CCNA1 v5.

1 Chapter 7 Exam Answers

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1. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

32*

64

128

256

2. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

subnet portion

network portion*

logical portion

host portion*

physical portion

broadcast portion

3. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

network address

multicast address

host address*

broadcast address

4. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to uniquely identify a host on a network

to identify whether the address is public or private

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs*

to mask the IP address to outsiders

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

255.255.255.248

255.255.224.0

255.255.240.0*

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.192
6. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?

limited broadcast

multicast

directed broadcast*

unicast

7. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.*

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.*

The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.*

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

8. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1*

172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.16.4.4*

192.168.5.5*

224.6.6.6

9. Which two IPv4 to IPv6 transition techniques manage the interconnection of IPv6 domains? (Choose two.)

trunking

dual stack*

encapsulation

tunneling*

multiplexing

10. Which of these addresses is the shortest abbreviation for the IP address:

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB : 0000 : 0000 : 0057?

3FFE : 1044 :: AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 :: 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : AB :: 57*

3FFE : 1044 : 0 : 0 : 00AB :: 0057

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 57

3FFE : 1044 : 0000 : 0000 : 00AB :: 0057

11. What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

global unicast

link-local*

loopback

unique local

12. What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

multicast

loopback*

link-local*

anycast

broadcast

13. What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an
ISP*

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site*

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network*

14. An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of
Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address
assignment method should be configured?

SLAAC

stateless DHCPv6*

stateful DHCPv6

RA and EUI-64

15. Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses
to a host?
ARPv6

DHCPv6

ICMPv6*

UDP

16. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source*

the destination device is reachable through the network*

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

17. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

18. What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

The host is cabled properly.

The default gateway address is correctly configured.

All hosts on the local link are available.

The link-local address is correctly configured.

IP is properly installed on the host.*

19. A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the
destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

when the RTT value reaches zero

when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero*

when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

20. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
TTL field

CRC field

Hop Limit field*

Time Exceeded field

21. Fill in the blank.

The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is __149__ .

22. Fill in the blank.

The binary equivalent of the decimal number 232 is __11101000__.

23. Fill in the blank.

What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F? __63__

24. Match each description with an appropriate IP address. (Not all options are used.

169.254.1.5 -> a link-local address

192.0.2.123 -> a TEST-NET address
240.2.6.255 -> an experimental address
172.19.20.5 -> a private address
127.0.0.1 -> a loopback address

CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2020 (v5.0.3+v6.0) – Connecting Networks

CCNA 4 Final Exam Answers 2020 (v5.0.3+v6.0) – Connecting Networks

 06/02/2016  Last Updated on 13/10/2020  CCNA 4 Exam Answers, CCNA v6  42 Comments

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Version 6.0:

1. Which statement best describes a WAN?

 A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*

 A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.

 WAN is another name for the Internet.

 A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

2. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two
important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose
two.)

 addressing

 bandwidth
  privacy*

 security*

 WAN technology

3. What is a disadvafntage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

 higher cost

 fixed capacity

 less flexibility

 higher latency*

4. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the
private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)

 cable

 leased line*

 Ethernet WAN*

 municipal Wi-Fi

 digital subscriber line

5. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

 It supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

 It enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.

 It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*

 It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

6. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as
IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

 ISDN

 MPLS*

 Frame Relay

 Ethernet WAN

7. Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users?
(Choose two.)

 cable

 DSL

 Frame Relay*

 MetroE*

 VPN

8. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to
the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed
by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?
  VPN gateway

 VPN appliance

 VPN concentrator

 VPN client software*

9. How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

 2

 12

 24*

 28

10. What function is provided by Multilink PPP?

 spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links*

 dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

 enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

 creating one logical link between two LAN switches via the use of multiple physical links

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2.
However, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what
is the cause of the problem?

 The usernames do not match each other.

 The usernames do not match the host names.*

 The passwords for CHAP should be in lowercase.

 The username r1 should be configured on the router R1 and the username r2 should be configured on the
router R2.
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial
interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

 application

 transport

 network

 data link*

 physical

13. What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?

 DSL upload and download speeds are always the same.

 DSL is faster.

 DSL has no distance limitations.

 DSL is not a shared medium.*

14. Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains
and at sea?

 Wi-Fi Mesh

 mobile broadband

 WiMax

 satellite*

15. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

 dialup analog modem

 dialup ISDN modem

 DSL*

 T1
16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show ip interface brief
command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?

 that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address

 that the Dialer1 interface is up and up

 that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router*

 that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem

17. Which technology creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN
configuration?

 ARP

 NHRP*

 NAT

 IPsec

18. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

 to provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites

 to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites*

 to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites

 to provide fixed flow-control mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?

 static routing

 IGP routing protocols*

 EGP routing protocols

 default routing

20. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with
wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255

 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254

 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*

 172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

21. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the
Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should
have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:

deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0

Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?
  Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

 Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0

Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

 Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

 Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1

Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

 Athena(config)# interface fa0/0

Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*

22. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

 They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.*

 They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

 They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

 They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

23. In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any
nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns?

 to allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution*

 to allow forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets

 to allow automatic address configuration

 to allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets

24. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not
want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could
be used for this situation?

 only a standard ACL

 a standard or extended ACL

 only an extended ACL

  an extended, named, or numbered ACL

 only a named ACL*

25. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the
inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

 HTTPS packets to PC1

 ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*

 packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

 neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

26. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

 Configure SSH.*

 Configure Telnet.

 Configure 802.1x.

 Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

27. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

 DTP*

 STP

 CDP

 ARP

28. Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?

 agent

 supplicant

 authenticator*

 authentication server
29. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

 VTP

 LLDP

 HSRP

 RADIUS*

 TACACS+*

30. In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?

 to define the source traffic that is allowed to create a VPN tunnel

 to define the type of traffic that is allowed on the management network

 to specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent*

 to define the protocols allowed to be used for authentication and encryption

31. Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on
switch ACSw1?

 a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

 a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

 a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5*

 a manager who is using authPriv

32. Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to
perform traffic analysis?

 CSA

 HIPS

 SPAN*

 VLAN

33. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)

 Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.

 Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.*

 Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.*

 Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.

 Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.

34. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other
queues are sent?

 CBWFQ
  FIFO

 LLQ*

 FCFS

35. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion
avoidance technique is used?

 traffic shaping*

 weighted random early detection

 classification and marking

 traffic policing

36. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

 CoS*

 ToS

 DSCP

 IP precedence

37. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

 A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

 A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*

 A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

 A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

38. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates
with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication
does this scenario represent?

 machine-to-people

 machine-to-machine*

 people-to-people

 people-to-machine

39. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is
generated?

 data analytics

 fog computing*
  network connectivity

 application enhancement platform

40. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and
networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

 PaaS

 SaaS

 ITaaS

 IaaS*

41. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The
data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual
discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in
this situation?

 BYOD

 virtualization*

 maintaining communication integrity

 online collaboration

42. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?

 the ARP table*

 the routing table

 the FIB

 the DSP

43. What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network 128.165.216.0/23?

 0.0.0.255

 0.0.1.254

 0.0.1.255*

 0.0.1.0

 0.0.0.254

44. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose
two.)

 encryption*

 authentication*

 authorization with community string priority

 ACL management filtering

 bulk MIB objects retrieval

45. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

 the Nexus 9000 switch

  the Application Network Profile endpoints

 the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*

 the hypervisor

46. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

 device type

 OS/IOS version

 connection type*

 interface identifier*

 cable specification

 cable type and identifier

47. Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

 NAT translation statistics

 device CPU and memory utilization

 latency, jitter, and packet loss*

 the number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

48. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple
network locations?

 LLDP

 IP SLA*

 syslog

 SPAN

49. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are
leaving a particular host?

 protocol analyzer*

 baselining tool

 knowledge base

 CiscoView
50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network
is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

 The serial interface on Router2 is down.

 The OSPF process is not running on Router2.

 The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.

 There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*

51. Refer to the exhibit. A user turns on a PC after it is serviced and calls the help desk to report that the PC seems
unable to reach the Internet. The technician asks the user to issue the arp –a and ipconfig commands. Based on
the output, what are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

 The IP configuration is incorrect.*

 The network cable is unplugged.

  The DNS server address is not configured.

 The subnet mask is configured incorrectly.

 The default gateway device cannot be contacted.*

52. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

 when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

 when the network will span multiple buildings

 when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

 when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

52. Match QoS techniques with the description. (Not all options are used.)

 Excess traffic is retained in a queue and scheduled for later transmission over increments of time –> traffic
shaping

 Excess traffic is dropped when the traffic rate reaches a preconfigured maximum –> traffic policing

 This determines the class of traffic to which frames belong –> classification

 A value is added to a packer header –> marking

53. What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

 DNS servers
  satellite service*

 web hosting service

 telephone company*

 Internet search engine service

54. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

 access layer switch

 broadband modem *

 core switch

 CSU/DSU *

 distribution layer router

55. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

 It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.

 It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.*

 It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.

 It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.

56. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

 less efficient*

 lacks SVC support

 does not scale well to provide high speed WAN connections

 requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs

57. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

 cable

 DSL

 Frame Relay

 MPLS*

 VSAT

58. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses.
Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

 private infrastructure

 public infrastructure*

 dedicated

 circuit-switched

 cellular*

59. What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?
  CMTS

 DSLAM*

 CSU/DSU

 access server

60. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection
to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

 dial-up connection

 leased line connection

 site-to-site VPN over the Internet

 remote access VPN over the Internet*

61. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

 2

 12

 24*

 28

62. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the
default and the router is a Cisco router?

 Ethernet

 Frame Relay

 HDLC*

 PPP

63. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

 identifying fault conditions for the PPP link

 providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link

 bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down*

 enhancing security by providing callback over PPP

 negotiating options for the IP protocol*

 managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link

64. What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on
Cisco router?

 the link LCP and NCP status

 the queuing type on the link

 the IP addresses of the link interfaces

 the serial interfaces participating in the multilink*

65. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

 Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

 Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

 Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

 Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.*

66. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?

 The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

 The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

 The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

 The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

67. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

 Power is always provided.

 Less energy is consumed.

 Server provisioning is faster.

 Hardware does not have to be identical.*

68. Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by
distance?

 cable*

 DSL

 WiMax

 ADSL

69. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

 PPPoE*

 CHAP

 ADSL

 LTE

70. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by
an SDN controller?

 control plane*

 data plane

 security

 application policies

71. What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to
the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted

C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1
C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer2

 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1

 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted

C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer

 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1

192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted
C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1
C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1

72. What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

 A DMVPN will use an encrypted session and does not require IPsec.

 A DMVPN uses a Layer 3 protocol, NHRP, to dynamically establish tunnels.

 A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.*

 A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each support a single VPN tunnel.

73. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation
tunneling?

 a mobile user who connects to a router ata central site

 a branch office that connects securely to a central site

  a mobile user who connects to a SOHO site

 a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption*

74. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use
EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

 2

 3

 4*

 5

75. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

 They are configured in the interface configuration mode.

 They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.*

 They can be created with a number but not with a name.

 They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

76. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose
three.)

 access list number between 1 and 99

 access list number between 100 and 199*

 default gateway address and wildcard mask

 destination address and wildcard mask*

 source address and wildcard mask*

 source subnet mask and wildcard mask

 destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

77. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The
administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the
error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host
172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

 Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*

 Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

 Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

 Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

78. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

 deny ip any any

 deny ipv6 any any*

 permit ipv6 any any

 deny icmp any any

 permit icmp any any nd-ns*

 permit icmp any any nd-na*

79. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two
commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the
network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

 access-class 5 in*

 access-list 5 deny any

 access-list standard VTY

 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

 access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

 ip access-group 5 out

 ip access-group 5 in

80. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is
automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

 permit ip any any

 permit ip any host ip_address

 permit icmp any any nd-na*

 deny ip any any

81. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

 so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

  so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

 so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts*

 so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

82. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

 fog computing*

 wearable technologies

 data analytics*

 robot guides

 cyber and physical security*

 smart bandages

83. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

 port security*

 DHCP snooping

 IP source guard

 Dynamic ARP Inspection

84. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

 SNMP set messages

 SNMP trap messages*

 SNMP get messages

 SNMP community strings

85. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

 packet encryption

 message integrity

 community strings*

 source validationfeatures

86. What two are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

 bulk MIB objects retrieval

 encryption*

 authorization with community string priority

 authentication*

 ACL management filtering

87. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

 FIFO

 CBWFQ*
  WFQ

 FCFS

88. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

 Type of Service field

 Traffic Class field

 Priority field*

 Version field

89. What is an example of cloud computing?

 a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things

 a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources*

 a network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area

 an architectural style of the World Wide Web

90. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

 a host operating system

 a server running VMware Fusion

 a management console*

 a dedicated VLAN

91. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However,
the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

 Gather symptoms.

 Isolate the problem.

 Restore the previous configuration.*

 Implement the next possible corrective action.

92. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message
indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the
web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

 top-down

 bottom-up

 substitution

 divide-and-conquer*

93. What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

 to detect potential network attacks

 to provide network connectivity for customers

 to adjust network device configurations to avoid congestion

 to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible*

94. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

 level 0*

 level 1

 level 4

 level 7

95. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?

 A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.

 There are too many invalid frames transmitted in the network.

 Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.*

 A web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can be reached via its IP address.

96. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and
H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

 Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.

 Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.

 The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.

 Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

 Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.

97. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are
correct? (Choose two.)
  There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

 The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

 There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

 The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.

 This host does not have a default gateway configured.

98. Fill in the blanks. Use dotted decimal format.

The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is 0.0.1.255

99. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)
100. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)
101. What is a primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services that it uses?

 The company must subscribe to an external WAN service provider.*

 The company has direct control over its WAN links but not over its LAN.

 Each LAN has a specified demarcation point to clearly separate access layer and distribution layer
equipment.

 The LAN may use a number of different network access layer standards whereas the WAN will use only one
standard.

102. To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose two.)

 network layer

 session layer

 physical layer*

 transport layer

 data link layer*

 presentation layer

103. Which two technologies are private WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

 cable

 Frame Relay*

 DSL

 ATM*

 cellular

104. Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload based on labels?

 PSTN

 DSL

 MPLS*
  T1/E1

105. What technology can be used to create a private WAN via satellite communications?

 VPN

 3G/4G cellular

 dialup

 VSAT*

 WiMAX

106. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are
multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?

 ISDN

 DSL*

 dialup

 cable

107. How many DS0 channels are bounded to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line?

 2

 12

 24*

 28

108. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what
is the most likely cause?

 interface reset

 unplugged cable

 improper cable type

 PPP issue*
109. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?

 Ethernet

 PPPoE

 HDLC*

 PP

110. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

 PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*

 PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

 PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

 PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*

 PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*

111. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead
to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

 establishes identities with a two-way handshake

 uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities*

 control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events

 transmits login information in encrypted format*

 uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks*

 makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session

112. Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation technology?

 LTE*

 GSM

 CDMA

 UMTS

113. A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download
speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be
appropriate?

 satellite
  DSL

 WiMax

 cable*

114. Which technology can ISPs use to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with
PPPoE?

 PAP

 CHAP*

 HDLC

 Frame

 Relay

115. What are the three core components of the Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose three.)

 Application Network Profile*

 Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*

 Cisco Nexus Switches*

 Microsoft hypervisor

 Cisco Information Server

 Virtual Security Gateway

116. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

 The VPN connection is not statically defined.

 VPN client software is installed on each host.

 Internal hosts send normal, unencapsulated packets.*

 Individual hosts can enable and disable the VPN connection.

117. What are three features of a GRE tunnel? (Choose three.)

 creates nonsecure tunnels between remote sites*

 transports multiple Layer 3 protocols*

 creates additional packet overhead*

 uses RSA signatures to authenticate peeers

 provides encryption to keep VPN traffic confidential

 supports hosts as GRE tunnel endpoints by installing Cisco VPN client software
118. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router
R1? (Choose two.)

 R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.129*

 R1(config-if)# tunnel source 172.16.2.1

 R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.130*

 R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 172.16.2.2

 R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.130

 R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.129

119. What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

 TCP connections*

 area numbers

 group identification numbers

 hellos

120. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access
to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal
employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which
extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)
  access-list 105 permit ip host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 permit ip any anyaccess-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.54.5 any eq www
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21

 access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20

access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any*

 R2(config)# interface gi0/0

R2(config-if)# ip access-group 105 in

 R1(config)# interface gi0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out*

 R1(config)# interface s0/0/0

R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

121. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?

 The ACL is missing the deny ip any any ACE.

 Because there are no matches for line 10, the ACL is not working.

 The ACL is only monitoring traffic destined for 10.23.77.101 from three specific hosts.

 The router has not had any Telnet packets from 10.35.80.22 that are destined for 10.23.77.101.*

122. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

 named standard

 named extended*

 numbered standard

 numbered extended

123. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network
2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

 permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25*

 permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

 permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

 permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

124. Refer to the exhibit. Considering how packets are processed on a router that is configured with ACLs, what is
the correct order of the statements?

 C-B-A-D

 A-B-C-D

 C-B-D-A*

 B-A-D-C

 D-A-C-B

125. Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

 Virtual PC

 VMware Fusion

 VMware ESX/ESXi*

 Oracle VM VirtualBox

 Microsoft Hyper-V 2012*

126. How can DHCP spoofing attacks be mitigated?

 by disabling DTP negotiations on nontrunking ports

 by implementing DHCP snooping on trusted ports*

 by implementing port security

 by the application of the ip verify source command to untrusted ports

127. What action can a network administrator take to help mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks?

 Disable VTP.

 Configure all switch ports to be members of VLAN 1.

 Disable automatic trunking negotiation.*

 Enable PortFast on all switch ports.

128. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified
events?

 GET request

 SET request
  GET response

 Trap*

129. Refer to the exhibit. A SNMP manager is using the community string of snmpenable and is configured with
the IP address 172.16.10.1. The SNMP manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent.
What could be the problem?

 The SNMP agent is not configured for read-only access.

 The community of snmpenable2 is incorrectly configured on the SNMP agent.

 The ACL is not permitting access by the SNMP manager.*

 The incorrect community string is configured on the SNMP manager.

130. Refer to the exhibit. Which SNMP authentication password must be used by the member of the ADMIN group
that is configured on router R1?

 cisco54321

 cisco98765

 cisco123456*

 cisco654321
131. A network administrator has noticed an unusual amount of traffic being received on a switch port that is
connected to a college classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator use to make the suspicious traffic
available for analysis at the college data center?

 RSPAN*

 TACACS+

 802.1X

 DHCP snooping

 SNMP

132. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to
another switch port for analysis?

 802.1

 XSNMP

 SPAN*

 syslog

133. Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion
the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this
condition?

 buffering

 latency

 queuing

 jitter*

134. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them
outbound in a steady stream?

 digital

 signal

 processor

 playout delay buffer*

 voice codecWFQ

135. Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

 TCP

 UDP*

 IP

 ICMP

136. A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated
router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability
on the company intranet?

 Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.*
  Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

 Interview departmental administrative assistants to determine if web pages are loading more quickly.

 Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in
previous weeks.

137. In which stage of the troubleshooting process would ownership be researched and documented?

 Gather symptoms.*

 Implement corrective action.

 Isolate the problem.

 Update the user and document the problem.

138. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a
less-experienced network administrator?

 a less-structured approach based on an educated guess*

 an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences

 a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model
until the cause of the problem is identified

 an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model
until the cause of the problem has been identified

139. A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance
between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this analysis?

 show ip route

 showip protocols

 show ip sla statistics*

 show monitor

140. Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular
device?

 NMS tool

 knowledge base

 baselining tool

 protocol analyzer*

141. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

 R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*

 R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.

 R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.

 The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*

142. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet
connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm.
What is a possible cause of this problem?

 The router has an incorrect gateway.

 Host A has an overlapping network address.

 Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.

 Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.

 NAT is required for the host A network.*

143. Match the operation to the appropriate QoS model.
144. Match the cloud model with the description.
145. Match QoS techniques with the description. (Not all options are used.)

 traffic policing –> Excess traffic is dropped when the traffic rate reaches a preconfigured maximum.

 marking –> A value is added to a packet header.

 traffic shaping –> Excess traffic is retained in a queue and scheduled for later transmission over increments
of time.

 classification –> This determines the class of traffic to which frames belong.

 empty –> TCP traffic is throttled to prevent tail drop.

Version 5:

146. Which two factors allow businesses to safely communicate and perform transactions using the Internet?
(Choose two.)

 security *

 addressing

 privacy *

 WAN technology

 bandwidth

147. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

 users are on a shared medium

  uses RF signal transmission

 local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*

 physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

 user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*

148. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

 LCP tests the quality of the link.*

 LCP manages compression on the link.*

 Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.

 NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.

 With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

149. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250
users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator
use to accomplish this task?

 classful subnetting

 variable length subnet masks

 classless interdomain routing

 port-based Network Address Translation*

150. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network.
After the configuration is completed, users are unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?

 The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.

 The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.

 The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.

 The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*

151. What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

 The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*

 The upload rate is faster than the download rate.*

 The download and upload rates are the same.

 The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.

152. A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which
command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of
addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

 R2# show ip nat statistics*

 R2# show ip nat translations

 R2# show running-config

 R2# clear ip nat translation

153. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

 Telnet

 IPsec*

 HTTP

 ICMP

 DNS

154. Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global
address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

 10.0.0.1
  172.16.0.1

 192.168.0.1

 192.168.0.200

 209.165.200.225*

155. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

 PAT

 dynamic NAT

 NAT overload

 port forwarding*

156. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

 It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

 It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

 It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4
addresses.*

 It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on
public IPv4 networks.

157. What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

 QoS support using the IP precedence field

 one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*

 integrated encryption

 mature technology*

 reasonable cost*

 seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

158. The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which
three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

 bandwidth kilobits*

 encapsulation frame-relay

 frame-relay interface-dlci dlci*

 frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci

 frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast

 ip address ip-address mask*

 no shutdown

159. Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

 show frame-relay pvc*

  show frame-relay lmi

 show interfaces

 show frame-relay map

160. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output.
What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame
Relay service provider?

 The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0.

 The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*

 The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.

 The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.

161. What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over
their CIR for short periods of time?

 The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.

 The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times
when unused bandwidth is available.*

 Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.

 BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.

162. Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

 DSL

 fiber-to-the-home*

 cable

 WiMax

163. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

 dialup analog modem

 dialup ISDN modem

 DSL*

 T1

164. Why is it useful to categorize networks by size when discussing network design?
  Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the
core layer.

 Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-
tier hierarchical network design.

 A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices
is known.

 The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

165. A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

 single-homed

 multihomed

 dual-multihomed

 dual-homed*

166. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?

 failure isolation*

 increased network access time

 coarse security control

 fewer required physical resources

167. Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to
effectively create, collaborate, and interact with information?

 access-distribution

 services

 data center*

 enterprise edge

168. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the
connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources.
To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on
the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will
provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

 arp -a

 ipconfig*

 nslookup*

 ping*

 telnet

 tracert

 netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

169. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely
to affect critical network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the
solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?
  change-control procedures*

 one of the layered troubleshooting approaches

 knowledge base guidelines

 syslog messages and reports

170. Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch?
(Choose two.)

 TDR

 digital multimeter

 NAM*

 portable network analyzer*

 DTX cable analyzer

171. Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

 The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.

 The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.

 The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*

 The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.

172. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The
following commands were issued:
R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3
Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

 The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

 The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.

 There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*

  The snmp-server location command is missing.

173. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

 terminal line

 syslog server

 console line*

 workstation

174. In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

 NMS

 syslog server

 NetFlow collector*

 SNMP agent

175. Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose
three.)

 bandwidth regulation

 accounting*

 billing*

 quality of service

 error correction

 network monitoring*

176. Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

 3DES*

 AES

 RSA

 SHA-1

177. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two
corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method
of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

 Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL

 Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN

 Frame Relay

 remote access VPN using IPsec

 site-to-site VPN*
178. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

 10.1.1.1

 10.1.1.2

 209.165.202.133*

 209.165.202.134

179. What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

 GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*

 By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*

 Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.*

 GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified.

 GRE creates additional overhead for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*

 GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

180. Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

 Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.

 End users are not aware that VPNs exists.

 A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.

 Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*

 Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*

181. Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

 public infrastructure

 private infrastructure*

 dedicated

 Internet

 packet-switched*
182. What term is used to identify the point where the customer network ends and the service provider network
begins?

 CSU/DSU

 the central office

 the local loop

 the demarcation point*

183. Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

 Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*

 Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.

 Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data
transmission.

 Depending on the configured Layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use
of time slots.

 Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved
slices of time.*

184. A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms
connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System
logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to
resolve this network outage?

 The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.

 The system administrator in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.

 The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigure the DHCP server.

 The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of
demarcation.*

185. Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the HQ router? (Choose
three.)

 Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*

 Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle.

 Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.

 Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

  Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.

 Create and configure the multilink interface.*

186. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

 VPN client software must be installed.

 A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.

 A web browser must be installed on the host.*

 The host must be connected to a wired network.

187. What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

 interface errors

 CPU usage

 memory usage

 traffic statistics*

188. What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

 fixed capacity

 higher latency*

 less flexibility

 higher cost

189. Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion control? (Choose three.)

 the FECN bit*

 the BECN bit*

 the C/R bit

 the 10-bit DLCI

 the Extended Address field

 the DE bit*

190. Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

 The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.

 Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*

 Encryption and decryption use a different key.*

 A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.

 AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.

191. What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)

 incorrect interface clock rates

 late collisions and jabber

 framing errors*
  electromagnetic interface

 encapsulation errors*

192. Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?

 802.5

 802.11

 802.16*

 802.3

193. Place the options in the following order:

Outside global*
– not scored –
Outside local*
Inside global*
– not scored –
Inside local*

194. What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send critical logging events?

 syslog server*

 virtual terminal

 console port*

 auxiliary port

195. What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?

 remote access*

 public

 site-to-site*

 private

196. Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose

three.)

 Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be monitored.

 Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or lower.*

 Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the destination IP address.*

 The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface.*

 Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
  For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be sent to the server.

197. Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support teleworker remote connections?
(Choose two.)

 CMTS

 VPN*

 CDMA*

 IPsec*

 DOCSIS

198. How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?

 8

 32

 24*

 16

199. What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?

 It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.

 It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.

 It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*

 It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.*

200. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time
periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part
of a normal network behavior?

 network configuration files

 syslog records and messages

 debug output and packet captures

 the network performance baseline*

201. Which structured engineering desing principle ensures that the network reamins available even under
abnormal conditions?

 resiliency*

 hierarchy

 flexibility

 modularity

202. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely
to affect critical network infrastruture components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution
to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

 suslog messages and reports

 one of the layered troubleshooting approaches

  change-control procedures*

 knowledge base guidelines

203. What is a Frame Relay feauture that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?

 FECN

 Inverse ARP*

 ARP

 BECN

204. A small remote office needs to connect to headquarters through a secure IPsec VPN connection. The
company is implementing the Cisco Easy VPN solution. Which Cisco Easy VPN component needs to be added on
the Cisco router at the remote office?

 Cisco AnyConnect

 Cisco Easy VPN Server*

 Cisco Easy VPN Remote

 Cisco VPN Client

205. Which scenario would require the use of static NAT?

 when an internal corporate web server needs to be accessed from a home network*

 when there are more internal private IP addresses than available public IP addresses

 when all public IP addresses have been exhausted

 when an IPv4 site connects to an IPv6 site

206. An organization has purchased a Frame Relay service from a provider. The service agreement specifies that
the access rate is 512 kbps, the CIR is 384 kbps, and the Bc is 32 kbps. What will happen when the customer sends
a short burst of frames above 450 kbps?

 The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely forwarded.

 The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are most likely forwarded.

 The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 0 and are allowed to pass.

 The frames are marked with the DE bit set to 1 and are most likely dropped.*

207. What is a Frame Relay feature that supports the IP address-to-DLCI dynamic mapping?

 Inverse ARP*

 ARP

 BECN

 FECN

208. An administrator wants to configure a router so that users on the outside network can only establish HTTP
connections to the internal web site by navigating to http://www.netacad.com:8888. Which feature would the
administrator configure to accomplish this?

 port forwarding*

 dynamic NAT
  NAT overload

 static NAT

 PAT

209. Which two components are needed to provide a DSL connection to a SOHO? (Choose two.)

 PPPoE enabled switch

 CMTS

 transceiver*

 CM

 DSLAM*

210. A network engineer is troubleshooting an unsuccessful PPP multilink connection between two routers. That
multilink interface has been created and assigned a number, the interface has been enabled for multilink PPP, and
the interface has been assigned a multilink group number that matches the group assigned to the member
physical serial interfaces. The physical serial interfaces have also been enabled for PPP multilink. Which additional
command should to be issued on the multilink interface?

 clock rate 4000000 *

 encapsulation ppp

 ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.252

 no ip address

211. What is the international standard defining cable-related technologies?

 WiMax

 DOCSIS*

 ADSL

 PPPoE

212. Which three statements describe characteristics of converging corporate network architecture?

 Server applications are housed within the phisical corporate

 network.*

 Users connect their own devices to the corporate network.*

 Data types include data, and video.*

 Users have to use company-owned computers.

 Networks are borderless.

213. Which inefficient feature of time-division multiplexing does statistical TDM overcome?

 the unused high speed time slots*

 the buffering of data during peak periods

 the use of channel identifiers

 the use of a multiplexer at the transmitter and receiver

214. What are three characteristics of SSL VPNs?

  authentication can be one way*

 authentication uses shared secret or digital cerificates*

 an ssl vpn supports web enable applications, e-mail and file sharing*

 connecting may challeenge nontechnical users

 encryption requires key lengths from 40 bits to 256 bits

 an ssl vpn requires specific configuration of PCs to connect

215. A network engineer is designing an IPsec VPN between Cisco routers for a national bank. Which algorithm
assures the highest level of confidentiality for data crossing the VPN?

 256bit AES*

 512 bit RSA

 SHA-1

 3DES

216. By the use of sequence numbers, which function of the IPsec security services prevents spoofing by verifying
that each packet is non-duplicated and unique?

 anti-replay protection*

 confidentiality

 data integrity

 authentication

217. A small law firm wants to connect to the Internet at relatively high speed but with low cost. In addition, the
firm prefers that the connection be through a dedicated link to the service provider. Which connection type
should be selected?

 leased line*

 ISDN

 cable

 DSL

218. How can an administrator configure a Cisco Easy VPN Server to enable the company to manage many remote
VPN connections efficiently?

 by updating the client software in regular intervals

 by preconfiguring IPsec parameters when deploying the client solution

 by provisioning dedicated bandwidth for VPN connections

 by pushing the IPsec security policies to the clients when establishing the tunnel*

219. How does QoS improve the effectiveness of teleworking?

 It provides wireless data transmission over large urban areas.

 It provides high speed connections over copper wires.

 It provides better service for VoIP and video conferencing applications.*

 It provides authentication, accounting, and link management features for ISPs.

220. Which two networking technologies enable businesses to use the Internet, instead of an enterprise WAN, to
securely interconnect their distributed networks? (Choose two.)

