1

1- Drugs given systemically may cause all the following EXCEPT

A) Hair loss
B) Chronic urticaria
C) Erythema multiform
D)Fungal infections of the skin

i 2- Grape fruit juice should be avoided with many drugs because

A) It spoils the taste

B) It increases the drug metabolism
C) It decreases the drug metabolism
D) It delays gastric emptying

i 3- Grave's disease may be characterized by

A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hepatic cirrhosis
C) Cortisol insufficiency
D) Hyperthyroidism

i 4- Hypercalceamia dose not occur in normal individuals because

A) Calcium is rapidly excreted

B) Calcium is rapidly biotransformed
C) Calcium is insoluble
D) Exccess calcium is most absorbed

1
 2

i 5- Hyper- responsiveness of the trachea and bronchi to stimuli with

bronchi to stimuli with bronchiolar constriction and symptoms of
wheezing and dyspnoea describes

A) Chronic obstruction
B) Asthma
C) Pneumonia
D) Chrocic obstructive pulmonary disease

i 6- If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at the PH of blood ,it will

A) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier slowly

B) Penetrate the Blood Brain Barrier rapidly
C) Be eliminated slowly
D) Not be distributed to any tissue sties

i 7- In a hypertensive patient taking insulin which of the following drugs to

be used with extra caution and advice to the patient

A) Hydralazine
B) Prazosin
C) Propanolol
D) Methyldopa

i 8- In migraine management, which one of the following is

contraindicated in ischeamic heart disease

2
 3

A) Pizotifen
B) Sumatriptan
C) Propanolol
D) Flunarizine

i 9- Iron is required by the body to maintain normal

A) Digestion
B) Bone growth
C) Vitamin absorption
D) Oxygen transport

i 10- Levocabastine nasal drops are classified as

A) Corticosteroid
B) Sympathomimetic
C) Antihistamine
D) Astringent

11- Lidocaine HCL is not usually administered orally because it is

A) Has no systemic activity

B) Too acidic
C) Too basic
D) a cause of arrhythmia

i 12- Megaloblastic aneamia may be responsive to administration of all of

3
 4

the following EXCEPT

A) Cyanocobalamin
B) Intrinsic factor concentrate
C) Ferrous sulphate
D) Folic acid
i

13- Nasal carriage of Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus

(MRSA) can be treated with ointment that contains
A) Mupirocin
B) Gentamycin
C) Nystatin
D) Chloramphenicol

i 14- Oestrogens tend to increase the risk of

A) Endometrial carcinoma
B) Hirsuitism
C) Hearing loss
D) Visual problems

i 15- Pencillamime is the antidote for

A) Copper and lead
B) Iron
C) Cobalt
D) None of the above

i 16-Prostaglandins are chemically similar to

4
 5

A) Proteins
B) Carbohydrates
C) Lipids
D) Enzymes
i 17- Radioactive isotopes of which substance are used widely in diagnosis
andtherapy
A) Carbon
B) Iodine
C) Radium
D) None of the above

i 18- Sertraline is classified as

A) Selective Mono amine oxidase inhibitor
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
C) Tricyclic antidepressant
D) Dopamine receptor blocker

i 19- The normal range of FASTING blood glucose is

A) 3.0-4.0mmol/L (55-75mg/dL)
B) 4.0-8.0mmol/L (75-150mg/dL)
C) 8.0-10.0mmol/L (150-180mg/dL)
D) 5.0-6.0mmol/L (90-110mg/dL)

i 20- The anti diuretic hormone is secreted from

A) The renal cortex
B) The renal medulla
C) The adrenal cortex

5
 6

D) the posterior pituitary

21- The anti obesity drug Orlistat acts mainly by

A) Inhibition of glucose absorption from GIT
B) Inhibition of fat digestion by inhibiting pancreatic lipase
C) Inhibition of bile salt secretion
D) Chelate with amino acids and prevent their uptake through the GIT
wall

