent antigen.
B Type 2 thymus-independent antigen.
C Thymus-dependent antigen.
D A polyclonal T-cell activator.
E Hapten.
7 Dendritic cells can be driven from a resting state to an activated state by the T-cell
surface molecule:
A TCR
B CD40L
C CD28
D B7
E CD40
8 In the germinal center, B-cells become memory cells under the influence of:
A CD40
B CD23
C IL-1 alpha
D IL-4
E TGF beta
13 The specificity of antibody secreted by a B-cell may not be the same as that of the
surface Ig of the clonal parent because of:
A Class switching.
B Somatic hypermutation.
C Allelic exclusion.
D Alternative splicing.
E Different heavy:light pairing.
14 The major long term source of a foreign antigen in the body is:
A Anti-idiotype.
B Complexes on the surface of follicular dendritic cells.
C Antigen bound to the surface of B-cells.
D Antigenic peptides in the groove of MHC molecules.
E There are no long term sources of foreign antigen in the body.
15 Effector memory T-cells can be distinguished from the central memory T-cells from
which they arise by:
A Their life-span.
B CD45RA.
C CCR7.
D CD3.
E IL-4 secretion.
16 Cytokines:
A Are usually around 150–200 kDa.
B Have glycosyl phosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchors.
C Can be pleiotropic.
D Generally act at long range.
E Produce very stable long-lived messenger RNA.
18 Which one of the following cytokines can mediate release of acute phase proteins
from the liver?:
A IL-10.
B TGF beta.
C IL-6.
D IL-12.
E IL-8.
21 Memory T-cells:
A Are continuously produced directly from naive progenitors without the need for
antigenic stimulation.
B Express high levels of CD44.
C Are only present in primary immune responses.
D Switch from an alpha beta to a gamma delta T-cell receptor.
E Express germ line Ig V genes.
22 Activated memory T-cells can be distinguished from naive T-cells on the basis of
expression of:
A T-cell receptor.
B Immunoglobulin.
C MHC class II molecules.
D CD45RO.
E IL-1.
Chapter 10
1 A major factor regulating the adaptive immune response is:
A The neutrophil.
B Complement membrane attack complex.
C C-reactive protein.
D Antigen concentration.
E Haptoglobin.
2 Antigenic competition:
A Involves competition between T-cell epitopes for the MHC groove.
B Involves competition for available soluble antibodies.
C Is unrelated to the concept of dominant and subdominant epitopes.
D Can only occur with cryptic epitopes.
E Refers to the differential immunogenicity of the carbohydrate and protein moieties
in a glycoprotein.
7 Cells bearing MHC class I plus peptide are targets for specific:
A B-cells.
B Cytotoxic T-cells.
C Th1 cells.
D Th2 cells.
E Interdigitating dendritic cells.
8 Natural antibodies:
A Are mostly IgG.
B Are mostly high affinity autoantibodies.
C Are produced spontaneously by CD5+ B-cells.
D Are acquired by transplacental passage from the mother.
E Do not arise in thymectomized mice.
19 The stress induced by severe exercise can increase susceptibility to infection by:
A Raising plasma levels of cortisol.
B Increasing lymph flow.
C Increasing synthesis of adrenaline.
D Damaging mast cells.
E Increasing the respiratory rate.
21 IgG antibodies:
A Are the earliest class to appear in an immune response.
B Are normally dimeric in mucosal secretions.
C Remain of low affinity.
D Inhibit antibody responses through the Fc gamma receptor FcγRIIB1 on B-cells.
E Augment antibody responses through the Fc gamma receptor FcγRIIB1 on B-
cells.
23 Idiotype–anti–idiotype interactions:
A Do not involve antigen-specific receptors.
B Only involve antibodies.
C Can mediate a lymphocyte network in early life.
D Do not occur within the CD5+ B-cell population.
E Do not involve self-reactivity.
26 Cell-mediated immunity:
A Is unaffected by exercise.
B Is unaffected by surgical trauma.
C Is unaffected by diet.
D May be grossly impaired by protein-calorie malnutrition.
E Is unaffected by protein-calorie malnutrition.
Chapter 11
1 Which of the following is the earliest site of hematopoiesis in the embryo:
A Bone marrow
B Liver
C Spleen
D Yolk sac
E Thymus
9 NKT cells:
A Have rearranged TCR alpha beta genes.