 DSL

 remote LANs

 remote access VPNs*

 site-to-site VPNs*

 Frame Relay

221. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)

 They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.*

 They reduce the load on network and agent resources.*

 They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.

 They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.

 They limit access for management systems only.

New Questions (v6.0):

222. A network engineer has issued the show interfaces serial 0/0/0 command on a router to examine the open
NCPs on a PPP link to another router. The command output displays that the encapsulation is PPP and that the
LCP is open. However, the IPV6CP NCP is not shown as open. What does the engineer need to configure to open
the IPV6CP NCP on the link?

 Configure an IPv6 address on each interface on the link.*

 Configure PPP multilink interfaces on each router.

 Issue the compress predictor command on each interface on the link.

 Configure CHAP authentication on each router.

223. What address translation is performed by static NAT?

 An inside local address is translated to a specified inside global address*

 An inside local address is translated to a specified outside local address

 An inside local address is translated to a specified outside global address

 An outside local address is translated to a specified outside global address

224. What are two advantages of using IPv4 NAT? (Choose two.)

 provides consistent traceability when it is necessary to troubleshoot internal corporate network problems

 conserves public IP addresses*

 provides consistency when an internal corporate IP addressing scheme is being designed*

 allows maintaining end-to-end addressing

 increases network performance

225. Which network design module would not commonly connect to the service provider edge?

 Remote Access and VPN **

 E-Commerce
  Enterprise Branch

 WAN Site-to-site VPN

226. Whichtwo types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found ona LAN?(Choose two.)

 Distribution layer router

 Broadband modem*

 Core switch

 Access layer switch

 CSU/DSU*

227. What is a plausible reason that an employee would become a teleworker for a company?

 to become employed without having to share files or resourcesto

 become employed in a traditional workplace

 to keep employment during a time of rehabilitation

 to keep employment without having to adhere to company regulations*

228. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two
important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose
two.)

 WAN technology

 bandwidth

 security*

 privacy

 addressing*

229. A technician at a remote location is troubleshooting a router and has emailed partial debug command output
to a network engineer at the central office. The message that is received by the engineer only contains a number
of LCP messages that relate to a serial interface. Which WAN protocol is being used on the link?

 HDLC

 VPN

 Frame Relay

 PPP*

230. What is a feature of physical point-to-point WAN links?

 Point-to-point links are generally the least expensive type of WAN access.

 The MAC address is not used in the address field of the point-to-point frame.*

 WAN operations focus primarily on the network layer (OSI Layer 3).

 Point-to-point WAN services are circuit switched.

231. Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address for routing over the PPP link?

 CHAP

 LCP
  PAP

 IPCP*

232. Which two statements describe benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

 NAT simplifies troubleshooting by removing the need for end-to-end traceability.

 NAT can provide application port-level multiplexing in order to conserve public IP addresses.*

 NAT allows for easy readdressing when changing ISPs.

 NAT makes tunneling protocols like IPsec more efficient by modifying the addresses in the headers.

 NAT provides stateful packet filtering features similar to a firewall.*

 NAT increases router performance by reducing the number of routes needed in the routing table.

233. What is one drawback to using the top-down method of troubleshooting?

 trying to decide which device to check first

 the amount of paperwork that is generated

 the need to check every device and interface on the network and document them

 the need to check every possible application problem and document it*

234. What are three functions provided by syslog service? (Choose three.)

 to specify the destination of captured messages *

 to provide traffic analysis

 to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting *

 to select the type of logging information that is captured *

 to periodically poll agents for data

 to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

235. Which two types of equipment are needed to send digital modem signals upstream and downstream on a
cable system? (Choose two.)

 DSLAM

 CMTS*

 transceiver

 microfilter

 cable modem*

236. What two advantages are associated with Frame Relay WAN technology when compared with leased lines?
(Choose two.)

 Dedicated data path between sites

 Fixed and dedicated capacity

 Flexibility*

 Globally unique DLCI for each site

 Cost effectieness*
237. Which statement describes an advantage of deploying the Cisco SSL VPN solution rather than the Cisco Easy
VPN solution?

 It provides a stronger authentication mechanism.

 It provides more network service access.

 It provides a stronger encryption algorithm.

 It supports clientless remote access.

CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam Answer 2016 v5.1

1. Which characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model allows carrying packets for multiple types of
communications among many hosts?

 the de-encapsulation of headers from lower layers

 the selection of paths for and direct packets toward the destination

 the ability to operate without regard to the data that is carried in each packet

 the ability to manage the data transport between processes running on hosts

2. What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

 does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection

 operates independently of the network media

 retransmits packets if errors occur

 re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

 guarantees delivery of packets

3. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected
and retransmitted if necessary?

 Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.

 Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can request
retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.

 Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented transport

services are not available.

 The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.

4. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

 Time-to-Live

 Sequence Number

 Acknowledgment Number

 Differentiated Services

5. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

 Protocol

 Identification

 Version
  Differentiated Services

6. What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

 smaller-sized header

 little requirement for processing checksums

 smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses

 efficient packet handling

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which route from the PC1 routing table will be used to reach PC2?

CCNA1 Chapter 6 v5.1 001

 .

CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 1

 .

CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 2

 .
CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 3

 .

CCNA1 Chapter 6 Exam 001 opt 4

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface
will R1 forward the packet?

CCNA1 Chapter 6 v5.1 002

 FastEthernet0/0

 FastEthernet0/1

 Serial0/0/0

 Serial0/0/1

9. What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

 static route

 default route

 directly connected route

 dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

10. What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

 directly-connected routes

 local routes

 remote routes

 C and L source routes

11. Which statement describes a hardware feature of a Cisco 1941 router that has the default hardware
configuration?
  It does not have an AUX port.

 It has three FastEthernet interfaces for LAN access.

 It has two types of ports that can be used to access the console.

 It does not require a CPU because it relies on Compact Flash to run the IOS.

12. Following default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from
flash?

 Perform the POST routine.

 Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

 Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

 Load the running-config file from RAM.

1. What are two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

 SVI

 LAN

 DHCP

 Telnet

 WAN

2. Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.)

 Cisco IOS

 backup IOS file

 IP routing table

 basic diagnostic software

 startup configuration file

3. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

 The IOS image is corrupt.

 Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

 The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

 The POST process has detected hardware failure.

4. What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

 to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device

 to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup

 to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using

 to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

5. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console
interface? (Choose three.)

 interface fastethernet 0/0

  line vty 0 4

 line console 0

 enable secret cisco

 login

 password cisco

6. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

 IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit
hierarchical addressing.

 The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.

 Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

 The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

7. Open the PT Activity. The enable password on all devices is cisco.

Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

For what reason is the failure occurring?

 PC1 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

 SW1 does not have a default gateway configured.

 The IP address of SW1 is configured in a wrong subnet.

 PC2 has an incorrect default gateway configured.

8. Match the command with the device mode at which the command is entered. (Not all options are used.)

 Question

CCNA1 Chapter 6 v5.1 001 Question

 Answer
 Introduction to Networks (version 6.00) – ITN Chapter 2 Exam Beta Answers 2018

1. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when
establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

 Telnet

 Console

 AUX

 SSH

2. Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure
environment?

 Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.

 Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

 Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network.

 Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

3. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI?
(Choose two.)

 providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted

 displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

 allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key

 determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command

 selecting the best command to accomplish a task

4. In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by running-config?
  the command

 a keyword

 a variable

 a prompt

5. Which information does the show startup-config command display?

 the IOS image copied into RAM

 the bootstrap program in the ROM

 the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

 the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

6. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command
hierarchy?

 end

 exit

 Ctrl-Z

 Ctrl-C

7. How is SSH different from Telnet?

 SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.

 SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication.
Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.

 SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect
to devices through the use of Telnet.

 SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a
device from a console connection.

8. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration
file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will
display?

 global configuration mode

 setup mode

 privileged EXEC mode

 user EXEC mode

9. What is the function of the kernel of an operating system?

 It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.

 The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.

 It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.

 The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.

10. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces
that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
  VTY interface

 console interface

 Ethernet interface

 boot IOS mode

 privileged EXEC mode

 router configuration mode

11. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

 It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

 It is stored in NVRAM.

 It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

 It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

12. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and
switches?

 It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.

 It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.

 It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

 It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with
Telnet.

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the
purpose of this command?

Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Beta Answer R&S 2018 2019 001

 to display a message when a user accesses the switch

 to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1

 to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication

 to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command

14.  Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?

 a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set

 a hostname must be configured before any other parameters

 to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)

 to allow local access to the device through the console port

15. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

 RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

 The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.

 The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.

 RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

 RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

16. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

 Branch2!

 RM-3-Switch-2A4

 Floor(15)

 HO Floor 17

 SwBranch799

17. Which passwords are encrypted with the service password encryption command?

 all passwords stored in configuration files

 all passwords sent over the Internet

 only virtual terminal line passwords

 only console line passwords

18. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

 virtual terminal

 privileged EXEC

 AUX port

 console line

19. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

 RAM

 ROM

 NVRAM

 flash

20. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

 ROM

 flash

 NVRAM

 RAM

21. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

 if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
  if there is connectivity with the destination device

 the path that traffic will take to reach the destination

 what type of device is at the destination

22. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

 to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

 to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

 to enable the switch to be managed remotely

 to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

23. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

 the AUX interface

 the console port interface

 the switch virtual interface

 the first Ethernet port interface

24. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

 ping

 ipconfig

 show interfaces

 show ip interface brief

25. What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?

 Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device associated with it.

 An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet mask in order to
provide remote access to the switch.

 SVIs come preconfigured on Cisco switches.

 SVIs do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled.

26. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip
interface brief command? (Choose three.)
Cisco ITN CCNA 1 v6.0 Chapter 1 Exam Beta Answer R&S 2018 2019 002

 Two physical interfaces have been configured.

 The switch can be remotely managed.

 One device is attached to a physical interface.

 Passwords have been configured on the switch.

 Two devices are attached to the switch.

 The default SVI has been configured.

27. A network administrator for a small campus network has issued the show ip interface brief command on a
switch. What is the administrator verifying with this command?

 the status of the switch interfaces and the address configured on interface vlan 1

 that a specific host on another network can be reached

 the path that is used to reach a specific host on another network

 the default gateway that is used by the switch

28. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

 VLAN1

 VLAN99

 VLAN100

 VLAN999

29. To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

 10.1.0.0

 10.0.0.0

 10.1.100.32

 10.1.100.0
 30. Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

 automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

 remote switch management

 translation of IP addresses to domain names

 end-to-end connectivity test

31. Which IP address is a valid default gateway for a host on the 10.1.100.0/24 network?

 10.1.0.1

 10.1.100.254

 10.1.1.1

 10.0.0.1

------------------------------------------------------------------------

A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network.
What action does the user need to take?

Disable SSID broadcast.

Configure a DNS server.

Enable WPA encryption.

Configure DMZ settings.

A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data
center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete
server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this
situation?

BYOD

virtualization

maintaining communication integrity

online collaboration

In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an
SDN controller?

control plane

security

data plane

application policies

While a network security product is being deployed, a customizable list of allowable protocols is shown. Which
three protocols should be allowed to provide for the use of email on a network? (Choose three.)

TFTP

POP3

IMAP4
 DNS

Telnet

SMTP

HTTP

A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely describes the
SSH connection?

direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program

on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable

remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection

remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session

out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication

When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has issued the
login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration actions have to be
performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)

Configure the correct IP domain name.

Create a valid local username and password database.

Set the user privilege levels.

Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.

Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.

Configure role-based CLI access.

Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console
interface? (Choose three.)

line console 0

enable secret cisco

login

line vty 0 4

password cisco

interface fastethernet 0/0

What type of technology converts analog voice signals into digital data?

SMTP

SNMP

POP3

VoIP

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

AUX port

privileged EXEC
 console line

virtual terminal

Navigation

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

to determine the subnet to which the host belongs

to identify whether the address is public or private

to uniquely identify a host on a network

to mask the IP address to outsiders

What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

1Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

Which two types of interference may affect the data throughput on UTP cables? (Choose two.)

EMI

moisture

crosstalk

noise

temperature

What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and
businesses? (Choose two.)

T568A

STP

T568B

RJ-45

UTP

During a move, employee workstations were disconnected from the network and reconnected in new offices.
However, after the move a few workstations cannot get a valid IP address. What should be checked first to
identify the root cause of the problem?

Make sure the cables are functional and properly plugged.

Install all software updates.

Test if these workstations can ping the default gateway.

 Check the operation status of the DHCP server.

A customer calls the help line to report a computer problem. The help line technician responds and works with
the customer for some time. However, the technician cannot identify the root cause of the problem. What should
the technician do to help the customer?

Ask for the email address of the customer in order to send all the support documents for the computer.

Suggest that the customer visit the support website for more detailed information.

Tell the customer that a ticket is created and another technician will contact the user soon.

Tell the customer that a replacement computer will be shipped immediately.

Using a systematic troubleshooting approach, a help desk technician suspects a problem at Layer 3 of the OSI
model. In gathering information, which two questions are associated with Layer 3? (Choose two.)

Is there a link light on the network card?

From the PC, is the default gateway reachable using the ping command?

Does a browser connection to www.cisco.com work?

Is the PC configured for DHCP?

Is the network cable plugged in?

Which solution allows external users to access only an internal FTP server on a private network?

static NAT

NAT with overload

port forwarding

dynamic NAT

Navigation

What is an inherent security vulnerability of SSID broadcasting?

It sends traffic unencrypted between the wireless access point and the client.

It broadcasts the identity of the network.

It allows unauthenticated access to the wireless network.

It allows any host to join the wireless network.

A host needs to reach another host on a remote network, but the ARP cache has no mapping entries. To what
destination address will the host send an ARP request?

the unicast MAC address of the remote host

the subnet broadcast IP address

the broadcast MAC address

the unicast IP address of the remote host

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?
 source MAC address

source IP address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

It speeds up packet delivery.

It assists in protocol design.

It prevents designers from creating their own model.

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the
local network.

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

There is no impact on communications.

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on
remote networks

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

Protocol data unit

Why are open standards important in the data communications industry?

They enable interoperability between software and hardware from different vendors.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications
between end devices?

Transport

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

Internet

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

Multicast
Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

Broadcast

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

Local delivery

At which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be encapsulated?

Data link layer

The MAC address is embedded in the ________ of a PC.

NIC

What 3 requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message
transmission across a network?

Message encoding, message size, and delivery options

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications
between end devices?

Transport layer, Layer 4

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on
remote networks.

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

Internet layer

The MAC address of a PC does not change when the PC is moved to a different network because the MAC address
is embedded in the_________of the PC.

NIC

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

Destination IP address

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message
transmission across a network?
Delivery options,

Message size,

Message encoding,

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur.

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

Multicast

At which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be encapsulated?

Data link layer

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

Broadcast

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

...

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

IEEE,

IANA,

IETF,

Why are open standards important in the data communications industry?

They enable interoperability between software and hardware from different vendors.

What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.

Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

Which organization develops the 802 family of standards for wired and wireless LANs and MANs?
ISOC

ITU-T

IEEE

ISO

IANA

What organization developed the OSI reference model that is used in networking?

ISOC

TIA

ISO

EIA

IANA

Which two message timing mechanisms are used in data communications? (Choose two.)

response timeout

formatting

encapsulation

flow control

encoding

response timeout

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

remote delivery

local and remote delivery

local delivery

remote delivery using routers

What happens when two devices on the same subnet are communicating?

The host portion of the IP addresses will be different.

The data link layer addresses are added to the IP header.

The sending device will use ARP to determine the IP address of the receiver.

The frame will be sent to the default gateway for delivery to the receiving device.

The host portion of the IP addresses will be different.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

destination MAC address

destination IP address

destination port number

source MAC address

source IP address

Which two components are added to the PDU at the network access layer? (Choose two.)

trailer

IP header

TCP header

HTTP header

frame header

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

unicast

multicast

broadcast

duplex

CCNA1-final-exam-V5-1

Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

an SSH connection

A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip
address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.

An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the
purpose of using these keystrokes?

to interrupt the ping process

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a
console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

lineconin

On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed
remotely?
VLAN 1

What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged
between a web client and a web server?

TCP

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

It encourages competition and promotes choices.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

It assists in protocol design.

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

network

transport

Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?

segment

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices
that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error
categorized?

physical layer

A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical
financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth
expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network

the type of traffic that is crossing the network

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

cancellation

What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.

What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.

A network team is comparing physical WAN typologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building.
Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?

partial mesh

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CA

What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

data link layer addressing

detection of errors through CRC calculations

delimiting groups of bits into frames

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not
match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.

Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before
forwarding the frame?

store-and-forward switching

Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it
leaves host A?

BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB
What addresses are mapped by ARP?

destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address

What are two services provided by the OSI network layer?

routing packets toward the destination

encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer

What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

to retain contents when power is removed

to store the startup configuration file

Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator
connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

203.0.113.211

What are three characteristics of multicast transmission?

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use?

10.0.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/12

192.168.0.0/16
What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

2001:0:0:abcd::1

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

FE80::/10

How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

62

A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate 126 hosts. Which subnet
mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?

255.255.255.128

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26

Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the
correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information.
The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information
is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?

the destination port number

What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)

to identify missing segments at the destination

to reassemble the segments at the remote location

Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

compression

encryption

What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?

resource sharing without a dedicated server

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL
address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

nslookup

Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?

.com

A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP
address configuration?

The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.

A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

DHCP

Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?

malware that was written to look like a video game

When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)

...

A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate
headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

WAN

A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines.
What ISP connection type should be used?
DSL

How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and services?

by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic

On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed
remotely?

VLAN 1

After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-
config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has
already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

secretin

Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

an SSH connection

A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip
address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

an SSH connection

A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip
address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which segments are exchanged
between a web client and a web server?

TCP

What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP model?
internet

Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.

What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an Ethernet network?

MAC address

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices
that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error
categorized?

physical layer

A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical
financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth
expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network

the type of traffic that is crossing the network

the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

CSMA/CA

During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to an Ethernet network?

The physical address is added.

What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

data link layer addressing

detection of errors through CRC calculations

delimiting groups of bits into frames

What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

They are globally unique.

They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?

drop the frame

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not
match its own MAC address?

It will discard the frame.

Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port that the frame was
received on? (Choose two.)

The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address.

The destination address is unknown to the switch.

Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

fast-forward

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

route print

netstat -r

Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet forwarding

path selection
What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8

172.16.0.0/12

192.168.0.0/16

What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

11001010

At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local

Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a server that keeps a record of
available IPv6 addresses?

SLAAC

What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

30

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

192.168.1.64/26

A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the
following networks and numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones - 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs - 8 addresses

Subnetwork C: Printers - 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

255.255.255.240
Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.

What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be
wasted?

255.255.255.192

What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

port numbering

use of checksum

Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

DNS

POP

Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?

.com

What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?

Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.

Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a file server of a book
publisher?

client/server

A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

DHCP

What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the destination server?
DNS

A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline. Which situation would depict a
possible latency issue?

an increase in host-to-host ping response times

Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate responses to requests
initiated from internal hosts?

stateful packet inspection

>During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts
simultaneously. This message is in the form of a __________message.

Multicast

A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a
high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?

leased line

What is the purpose of having a converged network?

to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting
the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

scalability

Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

an SSH connection

A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following command: SanJose(config)# ip
address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the device. What is the reason for this?

The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.

After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration
command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

NVRAM
Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day
banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users
log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.

What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.

It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.

It is associated with VLAN1 by default.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers 2017 (v5.1+v6.0) Introduction to Networks

New Version:  Final Exam Answers v6.0
1. What is a characteristic of a fault tolerant network?
 a network that protects confidential information from unauthorized access
 a network that can expand quickly to support new users and applications without
impacting the performance of the service delivered to existing users
 a network that supports a mechanism for managing congestion and ensuring reliable
delivery of content to all users
 a network that recovers quickly when a failure occurs and depends on redundancy to limit
the impact of a failure*
2. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web
browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee
accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee
participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices.
If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the
different data types?
 financial transactions, audio conference, web page
 audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
 audio conference, web page, financial transactions
 financial transactions, web page, audio conference

3. What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
 End users have the freedom to use personal tools to access information and
communicate across a business network.
 Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure,
personnel, or software.*
 Technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with
other devices, making them more ‘smart’ or automated.
 Home networking uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network
wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.
4. What is the function of the shell in an OS?
 It interacts with the device hardware.
 It interfaces between the users and the kernel.*
 It provides dedicated firewall services.
 It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.
5. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?
  a console connection
 an AUX connection
 a Telnet connection
 an SSH connection*
6. A network technician is attempting to configure an interface by entering the following
command: SanJose(config)# ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0. The command is rejected by the
device. What is the reason for this?
 The command is being entered from the wrong mode of operation.*
 The command syntax is wrong.
 The subnet mask information is incorrect.
 The interface is shutdown and must be enabled before the switch will accept the IP
address.
7. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping
command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
 to restart the ping process
 to interrupt the ping process*
 to exit to a different configuration mode
 to allow the user to complete the command
8. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If
the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to
access user EXEC mode?

 letmein
 secretin
 linevtyin
 lineconin*
9. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the
switch can be managed remotely?
 FastEthernet0/1
 VLAN 1*
 vty 0
 console 0
10. What protocol is responsible for controlling the size of segments and the rate at which
segments are exchanged between a web client and a web server?
 TCP*
 IP
 HTTP
 Ethernet
11. What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
 A company can monopolize the market.
 The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.
 An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations.
 It encourages competition and promotes choices.*
12. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
 It assists in protocol design. *
 It speeds up packet delivery.
 It prevents designers from creating their own model.
 It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.*
 It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.
13. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose two.)
 data link
 network*
 physical
 session
 transport*
14. Which name is assigned to the transport layer PDU?
  bits
 data
 frame
 packet
 segment*
15. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a
mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears
lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
16. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester,
the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable.
In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
 presentation layer
 network layer
 physical layer*
 data link layer
17. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?
 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through**
18. A network administrator is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for
a mission critical financial application. The administrator notices that the network throughput
appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network *
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
19. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
 cancellation*
 cladding
 immunity to electrical hazards
 woven copper braid or metallic foil
20. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)
 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
 Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding, and twisting to protect data.
 It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic wires.
 It is more expensive than UTP cabling is.*
21. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
 It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
 It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
 It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same
network interface and media.*
 It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
22. A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a
headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all,
remote sites?
  mesh
 partial mesh*
 hub and spoke
 point-to-point
23. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
 CSMA/CD
 priority ordering
 CSMA/CA*
 token passing
24. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose
three.)
 error correction through a collision detection method
 session control using port numbers
 data link layer addressing*
 placement and removal of frames from the media
 detection of errors through CRC calculations *
 delimiting groups of bits into frames*
 conversion of bits into data signals
25. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC
address that does not match its own MAC address?
 It will discard the frame.*
 It will forward the frame to the next host.
 It will remove the frame from the media.
 It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.
26. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)
 store-and-forward switching
 fast-forward switching*
 CRC switching
 fragment-free switching*
 QOS switching
27. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
 building a routing table that is based on the first IP address in the frame header
 using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table*
 forwarding frames with unknown destination IP addresses to the default gateway
 utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address*
 examining the destination MAC address to add new entries to the MAC address table
28. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to
detect errors before forwarding the frame?
 cut-through switching
 store-and-forward switching*
 fragment-free switching
 fast-forward switching
29. Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address
be in the frame when it leaves host A?

 DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD
 172.168.10.99
 CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC
 172.168.10.65
 BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB*
 AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA
30. What addresses are mapped by ARP?
 destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address*
 destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
 destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
 destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address
31. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
  source and destination MAC
 source and destination application protocol
 source and destination port number
 source and destination IP address*
32. What are two services provided by the OSI network layer? (Choose two.)
 performing error detection
 routing packets toward the destination *
 encapsulating PDUs from the transport layer*
 placement of frames on the media
 collision detection
33. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen
to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP
address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet.
The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP
server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which
component is incorrectly configured?

 subnet mask
 DNS address
 host IP address
 default gateway address*
34. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and
subnet mask?
 to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
 to identify the host address of the destination host
 to identify faulty frames
 to identify the network address of the destination network*
35. What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)
 to store the routing table
 to retain contents when power is removed *
 to store the startup configuration file*
 to contain the running configuration file
 to store the ARP table

36.
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network
administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been
entered?
 The administrator will be required to enter Cisco123.
 The administrator will be required to enter Cisco234.
 The administrator will be required to enter Cisco789.
 The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.*
37. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address
11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
 192.0.2.199
 198.51.100.201
 203.0.113.211*
 209.165.201.223
38. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)
 The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to
224.0.0.255.
 A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts. *
 Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information. *
 Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.*
 Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
 Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
39. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use?
(Choose three.)
 10.0.0.0/8*
 64.100.0.0/14
 127.16.0.0/12
 172.16.0.0/12*
 192.31.7.0/24
 192.168.0.0/16*
40. What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?
 It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.*
 It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.
 It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.
 It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the
Internet.
 It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for
automatic host addressing.
41. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address
2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?
 2001:0:abcd::1
 2001:0:0:abcd::1*
 2001::abcd::1
 2001:0000:abcd::1
 2001::abcd:0:1
42. Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
 FEC0::/10
 FDEE::/7
 FE80::/10*
 FF00::/8
43. Which three addresses are valid public addresses? (Choose three.)
 198.133.219.17*
 192.168.1.245
 10.15.250.5
 128.107.12.117*
 192.15.301.240
 64.104.78.227 *
44. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network
connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

 There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

 The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
 There are 4 hops b**etween this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
 The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 milliseconds.
 This host does not have a default gateway configured.
45. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
 loopback
 link-local*
 multicast
 global unicast
46. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26
mask?
 254
 190
 192
 62*
 64
47. A site administrator has been told that a particular network at the site must accommodate
126 hosts. Which subnet mask would be used that contains the required number of host bits?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128*
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
48. A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a
small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses
What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.240*
 255.255.255.248
 255.255.255.252
49. How many hosts are addressable on a network that has a mask of 255.255.255.248?
 2
 6*
 8
 14
 16
 254
50. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
 192.168.1.64/26*
 192.168.1.32/27
 192.168.1.32/28
 192.168.1.64/29
51. What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and
address space is not to be wasted?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.192*
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240
52. What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)
 default window size
 connectionless communication
 port numbering*
 3-way handshake
 ability to to carry digitized voice
 use of checksum*
53. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
 to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
 to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
 to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
 to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application*
 to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
54. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address of 192.168.10.0/24 that has been assigned to a
high school building. The largest network in this building has 100 devices. If 192.168.10.0 is the
network number for the largest network, what would be the network number for the next largest
network, which has 40 devices?

 192.168.10.0
 192.168.10.128*
 192.168.10.192
 192.168.10.224
 192.168.10.240
55. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?
 Each subnet is the same size.
 The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.*
 Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
 Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.
56. In what two situations would UDP be the preferred transport protocol over TCP? (Choose
two.)
 when applications need to guarantee that a packet arrives intact, in sequence, and
unduplicated
 when a faster delivery mechanism is needed*
 when delivery overhead is not an issue
 when applications do not need to guarantee delivery of the data*
 when destination port numbers are dynamic
57. What important information is added to the TCP/IP transport layer header to ensure
communication and connectivity with a remote network device?
 timing and synchronization
 destination and source port numbers*
 destination and source physical addresses
 destination and source logical network addresses
58. What is the TCP mechanism used in congestion avoidance?
 three-way handshake
 socket pair
 two-way handshake
 sliding window*
59. Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
 A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned
into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the
same network.
 A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are
encoded within the transport layer header.
 A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The
transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.*
 A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The
transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what
device is being used to view the web site.
60. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for
certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request
from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to
identify which of the three web browsers should receive the reply?
 the destination IP address
 the destination port number*
 the source IP address
 the source port number
61. What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
 to identify missing segments at the destination *
 to reassemble the segments at the remote location*
 to specify the order in which the segments travel from source to destination
 to limit the number of segments that can be sent out of an interface at one time
 to determine if the packet changed during transit
62. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
  compression*
 addressing
 encryption*
 session control
 authentication
63. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)
 UDP provides basic connectionless transport layer functions.*
 UDP provides connection-oriented, fast transport of data at Layer 3.
 UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection. *
 UDP is a low overhead protocol that does not provide sequencing or flow control
mechanisms.*
 UDP relies on IP for error detection and recovery.
 UDP provides sophisticated flow control mechanisms.
64. What is a key characteristic of the peer-to-peer networking model?
 wireless networking
 social networking without the Internet
 network printing using a print server
 resource sharing without a dedicated server*
65. A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot
successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician
use to diagnose the problem?
 tracert
 ipconfig
 netstat
 nslookup*
66. Which domain name would be an example of a top-level domain?
 www.cisco.com
 cisco.com
 .com*
 root.cisco.com
67. A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for
repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
 The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.
 The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.
 The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.*
 The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.
68. When planning for network growth, where in the network should packet captures take
place to assess network traffic?
 on as many different network segments as possible*
 only at the edge of the network
 between hosts and the default gateway
 only on the busiest network segment
69. A wireless host needs to request an IP address. What protocol would be used to process the
request?
 FTP
 HTTP
 DHCP*
 ICMP
 SNMP
70. Which example of malicious code would be classified as a Trojan horse?
 malware that was written to look like a video game*
 malware that requires manual user intervention to spread between systems
 malware that attaches itself to a legitimate program and spreads to other programs when
launched
 malware that can automatically spread from one system to another by exploiting a
vulnerability in the target
71. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password
attacks against the router?
  exec-timeout 30
 service password-encryption
 banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
 login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60*
72. A network technician suspects that a particular network connection between two Cisco
switches is having a duplex mismatch. Which command would the technician use to see the Layer 1
and Layer 2 details of a switch port?
 show mac-address-table
 show ip interface brief
 show interfaces*
 show running-config
73. Where are Cisco IOS debug output messages sent by default?
 Syslog server
 console line*
 memory buffers
 vty lines
74. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (not all options are used.)
 Question

 Answer

75. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting
interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

 Question
  Answer

76. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP
address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate?

 Connectivity to the remote device was successful.