i22- The approximate *****alent dose of Lorazepam to 5mg of Diazepam

is
A) 0.5mg
B) 4mg
C) 5mg
D) 0.1mg

i23- The breakdown of glycogen is initiated by

A) Trypsin
B) glucagons
C) Pepsin
D) Renin

i24- The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg What dose should be given to a 6 yr.
old child who weighs 44 lbs.2.2 lbs =1kg approximately
A) 0.003g
B) 0.010g
C) 0.033g
D) 0.05g

i25- The drug of choice for treating an acute attack of re-entrant

supraventricular tachycardia
A) Verapamil
B) Digitalis

6
 7

C) Propanolol
D) Phenylepherine

i26- The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are peimarily

A) Lipases
B) Ketases
C) Dehydrogenases
D) None of the above

i27- The least stable of water soluble vitamins is

A) Ascorbic acid
B) Thiamine
C) Niacin
D) Folic acid

i28- The main function of the gall bladder is to

A) Concentrate bile
B) Secrete bile
C) Eliminate bile
D) None of the above

i29- The major mechanism f degradation of drugs in the Gl tract is

A) Oxidation
B) Hydrolysis
C) Reduction
D) Conjugation

i30- The manifestations of Myasthenia Gravis are due to

A) hypertonicity of smooth muscles
B) Hypertonicity of striated muscles
C) Weakness of striated muscles
D) Sclerosis os striated muscles

7
 8

31- The most prevalent type of white blood cells are the
A) Monocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Basophils

32- The parathyroid gland is responsible for

A) Pulmonary function
B) Maintaining the parasympathetic nervous system
C) Cardiac output
D) Calcium metabolism

33- The primary function of gastrointestinal villi is

A) Facilitating the passage of chime through the GIT
B) Increasing the surface area of the GIT
C) To breakdown aminoacids into smaller molecules
D) None of the above

34- The sympathetic ganglia are located

A)Near the heart
B) Near the spinal cord
C) Near the adrenal glands
D) Near the tissues they innervate

35- Tocopherols are a form of

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin E
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin B complex

36-Tricyclic antidepressants should be avoided in which of the following

conditions
A) Depressed patients with insomnia
B) Closed angle glaucoma
C) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
D) Nocturnal eneuresis

8
 9

37- What is the weight used to make 1500 units, each of which contains
250 microgram of a drug
A) 37.5 milligram
B) 37500 microgram
C) 375 milligram
D) 3750 milligram

38- What will result if the distribution of drug drugs is slower than the
process of biotranaformation and elimination
A) Increase blood level of drug
B) Decrease blood level of drug
C) Synergism
D) Failure to attain diffusion equilibrium

39- Which is recommended for acute cyanide poisoning

A) Desferrioxamine
B) Dimercaprol (BAL)
C) Dicobalt edentate
D) Pencillamine

40- Which of the following drugs increases the risk of digoxin toxicity
A) Neomycin
B) Hydrochlorthiazide
C) Phenobarbital
D) Oestradiol

41- Which of the following drugs is classified as an HMG CO-A reductase

inhibitor
A) Probucol
B) Clofibrate
C) Gemfibrozil
D) Lovastatin

9
 10

42- Which of the following drugs undergoes mared hydrolysis in the Gl

tract
A) Aspirin
B) Pencillin G
C) Paracetamol
D) Hydrocortisone

43- Which of the following is a contra indication of for Tricyclic

antidepressant
A) Insomnia
B) Recent myocardial infarction
C) Essential hypertension
D) Nocturnal eneuresis

44- Which of the following is a metabolic product of alcohol

A) Acetaldehyde
B) Formic acid
C) 4- methyl pyrazole
D) Pyridoxine

45- Which of the following is an indication for pancreatic enzyme

supplements
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Post pancreatectomy
C) Post total gastrectomy
D) All of the above

