NAVODAYA VIDYALAYA SAMITI

TERM TEST-1
SUB: BIOLOGY
TIME: 3.00 HOURS CLASS-XII MAXIMUM MARKS: - 70
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General Instructions:
(i) There are a total of 51 questions and five section in the question paper. All questions are
compulsory.
(ii) Section A contains questions number 1 to 35, objective type questions of 1mark each.
(iii) Section B contains questions number 36 to 41, very short-answer type questions of 1mark
each.
(iv) Section C contains questions number 42 to 46, short-answer type-I questions of 2 marks
each.
(v) Section D contains questions number 47to 49, short-answer type-II questions of 3 marks
each.
(vi) Section E contains questions number 50 to 51, long-answer type questions of 5 marks each.
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper; however, an internal choice is provided in
two question of 2 marks, two question of 3 marks and all the two questions of 5 marks. In
these questions, an examinee is to attempt any one of the two given alternatives.

SECTION-A

1. Pollen grains represent:

(a) Male gametophyte (b) Stamen (c) Staminode (d) male sporophyte

2. Most resistant organic material present in pollen grains is:

(a) Cellulose (b) suberin (c) Lignin (d) sporopollenin

3. The process of development of fruit without fertilization is called:

(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Parthenocarpy (c) Amphimixsis (d) embryogenesis

4. A typical angiosperm embryo sac have:

(a) 8-celled 8 nucleated (b) 7-celled 7 nucleated (c) 8-celled 7 nucleated (d) 7-celled 8 nucleated

5. Scutellum is the part of:

(a) Dicot embryo (b) monocot embryo (c) Anther (d) Pistil

6. Which of the following cell provide nutrition to germ cell:

(a) Oogonium (b) Spermatogonium (c) Sertoli cell (d) Leyding cell
7. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by Placenta:

(a) Relaxin (b) hPL (c) hCG (d) Progestogene

8. Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of Carpus luteum is:

(a) GH (b) GnRh (c) FSH (d) LH

9. Polar bodies are formed during:

(a)Spermatogenesis ( b) Oogenesis ( c) Embryogenesis ( d) All

10. Morula is a developmental stage

(a) between the zygote and blastocyst (b) between the blastocyst and gastrula (c) after the
implantation (d) between implantation and parturition.

11. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not
specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis (b) AIDS (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts

12. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

(a) Jaundice (b) Down’s syndrome (c) Cystic fibrosis (d) Colour blindness

13. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets codes
for valine ?
(a) GGG (b) A AG (c) G A A (d) GUG

14. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called
(a) multiple allelism (b) mosaicism (c) pleiotropy (d) polygeny.

15. A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility of their having a girl next time?
(a) 10 % (b) 50 % (c) 90 % (d) 100 %

16. In Antirrhinum (dog flower), phenotypic ratio in F2 generation for the inheritance of flower colour
would be
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

17. Which three scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s work ?

(a) Avery, McLeod, McCarty (b) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges (c) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges
(d) de Vries, Correns and Tschemark
18. This abnormality occurs due to monosomy (2n – 1); the individual has 2n = 45 chromosomes with
44 + XO genotype.

(a) Edward’s syndrome (b) Down’s syndrome (c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Klinefelter’s syndrome

19. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively
(a) chromosome 21 and Y (b) chromosome 1 and X (c) chromosome 1 and Y (d) chromosome X and Y.