 A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.*
 A ping packet is being blocked by a security device along the path.
 The connection timed out while waiting for a reply from the remote device.
77. A user is unable to reach the web site when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser,
but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?
 default gateway
 DHCP
 TCP/IP protocol stack
 DNS *
78. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain
connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support
this requirement?
 LAN
 MAN
 WAN*
 WLAN
79. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission
over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
 DSL*
 dial-up
 satellite
 cell modem
 cable modem
80. How does quality of service help a network support a wide range of applications and
services?
 by limiting the impact of a network failure
 by allowing quick recovery from network failures
 by providing mechanisms to manage congested network traffic*
 by providing the ability for the network to grow to accommodate new users
81. What source IP address does a router use by default when the traceroute command is
issued?
 the highest configured IP address on the router
 the lowest configured IP address on the router
 a loopback IP address
 the IP address of the outbound interface*
82. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a
copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
83. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If
the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed
to access privileged EXEC mode?

 letmein
 secretin*
 lineconin
 linevtyin
84. Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified. (Not all
options are used.)
 Question

 Answer

85. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?
 a console connection
 an AUX connection
 a Telnet connection
 an SSH connection*
86. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?
 It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
 It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
 It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
 It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.*
87. What layer is responsible for routing messages through an internetwork in the TCP/IP
model?
 internet*
 transport
 network access
 session
88. Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending
data to the network?
 Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.
 Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.
 Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.*
 Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.
89. What unique address is embedded in an Ethernet NIC and used for communication on an
Ethernet network?
 host address
 IP address
 MAC address*
 network address
 k layer
90. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together*
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation
91. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC connected to
an Ethernet network?
 An IP address is added.
 The logical address is added.
 The physical address is added.*
 The process port number is added.
92. What are two characteristics of Ethernet MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
 They are globally unique.*
 They are routable on the Internet.
 They are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.*
 MAC addresses use a flexible hierarchical structure.
 MAC addresses must be unique for both Ethernet and serial interfaces on a device.
93. If a device receives an Ethernet frame of 60 bytes, what will it do?
 drop the frame*
 process the frame as it is
 send an error message to the sending device
 add random data bytes to make it 64 bytes long and then forward it
94. Under which two circumstances will a switch flood a frame out of every port except the port
that the frame was received on? (Choose two.)
 The frame has the broadcast address as the destination address. *
 The destination address is unknown to the switch.*
 The source address in the frame header is the broadcast address.
 The source address in the frame is a multicast address.
 The destination address in the frame is a known unicast address.
95. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
 cut-through
 store-and-forward
 fragment-free
 fast-forward*
96. Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose
two.)
 netstat -s
 route print*
  show ip route
 netstat -r*
 tracert
97. Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 packet forwarding*
 microsegmentation
 domain name resolution
 path selection*
 flow control
98. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?
 10111010
 11010101
 11001010*
 11011010
99. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?
 link-local*
 unique local
 site local
 global unicast
100. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6 addressing to end devices without using a
server that keeps a record of available IPv6 addresses?
 stateful DHCPv6
 SLAAC*
 static IPv6 addressing
 stateless DHCPv6
101. What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?
 It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host.*
 It tests the broadcast capability of all hosts on the subnet.
 It tests the multicast connectivity to all hosts on the subnet.
 It tests the reachability of the default gateway for the network.
102. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?
 256
 254
 62
 30*
 16
 32
103. What is the process of dividing a data stream into smaller pieces before transmission?
 segmentation*
 encapsulation
 encoding
 flow control
104. When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4
configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?
 DNS server address
 subnet mask*
 default gateway
 DHCP server address
105. Which two roles can a computer assume in a peer-to-peer network where a file is being
shared between two computers? (Choose two.)
 client*
 master
 server*
 slave
 transient
106. Which two protocols operate at the highest layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose
two.)
 DNS*
  Ethernet
 IP
 POP*
 TCP
 UDP
107. What is one difference between the client-server and peer-to-peer network models?
 Only in the client-server model can file transfers occur.
 Every device in a peer-to-peer network can function as a client or a server.*
 A peer-to-peer network transfers data faster than a transfer using a client-server
network.
 A data transfer that uses a device serving in a client role requires that a dedicated server
be present.
108. What is the function of the HTTP GET message?
 to request an HTML page from a web server*
 to send error information from a web server to a web client
 to upload content to a web server from a web client
 to retrieve client email from an email server using TCP port 110
109. Which networking model is being used when an author uploads one chapter document to a
file server of a book publisher?
 peer-to-peer
 master-slave
 client/server*
 point-to-point
110. What network service resolves the URL entered on a PC to the IP address of the
destination server?
 DNS*
 DHCP
 FTP
 SNMP
111. A network engineer is analyzing reports from a recently performed network baseline.
Which situation would depict a possible latency issue?
 a change in the bandwidth according to the show interfaces output
 a next-hop timeout from a traceroute
 an increase in host-to-host ping response times*
 a change in the amount of RAM according to the show version output
112. Which firewall feature is used to ensure that packets coming into a network are legitimate
responses to requests initiated from internal hosts?
 stateful packet inspection*
 URL filtering
 application filtering
 packet filtering
113. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a
DHCP server?The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254*
The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the
169.254.0.0/16 range.
114. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to
the vty lines?terminal monitor*
logging console
logging buffered
logging synchronous
115. Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of
destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast *message.
116. A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The
company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type
should the company choose?
  DSL
 dialup
 satellite
 leased line*
 cable modem
117. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
 to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
 to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
 to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
 to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure*
118. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and
applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?
 reliability
 scalability*
 quality of service
 accessibility
119. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration
startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
 flash
 ROM
 NVRAM*
 RAM
 the configuration register
 a TFTP server
120. Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to
create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only!
Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear
correctly. What is the problem?

 The banner message is too long.

 The delimiting character appears in the banner message.*
 The symbol “!” signals the end of a banner message.
 Message-of-the-day banners will only appear when a user logs in through the console
port.
121. What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)
 It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.
 It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.*
 It is a special interface that allows connectivity by different types of media.
 It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.
 It provides a means to remotely manage a switch. *
 It is associated with VLAN1 by default.*
122. A technician configures a switch with these commands:SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1 
SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 
SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdownWhat is the technician configuring?
 Telnet access
 SVI*
 password encryption
 physical switchport access
123. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?
 to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission*
 to interpret information
 to break large messages into smaller frames
 to negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Older Version: CCNA 1 Final Exam Answers v5.1
1. What is a function of the data link layer?
 provides the formatting of data
  provides for the exchange of data over a common local media*
 provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts
 provides delivery of data between two applications
2. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
 wiki
 e-mail
 weblog
 instant messaging*
3. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed
by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
 regenerating data signals*
 acting as a client or a server
 providing a channel over which messages travel
 applying security settings to control the flow of data *
 notifying other devices when errors occur*
 serving as the source or destination of the messages
4. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the
IOS? 

 flash memory*
 NVRAM?
 RAM
 ROM
 a TFTP server?
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

 PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

 PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
 PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.*
 PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
6. Fill in the blank.
Port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023 are considered to be Well Known ports.
7. Fill in the blank.
ISOC, IANA, EIA, and IEEE represent standards organizations which help to promote and
maintain an open Internet.
8. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the
error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

 The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

 The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
 The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*
 The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration
mode.
9. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain
connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support
this requirement?
 LAN
 MAN
 WAN*
 WLAN
10. A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high priority to real-
time applications traffic. What two types of network services is the network administrator trying to
accommodate? (Choose two.)
 SNMP
 instant messaging
 voice*
 FTP
 video*
11. Match the situation with the appropriate use of network media.
  Question

 Answer

12. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?
 0.0.0.0
 0.0.0.1
 127.0.0.1*
 192.168.1.1
 255.255.255.255
13. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose
three.)
 ARP
 DHCP*
 DNS*
 FTP*
 NAT
 PPP
14. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two)
 ARP
 BOOTP
 ICMP*
 IP*
 PPP
15. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the
Internet but do not give implementation details?
 Request for Comments*
 IRTF research papers
 protocol models
 IEEE standards
16. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?
 IP address
 default gateway address
 MAC address*
 logical address
17. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical
address and what message type does it use?
 ARP, multicast
 DNS, unicast
 DNS, broadcast
 ARP, broadcast*
 PING, multicast
 PING, broadcast
18. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
 The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
 The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
 The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
 The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.*
 A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
19. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
 It accepts frames from the physical media.
 It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
 It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
 It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.*
20. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)
 Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.*
 Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
 Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.*
 Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
 Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for
multimode cables.
21. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
 logical address
 physical address
 data
 error detection*
22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order.
Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the

Fa0/1 port?
 just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*
 just the PC0 MAC address
 PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
 just the PC1 MAC address
 just the PC2 MAC address?
23. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
 A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
 An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not
supported in Layer 2 switches.*
 A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
 A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports.
However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
24. What is the purpose of the routing process?
 to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
 to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks*
 to convert a URL name into an IP address
 to provide secure Internet file transfer
 to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
25. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices
to share one public IP address?
 ARP
 DNS
 NAT*
 SMB
 DHCP
 HTTP
26. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a
description of the default gateway address?

 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
 It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.*
 It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
 It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
27. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
 packet switching*
 microsegmentation
 domain name resolution
 path selection*
 flow control
28. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose
two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.*
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.*
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.
29. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?
 NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
 NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode*
 setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
 TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
 flash, ROM, setup mode
30. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the
destination?
 A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
 The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
 The entire transmission is re-sent.
 The transmission continues without the missing portion.*
31. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
 10.172.168.1*
 172.32.5.2
  192.167.10.10
 172.20.4.4 *
 192.168.5.254*
 224.6.6.6
32. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?
 4
 8
 16*
 32
33. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?
 to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
 to enable the router as an IPv6 router*
 to permit only unicast packets on the router
 to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group
34. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?
 FEC0::/10?
 FDFF::/7?
 FEBF::/10?
 FF00::/8*
35. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
 to inform routers about network topology changes
 to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
 to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*
 to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
36. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and
default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user
cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what

could account for this failure?

 The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
 The default gateway address in incorrect.*
 The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
 The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.
37. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data
center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?
 random static addresses to improve security
 addresses from different subnets for redundancy
  predictable static IP addresses for easier identification*
 dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
38. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

 Site 1
 Site 2*
 Site 3
 Site 4
39. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
 /62
 /64*
 /66
 /68*
 /70
40. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two
messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
 DHCPDISCOVER*
 DHCPOFFER
 DHCPREQUEST*
 DHCPACK
 DHCPNACK
41. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
 to require users to prove who they are
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user*
 to provide challenge and response questions
42. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the
administrator enter at the prompt?

 192.168.9.254
 192.168.10.1
 192.168.10.2
 192.168.11.252*
 192.168.11.254
43. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

44. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless
routers? (Choose two.)
 broadcast SSID*
 MAC filtering enabled
 WEP encryption enabled
 PSK authentication required
 default administrator password*
45. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client
associates with an AP?
 EAP
 PSK
  WEP
 WPA*
46. Fill in the blank.
TFTP* is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.
47. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN?
(Choose two.)
 media
 wireless NIC*
 custom adapter
 crossover cable
 wireless bridge
 wireless client software*
48. Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
…
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60* .
49. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are

used.)
50. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are
performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
 regenerating data signals*
 acting as a client or a server
 providing a channel over which messages travel
 applying security settings to control the flow of data*
 notifying other devices when errors occur*
 serving as the source or destination of the messages
51. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?
 when a cellular telephone provides the service
 when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
 when a satellite dish is used
 when a regular telephone line is used*
52. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and
attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with
QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?
 audio conference, database, HTTP*
 database, HTTP, audio conference
 audio conference, HTTP, database
 database, audio conference, HTTP
53. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?
 RAM*
 flash
 NVRAM
 disk drive
54. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?
 Ctrl-Shift-X
 Ctrl-Shift-6*
 Ctrl-Z
 Ctrl-C
55. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch,
using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

 HR Switch(config)#?
 Switch(config)#?*
 HRSwitch(config)#?
 HR(config)#?
 Switch#
56. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?
 the TCP/IP stack on a network host*
 connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
 connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
 connectivity between two PCs on the same network
 physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
57. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

58. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a
different network?
 switch
 hub
 router*
 host
59. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a
mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than
the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose
three.)
 the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network*
 the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
 the type of traffic that is crossing the network*
 the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing*
 the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
 the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
60. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
 It is not affected by EMI or RFI.*
  Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
 It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
 It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
 It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling*
61. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)
 It is straightforward to troubleshoot.*
 End devices are connected together by a bus.
 It is easy to add and remove end devices.*
 All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
 Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.
62. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving
device check the FCS field in the frame?
 to determine the physical address of the sending device
 to verify the network layer protocol information
 to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
 to check the frame for possible transmission errors*
 to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device
63. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not
in the MAC table?
 It initiates an ARP request.
 It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
 It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
 It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*
64. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are
multiple routes available?
 the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network*
 the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
 the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
 the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
65. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router?
(Choose two.)
 stores routing tables
 allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
 maintains instructions for POST diagnostics*
 holds ARP cache
 stores bootstrap program*
66. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?
 A console port is used for remote management of the router.
 A console port is not used for packet forwarding.*
 Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
 Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the
management ports.
67. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the
destination?
 A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
 The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
 The entire transmission is re-sent.
 The transmission continues without the missing portion.*
68. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit
space?
 private addresses
 public addresses*
 multicast addresses
 experimental addresses
69. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination
www.cisco.com??

 11
 12
 13*
 14
70. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.
The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts
respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)
 192.168.1.16/28
 192.168.1.64/27*
 192.168.1.128/27
 192.168.1.96/28*
 192.168.1.192/28
71. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?
 /23
 /24
 /25*
 /26
72. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
 Transmission Control Protocol
 Real-Time Transport Protocol*
 Secure File Transfer Protocol
 Video over Internet Protocol
73. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
 to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
 to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
 to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network*
 to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
74. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

 The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
 The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.*
 An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
  An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.
75. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes
a connection with the AP?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP
 WPA*
76. Fill in the blank.
Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at
the same time are known as full-duplex*
77. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

78. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are
performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
 regenerating data signals*
 acting as a client or a server
 providing a channel over which messages travel
 applying security settings to control the flow of data*
 notifying other devices when errors occur*
 serving as the source or destination of the messages
79. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network

that is shown?
 area A
 area B
 area C*
 area D
80. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web
browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee
accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee
participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If
QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the
different data types?
 audio conference, financial transactions, web page*
 financial transactions, web page, audio conference
 audio conference, web page, financial transactions
 financial transactions, audio conference, web page
81. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the
IOS?
 RAM*
 flash
 NVRAM
 disk drive
82. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making
the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-
config command. What will happen after this command executes?
 The configuration will be copied to flash.
 The configuration will load when the router is restarted.*
 The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
 The changes will be lost when the router restarts.
83. What information does the loopback test provide?
 The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.*
 The device has end-to-end connectivity.
 DHCP is working correctly.
 The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
 The device has the correct IP address on the network.
84. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different
than the value that is in the FCS field?
 The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
 The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
 The switch drops the frame.*
 The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived
to notify the hosts of the error.
85. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF*
 127.0.0.1
 01-00-5E-00-AA-23
86. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
 the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
 the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet
cable connection*
 the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or
optical cable
 the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected
87. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)
 adjacency tables*
 MAC-address tables
 routing tables
 ARP tables
 forwarding information base (FIB)*
88. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a
packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?
 It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
 It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to
forward it toward the destination host*
 It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
 It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.
89. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP
addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any
information about the directly connected networks??

 The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the

routing table.
 The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router
receives a packet.
 The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.*
 The gateway of last resort was not configured.
90. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the
destination?
 A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
 The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
 The entire transmission is re-sent.
 The transmission continues without the missing portion.*
91. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
 TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
 TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
 UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
 TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
 TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*
92. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?
 Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed
in order.*
 A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
 A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
 Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.
93. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a
network environment? (Choose two.)
 MAC address
 IP address*
 kernel
 shell
 subnet mask*

94. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
 2001:DB8:BC15::0
 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0*
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
95. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?
 to require users to prove who they are*
 to determine which resources a user can access
 to keep track of the actions of a user
 to provide challenge and response questions
96. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client
associates with an AP?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP
 WPA*
97. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT.

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message is . ” winner ”
98. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?
Packet Length
Destination Address*
Flag
Time-to-Live
99. Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

100. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the
question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1 *
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15
101. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices
that perform Layer 3 switching?
 Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
 Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
 CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.*
 Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding
information base (FIB).
102. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?
 to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)
 to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses*
 to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making
 to update the forwarding information base (FIB)
103. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?
 It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.
 In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP
header.
  When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network
layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.
 Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one
host to another.*
104. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend
of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the
same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?
 Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.
 ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can
be used on the Internet.*
 ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address
that can be used on the Internet.
 Both users must be on the same network.
105. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?
 to ensure the fastest possible download speed
 because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
 because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
 because HTTP requires reliable delivery*
106. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address
2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?
 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*
 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234
107. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?
 TTL field
 CRC field
 Hop Limit field*
 Time Exceeded field
108. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal
requests?
 port filtering
 stateful packet inspection*
 URL filtering
 application filtering
109. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with
the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete
path to the remote host?
 trace 10.1.1.5
 traceroute 10.1.1.5
 tracert 10.1.1.5*
 ping 10.1.1.5
110. Fill in the blank.
To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must
be grounded *correctly
111. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?
 The cable insulation could be flammable.*
 Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.
 Network cables could be exposed to water.
 The network cable could explode.
112. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?
 a multimeter
 an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
 a cable tester*
 an ohmmeter
113. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?
 capacitance
 wire map*
  inductance
 flexibility
114. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order.
Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the

Fa0/1 port?
 just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses*
 just the PC0 MAC address
 PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
 just the PC1 MAC address
 just the PC2 MAC address
115. Which function is provided by TCP?
 data encapsulation
 detection of missing packets*
 communication session control
 path determination for data packets
116. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?
 an ARP table
 a routing table*
 the destination PC physical address
 a switching table
117. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?
 an inband router interface
 a console port
 a serial WAN interface
 an AUX port*
118. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of
each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which
configuration mode should be entered to do this task?
 user executive mode
 global configuration mode
 any line configuration mode*
 privileged EXEC mode
119. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
 TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.*
 TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
 UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
 TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.*
 TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.*
120. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which
is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that
has been received?

2
21
250
306*
2921
121. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address
command?
 IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
 A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.*
 A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.
 Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6
address.
122. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A
network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

 172.16.16.255
 172.16.20.255
 172.16.19.255*
 172.16.23.255
 172.16.255.255
123. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which
combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses
when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?
 10.1.1.128/28*
10.1.1.144/28*
10.1.1.160/29*
  10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28
 10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26
 10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26
 10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28
124. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create
subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?
 2
 3
 4*
 5
 6
125. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and
remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

240. Refer to the exhibit. The

administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion

can be drawn from this configuration?

 Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a
password.
 Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device
via Telnet will require authentication.*
 Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.
 Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to
the vty lines.
126. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to
the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences
if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?
 It will remove encryption from all passwords.
 It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.
 It will not reverse any encryption.*
  It will reverse only the enable password encryption.
127. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config
startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?
 The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
 The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.*
 The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
 The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
128. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
 If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but
not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*
 An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address
of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
 When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to
determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
 If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the
data packet to all devices on the network segment.
 If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an
ARP reply.*
129. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two
statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)
 Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.
 A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to
it.*
 An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.
 An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.
 Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.*
130. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does
this represent in dotted decimal format?
 234.17.10.9
 234.16.12.10
 236.17.12.6
 236.17.12.10*
131. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What
command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
 ipconfig /all
 arp -a
 ipconfig /displaydns*
 nslookup
132. Fill in the blank.
Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide
the flexibility to add new modules have a Modular * configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TIL value that is used to reach the destination

www.cisco.com?
 11
 12
 13*
 14
133. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?
 When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a
DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the network.*
 A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREOUEST
message.
 The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and sub net masK to be
assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address of the default gateway.
 If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a
unicast DHCPREOUEST message to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP
information.
134. Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?
 EAP
 PSK
 WEP*
 WPA
135. A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than
expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can explain this
difference? (Choose three.)
 the amount of traffic*
 the type of data encapsulation in use
 the type of traffic*
 the number and type of network devices that the data is crossing*
 the bandwidth of the connection to the ISP
 the reliability of the network backbone
136. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the
server to the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?
 DHCPDISCOVER
 DHCPOFFER*
 DHCPPREQUEST
 DHCPACK
 DHCPNACK
137. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator
uses console line to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

 letmein
 secretin
 lineconin*
 linevtyin
138. How many bits would need to be borrowed if a network admin were given the IP addressing
scheme of 172.16.0.0/16 and needed no more than 16 subnet with equal number of hosts?
 10
 12
 2
 4*
 8
139. Question:

It will give 4 options about ping, the correct one is:

The PC2 will be able to ping 192.168.1.1*
140. Which statement best describes the operation of the File Transfer Protocol?
An FTP client uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP client uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of data traffic with an FTP Server.
An FTP server uses a source port number of 20 and a randomly generated destination port number
during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.*
An FTP server uses a source port number of 21 and a randomly generated destination port
number during the establishment of control traffic with an FTP client.
141. A client is establishing a TCP session with a server. How is the acknowledgment number in
the response segment to the client determined?
The acknowledgment number field is modified by adding 1 to the randomly chosen initial sequence
number in response to the client.*
The acknowledgment number is set to 11 to signify an acknowledgment packet and
synchronization packet back to the client.
The acknowledgment number field uses a random source port number in response to the client.
The acknowledgment number is set to 1 to signify an acknowledgment packet back to the client.
142. Why does layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP and subnet Mask?
to identify host address and destination host;
to identify network address of destination host;*
to identify faulty frames;
to identify broadcast address of destination network;
143. There was also a question about if you activated service password encryption in the past
and you prompt “no service password encryption” what password are modified ?
no password at all;*
password of the lines are in clear;
login password;
?
144. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?
message encapsulation
flow control
message encoding
access method*
145. What is the primary reason to subnet IPv6 prefixes?
to conserve IPv6 addresses
to avoid wasting IPv6 addresses
to conserve IPv6 prefixes
to create a hierarchical Layer 3 network design*
146. Which statement describes data throughput?
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media under perfect conditions.
It is the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time.*
It indicates the capacity of a particular medium to carry data.
It is the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP.
147. Fill in the blank. Use a number.
IPv4 multicast addresses are directly mapped to IEEE 802 (Ethernet) MAC addresses using the
last ___4___ of the 28 available bits in the IPv4 multicast group address.
148. How could a faulty network device create a source of hazard for a user? (Choose two.)
It could stop functioning.*
It could apply dangerous voltage to other pieces of equipment.
It could explode.*
It could produce an unsafe electromagnetic field.
It could apply dangerous voltage to itself.
149. What are three important considerations when planning the structure of an IP addressing
scheme? (Choose three.)
preventing duplication of addresses*
providing and controlling access*
documenting the network
monitoring security and performance
conserving addresses*
implementing new services
150. What is the metric value that is used to reach the 10.1.1.0 network in the following routing
table entry? D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0
24
90
05
2170112*
 151. Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and
low overhead? (Choose two)
VoIP*
DNS*
HTTP
FTP
POP3
152. What action does a DHCPv4 client take if it receives more than one DHCPOFFER from
multiple DHCP servers?
It sends a DHCPREQUEST that identifies which lease offer the client is accepting.*
It sends a DHCPNAK and begins the DHCP process over again.
It discards both offers and sends a new DHCPDISCOVER.
It accepts both DHCPOFFER messages and sends a DHCPACK.
153. To what legacy address class does the address 10.0.0.0 belong?
Class B
Class D
Class A*
Class C
Class E
154. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?
radio waves*
fiber
microwave
UTP
155. Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?
EUI-64
static
SLAAC*
stateful DHCPv6
156. What is a characteristic of DNS?
DNS servers can cache recent queries to reduce DNS query traffic.*
DNS servers are programmed to drop requests for name translations that are not within their
zone.
All DNS servers must maintain mappings for the entire DNS structure.
DNS relies on a hub-and-spoke topology with centralized servers.
157. What is the prefix for the host address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15
2001:DB8:BC15:A*
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12
158. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?
Layer 2 next hops
MAC address to IPv4 address mappings*
IP address to interface mappings
the IP addresses of all neighboring routers
159. Which command can an administrator issue on a Cisco router to send debug messages to
the vty lines?terminal monitor*
logging console
logging buffered
logging synchronous
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What is a disadvantage of deploying a peer-to-peer network model?

difficulty of setup

lack of centralized administration

high degree of complexity

high cost

Explanation:

The simplest peer-to-peer network consists of two computers that are directly connected to each other through
the use of a wired or wireless connection. The primary disadvantages of a peer-to-peer network are its lack of
central administration, minimal security, and its lack of scalability.

2. Question

What is a purpose of an IP address?

It identifies the physical location of a data center.

It identifies a location in memory from which a program runs.

It identifies a return address for replying to email messages.

It identifies the source and destination of data packets.

Explanation:

Packets that are routed across the Internet contain source and destination IP addresses. These addresses are used to
determine how the packets should be routed from source to destination by intermediate devices.

3. Question

A consumer places a smartphone close to a pay terminal at a store and the shopping charge is successfully paid.
Which type of wireless technology was used?

Bluetooth

NFC

Wi-Fi

3G

Explanation:

NFC is a wireless technology that allows data to be exchanged between devices that are in very close proximity to
each other.

4. Question

Which type of network cable is commonly used to connect office computers to the local network?

coaxial cable

twisted-pair cable

glass fiber-optic cable

plastic fiber-optic cable

Explanation:

Twisted-pair is a type of copper cable used to interconnect devices on a local network.

5. Question
What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling to interconnect devices? (Choose two.)

Fiber-optic cable is immune from EMI and RFI.

Fiber-optic cables can extend several miles.

Fiber-optic cables use extra shielding to protect copper wires.

Fiber-optic cables are easy to install..

Fiber-optic cables are commonly found in both homes and small businesses.

Explanation:

Fiber-optic cables provide immunity to both EMI and RFI and a single cable can extend for several miles before
regeneration is needed.

6. Question

The functions of which two layers of the OSI model are matched to the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?
(Choose two.)

application

physical

transport

network

data link

Explanation:

The application layer of the TCP/IP model is composed of the application, presentation, and session layers of the
OSI model and is used by network applications to complete specific tasks. The network access layer of the TCP/IP
model is composed of the physical and data link layers of the OSI model and describes how a device accesses and
sends data over the network media.

7. Question

What is the minimum size of a valid Ethernet frame?

48 bytes

64 bytes

96 bytes

128 bytes

Explanation:

Ethernet standards define a frame with a minimum of 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes including fields of
destination MAC address, source MAC, Length/Type, data payload, and FCS.

8. Question

A network design engineer has been asked to design the IP addressing scheme for a customer network. The
network will use IP addresses from the 192.168.30.0/24 network. The engineer allocates 254 IP addresses for the
hosts on the network but excludes 192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses. Why must the engineer
exclude these two IP addresses?

192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses are reserved for the email and DNS servers.

192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses are reserved for outside Internet connectivity.

192.168.30.0/24 is the network IP address and 192.168.30.255/24 is the IP broadcast address.

192.168.30.0/24 is the IP address reserved for the default gateway, and 192.168.30.255/24 is the IP address
reserved for the DHCP server.

Explanation:

The IPv4 addressing system is a hierarchical addressing system. An IPv4 address is made up of two parts, the
network address and the host address. When the host portion is all “0s” in binary, it is designated as a network
address. When the host portion is all “1s” in binary, it is designated as a broadcast address. These two addresses
cannot be assigned to individual hosts.

9. Question

Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses to hosts?

DNS

NAT

DHCP

HTTP

Explanation:

DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is used to automatically assign IP addresses to hosts that are
configured as DHCP clients.

10. Question

What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.)

conserves registered public IP addresses

reduces CPU usage on customer routers

creates multiple public IP addresses

hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet

permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses

improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet

Explanation:

Private IP addresses are designed to be exclusively used for internal networks and they cannot be used on the
Internet. Thus they are not visible directly from the Internet and they can be used freely by network administrators
for internal networks. In order for the internal hosts to access the Internet, NAT is used to translate between private
and public IP addresses. NAT takes an internal private IP address and translates it to a global public IP address before
the packet is forwarded.
11. Question

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

to make reading a 32-bit address easier

to relieve IPv4 address depletion

to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry

to allow NAT support for private addressing

Explanation:

IPv4 addressing space is exhausted by the rapid growth of the Internet and the devices connected to the Internet.
IPv6 expands the IP addressing space by increasing the address length from the 32 bits to 128 bits, which should
provide sufficient addresses for future Internet growth needs for many years to come.

12. Question

Which three pieces of information are identified by a URL? (Choose three.)

the MAC address of the web server

the protocol that is being used

the domain name that is being accessed

the IP address of the gateway

the version of the browser

the location of the resource

Explanation:

URLs are used to access specific content on a web server through a web browser. The URL identifies the protocol
that is being used such as HTTP or FTP, the domain of the server, and the location of the resource on the server.

13. Question

Which protocol is used by web servers to serve up a web page?

FTP

HTTP

IMAP

POP

Explanation:

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a protocol that is used by web servers to serve up a web page.

14. Question

Why do streaming audio and video applications use UDP instead of TCP?

Streaming audio and video applications require receipt of all packets regardless of delay.

The three-way handshake used in UDP speeds up the audio and video streams.

Streaming audio and video applications cannot tolerate the delay caused by retransmission.
UDP provides guaranteed segment delivery to provide reliable audio and video streams.

Explanation:

UDP is a ‘best effort’ delivery system that does not require acknowledgment of receipt and is the preferred transport
service for streaming audio and video. UDP provides low overhead and does not implement as much delay as TCP.
Streaming audio and video cannot tolerate network traffic congestion and long delays.

15. Question

At which layer of the TCP/IP model does TCP operate?

transport

application

internetwork

network access

Explanation:

TCP is the Transmission Control Protocol and it operates at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model. TCP ensures that
IP packets are delivered reliably.

16. Question

Which protocol is used to transfer web pages from a server to a client device?

HTML

SMTP

HTTP

SSH

POP

Explanation:

The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) provides services between a web browser requesting web pages and a web
server responding to the requests. HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is a markup language to instruct a web
browser how to interpret and display a web page.

17. Question

Which type of device filtering can be enabled on some wireless access points or wireless routers?

authentication

IP address

user ID

MAC address

Explanation:

On wireless access points, MAC addresses can be manually entered to filter which devices are allowed on the
wireless network.
18. Question

Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

MAC address table

SSID

WEP

WPA

Explanation:

When a wireless AP or router is being set up, an SSID is configured to uniquely identify the WLAN that is managed by
the device.

19. Question

What type of Internet connection would be best for a residence in a remote area without mobile phone coverage
or wired connectivity?

dial-up

cellular

satellite

DSL

Explanation:

Satellite Internet service provides the best option for a home user that would otherwise have no Internet
connectivity at all. Cellular Internet is only available in areas with mobile phone coverage.

20. Question

Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure as it
travels over the air in a wireless network?

encryption

authentication

traffic filtering

MAC address filtering

Explanation:

Encryption is used to secure plaintext data that would be viewable traveling over a wireless network.

21. Question

Which three steps must be completed to manually connect an Android or IOS device to a secured wireless
network? (Choose three.)

Input the authentication password.

Enter the network SSID.

Choose the correct security type.

Set the IP address.

Activate the Bluetooth antenna.

Change the MAC address.

Explanation:

In order to connect an Android or IOS device to a Wi-Fi network manually, perform these steps:

Enter the network SSID of the wireless network.

Choose the security type used by the wireless network.

Input the password to authenticate successfully.

22. Question

Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

pretexting

brute force

phishing

zombies

vishing

malware

Explanation:

Attacks aimed at exploiting human behavior such as pretexting, phishing, and vishing are commonly used by hackers
to obtain information directly from authorized users.

