QUIZ 1

In networking term, port density refers to the number of ports available on a single switch.

True

False

In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of a
switch.

True

False

Access Layer is the layer of which the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model would PoE
for VoIP phones and access points be considered.

True

False

Rack Unit is the networking term used to express the thickness or height of a switch.

True

False

Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the users.

True

False

Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local networks.

True

False

Distribution Layer is a design model layer that provides a high-speed backbone link
between dispersed networks.

True

False

In network troubleshooting, which command is used to display the bandwidth of an

interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
 a. show ip interface brief
b. show ip route
c. show ip protocols
d. show interfaces

How much traffic for a 12port gigabit switch capable of generating when operating at full
wire speed?

a. 1 Gb/s, because data can only be forwarded from one port at a time
b. 12 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
c. 24 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches
d. 26 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

In network troubleshooting, which command can be issued on a router to verify that

automatic summarization is enabled?

a. show ip protocols
b. show ip eigrp neighbors
c. show ip interface brief
d. show ip eigrp interfaces

In managing Cisco devices, what are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band
management?

a. A connection that uses the AUX and and Telnet

b. A connection that uses Telnet and SSH

c. A connection that uses HTTP and HTTPs

d. A connection that uses the console and AUX port

Which among the listed below are the 2 functional parts of the network that can be
combined to form a collapsed core design in Cisco Enterprise Architecture?

a. Enterprise edge and access layer

b. Provider edge and access layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Distribution and core layer

What is the useof in-band device management and how it is done?

a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

b. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable. 
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
 d. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a
network connection.

In this chapter, what is the function of PoE pass-through?

a. Allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2

switching by bypassing the CPU
b. Allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single
logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
c. Allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer
2 loops
d. Allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing
Ethernet cables from an upstream switch

How much traffic for a 24port Gbit switch at hand capable of generating when operating at
full wire speed?

a. 12 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements

b.  24 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port
c. 48 Gb/s, because of overhead requirements
d. 48 Gb/s, because this is the maximum forwarding rate on Cisco switches

What today's network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a
failure occur?

a. The installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network

b. The configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
c. The deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer
switch connections between them
d. The reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network
core
In today's current switch technology, Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco
Meraki switches?
a. They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
b. They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
c. They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960
switches.
d. They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport
flexibility.
Which network design solution below in the current technology today will extend access
layer connectivity to user devices?
a. Routing protocol implementation
b. Redundancy implementation
 c. Wireless connectivity implementation
d. Implementing etherChannel implementation
Which network design solution among the choices listed below will best extend access layer
connectivity to host devices?
a. Implementing wireless connectivity
b. Implementing redundancy
c. Etherchannel implementation
d. Dynamic routing implementation
If you are a network design engineer, which type of router would an enterprise use to allow
customers to access content anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home
or work?
a. Network edge routers
b. Modular routers
c. Branch routers
d. Service provider routers
Which among the listed below is a characteristic of in-band device management as
discussed in this chapter?
a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
b.  It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a
network connection.
c. It uses a terminal emulation client.
d. It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
Why would a network administrator of RMS Defence Contractor company issue the show
cdp neigbors command on a router especially if a network problem occurs?
a. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
b. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
c. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

Which among the listed below as discussed in Cisco Enterprise Architecture which two
functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design?
a. Provider edge and access layer
b. Core and distribution layer
c. Access and distribution layer
d. Enterprise edge and access layer

A network administrator of Genesis Airlines issue a command of show cdp neigbors on a

router, what do you think is the reason?

a. To display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
b. To display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
 c. To display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
d. To display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors

In managing Cisco devices, what is a characteristic of out-of-band device management?

a. It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device.
b. It requires a terminal emulation client.
c. Out-of-band device management requires a direct connection to a network interface.
d. It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and
operational.

QUIZ 2

A protocol that allows multiple vlans to run in a single spanning-tree instance is called Rapid
PVST.

True

False

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.

True

False

The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid
PVST+.

True

False

The legacy standard for STP that runs all VLANs in a single spanning-tree instance is called
MSTP.

True

False

A Cisco enhancement of RSTP to provide a spanning tree instance for each vlan is called
STP.

True

False
Among the choices below, which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network
redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic immediately and transparently
recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?

a. HSRP
b. ICMP
c. STP
d. IRDP

Which of the following statement is true?

a. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain.
b. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A
router provides separate collision domains.
c. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router
creates a single collision domain.
d. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router
provides a separate broadcast domain as well.