B Express a gamma delta TCR.
C Have rearranged immunoglobulin genes.
D Lack NK1.1.
E Can only recognize antigens presented by CD1.
13 The first wave of fetal gamma delta T-cell receptor cells in mouse colonize the:
A Female reproductive tract.
B Skin.
C Peripheral blood.
D Thymus.
E Gut.
14 In human adult peripheral blood the percentage of gamma delta T-cells bearing V
gamma 9, V delta 2 T-cell receptors is:
A < 1%
B 25%
C 50%
D < 30%
E 70%
15 The T-cells in male H-2b SCID mice bearing a transgenic alpha beta T-cell receptor
gene specific for H–Y in association with H-2Db will:
A All be CD4+CD8–.
B All be CD4–CD8+.
C All recognise H-Y alone.
D Undergo continuous proliferation.
E Be deleted.
16 In Sir Peter Medawar's classical experiments demonstrating the development of
immunological tolerance:
A Thymectomized mice had to be used.
B SCID mice were used.
C The mice were chimeric.
D Skin grafts were always rejected.
E Tolerance could not be induced in neonatal mice.
17 In infectious anergy:
A T-cells become deleted.
B Anergic T-cells indirectly suppress other T-cells.
C CD80 on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated.
D MHC class II on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated.
E T-cells recognize antigen in the absence of antigen-presenting cells.
23 The first antigen receptor-bearing cells to appear in the thymus in mouse are:
A T-cell receptor alpha beta+
B T-cell receptor gamma delta+.
C TdT–.
D RAG-1–.
E CD3–.
26 V preB:
A Refers to all the germ line immunoglobulin heavy chain V genes in the pre-B cell.
B Is part of the surrogate light chain.
C Forms a structure with lambda 3.
D Forms a structure with C kappa.
E Is expressed by both T- and B-cells.
27 Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta to provide a high level of passive
immunity at birth?:
A IgA
B IgD
C IgE
D IgG
E IgM
28 Which of the following molecules does not belong to the Ig gene superfamily:
A Immunoglobulin
B T-cell receptor
C Beta2-microglobulin
D Thy-1
E LFA-1
Chapter 12
1 The largest number of deaths from infectious diseases are caused by:
A AIDS.
B Acute respiratory infections.
C Diarrheal diseases.
D Tuberculosis.
E Measles.
2 Histamine:
A Has no effect on the permeability of venules.
B Constricts arterioles.
C Upregulates adhesion molecules on vascular endothelium.
D Upregulates IL-8.
E Induces neutrophil chemotaxis.
14 Individuals lacking C8 or C9 are more prone to infection with the following type of
bacteria:
A Haemophilus influenzae.
B Bacillus anthrax.
C Vibrio cholerae.
D Neisseria.
E Listeria monocytogenes.
19 Interferons:
A Opsonize viruses.
B Neutralize viruses.
C Play a major role in recovery from viral infections.
D Prevent viral entry into cells.
E Protect against reinfection with virus.
20 Cytotoxic T-cells:
A Are usually CD4.
B Recognize native viral antigen.
C Are more readily produced by killed rather than live virus.
D Kill viruses directly.
E Restrict viral replication.
21 Classical NK cells:
A Have rearranged T-cell receptor genes.
B Are unaffected by IFN alpha.
C Are more active against targets with upregulated MHC class I.
D Can kill certain virally-infected cells.
E Can kill all virally-infected cells.
31 Some viruses escape the immune system by antigen shift. This involves:
A Structural reorganization of existing antigens.
B Masking of antigen epitopes.
C Point mutations in single genes.
D Point mutations in many genes.
E Interchange of genetic material with other viruses.