23. Question

Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?

240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255

224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255

169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255

127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255

Explanation:

Multicast IPv4 addresses use the reserved class D address range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

24. Question

An intruder tries a large number of possibilities in rapid succession to guess a password. As a result, other users on
the network are locked out. What type of attack has occurred?

DDoS

brute force

ping of death

SYN flooding

Explanation:
In a brute force attack, an unauthorized person will try to gain access to a system by sending as many passwords as
possible as rapidly as possible.

25. Question

What type of DoS attack originates from a malicious host that has an invalid source IP address and that requests a
client connection?

ping of death

SYN flooding

phishing

brute force

Explanation:

SYN flooding is a type of denial of services attack where the attacker sends fake session requests to a target host in
an attempt to prevent the host from responding to legitimate session requests.

26. Question

Which two ports can be used for the initial configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

AUX

console

flash slot

LAN interface

WAN interface

Explanation:

The AUX and console ports on a Cisco 1941 router can be used to perform initial setup. The initial setup does not
require that the router be connected to a network. A network administrator uses a computer to connect to the
console ports directly. A network administrator can also access the router remotely through a dialup phone line and
a modem connected to the AUX port. LAN and WAN interfaces are used to connect to networks. The flash slots
expand storage capability through the use of a compact flash card.

27. Question

When is an IP address required to be configured on a Cisco LAN switch?

when the switch is connected to another switch

when the switch must forward LAN traffic

when the switch needs to be managed through an in-band connection

when the switch is configured from a computer connected to the console port

Explanation:

A LAN switch uses Layer 2 addresses to determine how to forward packets. An IP address is only necessary if the
switch needs to be remotely managed through an in-band connection on the network.

28. Question

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

encryption
more connection lines

connection-oriented services

username and password authentication

Explanation:

Both Telnet and SSH are used to remotely connect to a network device for management tasks. However, Telnet uses
plaintext communications, whereas SSH provides security for remote connections by providing encryption of all
transmitted data between devices.

29. Question

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is statically assigning an IP address to a PC. The default gateway is
correct. What would be a valid IP address to assign to the host?

128.106.10.100

128.107.255.1

128.107.255.254

128.108.100.10

Explanation:

In data communication, the default gateway device is involved only when a host needs to communicate with other
hosts on another network. The default gateway address identifies a network device used by hosts to communicate
with devices on remote networks. The IP address of the host and the default gateway address must be in the same
network. With the default subnet mask, valid host IP addresses range from 128.107.0.1 to 128.107.255.254.

30. Question

Which three items should be documented after troubleshooting an internal web server crash? (Choose three.)

when the problem occurred

the dialogue with the user

the configuration of all networking devices on the LAN at the time of the crash

the configuration of all hosts on the LAN at the time of the crash

steps that were performed to identify the cause of the problem

steps that were performed that failed to identify the cause of the problem

Explanation:

Proper documentation is a very important step in troubleshooting. The proper documentation can help troubleshoot
the same or similar problems in the future. The documentation should include as much information as possible
about the following:

the problem encountered

steps taken to determine the cause of the problem

steps to correct the problem and ensure that it will not reoccur

31. Question

Which step should be taken next once a problem is resolved during a troubleshooting process?

Consult an FAQ.
Escalate the problem.

Update the documentation.

Run remote access software.

Explanation:

Proper documentation can help troubleshoot the same or similar problems in the future. Proper documentation
should include the type of error encountered, the steps taken to determine the cause of the problem, and the steps
taken to correct the problem.

32. Question

Which three pieces of information are revealed by the ipconfig command (without the /all switch)? (Choose
three.)

IP address

DHCP server

subnet mask

default gateway

DNS server

MAC address

Explanation:

The ipconfig command is used to display the current TCP/IP network configuration values of the device. This includes
the IP address; the subnet mask and the default gateway addresses. Using the ipconfig /all switch displays additional
information like the physical address of the device and the DHCP server address among other things.

33. Question

Fill in the blank.

A zombie is a computer that is infected with malicious software and instructed to join a botnet.

Explanation:

Zombies are computer systems that are infected with bot software which, once activated, instructs infected
machines to function as a botnet.

34. Question

Match the router prompt to the configuration task.

35. Question

Match the command to the function.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. Question

What is the reason that electronic data is represented as bits in computer processing and data communication?

Bits are the format best understood by people.

Bits are more secure and make transmissions harder to hack.

Bits are more efficient for storing data.

Bits decrease the number of connections that need to be made.

Explanation:

In electronic communication, data is represented by 1’s and 0’s. These 1’s and 0’s are referred to as binary digits.
This format is identified as digital binary. All electronic data is stored in this binary format because it can be stored
more efficiently and can be transmitted over longer distances without the quality becoming degraded.

2. Question

Which term is used to describe a network device that relies on another device to obtain information?

web server

console

server

client

Explanation:

A client device has software installed which enables it to request the required service from a server device. For
instance, a user who uses a web browser is effectively requesting pages from servers all over the web. In this case
the browser is considered the client, whereas the device that is responsible for answering the request is considered
the server.

3. Question

What is a role of an intermediary device on a network?

functions as the primary source of information for end devices

determines the path and directs data along the way to its final destination

runs applications that support collaboration for business

forms the interface between the human network and the underlying communication network

Explanation:

Processes running on the intermediary network devices perform functions like regenerating and re-transmitting data
signals, maintaining information about what pathways exist through the network and internetwork, directing data
along alternate pathways when there is a link failure, and permitting or denying the flow of data, based on security
settings.
4. Question

Which type of network component can be used to share an attached printer to the network?

personal computer

peripheral

access point

network media

Explanation:

A peripheral is a device that is not directly connected to a network. In order to be made available on a network, a
host is responsible for sharing the peripheral across the network.

5. Question

Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

tablet

laptop

scanner

printer

touch-pad with digital stylus

Explanation:

A shared peripheral device does not connect directly to a network. This device is attached to a host (such as a PC)
and the host connects to the network to share the peripheral device.

6. Question

When troubleshooting network problems, where would a network administrator find the configuration
information, such as the computer names and the IP addresses that are used?

physical topology diagram

DHCP server

DNS server

logical topology diagram

Explanation:

A logical topology usually contains relevant network configuration information, such as the following:

Device names

Device IP addressing

Network designations

Configuration information

7. Question
When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

when connecting a host to another host

when connecting a host to a router

when connecting a host to a switch

when connecting a router to another router

Explanation:

When two unlike devices are connected, they require a straight-through cable to exchange data. When two like
devices are connected together, they require the use of a crossover cable in order to reverse the transmit and
receive functions so they can exchange data.

8. Question

Which organization publishes and manages the Request for Comments (RFC) documents?

IEEE

ISO

IETF

TIA/EIA

Explanation:

The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) organization publishes and manages the Request for Comments (RFC).

9. Question

What is indicated by the 100 in the 100BASE-T standard?

meters

feet

megabits per second

twists per meter

Explanation:

100BASE-T is an Ethernet standard that translates to 100 megabits per second, baseband transmission, and twisted
pair cable.

10. Question

What is the default subnet mask for an IP address of 198.133.219.4?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.255

Explanation:

In classful IPv4 addressing, a network with the first octet of 198 is a Class C network with the default subnet mask of
255.255.255.0.

11. Question
What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

Explanation:

Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These types of
messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer addresses. A multicast
transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to
exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast
groups on a local network.

12. Question

A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A DHCP
server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a client device
obtain a usable IP address for this network?

Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255.

Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address.

Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP server.

Explanation:

Like IP addressing, there is also a special MAC address for broadcast purposes: FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF. When a DHCP
client needs to send a DHCP Discover message in order to seek DHCP servers, the client will use this MAC address as
the destination MAC address in the Ethernet frame. It does this because it has no knowledge of the IP and MAC
addresses of DHCP servers.

13. Question

Which number grouping is a valid IPv6 address?

1234:1230::1238::1299:1000::

12aa::1298:1200::129b

1b10::1100::2001::2900::ab11::1102::0000::2900

2001:0db8:3c55:0015:1010:0000:abcd:ff13

Explanation:

An IPv6 address is made up of 128 bits represented in hexadecimal numbers.There are two rules that help reduce
the number of digits needed to represent an IPv6 address.

Rule 1 – Omit leading zeros in any 16-bit section.

Rule 2 – Replace any single group of consecutive zeros with a double colon (::). This can only be used once within an
IPv6 address.

14. Question

Which protocol operates at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model and ensures reliable delivery of IP packets?

HTTP

IP

UDP

TCP

Explanation:

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) operates at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model. TCP ensures that IP packets
are delivered reliably.

15. Question

Which term is used to describe transport layer ports in the range of 1 through 1023?

private

well-known

registered

source

Explanation:

Port numbers are addressed at the transport layer of the OSI model by TCP and UDP to identify requested protocols
and services. Port numbers in the range of 1 to 1023 are well-known ports.

16. Question

What is a function of a DNS server?

It determines the IP address that is associated with a specific host domain name.

It maps IP addresses to physical addresses.

It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses.

It assigns logical address information to host computers.

Explanation:

Hosts are assigned with IP addresses in order to communicate over the network. Hosts are registered with domain
names so people can remember and recognize them easily. However, computers are connected through their IP
addresses. DNS provides the service to map the domain name to its IP address.

17. Question

What are two benefits of wireless networks over wired networks? (Choose two.)

anytime, anywhere connectivity

immunity to interference

increased security

mobility
speed

Explanation:

Benefits of wireless technology include the following:

Mobility – easy device connectivity

Flexibility – anytime, anywhere connectivity

Scalability – easily expanded

Cost savings – equipment costs continue to drop

Quick installation – does not take long to install and provides connectivity for quite a range

Reliability – even in harsh environments, wireless can be easy to install in emergency or hostile environments

18. Question

Which type of network is covered by the IEEE 802.11 standards?

Internet

WAN

Wi-Fi

Ethernet

Explanation:

IEEE 802.11 wireless standards use the 2.4 and 5 GHz unregulated frequency ranges.

19. Question

When a wireless router is being configured for the first time, what type of wired connection is used?

console cable

Ethernet patch cable

modem cable

telephone cable

Explanation:

A straight-through Ethernet cable, or patch cable, is commonly used to connect to a wireless router for initial
configuration.

20. Question

Which is an example of social engineering?

a computer displaying unauthorized pop-ups and adware

the infection of a computer by a virus carried by a Trojan

an anonymous programmer directing a DDoS attack on a data center

an unidentified person claiming to be a technician collecting user information from employees

Explanation:
A social engineer attempts to gain the confidence of an employee and convince that person to divulge confidential
and sensitive information, such as usernames and passwords. DDoS attacks, pop-ups, and viruses are all examples of
software based security threats, not social engineering.

21. Question

Which malicious program appears as a legitimate program to deceive the victim, but is in fact an attack tool that
can contain malicious code?

Trojan horse

worm

virus

spyware

Explanation:

A Trojan horse is a malicious program that appears legitimate but actually carries code which can damage computer
systems or install backdoors if the program is initiated.

22. Question

A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded file, the hard drive crashes and all
information on the computer is lost. What type of attack occurred?

worm

virus

Trojan horse

denial of service

Explanation:

Viruses are malicious programs that are spread by modifying other programs and files and can cause hard drives to
crash and files to be lost.

23. Question

What is required for a network administrator to perform out-of-band management tasks on a Cisco device?

a valid IP address configured on VLAN 1

SSH enabled and functional on the device

an active network connection available to the device

a computer directly connected to the console port of the device

Explanation:

With out-of-band management, the only requirement is to have a computer directly connected to the console port
of the device. This is the primary method to configure a new device because no network connection or prior
configurations on the device is required.

24. Question

What are two options for expanding storage space on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

RAM

ROM
NVRAM

flash slots

USB ports

Explanation:

ROM and RAM are memory modules built into a Cisco device and their capacity does not change. In a Cisco 1941
router, two flash slots and two USB ports are included that expand the storage capability and flexibility. NVRAM is a
type of memory that is used to store a backup of the configuration file.

25. Question

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on a host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

The host is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

The host is unable to communicate with hosts on both the local and remote networks.

The host cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server.

Explanation:

In data communication, the default gateway device is involved only when a host needs to communicate with other
hosts on another network. The default gateway address identifies a network device that a host device uses to
communicate with devices on other networks. The default gateway device is not used when a host communicates
with other hosts on the same network.

26. Question

A user calls the help desk to report a workstation problem. Which three questions would produce the most
helpful information for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

If you received an error message, what was it?

What changes have you made to your workstation?

Do you have the warranty for your workstation?

What operating system version is running on your workstation?

Have you used a network monitoring tool on your workstation?

Have you performed a backup recently?

Explanation:

In troubleshooting, the first step is to gather information related to the problem. One way to gather information is to
ask questions of the individual who reported the problem as well as any other affected users. Questions should
include end user experiences, observed symptoms, error messages, and information about recent configuration
changes to devices or applications.

27. Question

Which command can be used to verify connectivity between two host devices?

ipconfig

ping

netstat
nslookup

Explanation:

The ping command can be used to test end-to-end connectivity between two host devices. It measures the round-
trip time for a message to get from source to destination.

28. Question

Users are complaining that they are unable to browse certain websites on the Internet. An administrator can
successfully ping a web server via its IP address, but cannot browse to the domain name of the website. Which
troubleshooting tool would be most useful in determining where the problem is?

netstat

tracert

nslookup

ipconfig

Explanation:

The nslookup command can be used to look up information about a particular DNS name in the DNS server. The
information includes the IP address of the DNS server being used as well as the IP address associated with the
specified DNS name. This command can help verify the DNS that is used and if the domain name to IP address
resolution works.

29. Question

Which utility can be used to view a list of open TCP connections on Linux or Windows systems?

Tracert

Ping

Netstat

Ipconfig

Explanation:

Netstat is a utility that is available for both Linux and Windows systems. It is a utility that can be used to indicate that
something or someone is connected to the local host. It lists the protocol in use, the local address and port numbers,
the foreign address and port numbers, and the state of the connection.

30. Question

Refer to the exhibit. The command output is from a wireless DHCP host connected to a Linksys integrated router.
What can be determined from the output?

There is a DNS problem.

A new wireless NIC needs to be installed.

The DHCP configuration needs to be checked.

The connection to the SSID needs to be verified.

An incorrect cable is being used between the host and the router.

Explanation:
The default gateway IP address must be in the same network as the host in order for the host and router to
communicate with each other. Because this is a DHCP client, the IP configuration is provided by the DHCP. Thus the
DHCP configuration should be checked and corrected.

31. Question

Fill in the blank.

When a Cisco device is powered on, the POST begins to test the device and determine if it is functioning
properly.

32. Question

Match the protocol with the function. (Not all options are used.)

33. Question

Match the term to the category.

34. Question

Match the type of attack with the description. (Not all options are used.)

35. Question

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the phrase displayed on the webpage?

Correctly done.

Configuration is successful.

Your configuration is correct.

You have configured the devices right.

Explanation:

In order for the wireless clients in the internal network to reach the Internet, the border router and the wireless
router must be configured according to the network design parameters.

Topic 17

Cisco Switches and Routers

A technician is setting up a network in a new room. What is the best device to use to connect the PCs to each
other and to the rest of the LAN?

switch

During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches run the IOS?

RAM

When a router is powered on, where will the router first search for a valid IOS image to load by default?

flash memory

Which two protocols can be used to access a Cisco switch for in-band management? (Choose two.)

SSH

Telnet

During troubleshooting procedures, from which location will most Cisco routers load a limited IOS?

ROM

Which two networking devices are used in enterprise networks for providing network connectivity to end devices?
(Choose two.)

Wireless access point

LAN switch

What is required for a network administrator to perform out-of-band management tasks on a Cisco device?

computer directly connected to the console port of the device

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

load a power-on self-test program

What are two functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

to retain contents when power is removed

to store startup configuration file

Which two ports can be used for the initial configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)
console

AUX

Which two files are loaded into RAM of a Cisco switch when it is booted? (Choose two.)

startup configuration file

IOS image file

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Topic 18

The Cisco IOS Command Line

Which Cisco IOS mode displays a prompt of Router#?

privileged EXEC mode

While troubleshooting a network problem, a network administrator issues the show version command on a
router. What information can be found by using this command?

the amount of memory NVRAM, DRAM, and flash memory installed on the router

What is the difference between the terms keyword and argument in the IOS command structure?

A keyword is a specific parameter. An argument is not predefined variable.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

exit

An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the
purpose of using these keystrokes?

To interrupt the ping process

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is
displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

the administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command

What function does pressing the Tab key have when an IOS command is entered?

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by running-config?

a keyword

Which two statements are true about the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

The device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol.

Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the
configuration of the router. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator
use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
show startup-config

show running-config

Topic 19

Build a Small Cisco Network

Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

an SSH connection

Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

VLAN 1

On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed
remotely?

VLAN 1

What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?

The contents of NVRAM will change.

What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?

Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is statically assigning an IP address to a PC. The default gateway is
correct. What would be a valid IP address to assign to the host?

128.107.255.1

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

Company policy requires using the most secure method to safeguard access to the privileged exec and
configuration mode on the routers.

The privileged exec password is trustknow1. Which of the following router commands achieves the goal of
providing the highest level of security?

enable secret trustknow1

Which command can be used to encrypt all passwords in the configuration file?

service password-encryption

Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-
day banner by using the command banner motd Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted!. When
users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?

The delimiting character appears in the banner message.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Module 20
The home computer of a user is working properly. However, the user cannot access the Internet. The Internet
connection is provided through a cable company. The user cannot identify the cause of the problem. Who should
the user contact for further help?

the help line of the cable company

A network technician enters the command ipconfig /release followed by ipconfig /renew in order to ensure that the

DHCP IP configuration on a workstation is updated. However, the workstation does not receive a valid IP
configuration for the network. Which two problems may exist on the network? (Choose two.)

There is a DHCP server issue

There is no network connectivity to the DHCP server

Refer to the exhibit. The command output is from a wireless DHCP host connected to a Linksys integrated router.
What can be determined from the output?

The DHCP configuration needs to be checked

A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several
configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What
troubleshooting technique does this represent?

substitution

A small office uses a wireless router to connect to a cable modem for internet access. The network administrator
receives a call that one office computer cannot access external websites. The first troubleshooting step that the
network administrator performs is to ping the wireless router from the office computer. Which troubleshooting
technique does this represent?

divide-and-conquer

A network administrator can successfully ping the server at www.cisco.com, but cannot ping the company web
server located at an ISP in another city. Which tool or command would help identify the specific router where the
packet was lost or delayed?

traceroute

Which command would a technician use to display network connections on a host computer?

netstat

Which three items should be documented after troubleshooting an internal web server crash? (Choose three.)

steps that were performed that failed to identify the cause of the problem

when the problem occured

steps that were performed to identify the cause of the problem

A user calls the help desk to report a workstation problem. Which three questions would produce the most
helpful information for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

What operating system version is running on your workstation?

What changes have you made to your workstation?

 If you an error messages, what was it?

What are two common causes of a physical layer network connectivity problem? (Choose two.)

a faulty Ethernet cable

An Ethernet cable plugged into a wrong port

Which step should be taken next once a problem is resolved during a troubleshooting process?

Update the documentation

Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode. (Not all options are used.)
1.18.1 Navigate the IOS

---------------------------------------------------

Enable
R1>
-----------------------------------------------------
copy running-config startup-config
R1#
-------------------------------------------------
login
R1(config-line)#
---------------------------------------------
interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config)#

Match the type of password on a Cisco device to the function. 1.19.2 Configure Initial Router Settings

--------------------------------------------------------------------------
limits access to the privileged EXEC mode
enable password
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
limits access to the device through an SSH connection
vty password
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
limits access to the device through an out-of-band connection
console password
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
encrypted and restricts access to the privileged EXEC mode
enable secret
 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------

Topic 13

Home Network

Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.

Using the default IP address on an accesspoin makes hacking easier.

What happens when a device sends an acknowledgment message to a wireless AP?

AP release the channel.

Which type of network technology is used for low-speed communication between peripheral devices?

Bluetooth

What two radio frequency bands are used in home wireless LANs? (Choose two.)

2.4 GHz

5 GHz

A student is attempting to access an 802.11n wireless network. What method is used to manage contention-based
access on this wireless network?

CSMA/CA

What type of device is commonly connected to the Ethernet ports on a home wireless router?

LAN device

What purpose would a home user have for implementing Wi-Fi?

to create a wireless network usable by other devices

Which type of wireless communication is based on 802.11 standards?

Wi-Fi

During the reservation process, what does the client send to the AP to reserve a channel?

Request to Send

What can be used to allow visitor mobile devices to connect to a wireless network and restrict access of those
devices to only the Internet?

guest SSID

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Topic 14

Connect to the Internet

Which cloud model provides services for a specific organization or entity?

a private cloud

Which is a characteristic of a Type 1 hypervisor?

installed directly on a server

Which term is used to describe the process of establishing a connection between any two Bluetooth devices?

pairing

Which technology virtualizes the network control plane and moves it to a centralized controller?

SDN

What would a technician require in order to install a hypervisor on a client machine?

virtualization software

A company uses a cloud-based payroll system. Which cloud computing technology is this company using?

software as a service (SaaS)

What type of Internet connection would be best for a residence in a remote area without mobile phone coverage
or wired connectivity?

Satellite

Which technology provides a solution for PC virtualization?

hypervisor

Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?

Applications can be accessed over the Internet through a subscription

What technology enables a cell phone to be used as a hands-free device?

Bluetooth

-----Topic 15

Security Considerations

15.1.3

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor sends you a virus that can reformat your hard drive?

data loss or manipulation

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor makes illegal online purchases using stolen credit
information?

identify theft
What kind of threat is described when a threat actor prevents legal users from accessing data services?

disruption of service

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor steals scientific research data?

information theft

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor overloads a network to deny other users network access?

disruption of service

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor alters data records?

data loss or manipulatio

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor is stealing the user database of a company?

information theft

What kind of threat is described when a threat actor impersonates another person to obtain credit information
about that person?

identify theft

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What characteristic describes a firewall appliance?

a network device that filters access and trffic coming in to a network

What characteristic describes identity theft?

to use of stolen credentials to access private data

What characteristic describes spyware?

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about

What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

What characteristic describes a virus?

malicious software or code running on an end device

What characteristic describes adware?

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about

What characteristic describes antivirus software?

applications that protect end device from becoming infected which malicious software

What characteristic describes antispam?

software that indentifies email spam and automatically deletes or places them in a junk folder

What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

malicious software or code running on an end device

What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

What characteristic describes phishing?

an email pretending to represent a legitimate organization asking for personal information

What characteristic describes antivirus software?

applications that protect end device from becoming infected which malicious software

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

15.7.3

Module 15 - Security Considerations Quiz

What is an example of social engineering?

an unidentified person claiming to be technician collecting user information from employees

What type of program installs and gathers personal information, including password and account information,
from a computer without permission or knowledge of the user?

spyware

What is the term used when a malicious party sends a fraudulent email disguised as being from a legitimate,
trusted source?

phishing

Which malicious program appears as a legitimate program to deceive the victim, but is in fact an attack tool that
can contain malicious code?

Trojan horse

What type of DoS attack originates from a malicious host that has an invalid source IP address and that requests a
client connection?

SYN flooding

Which type of attack attempts to overwhelm network links and devices with useless data?

denial of services

How does a phisher typically contact a victim?

email

Which type of technology can prevent malicious software from monitoring user activities, collecting personal
information, and producing unwanted pop-up ads on a user computer?

Antispyware
What type of attack is the ping of death?

denial of service

What is the primary means for mitigating virus and Trojan horse attacks?

Antivirus software

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Topic 16

Configure Network and Device Security

What type of authentication do most access points use by default?

open

What is the purpose of a DMZ?

It allows external hosts to access specific company servers while maintaining the security restrictions for internal
network

Which two actions improve security on a wireless network? (Choose two.)

Enable MAC filtering

Enable WEP

What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that are accessible to any users from
the Internet?

DMZ

What is a feature that can be used by an administrator to prevent unauthorized users from connecting to a
wireless access point?

MAC filtering

What is the purpose of a wireless SSID?

to uniquely identify a wireless network

Port triggering has been configured on a wireless router. Port 25 has been defined as the trigger port and port 113
as an open port. What effect does this have on network traffic?

All traffic that is sent out port 25 will open port 113 to allow inbound traffic into the internal network through port
113.

A network administrator has decided to use WPA2 for security in a WLAN. Which statement describes WPA2?

WPA2 specifies the use of a dynamic encryption key.

Which component is designed to protect against unauthorized communications to and from a computer?

firewall
Which wireless access point association parameter is used by the wireless client to distinguish between multiple
wireless networks in the same vicinity?

SSID

--------------------------------------------------------------------

Which DSL technology provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upstream bandwidth?

ADSL

------------------------

A student tells a teacher that many junk emails are appearing on a new personal laptop. What is a possible cause
of the problem?

The laptop needs to be updated to the latest OS version.

The student has spent too much time surfing the web.

The school email server is not functioning properly.

1 The new laptop does not have antivirus or anti-spam software installed.

Which type of attack exploits human behavior to gain confidential information?

virus

spyware

1 social engineering

denial of service

What is a characteristic of a computer worm?

1 exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

What is a common countermeasure for Trojan horses?

authentication

encryption

firewall

1 antivirus software

Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

1 pretexting

brute force
 zombies

1 phishing

malware

1 vishing

What wireless router configuration would stop outsiders from using your home network?

router location

network name

1 encryption

IP address

What is CSMA/CA on a network?

an access method that is used by any technology that has excessive collisions

1 an access method that is used by wireless technology to avoid collisions

an access method that is used by wireless technology to avoid duplicate SSIDs

an access method that is used by wired Ethernet technology to avoid collisions

What are three advantages of wireless over wired LAN technology? (Choose three.)

1 ease of expansion

1 lower on-going costs

higher level of security

longer transmission distance

1 ease of installation

Which feature is characteristic of MAC filtering in wireless networks?

!! It restricts computer access to a wireless network.

1 It allows only authorized users to detect the network.

It encrypts data that is transmitted on a wireless network.

It is configured on the computer rather than on the router.

Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use?

5 GHz

1 2.4 GHz

60 GHz

900 MHz
An administrator wants to configure a router so that users on the outside network can only establish HTTP
connections to the internal web site. Which feature would the administrator configure to accomplish this?

static NAT

PAT

NAT overload

1 port forwarding

What specialized network device is responsible for permitting or blocking traffic between networks?

access point

bridge

1 firewall

switch

What happens when a wireless access point is configured to stop broadcasting the SSID?

The identity of the network is freely broadcast.

Computer access to the wireless access point is restricted.

1 The network is invisible to those who are unaware of the SSID.

Signals are prevented from transmission outside the boundaries of the local netw

Which type of device provides an Internet connection through the use of a phone jack?

cable modem

1 DSL modem

satellite modem

Wi-Fi AP

Which cloud computing opportunity would provide the use of network hardware such as routers and switches for
a particular company?

software as a service (SaaS)

wireless as a service (WaaS)

1 infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

browser as a service (BaaS)

What are two types of wired high-speed Internet connections? (Choose two.)

dial-up

cellular

1 DSL
1 cable

satellite

What technology allows users to access data anywhere and at any time?

virtualization

micromarketing

1 Cloud computing

data analytics

Which three steps must be completed to manually connect an Android or IOS device to a secured wireless
network? (Choose three.)

1 Input the authentication password.

Change the MAC address.

1 Choose the correct security type.

Activate the Bluetooth antenna.

Set the IP address.

1 Enter the network SSID.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Topic 9

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client
is looking for a DHCP server? Какой IPv4-адрес назначения использует DHCPv4-клиент для отправки
начального пакета DHCP Discover, когда клиент ищет DHCP-сервер?

255.255.255.255

Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period? Какой
метод распределения адресов DHCPv4 назначает адреса IPv4 на ограниченный период аренды?

dynamic allocation

Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server? Какое
сообщение DHCPv4 отправит клиент, чтобы принять адрес IPv4, предлагаемый сервером DHCP?

broadcast DHCPREQUEST

Refer to the exhibit. A user is configuring a PC with the IP settings as displayed, but the operating system will not
accept them. What is the problem? Обратитесь к выставке. Пользователь настраивает ПК с параметрами IP,
как показано, но операционная система не принимает их. В чем проблема?

The IP address is not usable host address.

Which two types of devices are typically assigned static IP addresses? (Choose two.) Каким двум типам
устройств обычно назначаются статические IP-адреса? (Выберите два.)

printers

web servers
A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when
communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

Клиентский компьютер с поддержкой DHCP только что загрузился. На каких двух этапах

клиентский компьютер будет использовать широковещательные сообщения при

взаимодействии с DHCP-сервером? (Выберите два.)

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPREQUEST

Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large
networks? (Choose two.)

Какие две причины обычно делают DHCP предпочтительным методом назначения IP-адресов

хостам в больших сетях? (Выберите два.)

It reduces the burden on the network support staff.

It eliminates most address configuration error.

If more than one DHCP server is available on the local network, in which order will DHCP messages be sent
between a host and a DHCP server?

Если в локальной сети доступно более одного DHCP-сервера, в каком порядке будут

отправляться DHCP-сообщения между хостом и DHCP-сервером?

discover, offer, request, asknowledgment.

A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured
with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the
pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

DHCP-сервер используется для динамического назначения IP-адресов хостам в сети.

Пул адресов настроен как 192.168.10.0/24. В этой сети есть 3 принтера, которым

необходимо использовать зарезервированные статические IP-адреса из пула. Сколько

IP-адресов в пуле осталось назначить другим хостам?

251

Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

Какое утверждение о работе DHCP верно?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcast a DHCPDISCOVER

message to identify any DHCP servers on the network.

Topic 10

Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length

IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers

Which network technology allows devices to communicate using both IPv4 and IPv6 addressing at the same time?

dual stack
What is an advantage of using IPv6 ?

more addresses for networks and hosts

Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

Which number grouping is a valid IPv6 address?

2001: 0db8: 3c55: 0015: 1010: abcd: ff13

Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

SLAAC

Which IPv6 address notation is valid?

2001: DB8: 0: 0015: 1111: 200

Typically, which network device would be used to perform NAT for a corporate environment?

router

What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?

Link-local

Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over

IPv4 network infrastructures?

Tunneling

Topic 11

Why is UDP well suited as the transport layer protocol for video applications?

UDP has low overhead

Which transport layer information is added to both the TCP and UDP headers?

port numbers

What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?

applications that are sensitive to delay.

What protocol header information is used at the transport layer to identify a target application?

port number

A client device has initiated a secure HTTP request to a web browser. Which well-known port address number

is associated with the destination address?

443

Which number or set of numbers represents a socket?

192.168.1.1:80

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the application layer service being requested from Server0 by PC0?

HTTPS
What information is used by TCP to reassemble and reorder received segments?

sequence numbers

What type of port number is assigned by IANA to commonly used services and applications?

well-known port

Which protocol operates at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model and ensures reliable delivery of IP packets?

TCP

What is a characteristic of UDP?