46- Which of the following is found in vitamin B12

A) Magnessium
B) Nickel
C) Cobalt
D) Iron

47- Which of the following is associated with less gastric side effects
A)Difflunisal (Dolobid)
B) Ibuprofen (brufen)
C) Ketoprofen (Oruvail)
D) Piroxicam (Feldene)

10
 11

48- Which of the following is not indicated for use in children less than 12
years old
A)Domperidone (Motilium)
B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
C) Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin)
D) Astemizole (Hismanal)

49- Which of the following is NOT naturally occurring

A) Oestradiol
B) Diethylstilbesterol
C) Oestrone
D) Ethinyl oestradiol

50- Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injections

A) Peanut oil
B) Cotton seed oil
C) Corn oil
D) Theobroma oil

51- Which of the following is TRUE about ORS in severe diarhoea

A) Sugar and amino acids inhibits sodium and water reabsorption
B) ORS includes sodium acetate and calcium
C) ORS is the treatment of choice in children with diarhoea
D) All of the above

52- Which of the following is used as a plasma expander

A) Sodium salts
B) Starches
C) Dextrans
D) Calcium salts

53- Which of the following is used to treat hyperthyroidism

A) L- thyroxine
B) Thyroglobulin
C) Liothyronine
D) Carbimazole

54- Which of the following is used to treat paracetamol overdose

A) Acetylcysteine

11
 12

B) Methylene blue
C) Pyridoxine
D) Methylprednisolone

55- Which of the following prokinetic drug is a dopamine receptor

antagonist
A) Metoclopramide
B) Bethanechol
C) Cisapride
D) Buscopan

56- Which of the following statements is correct about chlorhexidine

alcoholic solution
A) Chlorhexidine will disinfect the hands if allowed to dry
B) It is most suitable for disinfection of medical appliances
C) It is essential to use it on the skin before venepuncture
D) It provides the best treatment for impertigo

57- Which of the following stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes

A) Phenobarbitone
B) Mannitol
C) Urea
D) None of the above

58- Which of the following CANNOT be used as a prophylactic for

migraine
A) Pizotifen
B) Propanolol
C) Methylsergide
D) Dihydroergotamine

59- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of

Attention of Deficit disorders in children A) Pseudoephedrine B)
Dexamphetamine
C) Venlafaxine
D) Phenytoin

60- Which one the following is not an essential amino acid

A) Threonine
B) Glutamine

12
 13

C) Tryptophan
D) Methionine

61- Which of the following Over the Counter (OTC) medications has a
dangerous drug interactions with Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
A) Chlorpheniramine maleate
B) Paracetamol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Vitamin C

62- Which statement is true about Otitis media treatment

A) Local treatment is more effective than systemic one
B) Ear drops containing local anasethetic are of great value in the
management of pain
C) Systemic antibiotic is needed when bacterial involvement is proved
D) Oral antibiotic use as a prophylactic measure is not indicated for
recurrent otitis media

63- Which substance commonly found in fermented food, can be toxic

when MAO,I are used
A) Phenylalanine
B) Tyramine
C) Histidine
D) None of the above

64- Of the following anxiolytic agents, the one that posseses the least
sedating action is
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Buspirone (Buspar)
C) Meprobamate (Equanil)
D) Chlordiazepoxide ( Libirium)
E) Oxazepam (Serax)

65- Penicillins are believed to exert their antibacterial effect by which of

the following mechanisms
A) Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane
B) Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis
C) Inhibition of protein synthesis

13
 14

D) Steric hindrance of membrane amino acids

66- Which of the following antagonizes the actions of sulphonamides

A) Streptomycin
B) Penicillin G
C) Morphine
D) Para- amino benzoic acid

67- Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of primary
nocturnal eneuresis
A) Ritordine (Yutopar)
B) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
C) Metrolazone (Zaroxolyn)
D) amiloride (Midamor)

68- the thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion of

A) sodium
B) Urea
C) Uric acid
D) Bicarbonate

69- Which of the following oral hypoglyceamic drug has the longest serum
half life
A) Acetohexamide (Dymelor)
B) Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)
C) Glyburide ( Diabeta)
D) Tolbutamide (Orinase)