3 The circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby will contain maternal:
A IgA
B IgD
C IgE
D IgG
E IgM
6 Which one of the following diseases has been completely eradicated world-wide?:
A Measles
B Smallpox
C Tuberculosis
D Cowpox
E Psittacosis
8 A small protein subunit used in a vaccine may fail to stimulate T-cell immunity because
of:
A Lack of glycosylation
B Lack of conformation
C Lack of carrier determinants
D HLA-related unresponsiveness
E Inherently insufficient antigen concentration
9 Baculovirus vectors can be produced in cell lines derived from which of the following:
A Moth
B Chicken bursa
C Chinese hamster ovary
D Tobacco
E Green monkey kidney
10 DNA vaccines:
A Are relatively poor at stimulating cytotoxic T lymphocyte responses in mice
B Must be administered on gold particles if they are to be effective
C Are only effective if followed by a protein boost
D May have distinct advantages when preparing subunit vaccines against viruses
which frequently alter their antigens
E Require cold storage in tropical countries
11 A peptide immunogen:
A Adopts a single rigid structure in solution
B Can mimic a part of a discontinuous epitope
C Can elicit potent antibody responses in the absence of T-cell help
D Can be used to stimulate B-cell but not T-cell responses
E Lack contact residues capable of interacting with the antigen receptor on the
relevant lymphocytes
15 To which one of the following groups would it be acceptable to give a live attenuated
viral vaccine?:
A Children under 8 years of age
B Patients treated with steroids
C Pregnant mothers
D Patients with leukemia
E Patients treated with radiotherapy
2 Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial infection does not involve the gene for:
A IFNγR1.
B IL-12 p40.
C IFNγR2.
D MEFV.
E IL-12RβI.
8 Poor skin tests to a range of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps
indicate a deficiency of:
A NK cells.
B T-cells.
C B-cells.
D Phagocytosis.
E Opsonization.
12 Which of the following HIV antigens provides a potential target for neutralizing
antibody:
A U3
B gp120
C Reverse transcriptase
D Protease
E tat
2 Which one of the following mast cell products is not preformed and therefore has to be
newly synthesized?:
A Histamine.
B Prostaglandin D2.
C Heparin.
D Neutral protease.
E Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF).
2 Which one of the following statements is false. Rejection of a second (set) skin
graftfrom the same allogeneic donor:
A Can be blocked by azathioprine (an antimitotic agent).
B Proceeds at the same speed as the first graft rejection.
C Shows specificity for the graft donor.
D Can be transferred to a naive recipient with lymphocytes.
E Involves recognition of MHC differences.
8 The immunosuppressive drug which probably attacks DNA by alkylation and cross-
linking is:
A Azathioprine.
B Cyclophosphamide.
C Cyclosporine.
D Rapamycin.
E Prednisone.
9 The target of the monoclonal antibody Daclizumab used to help suppress allograft
rejection is:
A CD3.
B CD40L.
C LFA-1.
D ICAM-1.
E CD25.
11 The 1-year survival rate for cadaver kidneys grafted into individuals pretreated
withblood transfusion and with no DR mismatches is approximately:
A > 95%.
B 80–90%.
C 55–65%.
D 40–50%.
E < 40%.
13 HLA-G:
A Is an MHC class II molecule.
B Is present on extravillous cytotrophoblast.
C Stimulates NK cell-mediated lysis.
D Activates DAF.
E Stimulates IL-10 synthesis.
2 Boon and colleagues showed that syngeneic transplantable tumors which mutate
such that they express strong transplantation antigens are rejected. They called these
variants:
A tum – .
B Xenogeneic.
C tum + .
D MCA.
E Non-immunogenic.
7 Which of the following is most commonly seen in African children with Burkitt's
lymphoma:
A Absence of EBV.
B T-cell neoplasia.
C Deletion of the c-myc gene.
D Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 14q32 translocation.
E Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 2p12 translocation.
10 Non-Hodgkin lymphomas:
A Will be positive when stained with antibodies to cytokeratin.
B Are usually of T-cell origin but sometimes of B-cell origin.
C Can be differentiated from carcinoma using antibodies to CD45 (leukocyte
common antigen).
D Are reactive B-cell hyperplasias.
E Have a good prognosis.
11 In Burkitt's lymphoma, a vaccine against which of the following might prove useful:
A Epstein-Barr virus.
B Marek's disease virus.
C Human papilloma virus.
D HTLV-1.
E MMTV.
13 Bone marrow purging in myeloid leukemias can be successfully carried out using
antibodies to:
A CD3.
B CD33.
C CD5.
D CD45.
E CD1.
15 Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also sometimes found on
tumors are known as:
A Oncofetal antigens.
B HTLV-1.