It provides unreliable delivery of segments.

What is the well-known port address number used by DNS to serve requests?

53

Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP

at the transport layer?

The client randomly selects a source port number

__________________________________________________________________________________________

Topic 12

A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. Which
port number should be selected when using the POP3 protocol to access messages stored on the email server?

110

What is the advantage of using SSH over Telnet?

SSH provides secure communications to access hosts

Which protocol retains a message in a mailbox on a server, even after the message is accessed by a user on a local

client device?

IMAP4

A new employee is attempting to configure a cell phone to connect to the email server of the company. Which
port number should be selected when using the IMAP4 protocol to access email messages stored on the local
server?

143

Which protocol is used to transfer web pages from a server to a client device?

HTTP

A new employee is configuring a cell phone for company email. Once configured, what is the destination port
number used when the employee sends an email from the phone?

25

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol allows a user to type www.cisco.com instead of an IP address to access the
web server?

DNS
Which communication tool allows multiple users to communicate with each other in real time by using a
smartphone application or social media site?

Instant messaging

An employee of a company is attempting to remotely access a computer system using a virtual terminal (vty)
session via Telnet. Which destination port number should the employee put in the remote access software being
used?

23

What two characteristics describe an FTP connection? (Choose two.)

Files can be downloaded from or uploaded to the server.

The first connection established is for traffic control and the second connection is created to transfer a file.

Which protocol is used by web servers to serve up a web page?

HTTP

Which protocol removes messages from the server after they have been accessed by a client?

POP3

When analog voice signals are converted for use on a computer network, in what format are they encapsulated?

IP packets.

EXAM

What is the result if the default gateway address is misconfigured on a PC?

The PC can communicate with devices in the same network but not with those in remote networks.

The PC can communicate with devices in remote networks but not with those in the same network.

The PC can communicate with devices both in remote networks and in the same network.

1 The PC cannot communicate with any devices.

What purpose does NAT64 serve in IPv6?

It converts IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

It converts regular IPv6 addresses into 64-bit addresses that can be used on the Internet.

It converts the 48-bit MAC address into a 64-bit host address that can be used for automatic host addressing.

It translates private IPv6 addresses into public IPv6 addresses.

It enables companies to use IPv6 unique local addresses in the network.

Which statement accurately describes dynamic NAT?

It always maps a private IP address to a public IP address.

It dynamically provides IP addressing to internal hosts.

It provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses.

It provides a mapping of internal host names to IP addresses.

An employee is having connectivity issues. Why might a network technician try to ping the default gateway from
the employee laptop?
 to verify that an IP address was provided by the DHCP server

to determine if the laptop address is included in the DNS server

to verify connectivity with the device that provides access to remote networks

to verify that the SVI interface on the switch is configured correctly

Which type of IPv6 address is not routable and used only for communication on a single subnet?

unspecified address

loopback address

link-local address

unique local address

global unicast address

Which two applications provide virtual terminal access to remote servers? (Choose two.)

Telnet

SMTP

DHCP

DNS

SSH

Which two protocols are used in the process of sending and receiving emails? (Choose two.)

SSH

POP

HTTP

FTP

SMTP

Match the term to a function.

HTML used to create web pages

HTTP protocol commonly used by a web browser

HTTPS secure protocol that uses port 443

web server hosts a web page

web client requests a web page

What type of server would use IMAP?

DNS

Telnet

DHCP

email

FTP

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the IP address of this server?

209.165.201.3

209.165.201.4

192.168.10.100

192.168.10.1

What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?

to assemble the segments that arrived out of order

to inquire for a nonreceived segment

to keep track of multiple conversations between devices

to notify the remote device that the conversation is over

What is an advantage of UDP over TCP?

UDP communication is more reliable.

UDP communication requires less overhead.

UDP reorders segments that are received out of order.

UDP acknowledges received data.

How does a client computer determine what source port number to assign to a UDP header?

The port number is random within the range of dynamic port numbers.

The port number is based on a well-known port number that is open on the destination device.

The port number is based on a well-known port number that is assigned to the application on the sending device.

The port number is based on the application that created the data.

What is a socket?

the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers

the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers

the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number

Which type of applications are best suited to use UDP as the transport layer protocol?

applications that require minimal transmission delay

applications that require data to be reassembled in a specific order

applications that require flow control

applications that require stateful sessions

A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured
with 172.30.8.0/24. There are 7 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the
pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

249
 247

251

254

How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP server?

A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP server as the destination address.

1 A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all DHCP servers listen to as the destination
address.

A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default gateway as the destination address.

A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as the destination address.

(A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP.)

What message is sent by the server to let the client know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK

DHCPNACK

Why is DHCP for IPv4 preferred for use on large networks?

DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.

It is a more efficient way to manage IPv4 addresses than static address assignment is.

Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution than do smaller networks.

It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.

Hosts on large networks require more IPv4 addressing configuration settings than do hosts on small networks.

Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message from a DHCP server?

DHCPOFFER

DHCPREQUEST

DHCPACK

DHCPDISCOVER

What layer of the TCP/IP suite makes sure that all the data packets of a message arrive safely at the destination?

internet

application

transport

network access

Which three pieces of information are identified by a URL? (Choose three.)

the version of the browser

the domain name that is being accessed

 the IP address of the gateway

the MAC address of the web server

the location of the resource

the protocol that is being used

What is a function of a DNS server?

It assigns logical address information to host computers.

It determines the IP address that is associated with a specific host domain name.

It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses.

It maps IP addresses to physical addresses.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What message is displayed on the webpage?

A secure web server is running!

A web server should run secure services!

A secure web server is the way to go!

A web server provides secure communication!

What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address
2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

16

32

Which three types of nodes should be assigned static IP addresses on a network? (Choose three.)

desktop PCs

gateways

tablets

servers

mobile laptops

printers
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is configured to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. PC1 has been shut
down for two weeks. When PC1 boots and tries to request an available IP address, which destination IP address
will PC1 place in the IP header?

192.168.1.255

192.168.1.8

255.255.255.255

192.168.1.1

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Topic 5

Which organization publishes and manages the Request for Comments (RFC) documents?

IETF

What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?

MAC address

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model?
(Choose three.)

application

presentation

session

Which term refers to the set of rules that define how a network operates?

Standard

Which standards organization publishes current Ethernet standards?

IEEE

Which statement describes a MAC address?

It is a physical address assigned to each Ethernet NIC by manufacturer

Which three elements do all communication methods have in common? (Choose three.)

message source

message destination
transmission medium.

Which two layers of the OSI model specify protocols that are associated with Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

physical layer

data link layer

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications
between end devices?

transport

Which statement defines a data communications protocol?

a set of rules that govern the communication process.

_____________________________________________________________________

Topic 6

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

router

Which term refers to the process of placing one message format inside another message format?

encapsulation

What is the purpose of the core layer in the Cisco hierarchical network design model?

high-speed backbone switching

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information
found in the MAC address table?

switch

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is
empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the swich.

What information does an Ethernet switch examine and use to build its address table?

source MAC address

Which three fields are found in an 802.3 Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)

frame check sequence

source physical address

destination physical address

Which two devices would commonly be found at the access layer of the hierarchical enterprise LAN design model?
(Choose two.)

Layer 2 switch
access point

Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?

Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain.

How much data can be encapsulated into a normal sized Ethernet frame before it is sent over the network?

46 to 1500 bytes

What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?

To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known

_________________________________________________________________________

Topic 7

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

destination IP asdress

A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that the packet needs to be forwarded
out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router do next?

create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination

Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host
H1?

R1: G0/0

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP
address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

switch the packetto the directly connected interface

What will a router do if it cannot determine where to forward an incoming packet?

The router will drop it.

In implementing a LAN in a corporation, what are three advantages of dividing hosts between multiple networks
connected by a distribution layer? (Choose three.)

It makes the hosts invisible to those on other local network segments.

It provide increased security.

It splits up broadcast domains and decreases traffic.

What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

directly connected route

Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

network portion

What role does a router play on a network?

selecting the path to destination network.

A router receives an incoming packet and determines that the destination host is located on a LAN directly
attached to one of the router interfaces. Which destination address will the router use to encapsulate the
Ethernet frame when forwarding the packet?

MAC address of the the destination host

Which address should be configured as the default gateway address of a client device?

the IPv4 address of the router interface that is connected to the same LAN.

___________________________________________________________________________

Topic 8

A network design engineer has been asked to design the IP addressing scheme for a customer network. The
network will use IP addresses from the 192.168.30.0/24 network. The engineer allocates 254 IP addresses for the
hosts on the network but excludes 192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses. Why must the engineer
exclude these two IP addresses?

192.168.30.0/24 is the network IP address and 192.168.30.255/24 is the IP brosdcast address.

What are three private IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

192.168.5.5

172.16.4.4

10.1.1.1

Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?

224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255

Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

to identify the network address to destination network

What are three characteristics of a multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

When IPv4 is configured for a computer on a network, what does the subnet mask identify?

the part of the IP address that identifies the network.

Which network does a host with IP address 172.32.65.13 reside on if it is using a default subnet mask?

172.32.0.0.

A technician is setting up equipment on a network. Which three devices will need IP addresses? (Choose three.)

A web camera that is attached to a host.

An IP phone.

A server with to NICs.

Which IP address type is intended for a specific host?

unicast
What is the equivalent decimal value given a binary number of 11001010?

202

How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

254

What are two differences between binary and decimal numbers? (Choose two.)

Binary numbers are based on powers of 2.

decimal numbers include 0 through 9.

_________________________________________________________________________

EXAM 5-8

A router receives an incoming packet and determines that the packet should be forwarded to a remote
destination host. What will the router do to forward the packet?

It encapsulates the frame with the destination IP address by using the specific IP address configured on the
interface of the next hop router.

It encapsulates the frame with the destination MAC address by using the MAC address of the interface of the next-
hop router.

It encapsulates the frame with a source IP address by using the specific IP address of the destination host.

It encapsulates the frame with a destination MAC address by using the specific MAC address of the destination
host device.

A router is receiving a stream of incoming packets and does not contain a route to the remote destination
network. What configuration can a network administrator issue in order to successfully forward the incoming
packets?

Add a default route.

Enable a dynamic routing protocol.

Share the routing table with the hosts on the local network.

Change the IP address of the ingress interface to match the targeted destination network.

A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the
probable cause of this problem?

The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.

The computer has an invalid IP address.

The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.

Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

packet forwarding

path selection

microsegmentation

domain name resolution

 flow control

Which type of network model describes the functions that must be completed at a particular layer, but does not
specify exactly how each protocol should work?

TCP/IP model

protocol model

reference model

hierarchical design model

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

session

data link

physical

transport

network

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

dictating the content of the message sent during communication

specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

session

application

presentation

data link

network

transport

What is indicated by the 100 in the 100BASE-T standard?

twists per meter

meters

megabits per second

feet

Which IP address is a unicast address if a default subnet mask is used?

201.34.45.0

226.34.15.78
 195.124.45.255

192.16.43.67

Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

172.32.5.2

192.168.5.5

10.1.1.1

172.16.4.4

192.167.10.10

224.6.6.6

When a host sends a packet, how does it determine if the destination of the packet is on the same local network
or on a remote network?

It uses the subnet mask to compare the source and destination IP address.

It checks to see if the default gateway is configured.

It queries the DNS server with the destination IP address.

It compares the source and destination MAC addresses.

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

broadcast

unicast

dynamic

multicast

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the
destination?

decoding

flow control

access control

encapsulation

What are the three layers of a hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)

network

core

distribution

application

access

Internet

What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?
 the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets

the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames

the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets

A small publishing company has a network design such that when a broadcast is sent on the LAN, 200 devices
receive the transmitted broadcast. How can the network administrator reduce the number of devices that receive
broadcast traffic?

Replace the switches with switches that have more ports per switch. This will allow more devices on a particular
switch.

Replace at least half of the switches with hubs to reduce the size of the broadcast domain.

Add more switches so that fewer devices are on a particular switch.

Segment the LAN into smaller LANs and route between them .

What action does the ARP process take when a host needs to build a frame, but the ARP cache does not contain
an address mapping?

The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the IPv4 broadcast address to discover the IPv4 address of the
destination device.

The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the Ethernet broadcast address to discover the MAC address of the
destination device.

The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the IPv4 broadcast address to discover the MAC address of the
destination device.

The ARP process sends out an ARP request to the Ethernet broadcast address to discover the IPv4 address of the
destination device.

It encapsulates the frame with the destination IP address by using the specific IP address configured on the
interface of the next hop router.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default
gateway address?

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

What is indicated by the 100 in the 100BASE-T standard?

megabits per second

meters

feet

twists per meter

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

 A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.

What is the default subnet mask for an IP address of 198.133.219.4?

255.255.0.0

255.0.0.0

255.255.255.255

255.255.255.0

Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

physical portion

logical portion

host portion

broadcast portion

network portion

subnet portion

_____________________________________________________________________

6. A network administrator enters the service passwordencryption command into the configuration mode of a
router. What does this command accomplish?

 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

 This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

 This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to
do router maintenance.

7. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

 The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.

 The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.

 The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.

 The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.*

Explain:
The SVI is a virtual, not physical, interface that provides remote access to the switch. It does not impact Layer 4 nor
does it enhance switching between switch ports on the switch.

8. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

 duplex

 unicast
  multicast

 broadcast*

Explain:
When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message would be delivered as a broadcast.
Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a message to one destination host. The sending of the same
message from a host to a group of destination hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the
ability of the medium to carry messages in both directions.

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

 POP

 BOOTP

 ICMP*

 IP*

 PPP

Explain:
ICMP and IP both function at the internet layer, whereas PPP is a network access layer protocol, and POP and BOOTP
are application layer protocols.

10. What PDU is associated with the transport layer?

 segment*

 packet

 frame

 bits

Explain:
The PDU for the transport layer is called a segment. Packets, frames, and bits are PDUs for the network, data link,
and physical layers respectively.

11. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

 It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

 It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

 It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

 It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.*

Explain:
When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation process works from the top of the OSI or TCP/IP model to
the bottom. At each layer of the model, the upper layer information is encapsulated into the data field of the next
protocol. For example, before an IP packet can be sent, it is encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can
be sent over the physical medium.

12. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

 fiber

 radio waves*

 microwave
  UTP

Explain:
A wired LAN connection commonly uses UTP. A wireless LAN connection uses radio waves.

13. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP
cables? (Choose two.)

 crosstalk*

 bandwidth

 size of the network

 signal modulation technique

 electromagnetic interference *

Explain:
Copper media is widely used in network communications. However, copper media is limited by distance and signal
interference. Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. The electrical pulses are susceptible to
interference from two sources:
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI) – EMI and RFI signals can distort and
corrupt the data signals being carried by copper media.
Crosstalk – Crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire interfering with
the signal in an adjacent wire.

14. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)

 internet

 physical

 LLC*

 transport

 MAC*

 network access

Explain:
The data link layer of the OSI model is divided into two sublayers: the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer and the
Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer.

15. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of
redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

 bus

 hierarchical

 mesh*

 ring

 star

Explain:
The mesh topology provides high availability because every node is connected to all other nodes. Mesh topologies
can be found in WANs. A partial mesh topology can also be used where some, but not all, end points connect to one
another.
16. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

 access method*

 flow control

 message encapsulation

 message encoding

Explain:
Carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD) is the access method used with Ethernet. The access
method rule of communication dictates how a network device is able to place a signal on the carrier. CSMA/CD
dictates those rules on an Ethernet network and CSMA/CA dictates those rules on an 802.11 wireless LAN.

17. If data is being sent over a wireless network, then connects to an Ethernet network, and eventually connects
to a DSL connection, which header will be replaced each time the data travels through a network infrastructure
device?

 Layer 3

 data link*

 physical

 Layer 4

Explain:
Because each data link layer protocol controls how the device accesses the media, the data link information must be
removed and re-attached. Even if a packet is going from one Ethernet network to another Ethernet network, the
data link layer information is replaced.

18. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

 a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group*

 an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group

 a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address

 a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group

Explain:
The destination multicast IPv4 address is a group address, which is a single IP multicast address within the Class D
range.

19. In an Ethernet network, when a device receives a frame of 1200 bytes, what will it do?

 drop the frame

 process the frame as it is*

 send an error message to the sending device

 add random data bytes to make the frame 1518 bytes long and then forward it

Explain:
Ethernet standards define the minimum frame as 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes. A frame less than 64 bytes
is considered a “collision fragment” or “runt frame” and is automatically discarded by receiving devices. A frame
greater than 1500 is considered a “baby giant”. A 1200 byte frame is within the normal range so it would be
processed as is.

20. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward
the data onward?

 source MAC address

 source IP address

 destination MAC address*

 Ethernet type

 destination IP address

Explain:
The Layer 2 device, such as a switch, uses the destination MAC address to determine which path (interface or port)
should be used to send the data onward to the destination device.

21. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

 It initiates an ARP request.

 It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

 It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

 It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

Explain:
A Layer 2 switch determines how to handle incoming frames by using its MAC address table. When an incoming
frame contains a destination MAC address that is not in the table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports, except
for the port on which it was received.

22. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

 If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC
address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

 An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host
and its multicast MAC address.

 When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the
mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

 If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all
devices on the network segment.

 If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

Explain:
When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if
the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC
table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination
host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the
match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the
destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the
destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to
assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet
because a frame cannot be created.

23. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet
using domain names? (Choose two.)

 DNS*
  WINS

 HTTP

 DHCP*

 SMTP

24. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

 connectionless*

 media dependent

 user data segmentation

 reliable end-to-end delivery

Explain:
Internet Protocol (IP) is a network layer protocol that does not require initial exchange of control information to
establish an end-to-end connection before packets are forwarded. Thus, IP is connectionless and does not provide
reliable end-to-end delivery by itself. IP is media independent. User data segmentation is a service provided at the
transport layer.

25. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the
link-local addresses of the workstation?

 ::1/128

 fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128*

 fe80::/64

 2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

Explain:
In the IPv6 address scheme, the network of fe80::/10 is reserved for link-local addresses. The address fe80::/64 is a
network address that indicates, in this workstation, fe80::/64 is actually used for link-local addresses. Thus the
address fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128 is a valid IPv6 link-local address.
26. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address
2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

 2001:DB8::AB00::1234

 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

Explain:
There are two rules defining how an IPv6 address can be compressed. The first rule states that leading zeros in a
hextet can be eliminated. The second rule states that a single :: can be used to represent one or more contiguous all
zero hextets. There can be one and only one :: in an IPv6 address.

27. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

 link-local*

 unique local

 site local

 global unicast

Explain:
All IPv6 enabled interfaces must at minimum have a link-local address. Other IPv6 addresses can be assigned to the
interface as required.

28. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this
packet?

 all IPv6 enabled devices across the network

 all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link

 all IPv6 DHCP servers

 all IPv6 configured routers on the local link*

Explain:
FF02::2 identifies all IPv6 routers that exist on the link or network. FF02::1 is the target for all IPv6 enabled devices
on the link or network.

29. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

 to inform routers about network topology changes

 to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

 to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

 to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

Explain:
The purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback about issues that are related to the processing of IP packets.

30. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

 It sends four Echo Request messages.

 It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

  It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

 It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

Explain:
Traceroute is a utility that generates a list of hops (or routers) along the path from a source host to the destination
host.

31. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26 mask?

 256

 254

 64

 62*

 32

 16

Explain:
A /26 mask is the same as 255.255.255.192. The mask leaves 6 host bits. With 6 host bits, 64 IP addresses are
possible. One address represents the subnet number and one address represents the broadcast address, which
means that 62 addresses can then be used to assign to network devices.

32. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the
broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

 172.16.16.255

 172.16.20.255

 172.16.19.255*

 172.16.23.255

 172.16.255.255

Explain:
The 172.16.16.0/22 network has 22 bits in the network portion and 10 bits in the host portion. Converting the
network address to binary yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. The range of addresses in this network will end
with the last address available before 172.16.20.0. Valid host addresses for this network range from 172.16.16.1-
172.16.19.254, making 172.16.19.255 the broadcast address.
33. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is
changed to /52?

 2001:db8:0:f00::/52

 2001:db8:0:8000::/52

 2001:db8:0:f::/52

 2001:db8:0:f000::/52*

Explain:
Prefix 2001:db8::/48 has 48 network bits. If we subnet to a /52, we are moving the network boundary four bits to
the right and creating 16 subnets. The first subnet is 2001:db8::/52 the last subnet is 2001:db8:0:f000::/52.

34. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to
keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct
packet flows?

 The data flow is being tracked based on the destination port number utilized by each application.

 The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number utilized by each application.*

 The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address used by the PC of the technician.

 The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address used by the PC of the technician.

Explain:
The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session
connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous
communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

35. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)

 flow control*

 encryption of data

 path determination

 connection establishment *

 error recovery*

 bit transmission

 data representation

Explain:
The transport layer is responsible for tracking digital conversations between a source application and a destination
application through the use of port numbers. Two protocols that operate at the transport layer are TCP and UDP.
TCP can provide reliability by establishing a connection, maintaining flow control, and error recovery.

36. An Internet television transmission is using UDP. What happens when part of the transmission is not delivered
to the destination?

 A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

 The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

 The entire transmission is re-sent.

 The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

Explain:
Most streaming services, such as Internet television, use UDP as the transport layer protocol. These transmissions
can tolerate some transmission failures, and no failure messages or retransmissions are required. Such control
measures would create noticeable disruption to the flow of data.

37. Which two OSI model layers are considered to be included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack?
(Choose two.)

 internet

 network

 presentation*

 session*

 transport

Explain:
The top three OSI model layers are included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. These top three OSI model
layers include the application, presentation, and session layers

38. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher.
What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

 client*

 master

 server

 slave

 transient

Explain:
In the client/server network model, a network device assumes the role of server in order to provide a particular
service such as file transfer and storage. The device requesting the service assumes the role of client. In the
client/server network model, a dedicated server does not have to be used, but if one is present, the network model
being used is the client/server model. In contrast, the peer-to-peer network model does not have a dedicated server.

39. Which two automatic addressing assignments are supported by DHCPv4? (Choose two.)

 local server address

 subnet mask*

 default gateway address*

 physical address of the recipient

 physical address of the sender

40. When a network administrator is trying to manage network traffic on a growing network, when should traffic
flow patterns be analyzed?

 during times of peak utilization*

 during off-peak hours

 during employee holidays and weekends

 during randomly selected times

Explain:
Planning for network growth requires knowledge of the types of traffic traveling on the network. Network
administrators can use a protocol analyzer to identify the traffic on the network. To get the best representation of
the different types of traffic, the network should be analyzed during peak utilization.

41. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

 discovery and mapping of systems*

 unauthorized manipulation of data

 disabling network systems or services

 denying access to resources by legitimate users

Explain:
The objective of a network reconnaissance attack is to discover information about a network, network systems, and
network services.

42. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a
router. What does this command accomplish?

 This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

 This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

 This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to
do router maintenance.

 This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

 This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

62. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco router?

 a console connection

 an AUX connection

 a Telnet connection

 an SSH connection*

Topic 1-4

Which type of network cable contains multiple copper wires and uses extra shielding to prevent interference?

STP

Which type of data cable is used by television companies to carry data and video signals?

coaxial

Which term describes the interference when electrical impulses from one cable cross over to an adjacent cable?

crosstalk

A group of newly hired entry-level network engineers are talking about the network cabling they are going to have
to install as a team. What is a characteristic of Ethernet straight-through UTP cable?

It is susceptible to interferences from EMI and RFI

A network specialist has been hired to install a network in a company that assembles airplane engines. Because of
the nature of the business, the area is highly affected by electromagnetic interference. Which type of network
media should be recommended so that the data communication will not be affected by EMI?

Fiber optic

Which type of network cable is commonly used in backbone networks and telephone companies?

fiber-optic cable

Which type of Ethernet cable should be used to directly connect two devices that both use the same pins for
transmitting and receiving data?

Crossover twisted-pair cable

Which command can be used to verify connectivity between two host devices?

The exhibit is a picture of a wire map within an RJ-45 jack. The colors of the wires that are displayed from left to
right are stranded green, solid green, stranded orange, solid blue, stranded blue, solid orange, stranded brown,
and solid brown.

ping

Refer to the exhibit. One end of the cable is terminated as displayed, and the other end is terminated in
accordance with the T568A standard. What type of cable would be created in this manner?

straight-through

What is a purpose of an IP address?

It identifies source to destination of data packets

A network administrator would like to determine the path a packet takes to reach the destination 192.168.1.1.
What is the best command to determine the network path?

tracert 192.168.1.1

What is the delay in the amount of time for data to travel between two points on a network?

latency

bandwidth

goodput

throughput

What type of network is defined by two computers that can both send and receive requests for resources?

campus

client/server

enterprise

peer-to-peer

What is a role of an intermediary device on a network?

functions as the primary source of information for end devices

runs applications that support collaboration for business

determines the path and directs data along the way to its final destination
 forms the interface between the human network and the underlying communication network

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

It consists of multiple LANs with backbone infrastructure connections.

It is a small network that connects a few computers to each other and to the internet.

It is a collection of interconnected private and public networks.

It is a large network, such as those used by corporations and schools, with hundreds or thousands of
interconnected hosts.

Which IP configuration parameter provides the IP address of a network device that a computer would use to
access the Internet?

subnet mask

DNS server

host IP address

default gateway

Which type of cable connection would be used in Packet Tracer to connect a FastEthernet port on a PC to a switch
port?

straight-through

fiber

crossover

console

Which type of technology is used to provide digital data transmissions over cell phone networks?

Bluetooth

4G

Wi-Fi

NFC

Which wireless technology is used on smart phones to transmit data to another device within only very close
proximity?

NFC

3G/4G

Wi-Fi

Bluetooth

A traveling sales representative uses a cell phone to interact with the home office and customers, track samples,
make sales calls, log mileage, and upload/download data while at a hotel. Which internet connectivity method
would be a preferred method to use on the mobile device due to the low cost?

cellular
 Wi-Fi

cable

DSL

The exhibit shows the desktop menu item selected with the following icons: IP Configuration, Dial-up, Terminal,
Command Prompt, Web Browser, P C Wireless, V P N, Traffic Generator, MIB Browser, Cisco IP Communicator
Refer to the exhibit. A user is creating a wired and wireless network using Packet Tracer. The user has added a
home wireless router, a PC, and a laptop. The user configures the home wireless router. Which icon represents the
tool that can be used on the laptop to view the SSID and connect to the wireless router?

Web Browser

Command Prompt

PC Wireless

IP Configuration

The exhibit shows the physical tab selected with a list of modules to the left and a laptop on the right. The laptop
is opened with the screen to the left. On the side of the laptop from left to right is a power cord, a power button
with a light illuminated below it, vent slots, an RJ 45 port, a slot that contains another RJ 45 port, a headphone
jack, and two USB ports. Refer to the exhibit. A student is working on a Packet Tracer lab that includes a home
wireless router to be used for both wired and wireless devices. The router and laptop have been placed within the
logical workspace. The student adds a laptop device and wants to replace the wired network card with a wireless
network card. What is the first step the student should do to install the wireless card?

Drag the wired network card into the list on the left side.

Select the WPC300N option from the left and drag that card to the side of the laptop.

Power off the laptop by clicking on the power button.

Select the Config tab and then the wireless network card checkbox.

Refer to the exhibit. Which menu item would be used to bring up a web browser?

Physical

Config

Desktop

Programming

Attributes

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Refer to the exhibit. A student has started a Packet Tracer network that includes a home wireless router to be
used for both wired and wireless devices. The router and laptop have been placed within the logical workspace.
The student clicks on the laptop and the window that opens is shown in the exhibit. What is the purpose of the
modules on the left?

This is a list of modules available from the manufacturer that can be clicked on and “purchased.”

This is the list of modules currently installed in the laptop.

These are modules that can be used by double-clicking on one module so that it automatically installs into the
laptop.
 These are optional modules that can be installed into the module slot if it is currently empty.

When authenticating within Packet Tracer, which two items could you use? (Choose two.)

a previously configured pattern

a previously configured PIN

a username associated with NetAcad

a username associated with a specific school

an email address found in the NetAcad profile

Refer to the exhibit. A student is creating a wired and wireless network in Packet Tracer. After inserting a router,
switch, and PC, the student chooses a straight-through cable to connect the PC to the switch. Which connection
would be the best port for the student to choose on the PC?

RS 232

USB0

USB1

FastEthernet0

Refer to the exhibit. Which menu item would be used to bring up a command prompt environment to be able to
ping another network device?

Physical

Config

Desktop

Programming

Attributes

Refer to the exhibit. A home wireless network is being configured within Packet Tracer. The user adds a wireless
router, a PC, and three laptops. The user is reviewing the wireless connection on one of the laptops. What can be
determined?

The laptop is connected to a wireless network.

Because the password is not enabled, the laptop cannot connect to the wireless router.

The laptop must have a different wireless NIC installed before being able to connect to the wireless router.

All three laptops are connected to the wireless network successfully.

Which statement describes the use of the ping command?

The ping command tests end-to-end connectivity between two devices.

The ping command shows current Layer 4 sessions.

The ping command can be used to test reachability using the physical address of the device.
 The ping command can be used to determine the exact location of the problem when troubleshooting reachability
issues.

Which type of network cable is used to connect the components that make up satellite communication systems?

fiber-optic

shielded twisted-pair

coaxial

unshielded twisted-pair

What are two sources of electromagnetic interference that can affect data transmissions? (Choose two.)

microwave oven

infrared remote control

cordless phone

LED monitor

florescent light fixture

Which criterion can be used to select the appropriate type of network media for a network?

the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

the types of data that need to be prioritized

the number of intermediary devices that are installed in the network

If you were drawing a physical topology of your school network, what type of information would you include?

the location of devices in the building

how devices are connected

the IP addresses of all devices on the network

the path that data takes to reach destinations

Navigation

Which network device is used to translate a domain name to the associated IP address?

DNS server

DHCP server

default gateway

router

A user is looking for a wireless headphone for listening to songs stored on a smartphone. What wireless
technology would the headphone use?

3G/4G

infrared

Bluetooth
 Wi-Fi

How many unique values are possible using a single binary digit?

16

Match the term to the value represented.

--------------------------------------------

Bit

a one or a zero

---------------------------------------------

Byte

eight bits

---------------------------------------------------

Gigabyte

approximately one billion bytes

--------------------------------------------------------

Kilobyte

approximately one thousand bytes

-----------------------------------------------------------

Megabyte

approximately one million bytes

----------------------------------------------------

Terabyte

approximately one trillion bytes

------------------------------------------------------

A wireless network was recently installed in a coffee shop and customer mobile devices are not receiving network
configuration information. What should be done to correct the problem?

Provide peripheral devices to customers.

Check the connection of the DNS server to the Internet.

Ensure that the default gateway device is working properly.

Make sure the DHCP server is functional.

What terms represent the maximum and actual speed that can be utilized by a device to transfer data?

throughput; goodput

bandwidth; throughput

throughput; bandwidth

bandwidth; goodput

1. Question

What is an example of a binary value from everyday life?

room temperature

a simple light switch

speed of a traveling car

brightness of a light bulb

Explanation:

A binary digit (or bit) has two possible values, 0 or 1. The on and off state of a simple switch is an example of the two
states represented by a bit.