You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following would enable this
protocol?

a. Switch# spanning-tree mode 802.1w

b. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
c. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w

A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy

protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with multivendor devices?

a. HSRP & PVST

b. IRDP & HSRP
c. GLBP & HSRP
d. VRRP & GLBP

As discussed in LAN Redundancy chapter, What is the purpose of HSRP?

a. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

b. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
c. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
d. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct
network operation?

a. static default routes & implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts

b. link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes & static default routes
c. redundant links between Layer 2 switches & removing single point of failure with
multiple Layer 2 switches
d. implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts & redundant links between Layer 2
switches

As per our discussion in this module LAN Redundancy, what is the outcome of a Layer 2
broadcast storm?

a. Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
b. CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
c. ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
d. New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.

Which of the following is a layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network?

a. STP
b. VTP
c. PORTFAST
d. CDP

Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

a. Designated ports
b. Root ports
c. Edge ports
d. Trunk ports

A network problem occurs suddenly, what is the initial approach that should be used to
troubleshoot a broadcast storm in a switched network?

a. Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.

b. Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.
c. Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.
d. Replace the cables on failed STP links.

Among the choices listed below, which port state will switch ports immediately transition to
when configured for PortFast?

a. Blocking
b. Listening
 c. Learning
d. Forwarding

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol in a switched LAN as discussed in this
chapter?

a. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths

b. To prevent routing loops in networks with redundant paths
c. To manage the VLAN database across multiple switches
d. To provide a mechanism for network monitoring in switched environments

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What

command can be used to do this?

a. show running-config
b. show cdp neigh
c. show spanning-tree
d. show startup-config

In this chapter, which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause sub-optimal traffic
flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network?

a. STP & MSTP

b. Rapid PVST+ & RSTP
c. STP & RSTP
d. PVST+ & VRRP

As discussed in this chapter, what is an advantage of PVST+?

a. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root

bridge.
b. PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of
STP that use CST.
c. PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
d. PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.

As per our current module discussion, which non-proprietary protocol provides router
redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

a. VRRPv2
b. HSRP
c. GLBP
d. SLB

In this chapter, which is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

 a. A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
b.  Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
c. The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
d. Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.

In reference to our current topic which is LAN Redundancy, which 3 components are
combined to form a bridge ID?

a. IP address, extended system ID, cost

b. MAC address, port ID, ip address
c. extended system ID, MAC address, bridge priority
d. port ID, ip address, MAC address

A network engineer connected 2 switches together with two crossover cables for
redundancy, and STP is disabled. Which of the following will happen between the switches?

a. Broadcast storms will occur on the switched network.

b. The switches will automatically load-balance between the two links.
c. The MAC forward/filter table will not update on the switch.
d. The routing tables on the switches will not update.

If you want to disable STP on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?

a. spanning-tree portfast
b. spanning-tree security
c. spanning-tree off
d. disable spanning-tree

PRELIM EXAM

If the network administrator of Genesis Mobile Telecommunications wanted to disable STP

on a port connected to a server, which command would you use?

a. spanning-tree portfast
b. spanning-tree security
c. spanning-tree off
d. disable spanning-tree

The number of interfaces supported on a switch.

a. Bandwidth Capacity
b. Port Density
c. Etherchannel ports
 d. Rack Unit (RU)

In reference to module 2 of this course, which is true of the difference between STP and
RSTP?

a. STP uses a proposal and agreement process to allow switches to negotiate on port
roles, but RSTP assigns the roles centrally.
b. RSTP is the default version on all Cisco switches now, but STP was the default until
IOS version 11.4
c. RSTP is able to support VLANs by using Cisco proprietary enhancements but STP is
not.
d. STP stops sending user data while the whole network converges, but RSTP closes
down and converges each link separately.

As discussed which is true of the PVST+ protocol?

a. It supports the use of VLANs and requires that ISL frame tagging should be used on
VLAN trunk links.
b. It was the first version of STP to include the PortFast feature that allows access ports
to transition directly to the forwarding state.
c. It is Cisco's implementation of Rapid STP.
d.  It allows different VLANs to have different root bridges and allows ports to be
blocked for some VLANs but not others.