C Maternal.
D Neonatal.
E Cryptic.
2 Which of the following antibodies are of most use for the diagnosis of pernicious
anemia:
A Anti-parietal cell.
B Anti-thyroid peroxidase.
C Anti-nuclear.
D Anti-IgG Fc
E Anti-TSH receptor.
3 Which of the following antibodies are useful for the diagnosis of Sjögren's syndrome:
A Anti-cardiolipin.
B Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm (ANCA).
C Anti-SS-A(Ro), anti-SS-B(La).
D Anti-21-hydroxylase.
E Anti-glomerular basement membrane.
4 The disease most frequently seen in association with pernicious anemia is:
A Addison's disease of the adrenal.
B Multiple sclerosis.
C Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
D Rheumatoid arthritis.
E Graves' disease.
7 The undue tendency for closely linked genes on a chromosome to remain associated
rather than undergo genetic randomisation, is termed:
A Tandem duplication.
B Meiotic crossover.
C Relative risk.
D Linkage disequilibrium.
E Gene conversion.
29 Immune defenses in the gut have evolved mechanisms which restrict the activation
of:
A Th1 cells.
B Th2 cells.
C B-cells.
D Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
E Mast cells.
31 Which of the following factors has not been associated with the development
ofautoimmune disease:
A Sex.
B HLA.
C Genetic factors other than HLA.
D Infection.
E SCID.
(2) Which of the following antibodies are of most use for the diagnosis of pernicious
anemia:
A Anti-parietal cell.
B Anti-thyroid peroxidase.
C Anti-nuclear.
D Anti-IgG Fc
E Anti-TSH receptor.
(3) Which of the following antibodies are useful for the diagnosis of Sjogren's syndrome:
A Anti-cardiolipin.
B Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm (ANCA).
C Anti-SS-A(Ro), anti-SS-B(La).
D Anti-21-hydroxylase.
E Anti-glomerular basement membrane.
(4) The disease most frequently seen in association with pernicious anemia is:
A Addison's disease of the adrenal.
B Multiple sclerosis.
C Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
D Rheumatoid arthritis.
E Graves' thyrotoxicosis.
(6) The high concordance rate for monozygotic vs dizygotic twins in type
1 diabetesindicates:
A A strong environmental element.
B A strong genetic element.
C A major influence of sex.
D The influence of HLA.
E That microbial infection cannot be involved.
(13) The NZBxW F1 hybrid provides an example of autoimmune disease which is:
A Experimentally induced systemic.
B Spontaneous systemic.
C Experimentally induced organ-specific.
D Spontaneous organ-specific.
E None of the above.
(14) Which of the following factors has not been associated with the development
ofautoimmune disease:
A Sex.
B HLA.
C Genetic factors other than HLA.
D Infection.
E SCID.
(17) Which of the following responses is incorrect. Autoimmunity can arise when:
A Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-antigen.
B Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-idiotypes.
C B-cells are stimulated with polyclonal activators.
D T-suppressors are stimulated.
E Cytokine imbalance occurs.
Chapter 20
(1) The antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with:
A Infertility.
B Severe anemia.
C Wegener's granulomatosis.
D Raised platelet levels.
E Recurrent fetal loss.
(7) In rheumatoid arthritis the non-lymphoid synovial tissue shows aberrant expression
of:
A Immunoglobulin genes.
B T-cell receptor genes.
C MHC class I.
D MHC class II.
E MHC class III.
(16) Immune defenses in the gut have evolved mechanisms which restrict the activation
of:
A Th1 cells.
B Th2 cells.
C B-cells.
D Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.
E Mast cells.
(18) In rheumatoid arthritis, the outgrowth of synovial lining cells which produces
erosions in the underlying cartilage and bone is called:
A Opsonin.
B Proteoglycan.
C Pannus.
D The Arthus reaction.
E Frustrated phagocytosis.
(20) Thyrocytes (thyroid epithelial cells) expressing MHC class II in autoimmune thyroid
disease are direct targets for locally activated Th1 cells specific for:
A PMN proteinase III.
B Acetylcholine receptor.
C Cardiolipin/β 2-glycoprotein 1 complex.
D A peroxidase enzyme.
E Pre-synaptic calcium channels.
Done By
Mahmoud
Alosaimi