2. Question

Which wireless technology is used on smart phones to transmit data to another device within only very close
proximity?

NFC

Wi-Fi

3G/4G

Bluetooth

Explanation:

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a wireless technology that enables data to be exchanged by devices that are in
very close proximity to each other.

3. Question

Which two devices are shared peripherals? (Choose two.)

tablet

laptop

scanner

printer

touch-pad with digital stylus

Explanation:
A shared peripheral device does not connect directly to a network. This device is attached to a host (such as a PC)
and the host connects to the network to share the peripheral device.

4. Question

Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to communicate with other hosts on remote
networks? (Choose three.)

IP address

DNS server

subnet mask

domain name

default gateway

DHCP server address

Explanation:

An IP address, a subnet mask, and a default gateway are required on a host that must communicate with another
host in a remote network. DNS server information is needed if mapping a domain name to an associated IP address.
DHCP server information is dynamically learned and is not a required configuration for remote network reachability.

5. Question

Which three factors should be considered when choosing the appropriate network media? (Choose three.)

the speed of the CPU and amount of memory in servers

the environment in which the media is installed

the data security and fault tolerance requirement

the amount of data and the data transfer rate desired

the distance between hosts that the media will connect

the operating systems used on network devices in the network

Explanation:

Several criteria should be considered when selecting network media:

The cost of the media and installation

The environment in which the media is installed

The amount of data and the data transfer rate desired

The distance between hosts that the media will connect

6. Question

Which factor classifies a host as a server?

the CPU speed

the software installed

the amount of memory

the network connection

Explanation:

A server is a host with server software installed. Although CPU, memory, and the network connection will determine
the performance of a server, it is the server software that provides desired server services.

7. Question

Which two types of interference may affect the data throughput on UTP cables? (Choose two.)

EMI

noise

moisture

crosstalk

temperature

Explanation:

Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling is sensitive to the interference introduced by electromagnetic interference
(EMI) and crosstalk.

8. Question

Which statement defines a data communications protocol?

an alliance of network device manufacturers

a set of rules that govern the communication process

a set of product standards for types of network devices

an exchange agreement of network devices among vendors

Explanation:

A data communication protocol is a set of rules that govern the communication process.

9. Question

Which statement describes a MAC address?

It is 128-bits in length.

It contains two portions, the network portion and the host portion.

It is a physical address assigned to an Ethernet NIC by the manufacturer.

It identifies the source and destination addresses of hosts on the Internet.

Explanation:

The Media Access Control (MAC) address is a physical address assigned to each Ethernet NIC by manufacturers. It is
48-bits in length. The MAC address is used to identify the source and destination on a local Ethernet network. It
cannot be routed to remote networks.

10. Question

What information does an Ethernet switch examine and use to build its address table?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

Explanation:

An Ethernet switch examines the source MAC address of an incoming frame. If the source MAC address is not in the
MAC address table, the switch will add it to the table with the associated ingress Ethernet port.

11. Question

What is the equivalent decimal value given a binary number of 11001010?

196

202

212

240

Explanation:

The equivalent decimal value for a binary number of 11001010 can be determined by 1*2^7+1*2^6+1*2^3+1*2^1.

12. Question

What is the difference between the terms bandwidth and throughput?

Bandwidth is measured with Mb/s and throughput is measured in Kbps.

Bandwidth is the capacity of data transfer in a network and throughput is the actual data transfer rate.

Bandwidth measures data transfer of web applications and throughput measures data transfer of video
applications.

Bandwidth represents the data transfer rate in a local network and throughput represents the data transfer rate
over the Internet.

Explanation:

Both bandwidth and throughput are the measurement of data transfer over a period of time. They use the same
measurement units. However, bandwidth is used to indicate the theoretical capacity of a network connection
whereas throughput is used to indicate the actual data transfer rate between two hosts at the time of measurement.

13. Question

Which three IP addresses are considered private addresses? (Choose three.)

10.234.2.1

128.37.255.6

172.17.254.4

172.68.83.35

192.168.5.29

198.168.6.18

Explanation:

The designated private IP addresses are within the three IP address ranges:
10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255

172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

14. Question

Which IP address is a unicast address if a default subnet mask is used?

201.34.45.0

192.16.43.67

226.34.15.78

195.124.45.255

Explanation:

The IP addresses 201.34.45.0, 192.16.43.67, and 195.124.45.255 are Class C addresses. With the default subnet mask
of 255.255.255.0, 192.16.43.67 is a unicast address or host address, 195.124.45.255 is a broadcast address, and
201.34.45.0 is a network address. IP address 226.34.15.78 is a Class D multicast address.

15. Question

What is the full uncompressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:0:0:AA::200?

2001:0DB8:0000:0000:00AA:0000:0200:0000

2001:DB80:0000:0000:AA00:0000:0000:0200

2001:0DB8:0000:0000:00AA:0000:0000:0200

2001:0DB8:0000:00AA:0000:0000:0000:0200

Explanation:

An IPv6 address is made up of 128 bits represented in hexadecimal numbers.There are two rules that help reduce
the number of digits needed to represent an IPv6 address.

Rule 1 – Omit leading zeros in any 16-bit section.

Rule 2 – Replace any single group of consecutive zeros with a double colon (::). This can only be used once within an
IPv6 address.

16. Question

A user types http://www.cisco.com into a web browser to visit the corporate website. Which service will resolve
the domain name to an associated IP address?

FTP

DNS

DHCP

SMTP

Explanation:

When a user types a domain name to visit a website, the DNS service is called to resolve the domain name to its
associated IP address before the user packet is sent to the website.
17. Question

A user opens multiple windows on the desktop with several tasks including web surfing, emailing, and Skype
calling. What is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack to track the specific sessions for each application?

port number

destination IP address

Hypertext Markup Language

domain name to IP address resolution

Explanation:

A user may request different services from the same server or different servers. TCP and UDP port numbers are used
to keep track of specific sessions between a client and server.

18. Question

Which two application layer protocols manage the exchange of messages between a client with a web browser and a
remote web server? (Choose two.)

DNS

HTTP

HTML

DHCP

HTTPS

Explanation:

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and HTTP Secure (HTTPS) are two application layer protocols that manage the
content requests from clients and the responses from the web server. HTML (Hypertext Mark-up Language) is the
encoding language that describes the content and display features of a web page. DNS is for domain name to IP
address resolution. DHCP manages and provides dynamic IP configurations to clients.

19. Question

A client is sending a message to request information from a web server on the Internet. Which parameter is used
in the message to indicate the specific service requested?

source port

destination port

server domain name

destination IP address

Explanation:

When clients send requests for a service from a server, the destination port number is used to indicate the specific
service requested.

20. Question

How much data can be encapsulated into a normal sized Ethernet frame before it is sent over the network?

0 to 1024 bytes
32 to 1500 bytes

46 to 1500 bytes

64 to 1518 bytes

Explanation:

According to the Ethernet standards, each Ethernet frame can carry 46 to 1500 bytes of user data. During the
encapsulation process, other fields are added, such as destination MAC address, source MAC address, and FCS. The
size of Ethernet frames is normally limited to a maximum of 1518 bytes and a minimum of 64 bytes.

21. Question

Which transport layer protocol provides best effort delivery without guaranteeing that packets arrive at the
destination?

SSH

TCP

UDP

HTTP

Explanation:

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a best effort transport layer protocol. Unlike TCP, it does not use an
acknowledgment protocol to ensure reliable packet delivery. TCP provides reliable delivery service. HTTP and SSH
are application layer protocols in the TCP/IP model.

22. Question

Which scenario describes a peer-to-peer network?

Users access shared files from a file server.

A user visits a webpage on the company web site.

A user has shared a printer attached to the workstation.

Users print documents from a network printer that has a built-in NIC.

Explanation:

In a peer-to-peer network there is no centralized or dedicated server. A user computer can be a client to request
service from another user computer and a server to share a network resource (such as a printer) to other users.

23. Question

Which three devices are considered intermediate devices in a network? (Choose three.)

router

server

switch

workstation

network printer

wireless access point

Explanation:
Intermediate devices in a network provide network connectivity to end devices and transfer user data packets during
data communications.

24. Question

When a host sends a packet, how does it determine if the destination of the packet is on the same local network
or on a remote network?

It checks to see if the default gateway is configured.

It compares the source and destination MAC addresses.

It queries the DNS server with the destination IP address.

It uses the subnet mask to compare the source and destination IP address.

Explanation:

When a host sends a packet, it uses the subnet mask to compare the source IPv4 address and the destination IPv4
address. If the network bits match, both the source and destination host are on the same local network. Otherwise,
the destination host is on a remote network.

25. Question

Match the TCP/IP model layer to the function.

26. Question

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the code displayed on the web page?

Correct
Success

Welldone

Configured Right

Explanation:

The IP address configuration on PC0 requires the following:

IP address – any valid host address on the LAN, except for .254

Subnet mask – default value for the network

Gateway – the nearest router interface

DNS – the DNS server on the ISP network

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Chapter 2 quiz

Which wireless technology can be used to connect wireless headphones to a computer?

bluetooth

Which type of network component is used to interconnect computing devices?

intermediate device

What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and businesses?
(Choose two.)

T568A, T568B

Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal, the environment where the selected medium is to
be installed

Which term describes the interference when electrical impulses from one cable cross over to an adjacent cable?

crosstalk

A wireless network was recently installed in a coffee shop and customer mobile devices are not receiving network
configuration information. What should be done to correct the problem?

make sure the DHCP server is functional

What is a technology used in a cellular telephone network?

Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)

Which IP configuration parameter provides the IP address of a network device that a computer would use to access
the Internet?

default gateway

What are three characteristics of UTP cabling? (Choose three.)

susceptible to EMI and RFI, easiest type of networking cable to install, most commonly used networking cable

Which network device is used to translate a domain name to the associated IP address?

DNS server

Which type of network cable is used to connect the components that make up satellite communication systems?

coaxial

What are two sources of electromagnetic interference that can affect data transmissions? (Choose two.)

microwave oven, florescent light fixture

When a network is installed in a high school, it is important for a network admin to create a ________

topology diagram to document where each host is located and how they are connected to the network

physical

Which type of Ethernet cable should be used to directly connect two devices that both use the same pins for
transmitting and receiving data?

crossover twisted pair cable

Which type of network cable contains multiple copper wires and uses extra shielding to prevent interference?

STP

Which type of network cable is commonly used in backbone networks and telephone companies?

fiber optic cable

Which type of technology is used to provide digital data transmissions over cell phone networks?

4G

Chapter 3 Exam

ISO
This organization is the largest developer of international standards in the world for a wide variety of products and
services. It is known for its Open System Interconnection (OSI) reference model.

IANA

This organization is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation, domain name management, and
protocol identifiers.

ISOC

This organization promotes the open development,evolution, and use of the internet throughout the world.

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

frame

What statement describes the function of the Address Resolution Protocol?

Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.

Which IEEE standard enables a wireless NIC to connect to a wireless AP that is made by a different manufacturer?

802.11

Which protocol is responsible for controlling the size and rate of the HTTP messages exchanged between server and
client?

TCP

Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

destination MAC address

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on
remote networks.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

protocol data unit

A user is viewing an HTML document located on a web server. What protocol segments the messages and manages
the segments in the individual conversation between the web server and the web client?

TCP
What are proprietary protocols?

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

Which address provides a unique host address for data communications at the internet layer?

logical address

What is a benefit of using a layered model for network communications?

fostering competition among device and software vendors by enforcing the compatibility of their products

Based on the configured network, what IP address would PC1 and PC2 use as their default gateway?

192.168.1.1

What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.

Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.

What is a function of Layer 4 of the OSI model?

to describe the ordered and reliable delivery of data between source and destination

What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is
being sent too quickly?

flow control

At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

network layer

A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what
information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

the MAC address of the default gateway

A computer in a given network is communicating with a specific group of computers. What type of communication is
this?
multicast

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the
correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

Cisco Chapter 6 Exam

A technician is manually configuring a computer with the necessary IP parameters to communicate over the
corporate network. The computer already has an IP address, a subnet mask, and a DNS server. What else has to be
configured for Internet access?

the default gateway address

A technician is configuring a router that is actively running on the network. Suddenly, power to the router is lost. If
the technician has not saved the configuration, which two types of information will be lost? (Choose two.)

1. routing table

2. ARP cache

Fill in the blank. In a router, ____________ is the nonvolatile memory where the diagnostic software, the bootup
instructions, and a limited IOS are stored.

ROM

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?

Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely
large.

Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up?
(Choose two.)

1. startup configuration

2. IOS image file

When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

when the full IOS cannot be found

When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to
acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

upper-layer connection-oriented protocols

After troubleshooting a router, the network administrator wants to save the router configuration so that it will be
used automatically the next time that the router reboots. What command should be issued?

copy running-config startup-config

What is a service provided by the Flow Label field of the IPv6 header?

It informs network devices to maintain the same path for real-time application packets.

Which statement about router interfaces is true?

A configured and activated router interface must be connected to another device in order to operate.

The PT initialization was skipped. You will not be able to view the PT activity.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question or complete the
task.

Does the router have enough RAM and flash memory to support the new IOS?

The router has enough RAM and flash memory for the IOS upgrade.

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

1. route print

2. netstat -r

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP
address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

switch the packet to the directly connected interface

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.

A packet leaving PC-1 has to traverse ____________hops to reach PC-4.

IP v4 header

Total Length

Flags

IP v6 header

Traffic Class
Flow Label

Which command displays a summary chart of all router interfaces, their IP addresses, and their current operational
status?

show ip interface brief

A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.

Which two interfaces will allow access via the VTY lines to configure the router? (Choose two.)

1. WAN interfaces

2. LAN interfaces

Which three commands are used to set up a password for a person who attaches a cable to a new router so that an
initial configuration can be performed? (Choose three.)

line console 0

password cisco

login

How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?

They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network
route, and a remote default route.

Which IPv4 header field is responsible for defining the priority of the packet?

differentiated services

R1>

enable

R1#

copy runnung-config startup-config

R1(config-line)#

login
R1(config)#

interface fastethernet 0/0

<output omitted>

Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets

C 10.1.0.0 is directly connected , Serial0/0/0

172.17.0.0/24 is subnetted,4 subnets

...-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Chapter 3 QUIZ

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on
remote networks

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

Protocol data unit

Why are open standards important in the data communications industry?

They enable interoperability between software and hardware from different vendors.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications
between end devices?

Transport

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

Internet

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

Multicast

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?
Broadcast

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

Local delivery

At which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be encapsulated?

Data link layer

The MAC address is embedded in the ________ of a PC.

NIC

What 3 requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message
transmission across a network?

Message encoding, message size, and delivery options

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications
between end devices?

Transport layer, Layer 4

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on
remote networks.

What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the network?

Internet layer

The MAC address of a PC does not change when the PC is moved to a different network because the MAC address
is embedded in the_________of the PC.

NIC

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

Destination IP address

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communications to allow message
transmission across a network?

Delivery options,
Message size,

Message encoding,

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur.

What type of message is sent to a specific group of hosts?

Multicast

At which layer of the OSI model would a physical address be encapsulated?

Data link layer

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

Broadcast

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

...

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

IEEE,

IANA,

IETF,

Why are open standards important in the data communications industry?

They enable interoperability between software and hardware from different vendors.

Which statement is correct about network protocols?

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

Network protocols are implemented in hardware, or software, or both. They interact with each other within
different layers of a protocol stack. Protocols have nothing to do with the installation of the network equipment.
network protocols are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local and
remote networks.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

determining the electronic specifications to enable the communication

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a network. Implementation requirements
such as electronic and bandwidth details for data communication are specified by standards. Operating systems
are not specified by protocols, but will implement protocols.

What three functions are defined by network protocols to allow communication between known source and
destination IP addresses? (Choose three.)

connector specifications

data encoding

media selection

message size

delivery options

end-device installation

data encoding

message size

delivery options
Networking protocols include details of:

addressing

encoding

size

encapsulation type

timing

delivery options

What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.

Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully

Which organization develops the 802 family of standards for wired and wireless LANs and MANs?

ISOC

ITU-T

IEEE

ISO

IANA

IEEE

What organization developed the OSI reference model that is used in networking?

ISOC

TIA

ISO

EIA

IANA

ISO
Which two message timing mechanisms are used in data communications? (Choose two.)

response timeout

formatting

encapsulation

flow control

encoding

response timeout

flow control

Flow control and response timeout are two message timing mechanisms that are used in communications to
manage the number of messages sent at once and to manage the period to wait for a response. Encoding,
encapsulation, and formatting relate to message structure and representation, not timing

What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?

remote delivery

local and remote delivery

local delivery

remote delivery using routers

local delivery

If a device is sending frames to another device on the same local network, it uses ARP to determine the MAC
address of the receiving device. The sending device then uses the Layer 2 addresses to send the frames.

What happens when two devices on the same subnet are communicating?

The host portion of the IP addresses will be different.

The data link layer addresses are added to the IP header.

The sending device will use ARP to determine the IP address of the receiver.

The frame will be sent to the default gateway for delivery to the receiving device.
The host portion of the IP addresses will be different.

When two devices are on the same local network, the network portion of their IP addresses will be the same and
the host portion of their IP addresses will be different. Two devices on the same network do not need the default
gateway in order to communicate with one another. The default gateway is used when the destination IP address
is on a different network.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

destination MAC address

destination IP address

destination port number

source MAC address

source IP address

destination IP address

The destination IP address is used for end-to-end delivery of data to a remote network. The destination MAC
address is used for delivery on a local network. The destination port number identifies the application that should
process the data at the destination. Source addresses identify the sender of the data.

Which two components are added to the PDU at the network access layer? (Choose two.)

trailer

IP header

TCP header

HTTP header

frame header

trailer

frame header

When an IP packet is sent to the network access layer, it is encapsulated within a frame header and trailer. The
frame is then converted to bits that are transmitted over the media.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?
duplex

unicast

multicast

broadcast

broadcast

When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the message would be delivered as a
broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host sends a message to one destination host. The sending of
the same message from a host to a group of destination hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers
to the ability of the medium to carry messages in both directions

Match the TCP/IP layer to the protocol, service, or application that works within that layer.

application layer ->

transport layer ->

internet layer ->

network access layer ->

Application Layer

DNS, BOOTP, DHCP, SMTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, TFTP, HTTP

Transport Layer

UDP, TCP

Internet Layer

IP, NAT, ICMP, OSPF, EIGRP

Network Access Layer

ARP, PPP, Ethernet, Interface Drivers

ICS 621 final

Using default settings, what is the next step in the switch boot sequence after the IOS
loads from flash?  
Locate and load the startup-config fil from NVRAM
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.10.4.1
10.10.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP
server?
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 10.10.4.1 to 10.10.4.5
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication
server?
WPA2 Enterprise 
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multiplayer switch?
(choose two)
-They are not associated with a particular VLAN - In a switched network, they are
mostly configured between switched at the core and distribution layers.
In which link aggregation mode does an interface initiate EtherChannel negotiation by
sending LACP packets?
Active 
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables
the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to
the ISP is enabled?
ip address dhcp
What is the purpose of the spanning tree protocol (STP)?
Prevents Layer 2 loops
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6
operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected.
However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name
information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?
The router is configured for SLAAC operation 
What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an
Ethernet interface on a switch?

Automatically detects copper cable type

What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (choose two)
-Load balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannel -Spanning
Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection
When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology,
where should the IP address be assigned?
to the subinterface 
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network is using a cell phone. The
employee then configured the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will
allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat
best describes this situation?
rogue access point
Refer to the exhibit. Devices on VLANs 5 and 6 cannot communicate. What could be
the cause for the lack of inter0VLAN communication?
SVIs have not been created
Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation?
- VLANS logically group hosts, regardless of physical location - Devices in one VLAN
do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond
to stateless DHCPv6 requests?
ipv6 nd other-config-flag?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are
shown?
to make the port a member of VLAN 30
Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from
this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD:
there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1" What is the problem?
The pool of addresses for the 192 network pool is incorrect 
What is the PoE pass-through feature?
The capability of powering the switch as well as any devices that are directly connected
to the switch 
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two
switches? (choose two) 
-All the interfaces need to be working int he same duplex mode - ALl the interfaces
need to work at the same speed.
Which three pairs of trunking will establish a functional trunk link between two cisco
switches?
- dynamic desirable: trunk - dynamic desirable: dynamic auto - dynamic desirable:
dynamic desirable
While attending a conference, participants are using laptops for network connectivity.
When a guest speaker attempts to connect to the network, the laptop fails to display
any available wireless networks. The access point must be operating in which mode?
passive
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination is used when frames are sent from the
workstation to the default gateway?
MAC address of the virtual router
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access
points?
- The APs have to be connected on the same network segments - Clustering mode
must be enabled on the APs
An administrator needs management access to a switch from a remote offsite location.
Which three configurations are required on the switch to allow the administrator to have
remote access using either SSH or Telnet? (Choose three)
- Vlan IP address - default gateway - vty line password
When would a network designer be concerned with RUs 
When purchasing a specific number of switches for a network rack 
Which impact does adding a layer 2 switch have on a network?
an increase in the number of network collisions 
An stp instance has failed an frames are flooding the network. What action should be
taken by the network administrator?
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that
are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk lines
changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands or groups of commands are needed to
complete the switch configuration to that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to
SW_1?
sw_1(config)# line vty 0 15 sw_1(config-line)# login local sw_1(config-line)# transport
input ssh
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of
this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command
output?
The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switch
believing they are the root.
When would a network engineer configure an access point with channel boding?
When more throughout is needed 
What two STP features are incorporated into Rapid PVST+?
-UplinkFast -BackboneFast
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a
keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which use bluetooth?
infrastructure mode
Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANS have been configured on the switch and PCs have
been assigned. PCs in the sales VLAN can ping all PCs in their own VLA, but cannot
ping the PCs int he HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem?
-A router is required for communication between VLANs - The PCs are in separate
broadcast domains
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router
on a stick for VLANs 10,30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some
connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this
problem?
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface fa0/0.50
Refer the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65
and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will drop the packet 
Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a cisco
switch?
- Configure SSH for remote management - Configure specific ports for management
traffic on a specific VLAN.
Which factor can limit the implementation of a converged network infrastructure?
legacy equipment 
When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, there ports are
shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function
while in the forwarding state?
-designated - root
An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that
the problem was related to the configuratoin of LANs on the router subinterfaces.
Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem?
- show vlan - show running-config
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP?
-receiving a broadcast - transmitting a probe request
Refer to the exhibit. An attacker on PC-A sends a frame with two 802.1Q tags on it, one
for VLAN 10 and another VLAN 20. What will happen to this frame?
ALS1 will remove the outer tag and send the rest of the frame across the trunk line,
where ALS2 will forward the frame to hosts on VLAN20. 
Which switching method results in the lowest latency when forwarding frames?
fast forward 
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. WHich STP bridge priority
value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
61140
Which two commands should be implemented to return a cisco 3560 trunk port to its
default configuration?
-S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan - S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk
allowed vlan
PT: Why can PC0 not communicate with Server by using the IP address as the target?
The op helper-address command is missing Router2
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing.
However, the communication between VLAN10 and VLAN 20 fails. Based on the output
of the show vlan command, what is the cause of the problem?
Gi 1/1 and Gi 1/2 are not assigned to their respective VLANs
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is troubleshooting an Etherchannel configuration
that is causing the port channel to drop between switches s1 and s2. Based on the
output that is shown, which action would allow switches s1 and s1 to automatically
negotiate an EtherChannel with PAgP?
On S2, change the channel group number to "1"
Technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle
physical ports into a single logical link?
LACP
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. WHich devices will see
the broadcast?
Computer B, COmputer C, Computer D, Computer E and Router 1
A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a CSICO
2901 router. After the new image had been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server,
what command should be issues on the router before the IOS system image is
upgraded on the router?
Ping 10.10.10.2
The ______ area interconnects with all other OSPF area types
backbone 
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
The interface IPv6 link-local address 
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show IPv6 eigrp neighbors
command. WHich conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their s0/0/0 and s0/0/1 interfaces.  

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (choose
two)
- There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30 - The neighbor 172.16.6.1
meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router
and receives the error message that is shown. WHich command must be issued by the
administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?
ipv6 unicast-routing
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access
points? (choose two)
- The APs have to be connected on the same network segment. - Clustering mode
must be enabled on the APs
WHich technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain? 
The role of the malfunctioning device 
WHich mode configuration setting would allow formation of EtherChannel link between
switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
SW1: on SW2: on
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the
distribution layer? 
-Connect remote networks - Provide data traffic security
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two
commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34de for all
OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (choose two)
-Area 0 authentication message-digest - ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1c34dE
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
When the router has interfaces in different areas
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a
multiplayer switch over a layer 2 switch?
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN
number(s)
A network design is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company
network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users
A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpdguard default command.
What is the result of this command being issued on a cisco switch?
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it
receives a BPDU 

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuning the displayed commands on S1,
S2, and S3?
-S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails. -S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the
lowest
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures
via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is
installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor
audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve
the performance for the laptops?
Add another access point
A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation
across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is
noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote
LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:
that all interfaces have correct addressing
that the routing process has been globally configured
that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN
When should EIRGO automatic summarization be turned off?
When a network contains discontiguous network addresses
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active
state?
When the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no
feasible successor available.
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical
network design?
Continually purchase backup equipment for the network 
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication
technique?
AES 
Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the
R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief
command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely
problem?
R1 and R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which
configuration must be entered?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8
0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3
routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command
output?
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router
that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output?
(choose two)
-The EtherChannel is down - The port channel IS is 2.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of
the EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the
command output
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make
better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the
engineer implement?
GLBP
Users on a IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network
administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be
done to improve the wireless performance in the network/
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band 
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a layer switched
network. upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL
value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?
This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that
can implement MIMO?
OFDM
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to
automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?
LACP
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge
priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
61440
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is
installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
ad hoc mode 
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes will be advertised to the router ISP if auto
summarization is enabled?
10.0.0.0/8
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
only when necessary
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs
an IOS image upgrade on a router?
There is sufficient space in flash memory
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS
authentication server?
WPA2 Enterprise 
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces
on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?
Show interfaces
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication
between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which
security credential is needed for the authentication process?
A common key configured with the key-strong command inside a key chain 
Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface
FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to
Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present
EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)
-Two auto modes cannot form a bundle - The channel group is inconsistent
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach
the root bridge?
root port 
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (choose two)
-Routes within an area summarized by the ABR - ABRs advertise the summarized
roures into the backbone
PT: Which message was displayed on the web server?
You've made it!
Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a
network administrator from this output?
- R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF
-Router A# - Source filename - Address or name of remote host
- copy flash0:tftp: - C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin - 2001:DB8:CAFE::9
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches
that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the
trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state. 
Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are
sent form the workstation to the default gateway?
MAC address of the virtual router 
Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea.
However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be
reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is
the problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0
What two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a cisco IOS
network device?
-A direct connection to the console or AUX port - A terminal emulation client
Four troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of
information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (choose
three)
-Any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive -Any ACLs that are
affecting the EIGRP routing process - Networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP
routing protocol
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two
switches? 
-All the interfaces need to work at the same speed - All the interfaces need to be
working in the same duplex mode.
- This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access networks
w/DR -This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF AS -
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it originated -This type of
LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other ares
- TYPE 2 LSA - TYPE 5 LSA -TYPE 1 LSA -TYPE 3 LSA
At a local college, students allowed to connect to the wireless network without
using a password. Which mode is the access point using?
open 
What are the access layer switch features that are considered when designing a
network? (choose three)
- forwarding rate - power over Ethernet - Port density
What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets?
(choose two)
-The packets are sent as unicast - The packets are unreliable
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be
taken by the network administrator?
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900
technology-package securityk9
The evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco IOS
software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and copied into
the flash of the router. What should be done before placing the router back into
service?
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully 
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP?
-Receiving a broadcast beacon frame - transmitting a probe request

Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 establish ad adjacency?

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2
-Feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 - new successor to network 192.168.1.0 -
destination network
-660110 -192.168.3.1 -192.168.11.64
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------
A user is setting up a home wireless network. Which type of device must the user have in order to
establish the wireless network and provide access to the internet for multiple home devices?

 hub

 wireless router

 switch

 patch panel

A network technician is setting up a web server for a small company. The company has obtained a domain
name, company-a.com, from a domain registry service. The new web server is accessible through the IP
address matching the domain. However, when the technician types company-a.com in the web browser,
an error message displays saying that “The connection has timed out”. What is the problem?

 The DHCP server is down.

 The domain name resolution failed.

 The URL needs to be http://company-a.com.

 A web page named home.html is required to be created first.

A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the
probable cause of this problem?

 The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.

 The computer has an invalid IP address.

 The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.

 The computer has an invalid default gateway address

 --------------------------------------------------------------------------------

CCNA 2 v7 Modules 7 – 9: Available and Reliable

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------kkk

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CCNA 2 v7.0

CCNA 2 v7 Modules 7 – 9 Full Exam Answers

CCNA 2 v7 Modules 7 – 9 Full Exam Answers

CCNA 2 v7.0 17 February, 2020  No Comments  admin  Answers, CCNA 2 v7.0, exam, modules 7-9

CCNA 2 v7 Modules 7 – 9: Available and Reliable Networks Full Exam Answers

1. A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages
when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST*
DHCPNAK

2. An administrator issues the commands:

Router(config)# interface g0/1

Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server*
configuring the router to act as a relay agent
configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

3. When a client is requesting an initial address lease from a DHCP server, why is the DHCPREQUEST message sent
as a broadcast?

The client does not yet know the IP address of the DHCP server that sent the offer.
The DHCP server may be on a different subnet, so the request must be sent as a broadcast.
The client does not have a MAC address assigned yet, so it cannot send a unicast message at Layer 2.
The client may have received offers from multiple servers, and the broadcast serves to implicitly decline those
other offers.*

4. Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255

Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0

Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0

Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

DHCPACK
DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST

5. Place the options in the following order:

a client initiating a message to find a DHCP server – DHCPDISCOVER

a DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client – DHCPOFFER
the client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server – DHCPREQUEST
the DHCP server confirming that the lease has been accepted – DHCPACK

6. Which protocol automates assignment of IP addresses on a network, and which port number does it use?
(Choose two.)

DHCP*
DNS
SMB
53
67*
80

Explanation:DNS uses port 53 and translates URLs to IP addresses. SMB provides shared access to files and printers
and uses port 445. Port 80 is used by HTTP. HTTP is a protocol used to communicate between a web browser and a
server.

7. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p7

PC1 is configured to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. PC1 has been shut down for two weeks.
When PC1 boots and tries to request an available IP address, which destination IP address will PC1 place in the IP
header?
192.168.1.1
192.168.1.255
255.255.255.255*
192.168.1.8

Explanation: When a host boots and has been configured for dynamic IP addressing, the device tries to obtain a valid
IP address. It sends a DHCPDISCOVER message. This is a broadcast message because the DHCP server address is
unknown (by design). The destination IP address in the IP header is 255.255.255.255 and the destination MAC
address is FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.

8. Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message from a DHCP server?

DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPREQUEST*
DHCPACK

Explanation: When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST broadcast
message. On receiving the DHCPREQUEST message, the server replies with a unicast DHCPACK message.

9. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire
an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

service dhcp
ip address dhcp*
ip helper-address
ip dhcp pool

Explanation: The ip address dhcp interface configuration command configures an Ethernet interface as a DHCP

client. The service dhcp global configuration command enables the DHCPv4 server process on the router. The ip
helper-address command is issued to enable DHCP relay on the router. The ip dhcp pool command creates the name
of a pool of addresses that the server can assign to hosts.

10. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message*
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

Explanation: When the IP address lease time of the DHCP client expires, it sends a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
directly to the DHCPv4 server that originally offered the IPv4 address.

11. A host PC is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. What message is sent by the server to let the client
know it is able to use the provided IP information?

DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK*
DHCPNACK

Explanation: When a host uses DHCP to automatically configure an IP address, the typically sends two messages: the
DHCPDISCOVER message and the DHCPREQUEST message. These two messages are usually sent as broadcasts to
ensure that all DHCP servers receive them. The servers respond to these messages using DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, and
DHCPNACK messages, depending on the circumstance.

12. What is one indication that a Windows computer did not receive an IPv4 address from a DHCP server?
The computer cannot ping 127.0.0.1.
The computer receives an IP address that starts with 169.254.*
Windows displays a DHCP timeout message.
The computer cannot ping other devices on the same network with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 range.

Explanation: When a Windows PC cannot communicate with an IPv4 DHCP server, the computer automatically
assigns an IP address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range. Any other device on the same network that receives an address in
the same range is reachable.

13. Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?

broadcast DHCPACK
broadcast DHCPREQUEST*
unicast DHCPACK
unicast DHCPREQUEST

Explanation: When a DHCP client receives DHCPOFFER messages, it will send a broadcast DHCPREQUEST message
for two purposes. First, it indicates to the offering DHCP server that it would like to accept the offer and bind the IP
address. Second, it notifies any other responding DHCP servers that their offers are declined.

14. A small coffee shop is offering free Wi-Fi to customers. The network includes a wireless router and a DSL
modem that is connected to the local phone company. What method is typically used to configure the connection
to the phone company?

Set the WAN connection in the wireless router as a DHCP client.*

Set the connection between the wireless router and the DSL modem as a private IP network.
Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to get a public IP address from the wireless router.
Set the DSL modem as a DHCP client to the phone company and a DHCP server for the internal connection.

Explanation: In a SOHO environment, a wireless router connects to an ISP via a DSL or cable modem. The IP address
between the wireless router and ISP site is typically assigned by the ISP through DHCP. The DSL modem does not
manage IP address allocation.

15. A company uses DHCP to manage IP address deployment for employee workstations. The IT department
deploys multiple DHCP servers in the data center and uses DHCP relay agents to facilitate the DHCP requests from
workstations. Which two UDP ports are used to forward DHCP traffic? (Choose two.)

23
53
67*
68*
80

Explanation: The DHCP protocol operates with 2 UDP ports. UDP port 67 is the destination port for DHCP servers,
and DHCP clients use UDP port 68.

16. A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A DHCP
server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a client device
obtain a usable IP address for this network?

Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address.

Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP server.
Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.*
Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255.

Explanation: Like IP addressing, there is also a special MAC address for broadcast purposes: FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF. When
a DHCP client needs to send a DHCP Discover message in order to seek DHCP servers, the client will use this MAC
address as the destination MAC address in the Ethernet frame. It does this because it has no knowledge of the IP and
MAC addresses of DHCP servers.

17. What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?

It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.*

It reduces the response time from a DHCP server.
It can forward both broadcast and multicast messages on behalf of clients.
It will allow DHCPDISCOVER messages to pass without alteration.

Explanation: By default, the ip helper-address command forwards the following eight UDP services:
Port 37: Time
Port 49: TACACS
Port 53: DNS
Port 67: DHCP/BOOTP client
Port 68: DHCP/BOOTP server
Port 69: TFTP
Port 137: NetBIOS name service
Port 138: NetBIOS datagram service

18. Which statement is true about DHCP operation?

When a device that is configured to use DHCP boots, the client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify
any available DHCP servers on the network.*
A client must wait for lease expiration before it sends another DHCPREQUEST message.
If the client receives several DHCPOFFER messages from different servers, it sends a unicast DHCPREQUEST message
to the server from which it chooses to obtain the IP information.
The DHCPDISCOVER message contains the IP address and subnet mask to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS
server, and the IP address of the default gateway.

Explanation: The client broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to identify any available DHCP servers on the network.
A DHCP server replies with a DHCPOFFER message. This message offers to the client a lease that contains such
information as the IP address and subnet mask to be assigned, the IP address of the DNS server, and the IP address
of the default gateway. After the client receives the lease, the received information must be renewed through
another DHCPREQUEST message prior to the lease expiration.

19. Question as presented:

The DHCPDISCOVER message is used to identify any DHCP servers on a network.

The DHCPOFFER message is used by a server to offer a lease to a client.
The DHCPREQUEST message is used to identify both the specific DHCP server and the lease that the client is
accepting.
The DHCPACK message is used by a server to finalize a successful lease with a client.
The DHCPNAK message is used when an offered lease is no longer valid.

20. A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which
statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?

It should contact a DHCPv6 server for the prefix, the prefix-length information, and an interface ID that is both
random and unique.
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional
information.*
It should use the information that is contained in the RA message exclusively.
It should contact a DHCPv6 server for all the information that it needs.

Explanation: ICMPv6 RA messages contain two flags to indicate whether a workstation should use SLAAC, a DHCPv6
server, or a combination to configure its IPv6 address. These two flags are M flag and O flag. When both flags are 0
(by default), a client must only use the information in the RA message. When M flag is 0 and O flag is 1, a client
should use the information in the RA message and look for the other configuration parameters (such as DNS server
addresses) on DHCPv6 servers.

21. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p21

What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?

Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.*

Change the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command to ipv6 nd other-config-flag.
Configure the ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command on interface Fa0/1.
Add the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:1234:5678::10/64 to the interface configuration of the DHCPv6 server.

Explanation: Client DHCPv6 messages are sent to a multicast address with link-local scope, which means that the
messages will not be forwarded by routers. Because the client and server are on different subnets on different
interfaces, the message will not reach the server. The router can be configured to relay the DHCPv6 messages from
the client to the server by configuring the ipv6 dhcp relay command on the interface that is connected to the client.

22. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p22

A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring
IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name
information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?

The DNS server address is not on the same network as the clients are on.
The router is configured for SLAAC operation.*
The GigabitEthernet interface is not activated.
The clients cannot communicate with the DHCPv6 server, evidenced by the number of active clients being 0.

Explanation: The router is configured for SLAAC operation because there is no configuration command to change the
RA M and O flag value. By default, both M and O flags are set to 0. In order to permint stateless DHCPv6 operation,
the interface command ipv6 nd other-config-flag should be issued. The GigabitEthernet interface is in working
condition because clients can get RA messages and configure their IPv6 addresses as expected. Also, the fact that R1
is the DHCPv6 server and clients are getting RA messages indicates that clients can communicate with the DHCP
server. The number of active clients is 0 because the DHCPv6 server does not maintain the state of clients IPv6
addresses (it is not configured for stateful DHCPv6 operation). The DNS server address issue is not relevant to the
problem.

23. Question as presented:

A stateless DHCPv6 client would send a DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST message as step 3 in the process.

24. A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address
will a client use as its default gateway?

the global unicast address of the router interface that is attached to the network
the unique local address of the router interface that is attached to the network
the all-routers multicast address
the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network*

Explanation: When a PC is configured to use the SLAAC method for configuring IPv6 addresses, it will use the prefix
and prefix-length information that is contained in the RA message, combined with a 64-bit interface ID (obtained by
using the EUI-64 process or by using a random number that is generated by the client operating system), to form an
IPv6 address. It uses the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the LAN segment as its IPv6
default gateway address.

25. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p25

A network administrator is configuring a router for DHCPv6 operation. Which conclusion can be drawn based on
the commands?

The router is configured for stateful DHCPv6 operation, but the DHCP pool configuration is incomplete.
The DHCPv6 server name is ACAD_CLASS.
Clients would configure the interface IDs above 0010.
The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

Explanation: The DHCPv6 is for the stateless DHCPv6 operation that is indicated by changing the O flag to 1 and
leaving the M flag as default, which is 0. Therefore, it is not configured for stateful DHCPv6 operation. Although the
DNS server has the interface ID 0010, clients in stateless DHCPv6 operation will configure their interface IDs either by
EUI-64 or a random number. The ACAD_CLASS is the name of the DHCP pool, not the DHCP server name.

26. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy
protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

HSRP uses active and standby routers.*

HSRP is nonproprietary.
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.

Explanation: The HSRP first-hop router redundancy protocol is Cisco proprietary and supports standby and active
devices. VRRPv2 and VRRPv3 are nonproprietary. GLBP is Cisco proprietary and supports load balancing between a
group of redundant routers.

27. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p27

What protocol can be configured on gateway routers R1 and R2 that will allow traffic from the internal LAN to be
load balanced across the two gateways to the Internet?

GLBP*
PVST+
PVST
STP

Explanation: GLBP, or Group Load Balancing Protocol, allows multiple routers to act as a single default gateway for
hosts. GLBP load balances the traffic across the individual routers on a per host basis.

28. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p28

A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol.
Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host?

192.168.2.0
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.2.100*

Explanation: The host default gateway address should be the FHRP (in this case GLBP) virtual IP address.

29. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p29

Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the virtual router*

MAC address of the standby router
MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
MAC address of the forwarding router

Explanation: The IP address of the virtual router acts as the default gateway for all the workstations. Therefore, the
MAC address that is returned by the Address Resolution Protocol to the workstation will be the MAC address of the
virtual router.

30. Question as presented:

Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that is designed to allow for transparent failover
of a first-hop IPv4 device.

31. Which FHRP implementation is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that suppports IPv4 load sharing?

IRDP
GLBP*
VRRPv3
GLBP for IPv6

32. The address pool of a DHCP server is configured with 10.92.71.0/25. The network administrator reserves 8 IP
addresses for servers. How many IP addresses are left in the pool to be assigned to other hosts?

122
118*
119
108
116

Explanation: Calculate the maximum number of hosts available for the slash value and subtract the required static IP
addresses required for the devices.

/24 = 254 hosts

/25 = 126 hosts
/26 = 62 hosts
/27 = 30 hosts
/28 = 14 hosts

33. Question as presented:

The broadcast DHCPDISCOVER message finds DHCPv4 servers on the network.

When the DHCPv4 server receives a DHCPDISCOVER message, it reserves an available IPv4 address to lease to the
client and sends the unicast DHCPOFFER message to the requesting client.
When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST.
On receiving the DHCPREQUEST message the server replies with a unicast DHCPACK message.
DHCPREPLY and DHCPINFORMATION-REQUEST are DHCPv6 messages.

34. After a host has generated an IPv6 address by using the DHCPv6 or SLAAC process, how does the host verify
that the address is unique and therefore usable?

The host sends an ICMPv6 echo request message to the DHCPv6 or SLAAC-learned address and if no reply is
returned, the address is considered unique.
The host sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation message to the DHCP or SLAAC-learned address and if no neighbor
advertisement is returned, the address is considered unique.*
The host checks the local neighbor cache for the learned address and if the address is not cached, it it considered
unique.
The host sends an ARP broadcast to the local link and if no hosts send a reply, the address is considered unique.

Explanation: Before a host can actually configure and use an IPv6 address learned through SLAAC or DHCP, the host
must verify that no other host is already using that address. To verify that the address is indeed unique, the host
sends an ICMPv6 neighbor solicitation to the address. If no neighbor advertisement is returned, the host considers
the address to be unique and configures it on the interface.

35. Which statement describes HSRP?

It is used within a group of routers for selecting an active device and a standby device to provide gateway services
to a LAN.*
It uses ICMP to allow IPv4 hosts to locate routers that provide IPv4 connectivity to remote IP networks.
If the virtual router master fails, one router is elected as the virtual router master with the other routers acting as
backups.
It is an open standard protocol.

Explanation: It is VRRP that elects one router as the virtual router master, with the other routers acting as backups in
case the virtual router master fails. HSRP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol. IRDP uses ICMP messages to allow IPv4
hosts to locate routers that provide IPv4 connectivity to other (nonlocal) IP networks. HSRP selects active and
standby routers to provide gateway services to hosts on a LAN.

36.Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the keyword that is displayed on www.netacad.com?

DHCP
switch
Router*
networking
Cisco
IPv6

Explanation: In order for the host to receive the address of the DNS server, the host must use stateless DHCPv6. The
router is configured with the correct DHCPv6 pool, but is missing the command ipv6 nd other-config-flag that signals
to the host that it should use DHCPv6 to get additional address information. This command should be added to the
interface Gigabit0/0 configuration on the router.

37. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p37

38. Match the purpose with its DHCP message type. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p38

39. Match the DHCP message types to the order of the stateful DHCPv6 process when a client first connects to an
IPv6 network. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p39

40. Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options
are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p40

41. Match the FHRP protocols to the appropriate description. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p41

42. Match the DHCP message types to the order of the DHCPv4 process. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p42

43. The address pool of a DHCP server is configured with 192.168.234.0/27. The network administrator reserves
22 IP addresses for IP phones. How many IP addresses are left in the pool to be assigned to other hosts?

10
0
8*
21
18

Explanation: Calculate the maximum number of hosts available for the slash value and subtract the required static IP
addresses required for the devices.
/24 = 254 hosts
/25 = 126 hosts
/26 = 62 hosts
/27 = 30 hosts
/28 = 14 hosts

44. A company uses DHCP servers to dynamically assign IPv4 addresses to employee workstations. The address
lease duration is set as 5 days. An employee returns to the office after an absence of one week. When the
employee boots the workstation, it sends a message to obtain an IP address. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3
destination addresses will the message contain?
both MAC and IPv4 addresses of the DHCP server
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and IPv4 address of the DHCP server
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF and 255.255.255.255*
MAC address of the DHCP server and 255.255.255.255

Explanation:When the lease of a dynamically assigned IPv4 address has expired, a workstation will send a
DHCPDISCOVER message to start the process of obtaining a valid IP address. Because the workstation does not know
the addresses of DHCP servers, it sends the message via broadcast, with destination addresses of FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF
and 255.255.255.255.

45. Which command will allow a network administrator to check the IP address that is assigned to a particular
MAC address?

Router# show running-config I section_dhcp

Router# show ip dhcp server statistics
Router# show ip dhcp binding*
Router# show ip dhcp pool

Explanation: The show ip dhcp binding command will show the leases, including IP addresses, MAC addresses, lease
expiration, type of lease, client ID, and user name.

46. What is the reason that an ISP commonly assigns a DHCP address to a wireless router in a SOHO environment?

better network performance

better connectivity
easy IP address management*
easy configuration on ISP firewall

Explanation:In a SOHO environment, a wireless router connects to the ISP via a DSL or cable modem. The IP address
between the wireless router and ISP site is typically assigned by the ISP through DHCP. This method facilitates the IP
addressing management in that IP addresses for clients are dynamically assigned so that if a client is dropped, the
assigned IP address can be easily reassigned to another client.

47. What information can be verified through the show ip dhcp binding command?

the IPv4 addresses that are assigned to hosts by the DHCP server*
that DHCPv4 discover messages are still being received by the DHCP server
the IPv4 addresses that have been excluded from the DHCPv4 pool
the number of IP addresses remaining in the DHCP pool

Explanation:The show ip dhcp binding command shows a list of IPv4 addresses and the MAC addresses of the hosts
to which they are assigned. Using this information an administrator can determine which host interfaces have been
assigned to specific hosts.

48. What is the result of a network technician issuing the command ip dhcp excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15
on a Cisco router?

The Cisco router will exclude only the 10.0.15.1 and 10.0.15.15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.
The Cisco router will exclude 15 IP addresses from being leased to DHCP clients.*
The Cisco router will automatically create a DHCP pool using a /28 mask.
The Cisco router will allow only the specified IP addresses to be leased to clients.

Explanation: The ip dhcp excluded-address command is followed by the first and the last addresses to be excluded
from being leased to DHCP clients.

49. Match the descriptions to the corresponding DHCPv6 server type. (Not all options are used.)
CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p49

50. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p50

Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?
stateless DHCPv6*
SLAAC
static link-local
stateful DHCPv6

Explanation: Stateful DHCPv6 pools are configured with address prefixes for hosts via the address command,
whereas stateless DHCPv6 pools typically only contain information such as DNS server addresses and the domain
name. RA messages that are sent from routers that are configured as stateful DHCPv6 servers have the M flag set to
1 with the command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag, whereas stateless DHCPv6 servers are indicated by setting the O
flag to 1 with the ipv6 nd other-config-flag command.

51. Which FHRP implementation is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that suppports IPv6 load balancing?

GLBP
GLBP for IPv6
VRRPv3
VRRPv2

52. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the
192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10

ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1*****

Explanation: The /23 prefix is equivalent to a network mask of 255.255.254.0. The network usable IPv4 address
range is 192.168.100.1 to 192.168.101.254 inclusive. The commands dhcp pool, ip default-gateway, and ip network
are not valid DHCP configuration commands.

53. What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?

Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.

Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network.*
Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0.
Explanation: When workstations are configured with obtaining IP address automatically but DHCP servers are not
available to respond to the requests, a workstation can assign itself an IP addresses from the 169.254.0.0/16
network.

54. A company uses the method SLAAC to configure IPv6 addresses for the workstations of the employees. A
network administrator configured the IPv6 address on the LAN interface of the router. The interface status is UP.
However, the workstations on the LAN segment did not obtain the correct prefix and prefix length. What else
should be configured on the router that is attached to the LAN segment for the workstations to obtain the
information?

R1(config)# ipv6 dhcp pool

R1(config-if)# ipv6 enable
R1(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing*
R1(config-if)# ipv6 nd other-config-flag

Explanation: A PC that is configured to use the SLAAC method obtains the IPv6 prefix and prefix length from a
router. When the PC boots, it sends an RS message to inform the routers that it needs the information. A router
sends an RA message that includes the required information. For a router to be able to send RA messages, it must be
enabled as an IPv6 router by the unicast ipv6-routing command in global configuration mode. The other options are
not used to enable IPv6 routing on a router.

55. Which FHRP implementation is a nonproprietary protocol which relies on ICMP to provide IPv4 redundancy?

VRRPv3
GLBP for IPv6
IRDP*
GLBP

56. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p56

PC-A is unable to receive an IPv6 address from the stateful DHCPv6 server. What is the problem?

The ipv6 dhcp relay command should be applied to interface Gig0/0.*

The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag should be applied to interface Gig0/1.
The ipv6 dhcp relay command should use the link-local address of the DHCP server.
The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag command should be ipv6 nd other-config-flag .

57. Refer to the exhibit.

CCNA 2 v7.0 Modules 7 – 9 Exam Answers p57

A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp
pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients
is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

What two characteristics describe an FTP connection? (Choose two.)

The client needs to run a daemon program to establish an FTP connection with a server.

Correct Response

Files can be downloaded from or uploaded to the server.

Correct Response

The first connection established is for traffic control and the second connection is created to transfer a file.

A large file requires more than two connections between the client and the server to successfully download it.

The server establishes the first connection with the client to control traffic that consists of server commands and
client replies.

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What is the application layer service being requested from Server0 by PC0?

DNS

HTTPS

SMTP
 FTP

HTTP

Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?

It shows the order in which hosts access the network.

It depicts the addressing scheme that is employed in the LAN.

It describes whether the LAN is a broadcast or token-passing network.

It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN.

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default
gateway address?

It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

CCNA4 (Chapter8)

Which statement describes the physical topology for a LAN?

It defines how hosts and network devices connect to the LAN

Here is a link to the PT ActivityView in a new window.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
A user reports that PC0 cannot visit the web server www.server.com. Troubleshoot the network configuration to
identify the problem.
What is the cause of the problem?

Routing between HQ and Branch is configured incorrectly

An attack has been launched within a company and a host name has been identified as the source. What
command can a network technician use to determine the IP address assigned to the host name?

nslookup

A network administrator issues the telnet www.cisco.com 25 command on the workstation. What is the purpose
of this command?

to probe the server that provides the web service to determine if it is also running an email service

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the commands in order to configure secure remote access to
the router. However, the administrator notices that sessions are still being made over telent and are in plain-text.
What action should be taken to encrypt the remote access traffic?

Issue the no transport input telnet ssh command and then issue the transport input ssh command

Which troubleshooting tool can be used to pinpoint the distance to a break in a network cable?

cable tester
After gathering symptoms, if the troubleshooter determines that the problem is located outside the control of the
organization, what is the next step?

Contact the administrator of the external system.

Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network
locations?

IP SLA

A network engineer is troubleshooting a network problem where users cannot access the FTP server at the same
IP address where a website can be successfully accessed. Which troubleshooting method would be the best to
apply in this case?

top-down

A network engineer is investigating an access issue to a web server. The web server can access the Internet and
the local clients can open the web pages. However, outside clients cannot access the web pages. What is the most
likely cause of the problem?

An ACL is blocking incoming connections

A network engineer is troubleshooting a network that has recently been updated with a new routing protocol, but
the network is not working as expected. The engineer is comparing the running configuration from before and
after the change was made. Which approach to troubleshooting the problem is the engineer using?

divide-and-conquer

Users report that their PCs cannot access the file server that is located in the server farm at the headquarters
building. The support desk technician checks the latest network update reports and realizes that the router that
was connected to the network segment of those users failed suddenly and has just been replaced. What command
should the technician instruct the users to issue on the PCs to solve the problem?

Refer to curriculum topic: 8.2.4

Which command runs several other show commands in order to generate many pages of detailed troubleshooting
information?

show tech-support

A client calls the support desk and says this to a technician: "I have just started my computer and attempted to
check e-mail. The error 0x800ccc0d was displayed. However, I was able to connect to network drives and access
the Internet." Which statement would describe the status of this issue?

The helpdesk has enough information to begin finding a resolution.

What are two reasons to create a network baseline? (Choose two.)

1. to identify future abnormal network behavior

2. to determine if the network can deliver the required policies

When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?
At the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be
established

Refer to curriculum topic: 8.1.1

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam
Answers Full 100% 2021
1. Which factor does not influence throughput?

o the amount of data that is being sent and received on the connection

o the type of data that is being transmitted

o the operating system that is used by end devices

o the latency that is created by the number of network devices encountered between source and
destination

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Throughput is the amount of data that has successfully moved from one place to another in a given
time period. Several factors could influence throughput, including the amount and type of data
being transmitted and latency.

2. Which two devices are considered end devices? (Choose two.)

o laptop

o router

o switch

o printer

o hub

Answers Explanation & Hints:

A device that forms the interface between users and the underlying communication network is
known as an end device. End devices are either the source or destination of a message.

3. What is a characteristic of a peer-to-peer application?

o Each device using the application provides a user interface and runs a background service.

o Both devices initiate a three-way handshake to determine who is initiating the communication.

o Each device can act both as a client and a server, but not simultaneously.

o The resources required for the application are centralized.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Peer-to-peer networks exist directly between client devices, with no centralized resources or
authentication. Hybrid peer-to-peer systems also exist that decentralize resource sharing but can
use centralized indexes to point to the resource locations.

4. A user is setting up a home wireless network. Which type of device must the user have in order to
establish the wireless network and provide access to the internet for multiple home devices?

o hub
 o wireless router

o switch

o patch panel

Answers Explanation & Hints:

A wireless router connects multiple wireless devices to the network. It will then aggregate the
internet access requests from home devices to the internet.

5. When troubleshooting network problems, where would a network administrator find the configuration
information, such as the computer names and the IP addresses that are used?

o physical topology diagram

o DHCP server

o DNS server

o logical topology diagram

Answers Explanation & Hints:

A logical topology usually contains relevant network configuration information, such as the
following:Device names
Device IP addressing
Network designations
Configuration information

6. A consumer places a smartphone close to a pay terminal at a store and the shopping charge is successfully
paid. Which type of wireless technology was used?

o Bluetooth

o NFC

o Wi-Fi

o 3G

Answers Explanation & Hints:

NFC is a wireless technology that allows data to be exchanged between devices that are in very
close proximity to each other.

7. Which two types of interference may affect the data throughput on UTP cables? (Choose two.)

o EMI

o noise

o moisture

o crosstalk

o temperature

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cabling is sensitive to the interference introduced by electromagnetic

interference (EMI) and crosstalk.
8. What are two wiring schemes defined by the TIA/EIA organization for Ethernet installation in homes and
businesses? (Choose two.)

o T568A

o STP

o T568B

o UTP

o RJ-45

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The TIA/EIA organization defines the wiring schemes T568A and T568B for typical Ethernet
installations. Each wiring scheme defines a specific order of wire connections on the end of the
cable.

9. What are two common media used in networks? (Choose two.)

o copper

o water

o nylon

o fiber

o wood

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Common media used in networks include copper, glass or plastic optical fiber, and wireless.

10. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

o A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.

o Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.

o Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.

o Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique
requirements.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Standards-based protocols enable products from different manufacturers to interoperate

successfully. Standards-based protocols enable many manufacturers to implement that protocol. If
different manufacturers implement different requirements within the same protocol, then their
products will not be interoperable.

11. Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

o the types of data that need to be prioritized

o the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

o the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

o the number of intermediate devices that are installed in the network

o the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

 Answers Explanation & Hints:

Criteria for choosing a network medium include the following:The distance the selected medium can
successfully carry a signal in the environment in which the selected medium is to be installed
The amount of data and the speed at which the data must be transmitted
The cost of the medium and its installation

12. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be added during encapsulation?

o physical layer

o data link layer

o network layer

o transport layer

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Logical addresses, also known as IP addresses, are added at the network layer. Physical addresses
are edded at the data link layer. Port addresses are added at the transport layer. No addresses are
added at the physical layer.

13. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

o It assists in protocol design.

o It speeds up packet delivery.

o It prevents designers from creating their own model.

o It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

o It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols. Today, if a device is to
communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model. The benefits of using a layered
model are as follows:assists in protocol design
fosters competition between vendors
prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
provides a common language for describing network functionality
helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each layer

14. Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

o destination IP address

o source IP address

o destination MAC address

o source MAC address

Answers Explanation & Hints:

When a switch receives a frame with a source MAC address that is not in the MAC address table, the
switch will add that MAC address to the table and map that address to a specific port. Switches do
not use IP addressing in the MAC address table.

15. A host needs to reach another host on a remote network, but the ARP cache has no mapping entries. To
what destination address will
 o the host send an ARP request?

o the unicast IP address of the remote host

o the unicast MAC address of the remote host

o the subnet broadcast IP address

o the broadcast MAC address

Answers Explanation & Hints:

ARP requests are sent when a host does not have an IP to MAC mapping for a destination in the ARP
cache. ARP requests are sent to the Ethernet broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. In this example because
the address of the remote host is unknown, an ARP request is sent to the Ethernet broadcast to
resolve the MAC address of the default gateway that is used to reach the remote host.

16. A network administrator installs a network device that focuses on interconnecting independent local
networks. At which layer of devices does this technology reside?

o core

o access

o internet

o distribution

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The distribution layer connects local networks and controls the traffic flowing between them.
Networking devices that make up the distribution layer are designed to interconnect networks, not
individual hosts.

17. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

o The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the
gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.

o The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.

o The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent
directly to the destination host.

o The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

If the destination host is in the same LAN as the source host, there is no need for a default gateway.
A default gateway is needed if a packet needs to be sent outside the LAN.

18. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

o The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

o The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate
with hosts on remote networks.

o The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with
hosts on the local network.

o There is no impact on communications.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

 A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices on another network. The absence
of a default gateway does not affect connectivity between devices on the same local network.

19. Which two statements describe characteristics of network addresses? (Choose two.)

o A statically assigned IP address will be valid on any network to which the device connects.

o The MAC address of a device will change when that device moves from one Ethernet network to
another.

o DHCP is used to dynamically assign both MAC and IP addresses to devices connected to the network.

o A MAC address is also referred to as a physical address because it is permanently embedded on the
NIC.

o A valid public IPv4 or IPv6 address is needed in order for devices to communicate over the internet.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Knowing how network addressing works can speed configuration and troubleshooting tasks. MAC
addresses are assigned by the NIC manufacturer and remain the same as long as the NIC is not
replaced. MAC addresses are used to communicate between devices connected to the same local
Ethernet network. Valid IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are necessary for communications to be routed
over the internet. All IP addresses are valid only on a network that has the same network prefix bits
and the same subnet mask.

20. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

o to uniquely identify a host on a network

o to identify whether the address is public or private

o to determine the subnet to which the host belongs

o to mask the IP address to outsiders

Answers Explanation & Hints:

With the IPv4 address, a subnet mask is also necessary. A subnet mask is a special type of IPv4
address that coupled with the IP address determines the subnet of which the device is a member.

21. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

o The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

o A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

o Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

o The range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255 is reserved to reach multicast groups on a local network.

o Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

o Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Broadcast messages consist of single packets that are sent to all hosts on a network segment. These
types of messages are used to request IPv4 addresses, and map upper layer addresses to lower layer
addresses. A multicast transmission is a single packet sent to a group of hosts and is used by routing
protocols, such as OSPF and RIPv2, to exchange routes. The address range 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255
 is reserved for link-local addresses to reach multicast groups on a local network.

22. Refer to the exhibit. A newly purchased client laptop has just connected to the local area network. The
local area network is using a wireless router that is providing dynamic addressing as shown. Which IP
address does the laptop use as a destination address when requesting a dynamically assigned address?

Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 01

o 192.168.0.1

o 192.168.0.100

o 255.255.255.0

o 255.255.255.255

o 192.168.0.255

Answers Explanation & Hints:

When a new client device is installed on a network that uses dynamic IP addressing, the client will
send out a DHCP request message with the destination IPv4 address of 255.255.255.255.

23. A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is
configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP
addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?

o 254

o 251

o 252

o 253

Answers Explanation & Hints:

If the block of addresses allocated to the pool is 192.168.10.0/24, there are 254 IP addresses to be
assigned to hosts on the network. As there are 3 printers which need to have their addresses
assigned statically, then there are 251 IP addresses left for assignment.

24. A client device on an Ethernet segment needs an IP address in order to communicate on the network. A
DHCP server with IP address 192.168.1.1 has been configured and enabled on the network. How will a
client device obtain a usable IP address for this network?
 o Send a DHCPREQUEST packet to IP address 255.255.255.255.

o Send a DHCPACK packet to the default gateway address.

o Send a DHCPDISCOVER message to physical address FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.

o Use a statically configured IP address from the pool of IP addresses that is offered by the DHCP
server.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Like IP addressing, there is also a special MAC address for broadcast purposes: FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF.
When a DHCP client needs to send a DHCP Discover message in order to seek DHCP servers, the
client will use this MAC address as the destination MAC address in the Ethernet frame. It does this
because it has no knowledge of the IP and MAC addresses of DHCP servers.