70- Diclofenac sodium (Voltaren) is most similar in action to

A) Buspirone (Buspar)
B) Dicyclomine ( Bentyl)
C) Retoprofen (Orudis)
D) Mecamylamine (Inversine)

14
 15

71- Which of the following is not progestin

A) Mestranol
B) Nor-ethindrone
C) Ethynordiol diacetate
D) Levonergestrel

i72- Agents useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma usually

A) Block both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
B) Stimulate alpha receptors but block beta receptor
C) Stimulate beta receptors but block alpha receptors
D) Stimulate alpha and/ or beta receptors

i73- All of the following are bacterial infections Except

A) Cholera
B) Plague
C) Rabies
D) Pertussis

i74- Which of the following statements conserning Bisacodyl is NOT true

A) Laxative action occurs with 6 hours after oral administration
B) Tablets should be administered with milk to avoid gastric irritation
C) Action of suppositories occurs within 1 hour after insertion
D) Tablets should be swallowed whole

i75- The local anaesthetic most commonly used in OTC burn remedies is
A) Benzocaine
B) butamben picrate
C) Lidocaine
D) Phenol
E) Tetracaine

15
 16

i76- Methylcellulose and similar agents are used in ophthalmic solutions to

A) Increase drop size

B) Increase ocular contact time
C) Reduce inflammation of the eye
D) Reduce drop size

i77- The most potent H2 receptor antagonist

A) Omeprazole
B) Sucralfate
C) Famotidine
D) Metoclopramide

i78- Which second generation cephalosporin is available as a parenteral

and oral medication
A) Cefuroxime
B) Cephalexin
C) Ceclor
D) Cefonicid

i79- Haloperidol is classified structurally as a

A) Benzodiazepine
B) Butyrophenone
C) Phenothiazine
D) Tricyclic
E) Malonylurea

i80- Chronic treatment of rheumatoid arthritis with indomethacin

requires care because indomethacin
A) Is an anti-inflammatory steroid
B) Cause headaches in some patiets
C) Inhibits the action of prostaglandins
D) Causes tachycardia

16
 17

81- The aminoglycoside most likely to remain a useful therapeutic agent in

the event of resistance to Gentamicin
A)Streptomycin
B) Neomycin
C) Amikacin
D) Cephalosporin

i82- Zollinger- Ellison syndrome is the result of adenomas in the

A) Gallbladder
B) Liver
C) Stomach
D) Pancreas
E) A,B&D

i83- In Examining the patient, the physician notes that the patient
complains polydepsia refers
A) Excessive Urination
B) Excessive appetite
C) Excessive Weight gain
D) Excessive thirst
E) B&C

i84- Which of the following should NOT be administered to a patient

being treated with narrow angle glaucoma
A) Dipiverine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Carbachol
D) Homatropine

i85- All of the following drugs are used to treat patients with open angle
glaucoma EXCEPT
A) Carbachol
B) Atropine
C) Dipiverine

17
 18

D) Betaxolol

i86- Which of the following antifungal agents is NOT effective against

Candida
A) Nystatin
B) Clotrimazole
C) Tolnaftate
D) Miconazole

i87- Which of the following sulphonylureas has the longest half life
A) Tolbutamide
B) Glibenclamide
C) Tolazamide
D) Chlorpropamide

i88- Side- effects of lsotretinoin(Roaccutane) include

A) Dermatological reactions
B) Depression
C) Teratogenicity
D) All of the above

i89- Which of the following is the shortest acting Mydriatic

A) Atropine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Tropicamide
D) A,B&C

i90- Tinea infections are caused by

A) Virus
B) Fungus
C) Gram-positive bacteria
D) None of the above

18
 19

91- Prolactin inhibiting factor is

A) Dopamine
B) Thyrotropin
C) Somatropin
D) Corticotropin

i92- Which of the following drugs is NOT associated with increased

prolactin secretion
A) Chlorpromazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Bromcriptine
D) Methyldopa