20. The process of transofrmation is not affected by which of the following enzymes?
A. DNase B. RNase C. Peptidase D. Lipase
(a) A, B (b) A, B, C, D (c) B, C, D (d) A, B, C

21. Select the incorreclty matched pair.

(a) Initation codons – AUG, GUG (b) Stop codons – UAA, UAG, UGA (c) Methionine – AUG
(d) Anticodons – mRNA

22. Cancer caused by

(a) Viruses (b) chemicals (c) radiations (d) all

23. Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called

(a) Interferons (b) virions (c) pheromones (d) Interleukins

24. Malignant malaria caused by plasmodium

(a) malarae (b) ovale (c) vivex (d) falciparum

25. Widal test used in

(a) Cholera (b) typhoid (c) pneumonia (d) TB

Fill in the blanks:

26. The process of removal of anther is called……………………

27. The number of meiotic divisions needed for the formation of 100 zygote in Humans…………….

28. In malaria infection, ruptured RBC releases a toxin substance called……………

29. A man have symptoms like fluid in alveoli, fever, chills and cough infected from ……………….

30. The process of removal of introns from newly hn RNA is called………………………….

True/false questions:

31. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is ELISA. (True/False)

32. The coconut water is cellular endosperm and surround white kernel is free nuclear endosperm.
(True/False)

33. Morphine is extracted from erythroxylum plant. (True/False)

34. Meselson and Stahal prove that DNA replication is conservative. (True/False)

35. The replication of DNA takes place at S-phase of cell cycle. (True/False)

SECTION-B

36. What is perisperm?

37. How did whiptail lizard usually produce female for several generations?

38. A DNA sample contain 35% Adenine. What would be the amount of cytosine in the sample?

39. What will be the phenotype of blood group having allele’s iAi and ii?

40. Who proposed the chromosomal theory of inheritance?

41. Mention the dual functions of AUG?

SECTION-C

42. If the chromosome number of an angiosperm plan species is 20. What would be the chromosomes
number in (i) Endosperm (ii) Zygote (iii) egg cell (iv) Antipodal cell?

43. How many number of sperm and egg produced from 10 primary spermatocytes and 10 secondary
oocytes cells.

OR

Who proposed the central dogma: Identify the process A, B and C

A B C

RNA DNA RNA Protein

44. What will be the genotypic and phenotypic ratio of cross, F1 progeny × recessive parents? Name the
cross and explain?

45. Draw a well labelled diagram of an antibody molecule. No description required?

46. A normal visioned women whose father is colour blind, marries a normal visioned man. What would
be probability of her sons and daughters to be colour blind? Explain with the help of pedigree chart.

OR

Complete the blanks a, b, c and d on the basis of Frederick Griffith Experiment.

S Strain →→ inject into mice →→ (a)
R strain →→ inject into mice →→ (b)
S strain (heat killed) →→ inject into mice →→ (c)
S strain (heat killed) + R strain (live) →→ inject into mice →→ (d)

SECTION-D

47. Study the above figure and answer the questions.

(a)Name the stage of human embryo the figure represent.

(b) Identify A and B and mention its function in the given figure.

OR

Give the sources and mode of action of Morphine, cocaine and heroin?

48. The base sequence on one strand of DNA is ATG TCT ATA GAT
(i) Give the base sequence of its complementary strand.
(ii) If an RNA strand is transcribed from this strand what would be the base sequence of RNA?
(iii) What holds these base pairs together?
49. Differentiate between dominance, co-dominance & Incomplete dominance with one example each.

OR

In the given flow diagram, the replication of retrovirus in a host cell is shown. Examine it and answer
the following questions:
(a) Why is virus called retrovirus?
(b) Fill in (1) and (2)
(c) Can infected cell survive while viruses are being replicated and released by host cell?
 SECTION-E

50. Study the above figure and answer the questions.

(a) Label the part A, B and C.

(b) Write the function of C and B.

(c) Where does meiosis take place and write the name of process?

OR

Answer the following:

(a) Expand the term: IUI, ICSI, GIFT, IUT, ART, PID, MTP and IVF
(b) Write any two natural contraceptive methods.
51. Complete the following steps:

Isolation of DNA

Digestion of DNA by………A….

Separations of DNA fragments by…………B..

Transfer of separated DNA fragments on……C….

Hybridisation of DNA using………D…..

Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by…………E..

OR

Draw a schematic diagram of lac operon in its “Switch off” Position and explain. Label (i) The
structural genes (ii) Repressor bound to its correct position (iii) Promoter gene (iv) Regulator gene.