25. Match each DHCP message type with its description. (Not all options are used.)

Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 001

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Place the options in the following order:

o a client initiating a message to find a DHCP server – DHCPDISCOVER

o a DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client – DHCPOFFER

o the client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server – DHCPREQUEST

o the DHCP server confirming that the lease has been accepted – DHCPACK

26. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on a host, what is the impact on communications?

o The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

 o The host is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

o The host is unable to communicate with hosts on both the local and remote networks.

o The host cannot get an IP address from the DHCP server.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

In data communication, the default gateway device is involved only when a host needs to
communicate with other hosts on another network. The default gateway address identifies a
network device that a host device uses to communicate with devices on other networks. The default
gateway device is not used when a host communicates with other hosts on the same network.

27. A small accounting office is setting up a wireless network to connect end devices and to provide internet
access. In which two scenarios does a wireless router perform Network Address Translation (NAT)?
(Choose two.)

o when a host is sending packets to a local server in order to update the network media settings and
music playlists

o when a host is sending packets to the ISP in order to request a speed increase for Internet services

o when a host is sending a print job to a network printer on the LAN

o when a host is sending packets to a remote site owned by the manufacturer of the wireless router in
order to request a digital copy of the device manual

o when a host is sending HTTP packets to the wireless router in order to update the network
addressing of the LAN

Answers Explanation & Hints:

A wireless router will perform Network Address Translation (NAT) whenever a private (local) source
IPv4 address is translated to a public (global) address.

28. Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4
network infrastructures?

o encapsulation

o translation

o dual-stack

o tunneling

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The tunneling migration technique encapsulates an IPv6 packet inside an IPv4 packet. Encapsulation
assembles a message and adds information to each layer in order to transmit the data over the
network. Translation is a migration technique that allows IPv6-enabled devices to communicate with
IPv4-enabled devices using a translation technique similar to NAT for IPv4. The dual-stack migration
technique allows IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks to coexist on the same network simultaneously.

29. A student is uploading files from a phone to a server on another network. Which layer of the TCP/IP model
is responsible for providing an addressing scheme to transmit the data between the devices?

o application

o transport

o internet
 o network access

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The internet layer provides addresses for the purpose of connecting end devices on different
networks.

30. Which statement correctly describes data transmission at the transport layer?

o Retransmission of lost packets is provided by both TCP and UDP.

o Segmentation is provided by the window size field when the TCP protocol is used.

o A single datagram can include both a TCP and a UDP header.

o Both UDP and TCP use port numbers.

o Segmentation is provided by sequence numbers when UDP is used.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Segmentation is handled at Layer 4 by TCP sequence numbers. UDP does not have sequence
numbers in the header, but instead, lets the application handle reordering if it is necessary. Only TCP
provides reliable deliver and retransmits data. Each segment has either a TCP header or a UDP
header; it cannot contain both.

31. What are two features of protocols used within the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

o The Internet Layer IP protocol has built in mechanisms for ensuring the reliable transmission and
receipt of data.

o UDP is used when an application must be delivered as quickly as possible and some loss of data can
be tolerated.

o TCP and UDP destination port numbers are dynamically generated by the sending device in order to
track the responses to requests.

o TCP mechanisms retransmit data when an acknowledgment is not received from the destination
system within a set period of time.

o The same Transport Layer source port is used for all of the tabs opened at the same time within a
web browser.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Application programmers make decisions about which protocols to use to transport the data to and
from their applications based on whether the application can tolerate any lost data. Live streaming
and voice transmissions can use UDP because if a few data packets are lost, the quality of the video
and audio is not seriously impacted. TCP is used when all data must be complete and accurate.

32. Match the protocol with the function. (Not all options are used.)
Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 002

33. While a network security product is being deployed, a customizable list of allowable protocols is shown.
Which three protocols should be allowed to provide for the use of email on a network? (Choose three.)

o IMAP4

o TFTP

o Telnet

o HTTP

o SMTP

o DNS

o POP3

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The email protocols used on a network are SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4. SMTP is used to send messages
to a local email server, whereas POP and IMAP are used to receive email.

34. What type of technology converts analog voice signals into digital data?

o SMTP

o VoIP

o SNMP

o POP3

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Voice over IP (VoIP) is a technology that is used with making telephone calls across a network or
internet and it converts analog voice signals into digital data.

35. Refer to the exhibit. Which router port connects to the modem provided by the service provider?
Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 01

o A

o B

o C

o D

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The ports shown in the diagram are used as follows: The LAN ports, A and B, are used to connect
wired devices on the home network. The Internet port, C, is connected to the modem. The port,
labeled D, is the 5V DC power port that supplies power to the router.

36. Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use?

o 900 MHz

o 2.4 GHz

o 5 GHz

o 60 GHz

Answers Explanation & Hints:

900 MHz is an FCC wireless technology that was used before development of the 802.11 standards.
900 MHz devices have a larger coverage range than the higher frequencies have and do not require
line of sight between devices. 802.11b/g/n/ad devices all operate at 2.4 GHz. 802.11a/n/ac/ad
devices operate at 5 GHz, and 802.11ad devices operate at 60 GHz.

37. Which type of device filtering can be enabled on some wireless access points or wireless routers?

o authentication

o IP address

o user ID

o MAC address

Answers Explanation & Hints:

On wireless access points, MAC addresses can be manually entered to filter which devices are
allowed on the wireless network.

38. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU.
The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an
actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the
data center in this situation?
 o BYOD

o virtualization

o maintaining communication integrity

o online collaboration

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Virtualization technology can run several different operating systems in parallel on a single CPU.

39. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed
by an SDN controller?

o control plane

o data plane

o security

o application policies

Answers Explanation & Hints:

In network virtualization, the control plane function of each network device is removed and is
performed by a centralized controller. The controller then can communicate control plane functions
to each of the network devices. This allows the network devices to focus all resources on forwarding
plane functions.

40. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the
network. What action does the user need to take?

o Disable SSID broadcast.

o Enable WPA encryption.

o Configure DMZ settings.

o Configure a DNS server.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Disabling SSID broadcast prevents the access point from announcing the name of the network.
Enabling WPA encryption, configuring DMZ settings, and configuring a DNS server will accomplish
different tasks, but the name of the network will still be announced.

41. Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

o pretexting

o brute force

o phishing

o zombies

o vishing

o malware

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Attacks aimed at exploiting human behavior such as pretexting, phishing, and vishing are commonly
 used by hackers to obtain information directly from authorized users.

42. Match the type of malware with the definition.

Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 003

43. An intruder tries a large number of possibilities in rapid succession to guess a password. As a result, other
users on the network are

o locked out. What type of attack has occurred?

o DDoS

o brute force

o ping of death

o SYN flooding

Answers Explanation & Hints:

In a brute force attack, an unauthorized person will try to gain access to a system by sending as
many passwords as possible as rapidly as possible.

44. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on a small wireless router?

o It identifies the wireless LAN.

o It allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

o It translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

o It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.

o It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

WEP is used to encrypt data between the wireless client and the access point. DNS translates IP
addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. NAT translates an internal address or group of
addresses into an outside, public address. An SSID allows the access point to inform clients of its
presence.
45. What is an inherent security vulnerability of SSID broadcasting?

o It broadcasts the identity of the network.

o It sends traffic unencrypted between the wireless access point and the client.

o It allows any host to join the wireless network.

o It allows unauthenticated access to the wireless network.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

By default, wireless routers and access points broadcast SSIDs in plain text to all computers within
the wireless range.This represents a security risk because an attacker can easily intercept the
wireless signals and read plain text messages.

46. Which solution allows external users to access only an internal FTP server on a private network?

o dynamic NAT

o NAT with overload

o port forwarding

o static NAT

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Port forwarding can be used to permit other users to reach devices on an internal network through
the Internet. The firewall in the router determines if the traffic should be forwarded to an internal
device based on the port number. Port numbers are associated with specific services, such as FTP,
HTTP, HTTPS, and POP3.

47. Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting
boots up? (Choose two.)

o running configuration

o IOS image file

o startup configuration

o POST diagnostics

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The two primary files needed for bootup are the IOS image file and startup configuration, which are
copied into RAM to maximize performance. If a router configuration register is set to 0x2102, the
router will attempt to load the IOS image from flash memory and the startup configuration file from
NVRAM.

48. Using default settings, what is the next step in the switch boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?

o Perform the POST routine.

o Search for a backup IOS in ROM.

o Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

o Load the running-config file from RAM.

o Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

49. Match the router prompt to the configuration task.

Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 004

50. A network administrator issues the Switch(config)# Interface FastEthernet 0/1 command on a Cisco
switch. Which term is used to describe the “0/1” part in the command?

o hot key

o keyword

o argument

o command

Answers Explanation & Hints:

In this command structure, the Interface part is the command, the FastEthernet part is a keyword,
and the 0/1 part is an argument.

51. Which command can an administrator execute to determine what interface a router will use to reach
remote networks?

o show arp

o show interfaces

o show ip route

o show protocols

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The show ip route command is used to display the IP routing table of the router. The IP routing table
will show a list of known local and remote networks and the interfaces that the router will use to
reach those networks.

52. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip
interface brief command? (Choose three.)
Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 01

o Two physical interfaces have been configured.

o The switch can be remotely managed.

o One device is attached to a physical interface.

o Passwords have been configured on the switch.

o Two devices are attached to the switch.

o The default SVI has been configured.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and
managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.

53. Match the commands to the correct actions. (Not all options are used.)
Networking Essentials 2.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 005

54. Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console
interface? (Choose three.)

o interface fastethernet 0/0

o line vty 0 4

o line console 0

o enable secret cisco

o login

o password cisco

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The three commands needed to password protect the console port are as follows:
line console 0
password cisco
login
The interface fastethernet 0/0 command is commonly used to access the configuration mode used
to apply specific parameters such as the IP address to the Fa0/0 port. The line vty 0 4 command is
used to access the configuration mode for Telnet. The 0 and 4 parameters specify ports 0 through 4,
or a maximum of five simultaneous Telnet connections. The enable secret command is used to apply
a password used on the router to access the privileged mode.

55. A network administrator establishes a connection to a switch via SSH. What characteristic uniquely
describes the SSH connection?

o out-of-band access to a switch through the use of a virtual terminal with password authentication
 o remote access to the switch through the use of a telephone dialup connection

o on-site access to a switch through the use of a directly connected PC and a console cable

o remote access to a switch where data is encrypted during the session

o direct access to the switch through the use of a terminal emulation program

Answers Explanation & Hints:

SSH provides a secure remote login through a virtual interface. SSH provides a stronger password
authentication than Telnet. SSH also encrypts the data during the session.

56. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

o virtual terminal

o privileged EXEC

o AUX port

o console line

Answers Explanation & Hints:

The enable secret command secures access to the privileged EXEC mode of a Cisco router or switch.

57. When configuring SSH on a router to implement secure network management, a network engineer has
issued the login local and transport input ssh line vty commands. What three additional configuration
actions have to be performed to complete the SSH configuration? (Choose three.)

o Set the user privilege levels.

o Generate the asymmetric RSA keys.

o Configure the correct IP domain name.

o Configure role-based CLI access.

o Create a valid local username and password database.

o Manually enable SSH after the RSA keys are generated.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

SSH is automatically enabled after the RSA keys are generated. Setting user privilege levels and
configuring role-based CLI access are good security practices but are not a requirement of
implementing SSH.

58. Using a systematic troubleshooting approach, a help desk technician suspects a problem at Layer 3 of the
OSI model. In gathering information, which two questions are associated with Layer 3? (Choose two.)

o Is the PC configured for DHCP?

o Does a browser connection to www.cisco.com work?

o Is the network cable plugged in?

o From the PC, is the default gateway reachable using the ping command?

o Is there a link light on the network card?

Answers Explanation & Hints:

IP address configuration and the ping command are associated with Layer 3 protocols. Visiting a web
 server is associated with the application layer. An Ethernet cable connection and NIC are associated
with Layer 1 functions.

59. During a move, employee workstations were disconnected from the network and reconnected in new
offices. However, after the move a few workstations cannot get a valid IP address. What should be
checked first to identify the root cause of the problem?

o Check the operation status of the DHCP server.

o Test if these workstations can ping the default gateway.

o Make sure the cables are functional and properly plugged.

o Install all software updates.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Because the workstations have just been moved from one location to another, the internal OS and
applications have not changed. The first thing to check should be the Ethernet cable, including the
type of cable used and whether the cables are properly plugged into both the workstation and the
jack on the wall.

60. A customer calls the help line to report a computer problem. The help line technician responds and works
with the customer for some time. However, the technician cannot identify the root cause of the problem.
What should the technician do to help the customer?

o Tell the customer that a replacement computer will be shipped immediately.

o Suggest that the customer visit the support website for more detailed information.

o Tell the customer that a ticket is created and another technician will contact the user soon.

o Ask for the email address of the customer in order to send all the support documents for the
computer.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

When the first line technician cannot identify the cause of the problem, the technician should create
a ticket and initiate the escalation process. Because the cause of the problem is not identified, the
technician should not authorize the replacement process. The customer should not be sent to
explore further troubleshooting.

Networking Essentials (Version 2) – Networking Essentials 2.0 Final Exam Answers 2021
1. What is a disadvantage of deploying a peer-to-peer network model?

o difficulty of setup

o lack of centralized administration

o high degree of complexity

o high cost

Explanation:

The simplest peer-to-peer network consists of two computers that are directly connected to each
other through the use of a wired or wireless connection. The primary disadvantages of a peer-to-
peer network are its lack of central administration, minimal security, and its lack of scalability.

2. What is a purpose of an IP address?

 o It identifies the physical location of a data center.

o It identifies a location in memory from which a program runs.

o It identifies a return address for replying to email messages.

o It identifies the source and destination of data packets.

Explanation:

Packets that are routed across the Internet contain source and destination IP addresses. These
addresses are used to determine how the packets should be routed from source to destination by
intermediate devices.

3. A consumer places a smartphone close to a pay terminal at a store and the shopping charge is successfully
paid. Which type of wireless technology was used?

o Bluetooth

o NFC

o Wi-Fi

o 3G

Explanation:

NFC is a wireless technology that allows data to be exchanged between devices that are in very
close proximity to each other.

4. Which type of network cable is commonly used to connect office computers to the local network?

o coaxial cable

o twisted-pair cable

o glass fiber-optic cable

o plastic fiber-optic cable

Explanation:

Twisted-pair is a type of copper cable used to interconnect devices on a local network.

5. What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling to interconnect devices? (Choose two.)

o Fiber-optic cable is immune from EMI and RFI.

o Fiber-optic cables can extend several miles.

o Fiber-optic cables use extra shielding to protect copper wires.

o Fiber-optic cables are easy to install..

o Fiber-optic cables are commonly found in both homes and small businesses.

Explanation:

Fiber-optic cables provide immunity to both EMI and RFI and a single cable can extend for several
miles before regeneration is needed.

6. The functions of which two layers of the OSI model are matched to the network access layer of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose two.)

o application
 o physical

o transport

o network

o data link

Explanation:

The application layer of the TCP/IP model is composed of the application, presentation, and session
layers of the OSI model and is used by network applications to complete specific tasks. The network
access layer of the TCP/IP model is composed of the physical and data link layers of the OSI model
and describes how a device accesses and sends data over the network media.

7. What is the minimum size of a valid Ethernet frame?

o 48 bytes

o 64 bytes

o 96 bytes

o 128 bytes

Explanation:

Ethernet standards define a frame with a minimum of 64 bytes and a maximum of 1518 bytes
including fields of destination MAC address, source MAC, Length/Type, data payload, and FCS.

8. A network design engineer has been asked to design the IP addressing scheme for a customer network.
The network will use IP addresses from the 192.168.30.0/24 network. The engineer allocates 254 IP
addresses for the hosts on the network but excludes 192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses.
Why must the engineer exclude these two IP addresses?

o 192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses are reserved for the email and DNS servers.

o 192.168.30.0/24 and 192.168.30.255/24 IP addresses are reserved for outside Internet connectivity.

o 192.168.30.0/24 is the network IP address and 192.168.30.255/24 is the IP broadcast address.

o 192.168.30.0/24 is the IP address reserved for the default gateway, and 192.168.30.255/24 is the IP
address reserved for the DHCP server.

Explanation:

The IPv4 addressing system is a hierarchical addressing system. An IPv4 address is made up of two
parts, the network address and the host address. When the host portion is all “0s” in binary, it is
designated as a network address. When the host portion is all “1s” in binary, it is designated as a
broadcast address. These two addresses cannot be assigned to individual hosts.

9. Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses to hosts?

o DNS

o NAT

o DHCP

o HTTP

Explanation:
 DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is used to automatically assign IP addresses to hosts
that are configured as DHCP clients.

10.  What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.)

o conserves registered public IP addresses

o reduces CPU usage on customer routers

o creates multiple public IP addresses

o hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet

o permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses

o improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet

Explanation:

Private IP addresses are designed to be exclusively used for internal networks and they cannot be
used on the Internet. Thus they are not visible directly from the Internet and they can be used freely
by network administrators for internal networks. In order for the internal hosts to access the
Internet, NAT is used to translate between private and public IP addresses. NAT takes an internal
private IP address and translates it to a global public IP address before the packet is forwarded.

11. What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

o to make reading a 32-bit address easier

o to relieve IPv4 address depletion

o to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry

o to allow NAT support for private addressing

Explanation:

IPv4 addressing space is exhausted by the rapid growth of the Internet and the devices connected to
the Internet. IPv6 expands the IP addressing space by increasing the address length from the 32 bits
to 128 bits, which should provide sufficient addresses for future Internet growth needs for many
years to come.

12. Which three pieces of information are identified by a URL? (Choose three.)

o the MAC address of the web server

o the protocol that is being used

o the domain name that is being accessed

o the IP address of the gateway

o the version of the browser

o the location of the resource

Explanation:

URLs are used to access specific content on a web server through a web browser. The URL identifies
the protocol that is being used such as HTTP or FTP, the domain of the server, and the location of
the resource on the server.

13. Which protocol is used by web servers to serve up a web page?

 o FTP

o HTTP

o IMAP

o POP

Explanation:

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a protocol that is used by web servers to serve up a web page.

14. Why do streaming audio and video applications use UDP instead of TCP?

o Streaming audio and video applications require receipt of all packets regardless of delay.

o The three-way handshake used in UDP speeds up the audio and video streams.

o Streaming audio and video applications cannot tolerate the delay caused by retransmission.

o UDP provides guaranteed segment delivery to provide reliable audio and video streams.

Explanation:

UDP is a ‘best effort’ delivery system that does not require acknowledgment of receipt and is the
preferred transport service for streaming audio and video. UDP provides low overhead and does not
implement as much delay as TCP. Streaming audio and video cannot tolerate network traffic
congestion and long delays.

15.  At which layer of the TCP/IP model does TCP operate?

o transport

o application

o internetwork

o network access

Explanation:

TCP is the Transmission Control Protocol and it operates at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model.
TCP ensures that IP packets are delivered reliably.

16. Which protocol is used to transfer web pages from a server to a client device?

o HTML

o SMTP

o HTTP

o SSH

o POP

Explanation:

The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) provides services between a web browser requesting web
pages and a web server responding to the requests. HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is a
markup language to instruct a web browser how to interpret and display a web page.

17. Which type of device filtering can be enabled on some wireless access points or wireless routers?

o authentication
 o IP address

o user ID

o MAC address

Explanation:

On wireless access points, MAC addresses can be manually entered to filter which devices are
allowed on the wireless network.

18. Which technology is used to uniquely identify a WLAN network?

o MAC address table

o SSID

o WEP

o WPA

Explanation:

When a wireless AP or router is being set up, an SSID is configured to uniquely identify the WLAN
that is managed by the device.

19. What type of Internet connection would be best for a residence in a remote area without mobile phone
coverage or wired connectivity?

o dial-up

o cellular

o satellite

o DSL

Explanation:

Satellite Internet service provides the best option for a home user that would otherwise have no
Internet connectivity at all. Cellular Internet is only available in areas with mobile phone coverage.

20. Which advanced wireless security measure allows a network administrator to keep sensitive data secure
as it travels over the air in a wireless network?

o encryption

o authentication

o traffic filtering

o MAC address filtering

Explanation:

Encryption is used to secure plaintext data that would be viewable traveling over a wireless
network.

21. Which three steps must be completed to manually connect an Android or IOS device to a secured wireless
network? (Choose three.)

o Input the authentication password.

o Enter the network SSID.

 o Choose the correct security type.

o Set the IP address.

o Activate the Bluetooth antenna.

o Change the MAC address.

Explanation:

In order to connect an Android or IOS device to a Wi-Fi network manually, perform these steps:

 Enter the network SSID of the wireless network.

 Choose the security type used by the wireless network.

 Input the password to authenticate successfully.

22. Which three attacks exploit human behavior? (Choose three.)

o pretexting

o brute force

o phishing

o zombies

o vishing

o malware

Explanation:

Attacks aimed at exploiting human behavior such as pretexting, phishing, and vishing are commonly
used by hackers to obtain information directly from authorized users.

23. Which address prefix range is reserved for IPv4 multicast?

o 240.0.0.0 – 254.255.255.255

o 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255

o 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255

o 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255

Explanation:

Multicast IPv4 addresses use the reserved class D address range of 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255.

24. An intruder tries a large number of possibilities in rapid succession to guess a password. As a result, other
users on the network are locked out. What type of attack has occurred?

o DDoS

o brute force

o ping of death

o SYN flooding

Explanation:

In a brute force attack, an unauthorized person will try to gain access to a system by sending as
many passwords as possible as rapidly as possible.
25. What type of DoS attack originates from a malicious host that has an invalid source IP address and that
requests a client connection?

o ping of death

o SYN flooding

o phishing

o brute force

Explanation:

SYN flooding is a type of denial of services attack where the attacker sends fake session requests to a
target host in an attempt to prevent the host from responding to legitimate session requests.

26. Which two ports can be used for the initial configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

o AUX

o console

o flash slot

o LAN interface

o WAN interface

Explanation:

The AUX and console ports on a Cisco 1941 router can be used to perform initial setup. The initial
setup does not require that the router be connected to a network. A network administrator uses a
computer to connect to the console ports directly. A network administrator can also access the
router remotely through a dialup phone line and a modem connected to the AUX port. LAN and
WAN interfaces are used to connect to networks. The flash slots expand storage capability through
the use of a compact flash card.

27. When is an IP address required to be configured on a Cisco LAN switch?

o when the switch is connected to another switch

o when the switch must forward LAN traffic

o when the switch needs to be managed through an in-band connection

o when the switch is configured from a computer connected to the console port

Explanation:

A LAN switch uses Layer 2 addresses to determine how to forward packets. An IP address is only
necessary if the switch needs to be remotely managed through an in-band connection on the
network.

28. What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

o encryption

o more connection lines

o connection-oriented services

o username and password authentication

Explanation:
 Both Telnet and SSH are used to remotely connect to a network device for management tasks.
However, Telnet uses plaintext communications, whereas SSH provides security for remote
connections by providing encryption of all transmitted data between devices.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is statically assigning an IP address to a PC. The default gateway
is correct. What would be a valid IP address to assign to the host?

Networking Essentials Final Exam Answers 01

o 128.106.10.100

o 128.107.255.1

o 128.107.255.254

o 128.108.100.10

Explanation:

In data communication, the default gateway device is involved only when a host needs to
communicate with other hosts on another network. The default gateway address identifies a
network device used by hosts to communicate with devices on remote networks. The IP address of
the host and the default gateway address must be in the same network. With the default subnet
mask, valid host IP addresses range from 128.107.0.1 to 128.107.255.254.

30. Which three items should be documented after troubleshooting an internal web server crash? (Choose
three.)

o when the problem occurred

o the dialogue with the user

o the configuration of all networking devices on the LAN at the time of the crash

o the configuration of all hosts on the LAN at the time of the crash

o steps that were performed to identify the cause of the problem

o steps that were performed that failed to identify the cause of the problem
 Explanation:

Proper documentation is a very important step in troubleshooting. The proper documentation can
help troubleshoot the same or similar problems in the future. The documentation should include as
much information as possible about the following:

 the problem encountered

 steps taken to determine the cause of the problem

 steps to correct the problem and ensure that it will not reoccur

31. Which step should be taken next once a problem is resolved during a troubleshooting process?

o Consult an FAQ.

o Escalate the problem.

o Update the documentation.

o Run remote access software.

Explanation:

Proper documentation can help troubleshoot the same or similar problems in the future. Proper
documentation should include the type of error encountered, the steps taken to determine the
cause of the problem, and the steps taken to correct the problem.

32. Which three pieces of information are revealed by the ipconfig command (without the /all switch)?
(Choose three.)

o IP address

o DHCP server

o subnet mask

o default gateway

o DNS server

o MAC address

Explanation:

The ipconfig command is used to display the current TCP/IP network configuration values of the
device. This includes the IP address; the subnet mask and the default gateway addresses. Using the
ipconfig /all switch displays additional information like the physical address of the device and the
DHCP server address among other things.

33. Fill in the blank.

A         zombie          is a computer that is infected with malicious software and instructed to join a botnet.

Explanation:

Zombies are computer systems that are infected with bot software which, once activated, instructs infected
machines to function as a botnet.

34. Match the router prompt to the configuration task.

Networking Essentials Final Exam Answers 02

35.  Match the command to the function.

Networking Essentials Final Exam Answers 03

Refer to the exhibit. An instructor wants to show a few prebuilt Packet Tracer sample labs in class. Which menu
option would the instructor use to access a sample lab?

File

Edit

Options

View

Tools

Extensions

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in the
ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.

It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.

It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.

It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers is responsible for standards in which two areas? (Choose two.)

IP address allocation and management

peer-to-peer application compliance

wireless LANs

the OSI reference model

Ethernet media access control

TCP/IP technologies

Which action is performed by a client when establishing communication with a server via the use of UDP at the
transport layer?

The client sends a synchronization segment to begin the session.

The client sends an ISN to the server to start the 3-way handshake.

The client sets the window size for the session.

The client randomly selects a source port number.

A destination PC receives an email message with the sequence numbers on packets out of order. Which layer of
the TCP/IP model is responsible for reassembling the packets of the message in the correct order?

network access

internet

transport
 application

A client device has initiated a secure HTTP request to a web browser. Which well-known port address number is
associated with the destination address?

110

80

404

443

What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?

FC00::/7

FF01::/8

FE80::/10

2001::/3

Which protocol retains a message in a mailbox on a server, even after the message is accessed by a user on a local
client device?

IMAP4

SMTP

DNS

POP3

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol allows a user to type www.cisco.com instead of an IP address to access the
web server?

FTP

DNS

SNMP

HTML

HTTP

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What message is displayed on the webpage?

A web server should run secure services!

A secure web server is the way to go!

A web server provides secure communication!

A secure web server is running!

Which wireless access point association parameter is used by the wireless client to distinguish between multiple
wireless networks in the same vicinity?

SSID

network mode

channel setting

password

What is a feature that can be used by an administrator to prevent unauthorized users from connecting to a
wireless access point?

MAC filtering

software firewall

proxy server

WPA encryption

Why should WEP not be used in wireless networks today?

its lack of encryption

easily crackable

its lack of support

its age

its use of clear text passwords

What two IEEE 802.11 wireless standards operate only in the 5 GHz range? (Choose two.)

802.11a

802.11b

802.11ad

802.11g

802.11n

802.11ac

Which two business and technical challenges does implementing virtualization within a data center help
businesses to overcome? (Choose two.)

power and air conditioning

physical footprint

virus and spyware attacks

operating system license requirements

 server hardware needs

Refer to the exhibit. A web designer calls to report that the web server web-s1.cisco.com is not reachable through
a web browser. The technician uses command line utilities to verify the problem and to begin the troubleshooting
process. Which two things can be determined about the problem? (Choose two.)

DNS cannot resolve the IP address for the server web-s1.cisco.com.

There is a problem with the web server software on web-s1.cisco.com.

The web server at 192.168.0.10 is reachable from the source host.

A router is down between the source host and the server web-s1.cisco.com.

The default gateway between the source host and the server at 192.168.0.10 is down.

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to the VLAN1 interface on a Cisco Layer 2 switch?

to enable the switch to route packets between networks

to permit IP packets to be forwarded by the switch

to create a new IP local network on the switch

to enable remote access to the switch to manage it

Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command in plain text, issue the no service
password-encryption command.

It is configured in privileged EXEC mode.

As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in
plain text are encrypted.

It encrypts only line mode passwords.

A user can print to a printer that is on the same network, but the traffic of the user cannot reach the Internet.
What is a possible cause of the problem?

The PC has an incorrect IP address.

The network cable connected to the user PC is faulty.

The PC default gateway address is missing or incorrect.

The NIC on the PC is faulty.

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three
additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.

Generate the SSH keys.

Configure the IP domain name on the router.

Configure DNS on the router.

 Generate two-way pre-shared keys.

Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.

Following default settings, what two tasks are performed first in the router boot sequence? (Choose two.)

Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

Perform the POST routine.

Locate and load the operating system.

Load the running-config file from RAM.

Load the bootstrap program from ROM.

What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

a direct connection to the console or AUX port

a connection to an operational network interface on the device

a terminal emulation client

Telnet or SSH access to the device

HTTP access to the device

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?

straight-through

crossover

coaxial

rollover

How does an activity LED on wireless routers indicate that traffic is moving through a port?

by staying turned off

by staying a solid green color

by flashing

by staying a solid amber color

A user experiences access and performance issues with the Internet connection from a home computer. The
Internet connection is provided through a DSL line. The user calls the support line of the phone company for help.
The support technician asks the user to connect the computer directly to the DSL modem. Which two pieces of
information will help the technician to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the computer

the MAC address of the Ethernet NIC on the computer

when the problem started

the number of times that the ping command was issued

the model and vendor of the computer

For the second time in a week, workstations on a LAN are not able to log into a specific server. The technician
fixed the problem the first time, but cannot remember the steps taken to solve it. What aspect of the
troubleshooting process has the technician neglected?

identifying the problem

using structured techniques to solve a problem

documenting the troubleshooting process

asking questions of end users

A network administrator issues the Switch# show running-config command on a Cisco switch. Which term is used
to describe the part " running-config" in the command?

hot key

keyword

command

argument

A network administrator is working on a Cisco router. The CLI prompt is Router1(config-if)#. Which operation is
the administrator likely to configure next?

the vty lines

the console port

the password that is required to access the privileged EXEC mode

a LAN interface

A network administrator is troubleshooting inter-connection issues between routers. Which show command
can be used to check the bandwidth and MTU settings of an interface?

show interfaces

show arp

show protocols

show ip route

To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing which key or key
combination?

Up Arrow

Ctrl-P

Down Arrow

Tab

Right Arrow

Ctrl-N

A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a
router. What does this command accomplish?
• This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to
do router maintenance.

• This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

• This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

• This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.

• This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.