In which situation would a network expert install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500
Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

a. on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

b. to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
c. on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
d. on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified
management

As discussed in chapter 2, what states does a port go through from the time when a switch
first start up to the time when the port is fully operational?

a. Listening, learning, blocking, forwarding

b. Blocking, learning, listening, forwarding
c. Disabled, listening, learning, forwarding
d. Blocking, listening, learning, forwarding

In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single ______ router.

a. Perimeter
 b. Switch
c. Virtual
d. Core

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What

command can be used to do this?

a. show cdp neigh

b. show startup-config
c. show running-config
d. show spanning-tree

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

a. MST
b. RSTP
c. MSTP
d. PVST+

As discussed in Chapter 2, what do you called a design methodology for building networks
in three layers including access, distribution, and core.

a. STP
b. hierarchical network
c. Etherchannel technology
d. Collapsed Core

In terms of network reliability, the ability of a network to be up most of the time. Sometimes
referred to as 99.999, or "five nines".

a. Flexibility
b. Reliability
c. Scalability
d. Integrity

A network link connected to a switch went down. How long can it take for a network using
spanning tree topology to converge again after a topology change?

a. up to 15 seconds
b. up to 20 seconds
c. up to 10 seconds
d. up to 50 seconds

Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant
links?
 a. link aggregation
b. virtual LANs
c. Spanning Tree Protocol
d. virtual private networks

A connection to a switch went down suddenly, how long can it take for a network using
RSTP to converge again after a topology change?

a. 6sec
b. 15sec
c. 50sec
d. 10sec

Among the listed below, what are the distinct functions of layer 2 switching that increase
available bandwidth on the network?
1. Address learning
2. Routing
3. Forwarding and filtering
4. Creating network loops
5. Loop avoidance
6. IP addressing

a. 2 and 6
b. 3 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 2, 4 and 6

As discussed in chapter 1, the duplication of devices, services, or connections so that, in the

event of a failure, the redundant devices, services , or connections can perform the work of
those that failed.

a. Bundle
b. Backup
c. Duplication
d. Redundancy

Why do a network administrator change a switch priority to a higher value than that of
other switches in the network?

a. To make sure that the switch is not chosen as the root bridge.
b. To make sure that no ports on the switch are blocked.
c. To make sure that no ports on the switch are blocked.
d. To make sure that the switch is chosen as the root bridge.
What protocol defined by IEEE standard 802.1D. Allows switches and bridges to create a
redundant LAN, with the protocol dynamically causing some ports to block traffic so that
the bridge/ switch forwarding logic will not cause frames to loop indefinitely around the
LAN. SSID See service set identifier?

a. Etherchannel
b. PAgP
c. STP
d. LACP

Divides the network into functional components while still maintaining the core,
distribution, and access layers of the three-layer model as discussed in chapter 2 LAN
Redundancy?

a. Enterprise edge
b. Cisco Enterprise Architecture
c. Collapsed Core
d. Hierarchical network

As shown in the exhibit below, which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
a. GLBP
b. VRRP
c. HSRP
d. FHRP

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to
the root bridge?

a. designated port
b. root port
c. alternate
d. disabled port

In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network are combined
to form a collapsed core design. This is usually implemented in a small to medium network
setup?

a. provider edge & access layer

b. distribution layer & enterprise edge
c. access layer & enterprise edge
d. core layer and distribution layer
As discussed in chapter 2 , what will exist when the spanning tree protocol has worked and
the network has converged?

a. One root bridge per segment, one root port per non root bridge, one designated
port per segment, non-designated ports.
b. One root bridge per network, one root port on each bridge, one designated port on
each bridge, all non-designated ports are blocked.
c. One root bridge per network, one root port per non root bridge, one designated
port per segment, non-designated ports.
d. One root bridge per network, one root port on each switch, one non-designated port
on each segment, other ports are blocked.

If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the
root bridge?

a. lowest IP address
b. lowest MAC address
c. highest MAC address
d. highest IP address

In MRT Construction head office, a network administrator is preparing the implementation

of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined
on the switch interfaces?

a. Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

b. Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
c. Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN
d. Link types are determined automatically.

Which statement below describes HSRP?

a. It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

b. It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
c. It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
d. It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.