i93- The action of Digoxin is enhanced by a level of which of the following

ion
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Magnessium
D) Potassium

i94- Which of the following is the first diagnostic symptom of Digoxin

overdose
A) Anorexia, Nausea, Vomitting
B) Constipation
C) High body temperature
D) Bronchospasm

i95- Which of the following is a blood platelet adhesion inhibitor

A) Dipyridamole
B) Nitrofurantoin
C) Dextropropoxyphene
D) Imipramine

i96- Lidocaine is used as a

A) General anesthesia

19
 20

B) Antipyretic
C) Antiarrythmic
D) Pre- anaesthetic

i97- The principal toxic effect of Heparin is

A) Bronchospasm
B) Chills
C) Hair loss
D) Haemorrhage

i98- The two major properties of drugs that are usually modified by
complexation are
A)Odor and tast
B) Tast and solubility
C) Chemical structure and solubility
D)Chemical structure and stability
E) Stability and solubility

i99- PH is
A) Not temperature dependent
B) A measure of acidity
C) The same as POH
D) igh for acids
E) None of the a bove

i100- Sucralfate is used to trrat

A) Peptic ulcers
B) Carcinoma
C) Calcium depletion
D) Obesity

20
 21

‫الجابات الصحيحة للمجموعة الثامنة‬

i1-----------------------D

i2-----------------------C
i3-----------------------D
i4-----------------------D
i5-----------------------B
i6-----------------------A
i7-----------------------C
i8-----------------------B
i9-----------------------D
i10----------------------C

----------------------------------------------------------------

i11----------------------A
i12----------------------C
i13----------------------A
i14----------------------A
i15----------------------A
i16----------------------C
i17----------------------B
i18----------------------B
i19----------------------D
i20----------------------D

----------------------------------------------------------------

21
 22

i21-----------------------Bi22-----------------------A
i23-----------------------B
i24-----------------------B
i25-----------------------A
i26-----------------------C
i27-----------------------A
i28-----------------------A
i29-----------------------B
i30-----------------------C

----------------------------------------------------------------

i31-----------------------Ci32-----------------------D
i33-----------------------B
i34-----------------------B
i35-----------------------B
i36-----------------------B
i37-----------------------C
i38-----------------------B
i39-----------------------C
i40-----------------------B

----------------------------------------------------------------

i41-----------------------Di42-----------------------B
i43-----------------------B
i44-----------------------A
i45-----------------------D
i46-----------------------C
i47-----------------------B
i48-----------------------B
i49-----------------------D
I50-----------------------D

22
 23

II
---------------------------------------------------------------

I51-----------------------D
i52-----------------------C
i53-----------------------D
i54-----------------------A
i55-----------------------A
i56-----------------------A
i57-----------------------A
i58-----------------------D
i59-----------------------B
i60-----------------------B

----------------------------------------------------------------
i61-----------------------C

i62-----------------------C
i63-----------------------Bi64-----------------------B
i65-----------------------B
i66-----------------------D
i67-----------------------B
i68-----------------------C
i69-----------------------B
i70-----------------------C

----------------------------------------------------------------

i71-----------------------A

23
 24

i72-----------------------D
i73-----------------------Ci74-----------------------B
i75-----------------------A
i76-----------------------B
i77-----------------------C
i78-----------------------B
i79-----------------------B
i80-----------------------C

----------------------------------------------------------------

i81-----------------------C
i82-----------------------Ci83-----------------------D
i84-----------------------D
i85-----------------------B
i86-----------------------C
i87-----------------------D
i88-----------------------C
i89-----------------------A
i90-----------------------B

----------------------------------------------------------------

i91-----------------------A
i92-----------------------Ci93-----------------------B
i94-----------------------A
i95-----------------------A
i96-----------------------C

24
 25

i97-----------------------D
i98-----------------------E
i99-----------------------B
i100----------------------A

25