As discussed in this chapter, which of the following listed below is a layer 2 protocol used to
maintain a loop-free network and this refers to the IEEE 802.1D standard?

a. STP
b. VTP
c. CDP
d. RIP
A certified network expert is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better
use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

a. GLBP
b. HSRP
c. VRRP
d. FHRP

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+?

a. Discarding, learning & forwarding

b. trunking , blocking & forwarding
c. Blocking, learning & forwarding
d. listening , blocking & trunking

Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root
switch?

a. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

b. spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
c. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
d. spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0

Which switch among the listed below would STP choose to become the root bridge in the
selection process?

a. 32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78
b. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
c. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-65
d. 32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

You want to run the new 802.1w on your switches. Which of the following command syntax
would enable this protocol?

a. Switch(config)Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode 802.1w

b. Switch# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
c. Switch(config)# spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
d. Switch(config)# mode span rapid-pvst

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the
network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?

a. Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.

b. Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.
c. All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.
 d. Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

As discussed in initial stages of Scaling Networks, which two features of enterprise class
equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time?

a. redundant power supplies & failover capabilities

b. failure domains & failover capabilities
c. redundant power supplies & collapsed core
d. services module & failover capabilities

Observe the given output below. A certified network engineer is troubleshooting host
connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway
address should be configured on the host?

a. 192.168.2.2
b. 192.168.2.0
c. 192.168.2.100
d. 192.168.2.1

In the above network diagram of DFA Headquarters core switches , which switch will be
chosen as root bridge and why?

a. Sw-C, because it has the lowest priority

b. Sw-B, because it has the highest MAC address
c. Sw-A, because it has the lowest MAC address
d. Sw-D, because it has the highest priority

During connectivity issues, why would a network admin issue the show cdp neigbors
command on a router?

a. to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
b. to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
c. to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
d. to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices

When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared by a set of
routers that are presenting the illusion of being a single router?

a. IP address & BID

b. MAC address & IP address
c. BID & static route
d. hostname & MAC address
In managing cisco devices, which two requirements must always be met to use in-band
management to configure a network device?

a. a direct connection to the auxiliary port & Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
b. at least one network interface that is connected and operational & Telnet, SSH, or
HTTP access to the device
c. a terminal emulation client & a direct connection to the console port
d. a direct connection to the console port & at least one network interface that is
connected and operational

What is the most likely effect on the topology if Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled?

a. All hosts will reply to the ARP request

b. The router will reply to the ARP request
c. Excessive collisions
d. Broadcast storm

Among the listed below, how can an enterprise network be designed to optimize
bandwidth?

a. by deploying a collapsed core model

b. by installing devices with failover capabilities
c. by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
d. by limiting the size of failure domains

A switch port was configured to Portfast, What will be the port state after this configuration?

a. learning
b. blocking
c. forwarding
d. listening

During the discussion in this chapter, what is a characteristic of in-band device

management?

a. It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

b.  It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
c. It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a
network connection.
d. It uses a terminal emulation client.

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless
medium?

a. increased network management options & reduced costs

 b. reduced costs & increased flexibility
c. increased bandwidth availability & increased flexibility
d. reduced costs & decreased number of critical points of failure

In ABC Construction Co., a network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling
in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the
Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

a. Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.

b. Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
c. Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
d. Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

A newly hired certified network engineer of RMS Industries is troubleshooting a switch and
wants to verify if it is a root bridge. Which of the following listed below is the right
command to display the correct information?

a. show spanning-tree
b. show startup-config
c. show running-config
d. show vlan

In Genesis Research Lab, a network administrator is reviewing a network design that uses a
fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections.
However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support
growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as a replacement?

a. a PoE device
b. another fixed configuration router
c. a Layer 3 switch
d. a modular router

How many switches in a network must be running STP or RSTP in order to avoid broadcast
storms?

a. At least the switch that is chosen as the root bridge.

b. At least one in each loop.
c. All of them.
d. At least one.

Which feature ensures that configured switch edge ports do not cause Layer 2 loops if a
port is mistakenly connected to another switch?

a. extended system ID
 b. PortFast
c. PVST+
d. BPDU guard

Which non-proprietary protocol among the listed below provides router redundancy for a
group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

a. HSRP

b. VRRPv2

c. SLB

d. GLBP

Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator of Gilas
Telecoms wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of
the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose?

a. show startup-config & show running-config

b. show NVRAM &show running-config
c. show flash &show startup-config
d. show version &show running-config